© 2019 MyJob Test Services. · 2020. 7. 9. · SHL / VODACOM Mock Verbal Tests Set 1 Set 2 Set 3 Set 4 Mock Test Answers SHL Full-length Test 1 Test 1: Numerical Reasoning - Test

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© 2019 MyJob Test Services. Myjobtests.com

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SHL / Vodacom Aptitude Test PrepPack®: 2019 Update

© 2019 MyJob Test Services. All rights reserved.

Published in 2019 by Teststreams Nigeria.

BN: 1-0041-6232-6

If this book does not have the hologram with the Teststreams logo on the back cover,

it was distributed without permission of Teststreams Nigeria, and is in direct violation

of global copyright laws. Your assistance in pursuing potential violators of this law is

greatly appreciated.

Required disclaimer: “SHL / Vodacom® does not endorse, promote, or warrant the

accuracy or quality of the products or services offered by Teststreams.

The information contained in this material is believed to be accurate. However, their

accuracy cannot be guaranteed nor is any warranty conveyed as to your ultimate

exam success.

Vodacom recruitment tests may vary from country to country. However,

internationally, they use SHL tests. Which is provided in this study pack

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Table of Content

Content Page

How to use this ebook

SHL Numerical Reasoning Aptitude Tests Guide

SHL Verbal Reasoning Aptitude Tests Guide

SHL / VODACOM

Numerical Reasoning Practice

Set 1

Set 2

SHL / VODACOM Mock Numerical Tests

Set 1

Set 2

Set 3

SHL / VODACOM Mock Verbal Tests

Set 1

Set 2

Set 3

Set 4

Mock Test Answers

SHL Full-length Test 1

Test 1: Numerical Reasoning - Test 2: Verbal Reasoning

SHL Full-length Test 2

Test 1: Numerical Reasoning - Test 2: Verbal Reasoning

SHL Abstract Reasoning Test 2

Practice Test 1 - Practice Test 2:

………………………………………………………. 5

…………………………..…………… 6

………………………………………………… 24

……………………………………………..…… 31

…………………………………………. 103

………………………………….… 150

…………………………………………………………………………………………… 207

…………………………………………………………………………… 257

…………………………………………………………………………………………… 231

…………………………………………………………………………… 259

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How to use this e-book

It is best to practice on materials that are as much like the questions in the real test as

possible. Questions in this book are based on actual test scenario used in past tests, and are

the closest you can get to those in the real test. Most questions in this book will reveal what

you should expect, so you can plan your strategy and get set for your best performance in

your test.

You must seek to achieve the best possible score in a real test. Other candidates will be

trying to do this so you must too, otherwise you risk coming a very poor second. The secret

is effective practice. Everyone will improve their test score with practice and for many

candidates practice will mean the difference between pass and fail.

This book is divided into two sections; SHL test guide and Practice session

1 SHL test guide: This section aims to give the candidate an indepth review of Numerical/

Verbal sections. These reviews are essential to your success in the test.

2 Practice Session: Practise the questions in a relaxed situation without time constraint. The

aim is to become really familiar with the types of question and to realize what skills are being

examined. Take one question at a time, looking at the answer and any explanation. If you get

any wrong, try to understand why. Use this time to recognize which part of the test

represents the greatest challenge for you and use this information to plan the amount of

practice you need to undertake for each part of the test. Spend most time on your personal

areas of weakness.

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PART 1:

SHL Numerical Reasoning Aptitude Tests

Guide

What is a Numerical Reasoning Test?

A numerical reasoning test is one of the core sections of any aptitude test. You’ll need to

understand numerical information, then apply the appropriate operations to find the correct

answer.

SHL Numerical reasoning tests are multiple choice, and you’ll typically be given between 4

and 5 options to choose from.

The maths required is generally O’ level. Despite this, you’ll need to be well prepared. In most

SHL Numerical tests, you’ll typically have between 45 seconds and 1 minutes on average to

answer each question.

In numerical reasoning tests, you will typically deal with graphs, tables, number sequences

and text. These will contain the raw data needed to answer a written question, but you will

often have to perform several operations on that data to arrive at the answer. The key is

being prepared enough to quickly identify what operations are needed, and then to perform

them accurately.

It’s important that you remember not to make assumptions. Everything you need to answer

the question is on the page, and on the page alone. Similarly, there should be no prior

knowledge required beyond basic mathematical skills. No niche formulas to memorise or

anything like that.

Depending on the company, SHL numerical reasoning tests could be taken at home (online)

or at an assessment centre. Sometimes both: many organisations use an anti-cheating

method that requires candidates to take another test at the assessment centre in person. If

the home score and the in-person score are wildly different, then alarm bells start to ring.

Basically, don’t pay someone to take your online test for you.

Why Do Employers Use These Tests?

Psychometric assessment tests have a long history of research behind them. A strong

correlation between performance on these tests and performance in the workplace has led

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to companies all over the world investing heavily in them and employing them as a crucial

aspect of their recruitment process.

The numerical reasoning part of these psychometric tests focuses on your ability to work

with numbers.

Many employers need to know that you have a solid foundation of basic mathematical skills.

These skills (calculating percentages, ratios, fractions, profit, revenue and so on) are crucial

in almost any area of business.

Company recruiters know that their new hires won’t necessarily have a great deal of industry

or job-specific knowledge. That’s what comes with experience. The key for them is to choose

applicants who have the foundations that allow them to adapt to the environment and pick

up the skills and knowledge they need.

That’s the reason why these numerical reasoning tests typically don’t require mathematical

skills beyond addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, ratios and percentages.

Companies are primarily interested in your grasp of the basics. They’re asking: ‘Is this person

confident working with numbers in general?’.

It’s also the reason why they often have a strict time limit. This sort of arithmetic should be

the kind you can do quickly and accurately, whenever it is needed.

To summarise, employers use Numerical tests primarily because of:

• Their proven track record at indicating workplace performance;

• Their use of mathematical skills that are relevant to the job you’re applying for;

• The fact that these tests are quite fair in general.

They’re based on nothing but your raw ability and practice.

For these reasons and more, many employers even say that they value these aptitude tests

more than university degrees.

What Makes SHL Numerical Reasoning Tests Uniquely

Challenging?

SHL (GSE) Numerical reasoning tests are often the most difficult aptitude test type for many

candidates. This is for a few key reasons, which we’ll outline here.

1) Time Limit

Given enough time, almost every candidate will pass SHL’s numerical test. But the sad truth

is, time will never be enough. As mentioned previously, you generally have between 45

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seconds and 1 minutes per question on average. At the lower end of that scale, that’s really

tough. In fact, making it to the end is a feat in itself.

Having the ability and confidence to be able to interpret the data, decide what needs to be

done, and then perform those operations quickly is challenging, so practice is essential.

2) Multiple Operations

Many questions won’t have a straightforward answer. You won’t, for example, only have to

multiply two numbers to reach the solution.

This is an often-overlooked skill that only comes from practice. You might be a whizz at the

actual addition, multiplication, percentages and so on, but you’ll still be left behind if you

can’t quickly and accurately identify exactly which operations you need to do, and in what

order.

Make sure you practice how to work with the question in relation to the data you’re given.

You need to be able to quickly see how you can answer the question from what’s in front of

you.

3) Maths

Sometimes the mathematical skills themselves can be difficult –especially if maths isn’t your

strongest area. When you factor in the previous two difficulties – the time limit and

understanding how to answer the question – the pressure of the situation can very easily

make it difficult to perform.

What Maths Knowledge Do I Need to Pass?

The good news is that you won’t need any particularly advanced mathematical skills.

Certainly, things like algebra or trigonometry are out. So you need to focus on honing the

basics.

In particular, make sure you’re comfortable with:

• Addition

• Subtraction

• Division

• Multiplication

• Working with percentages

• Working with ratios

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• Working with fractions

• Converting currency

• Reading graphs and tables

• Inflation and rebasing

And remember: you will be under pressure, both from a strict time limit and from the

importance of the test. Though these skills are simple, they need to be second-nature.

Practice them until they are.

You will usually NOT be allowed to use a calculator. At home, you are free, but at assessment

centres they are usually not allowed. Nevertheless, always bring your own with you just in

case.

In addition to these basic skills, you will also need a good grasp of how to string them

together to arrive at an answer. You may need to interpret a graph and then perform a

number of different operations on different numbers along it, to reach the solution.

Practising for Your Numerical Test

The very first step is to get a comprehensive SHL test prep pack. With this material, you will

be able to read up everything you can about SHL numerical tests in general and see if you

can find out exactly what kind of to expect on the test day.

Also check out forums like nairaland et al, or ask friends who’ve taken the test for any tips.

This will help you to focus your practice and make it much more efficient, as well as getting

used to the format you’ll be faced with. Other test-takers will often have some great advice

based on first-hand experience.

Once you think you have a good grasp on what you’re up against, the next step is to simply

practice, practice and practice. Run through sample questions and full mock tests as much

as you can. You want the process of answering the questions to feel like second nature.

For at least some of that practice, you should also try it under test conditions. In particular,

you need to get used to timing yourself and sticking to strict time limits. Get access to your

online practice at practice.Teststreams.com where a simulated timing has already been set

for you. While studying on this material however, you can do this by using a stopwatch. Every

time it reaches a minute (or whatever the average time is), reset it and move on. Come back

to the ones you didn’t finish if you have time at the end.

This will help you to not be flustered by the pressure of the test itself. Once you’re totally

used to the format and the questions, the actual test is just a matter of staying calm and

getting it done.

Just Before the Test

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First, make sure that you’ve had plenty of sleep, plenty of water, and something to eat.

Remember to bring with you or put out beside you:

• A stopwatch

• Some scrap paper and a pencil

• Some water

If you’re doing it online at home, then find a quiet, private room you can sit in. Make sure you

won’t be disturbed, and check that your internet is stable.

Take a deep breath, stay calm, and start your test.

Effective Strategies When Taking the Test

If you’ve practiced and prepared well, then hopefully taking the real test should feel familiar.

Just with a little more pressure.

Do things exactly as you’ve prepared. Calculate the average time you have per question and

use your stopwatch to stay on time.

Here are a few things to remember as you take your test:

Use Practice Questions to Your Full Advantage

This material as well as the online prep pack provides you example past questions so that

you’re aware of the format and can orientate yourself.

This is not just time to relax! These questions are the perfect opportunity to get to grips with

the test.

Here, you’ll have the time to look carefully at the format. How do they pose questions? What

is the data like? What kind of calculations need to be done?

Jot down anything you think might help you going forward.

This will also be the last chance you have to ask any questions you might have before the

test begins.

Read the Questions Carefully

Don’t let the time limit stop you from reading thoroughly. It’s particularly important because

mistakes are often the cause of forgetting to do a particular step of calculations, or not

comprehending the question correctly. Don’t let yourself get caught out.

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The best advice is to read every question twice and then make sure you read the information

carefully as well.

Don’t Make Assumptions

Remember that everything you need to answer the question is on the page and nowhere

else. If you happen to remember a figure or a fact from your research elsewhere that seems

like it could be relevant, ignore it.

Also use this knowledge to encourage you. If an answer seems impossible to find, you know

for sure that it is possible based only on what’s on the page.

Similarly, if you’re really stuck, then look at some of the multiple choice answers you’re given

and work backwards. How would you arrive at that answer? Does that seem correct, then?

Focus

A key skill that the numerical assessment aims to test is your ability to scan data and hone in

on what’s important.

That’s why it’s crucial that you read the question carefully so that you know what you need to

find out. Then read the context carefully. What data does the table contain? What does the

graph show?

Then you need to figure out what data you can ignore and concern yourself only with the

information that will help you to answer the question.

Make Notes

Have your scrap paper beside you and make use of it. It can quickly become overwhelming

having to juggle a lot of data and information in your head. Save yourself the trouble and

write down the facts you think are important as you work through the question.

Always Check Units, Currencies and Bases

A very common slip-up in numerical tests is to get units of measurements, currencies, etc

confused.

Sometimes you will need to convert between currencies, and so you might have a US Dollar

price listed as well as a Naira figure, for instance. Using these two figures as if they were the

same currency will send you straight to the wrong answer.

Don’t just look at the numbers. Check the context and what kind of number

it is.

The same goes for graphs, tables and charts. Always check the axes, what they represent,

and if there are any abbreviations (such as writing ‘10’ on the graph, when the axis explains it

refers to ’10 million’). It seems obvious, but in the heat of the moment these things can be

easily forgotten.

Ignore Other Test-Takers

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If you’re taking a test in person at an assessment centre, it’s likely that you won’t be alone in

the room.

Don’t let it get to you. Other candidates might be sighing, or fidgeting, or rustling paper, or

looking around. It doesn’t matter – you’re there for your test and your test only.

There’s no time to be distracted, so keep your head down and focus on your own numerical

test.

Popular Questions Answered:

In our years of preparing candidates for the SHL numerical test, here’s what we’ve often been

asked.

Can I Use a Calculator?

In almost all cases, NO.

The majority of Numerical tests conducted in person at an assessment centre by SHL must

be done without calculators. Then, how do we answer those tough questions? you may want

to ask. The secret is practice, practice, practice. Without sounding like a broken record,

practicing without the use of calculator under strict timing will help you develop your own

strategy for answering questions without calculator. Meanwhile, if you visit

www.Teststreams.com, we also provide a study note on mathematics shortcut while you may

find helpful.

Can I Use My Mobile Phone During the Test?

Again, you won’t be allowed to go into the test room with your calculator, but it wouldn’t help

anyway. The tests are designed so that all you need is your own numerical ability. There’s no

time to find answers on Google or forums.

I’m Thinking of Getting Someone Else to Take the Test for Me. Is That a Good Idea?

No.

Getting someone else to take the test for you might help you make it past the unsupervised

online tests and through to the next stage of the process (assuming, of course, that the

individual is actually better at the test than you).

But employers aren’t stupid, and they won’t be fooled in the long run. It’s very common that

at the assessment centre stage you’ll be asked to take another set of aptitude tests,

supervised and in person.

The result of this test will be compared against your original online test and analysed. If you

have cheated, you will most likely be found out at this stage.

And that’s just one of many anti-cheating methods employers have. Many of them aren’t

publicised, because if they were then cheaters could look for ways around them.

http://www.myjobtests.com/

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It would be devastating to make it so close to getting the job, only to get found out and have

your application (or even job offer) immediately rescinded, as well as possibly getting

blacklisted from applying in the future.

Don’t take the risk. Putting in the practice is a much more effective and rewarding strategy.

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How to Solve Percentage Questions

What is a Percentage?

A percentage is a way of calculating how much there is of something in relation to the whole.

Percentages are used very widely in both mathematics and everyday situations, and they are

really useful for understanding relative amounts and making them meaningful.

Here are some common ways that percentages are used in day-to-day life:

• Calculating how well a student has performed on a test

• Working out how much discount you need to pay on a purchase

• Calculating how much to leave as a tip in a restaurant

Percentages are usually represented by the % symbol, and there are a few basic rules you

need to understand to be able to manipulate percentages:

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Percentages are widely used in numerical reasoning tests, so it is important that you are able

to understand and interpret them effectively.

Converting Decimals and Fractions to Percentage Values

When taking a numerical reasoning test, you may be required to move fluidly between

questions using percentages, fractions and decimals. It is very straightforward to convert

numbers between these different representations, and these are key techniques to learn.

To translate fractions into percentages, you should divide the bottom number in the fraction

by the top number. This will give a decimal figure. Then multiply that decimal figure by 100, to

create the percentage. Here’s an example:

To translate decimals into percentages is even easier. Simply multiply the decimal figure by

100 to calculate the percentage:

Finally, to convert percentages into decimals is also very straightforward. You need to divide

the percentage by 100 to calculate the decimal:

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How to Work Out the Percentage of a Known Value

This is a particularly useful technique, as it allows you to work out how much of a whole value

a particular percentage would be. This is the formula you would need to use:

This is something that people use all the time. For example, if you went out for dinner, spent

£56 and wanted to leave a 10% tip, this is how you would work it out:

(£56/100) x 10 = £5.60

There are ten practice questions below. Should you need further practice afterwards, we

recommend the practice packages available on practice.Teststreams.com. These tests

include percentages questions, with full explanations for all answers.

Question 1: Calculating the Percentage of a Known Value

Calculating the percentage of a known value is quite straightforward. In a numerical

reasoning test, these questions tend to require you to identify/manipulate the relevant

information in order to use the formula. Graphs or tables will often be used to present the

information, such as the one below.

Table 1: Passenger Numbers Using Rail Services at Different Times of Day

Question 1a. What percentage of passengers travelling between London and Brighton

travelled before 12:01?

To solve this question, you need to:

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• First add together all of the passengers that travelled between London and Brighton

(850 + 800 + 750 + 600 = 3000)

• Then add together all of the passengers that travelled between London and Brighton

before 12:01 (850 + 800 + 750 = 2400)

• Then use the formula: (2400/3000) x 100 = 80%

Question 1b. What percentage of the total passengers travelled from London to Edinburgh?


• First add together all of the passengers in the table: (850 + 800 + 750 + 600 + 1100 +

2350 + 1870 + 1500 + 620 + 1400 + 980 + 790 = 13610)

• Then add together all of the passengers that travelled between London and

Edinburgh (620 + 1400 + 980 + 790 = 3790)

• Then use the formula: (3790/13610) x 100 = 27.8%

Question 1c. What percentage passengers travelling between 10:31 and 12:00 were going to

Birmingham?


• First add together all of the passengers travelling between 10:31 and 12:00: (750 +

1870 + 980 = 3600)

• Then work out how many passengers travelled to Birmingham between 10:31 and

12:00 by looking this up in the table. The answer is 1870.

• Then use the formula: (1870/3600) x 100 = 52%

Calculating What Percentage One Number is of Another

Number

This allows you to work out what percentage of the total a particular value contributes. It is

easiest to explain how to do this with an example. Imagine you had 3 green apples (this is

value A) and 5 red apples (this is value B). Together they give 8 apples, which is 100% of the

apples you have.

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To work out what percentage of the apples are green you need to use the following formula:

The two percentages should then add up to 100%, so you can check your answers by

adding them together and making sure they equal 100%.

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Question 2: On Calculating what percentage one number is of another.

In class 11b there are 12 girls and 18 boys. What percentage of the class are girls?

To work this out you need to use the following steps:

• Work out how many children there are in the class in total: 12 + 18 = 30

• Use the formula: (12/30) x 100 = 40%

So the answer is 40%.

How to Work Out a Percentage Increase

Percentage increases are useful for understanding, for example, what an energy price hike

means for you in financial terms, or to understand what a percentage rise in inflation equates

to.

The formula you need to use to calculate this is:

So, if a family originally paid £1000 per year for their energy, and their bill was increasing by

£200, this is a 20% increase. The formula to calculate this is: (£200/£1000) x 100 = 20%

Using percentages like this is also useful for comparing changes to different numbers, where

it can be difficult to see at a glance what the impact has been.

Question 3: On Percentage Increases.

Car Insurance Costs

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Question 3a: By what percentage did Tom’s car insurance increase between 2014 and 2016?


• First, work out how much Tom’s car insurance increased between 2014 and 2016:

£980 - £840 = £140

• Then use this formula: £140/£840 x 100 = 16.7%

So Tom’s car insurance increased by 16.7%.

Question 3b: Whose car insurance increased by the greatest percentage between 2015 and

2016?


First, work out how much each driver’s insurance increased between 2015 and 2016:

Tom: £980 - £920 = £60

Mohammed: £820 - £780 = £40

Mia: £740 - £700 = £40

Then use the formula to work out the percentage increase of each:

Tom: £60/£920 x 100 = 6.5%

Mohammed: £40/£780 x 100 = 5.1%

Mia: £40/£700 x 100 = 5.7%

Tom’s car insurance therefore increased by the greatest percentage between 2015 and

2016.

Question 3c. What is the lowest percentage increase in insurance incurred by any of the

drivers between 2014 and 2015?


First, work out how much each driver’s insurance increased between 2014 and 2015:

Tom: £920 - £840 = £80

Mohammed: £780 - £720 = £60

Mia: £700 - £660 = £40

Then use the formula to work out the percentage increase of each:

Tom: £40/£840 x 100 = 9.5%

Mohammed: £60/£720 x 100 = 8.3%

Mia: £40/£660 x 100 = 6.1%

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Real-Life Example

Of Discount!

So the lowest percentage increase incurred by any of the drivers between 2014 and 2015

was Mia.

How to work out a percentage decrease or discount

Most people are familiar with percentage decreases or discounts, as these are used in shop

sales. For example, if you want to buy an item on Jumia and you see that the shop is offering

a 50% discount, then you know that you can achieve a substantial saving over the full price

of the item. It’s exactly why people love “Black-Fridays”.

There are two ways of calculating a percentage discount. Firstly, you can calculate the

discount and then subtract this from the starting price.

For example, let’s look at a bag listed on Jumia, where original price was 10000. The new

price after discount 20% is applied, will be 8000.

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Another Example:

Adebayo and Funmi both want to buy a new pair of trainers. They negotiate hard and both

manage to secure a discount. Adebayo eventually manages to secure a 12% discount on her

trainers, which originally cost £280, and Funmi secures a 14% discount on his trainers with an

original price of £300.

Question 4a. Who paid least for their new trainers?

To answer this question, you need to work out how much each pair of trainers cost. Using the

steps above:

• Adebayo: 100% - 12% = 88%, 88% = 0.88, £280 x 0.88 = £246.40

• Funmi: 100% - 14% = 86%, 86% = 0.86, £300 x 0.86 = £258

Therefore, Adebayo paid least for her new trainers.

Question 4b. How much was the discount that Funmi managed to secure?

To answer this question, you need to work through the following steps:

• Convert the % to a decimal: 14% = 0.14

• Multiply the starting price by 0.14: £300 x 0.14 = £42

So Funmi managed to secure a discount of £42.

How To Calculate It:

1. Convert the 20% discount to decimal

20% = 20/100 = 0.2

2. Then Multiply the original

cost(10,000) by 0.2

Ie: 10000 x 0.2 = 2000

3. The discount therefore is 2000. To

calculate the new price, subtract this

from the original price:

10000 – 2000 = 8000.

Which is what we see in the listing.

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Working backwards from a percentage

Sometimes, you may be presented with a figure that is greater than 100%. For example, if

Shimmy bought a house for £150,000 in 2010, its value may increase over the years and in 5

years’ time it is worth 20% more than he paid for it.

The new value could be calculated by: Converting the percentage to a decimal: 120% = 1.2

Multiplying the starting value by 1.2: £150,000 x 1.2 = £180,000

Therefore, in 2015 his house was worth £180,000.

You can also reverse this process and work out what the starting value may have been. For

example, Shimmy’s friend Elissa also bought a house in 2010. She recently had it valued and

found it was now worth £230,000. This is 80% greater than what she originally paid for it. To

work out the original value of the house, you need to use the following process:

Question 5: Working backwards from a percentage Grace has £3940 in her savings account.

This is 25% more than she initially invested. How much was her initial investment?

To answer this, you need to go through the following steps:

• £3940 = 125%

• 3940/125 = £31.52

• £31.52 x 100 = £3152

So Grace initially invested £3152 in her savings account.

Common mistakes and things to look out for:

Be careful with each of the following:

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• Make sure that if you are converting decimals to percentages (or vice versa) that you

get the decimal point in the right place. Often the multiple choice answers to numerical

reasoning tests will include incorrect answers with exactly this error, so if you have made this

mistake there may well be an answer waiting to catch you out.

• When comparing percentages make sure that you have a common baseline

(otherwise the percentages will be unrelated to one another).

• One area that often catches people out is year-on-year percentage increases. For

example, Freya has £10 and each year this increases by 5%. How much will she have after 3

years? Some people can be tempted to add together the 5% for the 3 years i.e. 15% and

multiply the £10 by 15% giving £11.5. This is incorrect. The correct way of approaching

questions like this is to remember that EACH year the initial £10 increased by 5%. So at the

end of year 1, Freya would have £10 x 1.05 = £10.5. At the end of year 2, she would have £10.5

x 1.05 = 11.025, and so on. It is important to add in each of these steps to arrive at the correct

answer.

• Another common error is around percentage increases. For example, the price of a

loaf of bread increases by 10%. After the increase the price was £1.10, how much did the

bread cost before the increase. A really common error is for people to try and solve this type

of question by calculating: £1.10 x 0.9 = £0.99. This is incorrect. Remember, that £1.10 = 110%,

therefore you must use this calculation: (£1.10/110) x 100 = £1.00

With this detailed explanation on solving percentages, we believe you should now be ready

to take some exercise past questions. Read on, or start practice now.

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PART 2:

SHL Verbal Reasoning Aptitude Tests

Guide

What is a Verbal Reasoning Test?

Verbal reasoning is the ability to understand and logically work through concepts and

problems expressed in words.

Verbal reasoning tests tell employers how well a candidate can extract and work with

meaning, information and implications from text. It’s all about logic expressed verbally.

In SHL Verbal reasoning, the questions will have you read a passage of text, and then which

two options are true based on the information given in the passage. You need to understand

the guiding principle of determining which options are absolutely true.

It’s essential to not make assumptions as you take the test. In other words, use only the

information presented, as additional facts (not presented as part of the question), will never

contribute to the answer, even if those facts are common knowledge. The tests assess verbal

reasoning, not general knowledge.

Reading the Passage and Time Management

SHL Verbal Reasoning subtest assesses your reading comprehension and verbal critical

reasoning skills under severe time constraints. You will usually have less than half a minute

for every question!

The section is comprised of reading passages with each of them followed by 4 or 5

statements.

1. You must first consider your solving strategy. Try and apply both of the following

strategies, in order to see which one suits you best:

• Start by reading the passage.

• Start by reading the question.

P a g e | 26


2. Choosing the first strategy, read each passage once very carefully. Add the meaning

of one sentence to the one before it, trying to draw a mental "map" of the information and

the logic in the passage.

3. If a sentence confuses you, reread it and the one before it if necessary, to try and fully

absorb to information to the fullest extent.

4. If the meaning of a word or phrase is unclear to you, try to grasp its meaning by its

context. This is very important, since the verbal reasoning section examines both your

comprehension and vocabulary skills.

5. Notice extreme words that refer to: Exclusion, inclusion, prohibition, negation, etc.

Remember that the relationship between the different parts of the passage are sometimes

more important than their actual content.

6. Pay close attention to qualifiers, since they are frequently used as determiners for the

correct answer. Only extreme qualifiers such as all/none/always/never apply to the entire

group of their object. Qualifiers such as few/some, many/most, still leave place for

exceptions.

7. Some candidates believe that it is pointless to read the passage first without knowing

the questions. This is not true - it is to be decided upon self- experience, and by trial and

error.

8. If you choose the strategy of starting by reading the question, you should scan the

passage cursorily and locate the relevant section of the text.

Doing so, carefully read adjacent sentences, and try to infer the correct answer from them.

9. In most cases, the statements are ordered with respect to the passage's progress.

Knowing what the three possible answers REALLY mean

True

1. A statement is True if the same information given in the statement is given explicitly in

the passage. In this case:

• The statement typically summarises a complex piece of information given in the

passage using rephrases and/or synonym words and terms.

• Sometimes, the statement brings together pieces of information that are given in

different places in the passage. Find these pieces of information and verify that each piece is

true for the whole statement to be true.

P a g e | 27


2. A statement is also True if you can correctly infer its content from the information.

• In this case, there must be enough information to make the inference.

• Remember to rely SOLELY on the information introduced in the passage: Even if your

general knowledge and familiarity with the topic presented suggest that the information is

invalid, you must assume that it is the passage alone that can supply facts and information

for decision making. In other words, there is no obligation that the information of the passage

will be 100% correct.

• Notice that your inference doesn't over generalise the details of the passage, even if

it seems like a definitive conclusion. Any seemingly correct answer which presents a broader

inference than the one supported by the passage falls into the "Cannot Say" criteria.

False

1. A statement is False only if it directly contradicts something mentioned in the

passage. You must find that piece of information in the passage that confirms the

contradiction.

2. Once again, the statement could be testing the accuracy of your reading

comprehension skills and your vocabulary. If you have trouble understanding a part of the

passage, try to understand the broader context and ask yourself if the statement is

reasonable or not in light of the passage as a whole.

3. Keep in mind that the fact that a statement is saying something different than the

passage doesn't make it instantly a false one. It could still be a "Cannot Say" if it doesn't

explicitly contradict the passage.

Cannot say

1. Cannot say means that the piece of information you are asked about is simply not

given in the passage and that the passage gives no grounds for correctly inferring the truth

or falsity of the statement.

2. This does not mean to say that this answer is the easiest to get right. On the contrary,

it is often the hardest. The answers True or False are clearer to discern. The passage either

P a g e | 28


explicitly says the same thing as the statement, in which case the answer is True, or the

passage explicitly contradicts the statement, in which case the answer is False.

To determine that the answer is Cannot say, you must be sure that the information you need

to give the answers True or False is simply absent from the text. Do not infer something from

the passage unless you are given a clear basis in the passage itself for doing so.

3. Again, the statement could hypothetically be a true or a false one. You might even be

sure from your personal knowledge about its verity. Yet, if it is contradicted in the passage, or

could not be inferred from it, according to the rules you Cannot say.

An Example Passage and statements:

In 2001, a child in the trial developed leukaemia, thought to have been induced by a component

in the modified virus, or vector, the researchers used to insert the correct gene into the boy's

cells. Of the 30 children worldwide who have been treated with gene therapy for another form of

SCID, marked by a deficiency in the enzyme adenosine deaminase (ADA), none has developed

leukaemia. Yet medical researchers maintain that gene therapy is still a better alternative than

the conventional treatment for X-linked SCID in some children because 19 of the 20 children

who have received gene therapy for X- linked SCID are still alive. When told these odds, all

parents of children with X-linked SCID have opted for gene therapy.

P a g e | 29


An optional "mental map" for this passage could look like this:

Statement 1

Only one child with ADA deficiency related SCID got leukaemia.

This statement is False, since it directly contradicts a sentence within the passage: "Of the

30 children worldwide who have been treated with gene therapy for another form of SCID,

marked by a deficiency in the enzyme adenosine deaminase (ADA), none has developed

leukaemia."

It is a bit misleading since it is also mentioned that "a child in the trial developed leukaemia",

and in addition "19 of the 20 children who have received gene therapy for X-linked SCID are

still alive". The combinations of these two sentences might give rise to an inference that the

child who had leukaemia is the 20th child. This may be true, but it is not true that this child

had an ADA deficiency related SCID. Note how this observation is drawn directly from the

mental map.

Statement 2

The remedy for SCID with the lowest rate of success currently is a bone marrow transplant

from an immunologically unmatched parent.

P a g e | 30


We were introduced with 2 methods for treating SCID. If, as the passage states first, "The

best treatment for the disease is a bone marrow transplant from an immunologically matched

sibling" and, second, "the success of gene therapy now rivals or betters that seen in

unmatched donor situations" we understand that the treatment with the same or lowest rate

of success is a bone marrow transplant from an immunologically unmatched parent.

Therefore, the answer is True.

Again, this observation can be drawn directly from the mental map.

Statement 3

Siblings are always immunologically matched.

Let's solve this question using the elimination method. Although this method is lengthy, it is

good for practice purposes, as it helps sharpen critical reasoning skills.

The passage discusses "an immunologically matched sibling" and "unmatched donors, such

as parents."

→ Is the statement True?

We can infer from the passage that there are siblings who are immunologically matched. Yet,

the statement uses the qualifier "always", and the passage does not say whether or not

siblings are always immunologically matched, nor can this fact be inferred from it. Since

neither of the terms for a True statement are validated, this statement cannot be true.

→ Is the statement False?

In order for the statement to be false, we need to find a direct contradiction within the

passage. If the passage were to include a sentence like "some siblings

arenot immunologically matched", then we could infer that this statement is false, since it is

not possible to use "always" when the state isn't consistent. This sentence or similar doesn't

appear in the passage, so we cannot disqualify it.

P a g e | 31


However, another reason prompts us to choose False as the correct answer. This is a good

example for a misleading statement. Most of us have heard about bone marrow transplants,

and we probably know that not all siblings are perfectly matching donors. Yet, since the

readers should base their answer solely on the information in the passage and not rely on

general knowledge, one has no basis to mark this statement as false.

We eliminated both True and False as possible answers; therefore the correct answer is

"Cannot say".

Now it's time to start practicing. Good luck

P a g e | 32


PRACTICE TEST 1:

SHL / Vodacom Aptitude Practice Test

Instructions SHL® numerical reasoning questions presents a series of graphs and tables, and

questions that relate to them. You are required to solve the questions based on the

information provided in the table/graph within the allotted time.

Remember:

Your Accuracy is more important, although you should aim to complete all of the

questions in within the allotted time.

If you are unsure of an answer, move on quickly. You can still come back to solve it if

you have time left. All questions carry equal mark, so avoid time wasting questions.

Summary:

Sections

Numerical Reasoning

Verbal Reasoning

Total number of question 20 Questions

Time Allowed 20 Minutes

P a g e | 33


Question-1:

How much was spent on Clothes and Shoes in year 5 if the same percent increase was

maintained as between year 3 and year 4?

A. 1,920 Euros

B. 1,921 Euros

C. 1,922 Euros

D. 1,934 Euros

E. 1,935 Euros

HOUSEHOLD SPENDING (IN EUROS)

ITEMS YEAR 1 YEAR 2 YEAR 3 YEAR 4

Food 4,500 4,480 4,600 4,900

House & Home 9,990 10,200 10,500 10,900

Clothes & Shoes 1,725 1,770 1,820 1,870

Hygiene & health 2,260 2,240 2,220 2,250

Leisure & Transport 9,450 9,700 10,100 10,500

P a g e | 34


EXPLANATION

For clothes and shoes, Percentage increase between year 3 and year 4 is

given as:

{Amount spent in year 4 – Amount spent in year 3} /Amount spent in year 3 x

100

{1870 – 1820} /1820 x 100/1 = 50/1820 x 100/1 = 2.75%

Percentage increase in clothes and shoes between year 4 and year 5

(Amount spent in 5 years – Amount spent in year 4)/Amount spent in year 4 x

100/1

X – 1870/1870 x 100/1

Since percentage increase is the same:

2.75 = x – 1870/1870 x 100/1

2.75 = 100x – 187000/1870

5142.5 + 187000/100 = 100x/100

192142.5/100 = x

X = 1921.425 ≈ 1921.

Answer: (A)

P a g e | 35


Question-2

In year 3, how much more was spent on house & home than on hygiene & health?

A. 8,080 Euros

B. 8,280 Euros

C. 8,480 Euros

D. 8,680 Euros

E. 8,880 Euros



Food 4,500 4,480 4,600 4,900

House & Home 9,990 10,200 10,500 10,900

Clothes & Shoes 1,725 1,770 1,820 1,870

Hygiene & health 2,260 2,240 2,220 2,250


P a g e | 36


EXPLANATION

Five years 5

Houses and home = 10,500

Health and hygiene = 2,220

Houses and home is greater than hygiene and health by: 10,500 – 2,220 =

8280.

Answer: (B)

P a g e | 37


Question-3

Which of the items accounts for the highest percent change between year 2 and 3?

A. Food

B. House & Home

C. Clothes & Shoes

D. Hygiene & Health

E. Leisure & Transport



Food 4,500 4,480 4,600 4,900

House & Home 9,990 10,200 10,500 10,900

Clothes & Shoes 1,725 1,770 1,820 1,870

Hygiene & health 2,260 2,240 2,220 2,250


P a g e | 38


EXPLANATION

For year 2 and 3

Food = (4600 - 4480)/4480 x 1000 = 0.027 x 100 = 2.63%

Clothes and shoes = (1820 - 1770)/1770 x 100 = 0.0282 x 100 = 2.82%

Hygiene and health = (2220 - 2240)/2240 x 100 = 0.0412 x 100 = 0.89%

(Negative shoes decreases)

Leisure and transport = (10,100 – 9700)/9700 x 100 = 0.0412 x 100 = 4.13%

Houses and home = (10,500 – 10,200)/10,200 x 100 = 0.0294 x 100 =

2.94%

Therefore, the highest percent charge is leisure and transport = 4.13%

Answer: (E)

P a g e | 39


Question-4

What is the total percent change in money spent on hygiene & health between year 1 & year

4?

A. 0.4% decrease

B. 4% increase

C. 4% decrease

D. 0.4% increase

E. 5% decrease



Food 4,500 4,480 4,600 4,900

House & Home 9,990 10,200 10,500 10,900

Clothes & Shoes 1,725 1,770 1,820 1,870

Hygiene & health 2,260 2,240 2,220 2,250


P a g e | 40


EXPLANATION

Total percentage charge on hygiene and health in year 1 and year 4 is

% change = (Amount spent in year 4) – (Amount spent in year 5)/Amount

spent in year 1 x 100

(2250 - 2260)/2260 x 100 = - 0.44 ≈ 0.4 decrease

Answer: (A)

P a g e | 41


Question-5

What proportion of the medals won by France are Silver?

A. 20%

B. 30%

C. 40%

D. 50%

E. 60%

19

14

16

78

15 15

10

16

10

13

17

15

17

10

0

2

4

6

8

10

12

14

16

18

20

Great Britain Australia Germany France Italy

Summer Olympics Medal Table by Nation

Gold Silver Bronze

P a g e | 42


EXPLANATION

Total medal won by France are:

Gold = 7, Silver = 16, Bronze = 17. Total = 40, therefore the proportion of Silver

won by France Is 16/40 x 100 = 40%.

Answer: (C)

P a g e | 43


Question-6

What was the percentage difference in the total silver medals won between Australia and

bronze medal won by Italy?

A. 33%

B. 30%

C. 25%

D. 39%

E. 60%

19

14

16

78

15 15

10

16

10

13

17

15

17

10

0

2

4

6

8

10

12

14

16

18

20



Gold Silver Bronze

P a g e | 44


EXPLANATION

Percentage difference of total silver won by Australia and bronze won by

Italy?

Bronze by Italy = 10,

Silver by Australia = 15,

Therefore = (15 - 10)/15 x 100- = 33%.

Answer: (A)

P a g e | 45


Question-7

What proportion of the medals won by Germany are gold?

A. 35%

B. 38%

C. 27%

D. 39%

E. 30%

19

14

16

78

15 15

10

16

10

13

17

15

17

10

0

2

4

6

8

10

12

14

16

18

20



Gold Silver Bronze

P a g e | 46


EXPLANATION

Proportion of medical that are gold won by Germany is

Total medal won by Germany = 16 + 15 + 10 = 41 medals

= 16/41 x 100 = 39.02% ≈ 39%.

Answer: (D)

P a g e | 47


World Population by Age and Gender (in million)

Age Group Males Females

Under 20 1 253 1 175

20-29 574 552

30-39 503 486

40-49 426 421

50-59 316 325

60-69 192 208

70-79 107 133

80-89 33 55

90 and Older 3 9

Question-9

How many males are three aged over 70?

A. 36 million

B. 107 million

C. 132 million

D. 140 million

E. 143 million

P a g e | 48


EXPLANATION

Over 70 males, means that, males that are 70 and above that is 70, 80-89,

90 and older ones = 107 + 33 +3 = 143 million.

Answer: (E)

P a g e | 49




Under 20 1 253 1 175

20-29 574 552

30-39 503 486

40-49 426 421

50-59 316 325

60-69 192 208

70-79 107 133

80-89 33 55

90 and Older 3 9

Question-10

How many more females than males are there in the 60-69 age category?

A. 14 million

B. 16 million

C. 18 million

D. 20 million

E. 22 million

P a g e | 50


EXPLANATION

Female are more than males in the age bracket 60-69.

So therefore 208 – 192 = 16 million.

Answer: (B)

P a g e | 51




Under 20 1 253 1 175

20-29 574 552

30-39 503 486

40-49 426 421

50-59 316 325

60-69 192 208

70-79 107 133

80-89 33 55

90 and Older 3 9

Question-11

If all females attains menopause at 60, how many women have attained menopause in the

world?

A. 208 million

B. 396 million

C. 386 million

D. 405 million

E. 341 million

P a g e | 52


EXPLANATION

At menopause for female at 60, and above are: 208 + 133 + 55 + 9 = 405.

Answer: (D)

P a g e | 53




Under 20 1 253 1 175

20-29 574 552

30-39 503 486

40-49 426 421

50-59 316 325

60-69 192 208

70-79 107 133

80-89 33 55

90 and Older 3 9

Question-12

How many more males than females are there in the 40-49 age category?

A. 4 million

B. 5 million

C. 6 million

D. 10 million

E. 2 million

P a g e | 54


EXPLANATION

At age 40-49 there are more males than females: 426 – 421 = 5 million.

Answer: (B)

P a g e | 55


Conservation Trip - List of Sightings

Common

Birds

Rare

Birds

Water

birds

Field

birds

Day 1 25 3 12 29

Day 2 34 1 34 18

Day 3 45 6 0 27

Day 4 29 0 5 9

Day 5 31 4 16 23

Total 164 14 67 106

Question-13

Approximately what proportion of the total number of water birds sighted were seen before

day 5?

A. 63%

B. 66%

C. 69%

D. 73%

E. 76%

P a g e | 56


EXPLANATION

Total number of water birds before day 5 = 12 + 34 + 5 = 51 birds.

Therefore, percentage proportion = 51/6 x 100 = 76%.

Answer: (E)

P a g e | 57



Common

Birds

Rare

Birds

Water

birds

Field

birds

Day 1 25 3 12 29

Day 2 34 1 34 18

Day 3 45 6 0 27

Day 4 29 0 5 9

Day 5 31 4 16 23

Total 164 14 67 106

Question-14

How many more common birds than water birds were sighted were sighted across the 5day

period?

A. 93

B. 94

C. 95

D. 96

E. 97

P a g e | 58


EXPLANATION

On day 5, common birds = 164 birds and water birds = 69, therefore common

birds is more than water birds by: 164 – 67 = 97 birds.

Answer (E)

P a g e | 59



Common

Birds

Rare

Birds

Water

birds

Field

birds

Day 1 25 3 12 29

Day 2 34 1 34 18

Day 3 45 6 0 27

Day 4 29 0 5 9

Day 5 31 4 16 23

Total 164 14 67 106

Question-15

Approximately what proportion of the total number of field birds sighted in day 2 were seen

on day 4?

A. 30%

B. 40%

C. 50%

D. 60%

E. 200%

P a g e | 60


EXPLANATION

50%. Explanation: Since exactly half of the of the field birds was seen on day

4 as was seen in day2.

Answer (C)

P a g e | 61



Common

Birds

Rare

Birds

Water

birds

Field

birds

Day 1 25 3 12 29

Day 2 34 1 34 18

Day 3 45 6 0 27

Day 4 29 0 5 9

Day 5 31 4 16 23

Total 164 14 67 106

Question-16

How many more water birds than rare birds were sighted between day 3 and day 5?

A. 11

B. 16

C. 19

D. 24

E. 2

P a g e | 62


EXPLANATION

Water birds sighted on day 3 = 0 and water birds sighted on day 5 = 16

Therefore 16 is more water birds sighted on day 5 than day 3, 16 – 0 = 16

birds.

Answer (C)

P a g e | 63


Question-17

Approximately what proportion of total metropolitan outlets sold less than $50,000?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 2

D. 6

E. 5

KPS Retail Outlets: Weekly Sales by Location

Location

Under

$50,00

0

$50,000

to

$99,999

$100,000

to

$149,999

$150,000

to

$199,999

$200,000

and over

Totals

Metropolita

n

(Metros)

3,316

2,843

1,896

948

474

9,475

Shoppin

g malls

(Malls)

158

316

633

949

1,107

3,163

Totals 3,474 3,159 2,528 1,896 1,581 12,638

P a g e | 64


EXPLANATION

Approximately proportion of metropolitan outlets sold less than $50,000=

9475/3316 = 2.857 = 3.

Answer (A)

P a g e | 65


Question-18

How many outlets in total, independently sold more than $200,000?

A. 1581

B. 1107

C. 2084

D. 3000

E. 4086


Location

Under

$50,00

0

$50,000

to

$99,999

$100,000

to

$149,999

$150,000

to

$199,999

$200,000

and over

Totals

Metropolita

n

(Metros)

3,316

2,843

1,896

948

474

9,475

Shoppin

g malls

(Malls)

158

316

633

949

1,107

3,163

Totals 3,474 3,159 2,528 1,896 1,581 12,638

P a g e | 66


Answer (A)

P a g e | 67


Question-19

What is the approximate ratio of Malls to the total number of outlets

A. 1:4

B. 1:2

C. 2:1

D. 3:1

E. 4:1


Location

Under

$50,00

0

$50,000

to

$99,999

$100,000

to

$149,999

$150,000

to

$199,999

$200,000

and over

Totals

Metropolita

n

(Metros)

3,316

2,843

1,896

948

474

9,475

Shoppin

g malls

(Malls)

158

316

633

949

1,107

3,163

Totals 3,474 3,159 2,528 1,896 1,581 12,638

P a g e | 68


EXPLANATION

Approximately ratio of mall to total outlets = 3163:12638 = 1: 4

Answer: (A)

P a g e | 69


Question-20

What is the approximate ratio of Metropolitan outlets to the total number of shopping malls

that sold between 150,000 and 199,999?

A. 1:1

B. 1:2

C. 2:3

D. 3:4

E. 4:5


Location

Under

$50,00

0

$50,000

to

$99,999

$100,000

to

$149,999

$150,000

to

$199,999

$200,000

and over

Totals

Metropolita

n

(Metros)

3,316

2,843

1,896

948

474

9,475

Shoppin

g malls

(Malls)

158

316

633

949

1,107

3,163

Totals 3,474 3,159 2,528 1,896 1,581 12,638

P a g e | 70


EXPLANATION

Approximately ratio of metropolitan outlets to shopping mall between

150,000-199,999

= 948: 949 = 1: 1.

Answer (A)

P a g e | 71


PRACTICE TEST 2:

SHL / Vodacom Aptitude Practice Test

Instructions SHL® numerical reasoning questions presents a series of graphs and tables, and

questions that relate to them. You are required to solve the questions based on the

information provided in the table/graph within the allotted time.

Remember:

Your Accuracy is more important, although you should aim to complete all of the

questions in within the allotted time.

If you are unsure of an answer, move on quickly. You can still come back to solve it if

you have time left. All questions carry equal mark, so avoid time wasting questions.

Summary:

Sections

Numerical Reasoning

Verbal Reasoning

Total number of question 20 Questions

Time Allowed 20 Minutes

P a g e | 72


Question-1

Approximately what percentage of graduates and non-graduates are self-employed?

A. 10%

B. 14%

C. 17%

D. 22%

E. 23%

Graduate & Non-Graduate Employment

profiles for

Tarleton District

Employment Sector Graduate Non-

graduate

Business services 735,000 108,000

Public Administration 525,000 108,000

Education 294,000 117,000

Health 315,000 162,000

Self Employed 210,000 198,000

Other 210,000 207,000

Total 2,100,000 900,000

P a g e | 73


EXPLANATION

Self-employed graduate = 210,000

Self-employed non-graduate = 198,000 and the total = 408,000

Total = 2,100,000 = 900,000 = 3,000,000

Approximate percentage = 408,000/3,000,000 x 100 = 13.6% ≈ 14%

Answer: (A)

P a g e | 74


Question-2

If the number of graduates employed in Health is forecast to decline by 20% year-on-year

while the number of non-graduates is forecast to remain the same, how many years will it

take for non-graduate employees to outnumber graduate employees in Health?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5


profiles for Tarleton District


graduate



Education 294,000 117,000

Health 315,000 162,000


Other 210,000 207,000

Total 2,100,000 900,000

P a g e | 75


EXPLANATION

1st year decline by 20% in health for graduates = 20/100 x 315,000 =

63,000

315,000 – 63,000 = 252, 000

2nd year decline by 20% in health for graduates = 20/100 x 252,000 =

50,400

252,000– 50,400 = 201,600,

3rd year decline by 20% in health for graduate = 20/100 x 2101,600 =

40,320

201,600 – 40,320 = 161280, so if required 3 years.

Answer: (C)

P a g e | 76


Question-3

If the number of graduates employed in Education remains the same while the number of

non-graduates increases by 15% per year, how many years will it take for the number of non-

graduate to exceed the number of graduates employed in education?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

E. 7


profiles for

Tarleton District


graduate



Education 294,000 117,000

Health 315,000 162,000


Other 210,000 207,000

Total 2,100,000 900,000

P a g e | 77


EXPLANATION

1st year 15% increase for non-graduate in education

0.15 x 117,000 = 17,550

117,000 + 17,550 = 134,550

2nd year 15% increase for non-graduate in education

0.15 x 134,550 = 20,182.5

134,550 + 20,182.5 = 154,732.5

3rd year 15% increase for non-graduate in education

0.15 x 154,732.5 = 23, 209.875

23,209.875 + 154,732.5 = 177,942.375

4th year 15% increase for non-graduate in education

0.15 x 177,942.375 = 26,691.35

26,691.35 + 177,942.375 = 204,633.73


0.15 x 204,633.73 = 30,695.06

30,695.06 + 204,633.73 = 235,328.79


0.15 x 235,328.79 = 35299.32

35299.32 + 235,328.79 = 280,628.11


0.15 x 270,628.11 = 40,594.22

40,594.22 + 270,628.11 = 311,222.33 is the year 7th

Answer: (E)

P a g e | 78


Question-4

What is the number of self-employed graduates as a proportion of the total number of

individuals in Tarleton district?

A. 3%

B. 4%

C. 5%

D. 6%

E. 7%


profiles for

Tarleton District


graduate



Education 294,000 117,000

Health 315,000 162,000


Other 210,000 207,000

Total 2,100,000 900,000

P a g e | 79


EXPLANATION

Self-employed graduate = 210,000

Total individual = 210,000 + 900,000 = 3,000,000

Proportion = 210,000/3,000,000 x 100 = 0.07 x 100 = 7%

Answer: (E)

P a g e | 80


Production Cost by Product Line and Month

Jun

Jul

Aug

Sept

Oct

Average

cost per

unit of

production

( $ )

Line

A

Unit produced* 201 433 505 774 775

$0.62 Machine

Employed 25 26 37 38 40

Line

B

Unit produced* 308 608 677 722 895

$0.54 Machine

Employed 35 87 92 93 106

Line

C

Unit produced* 214 336 935 990 1,109

$0.45 Machine

employed 50 87 165 184 187

Question-5

What was the approximate average production cost per machine employed by Line B in

October?

A. 57

B. 4,559

C. 8,443

D. 483,300

E. 51,229,800

P a g e | 81


EXPLANATION

Average production cost per machine employed by Line B IN October is 0.54

x 100 = 577.24 ≈ 57

Answer: (A)

P a g e | 82



Jun

Jul

Aug

Sept

Oct

Average

cost per

unit of

production

( $ )

Line

A

Unit produced* 201 433 505 774 775

$0.62 Machine

Employed 25 26 37 38 40

Line

B

Unit produced* 308 608 677 722 895

$0.54 Machine

Employed 35 87 92 93 106

Line

C

Unit produced* 214 336 935 990 1,109

$0.45 Machine

employed 50 87 165 184 187

Question-6

What was the difference in average cost per machine employed between Line A and Line C

in August?

A. 22

B. 57

C. 5,912

D. 430,000

E. 107,650

P a g e | 83


EXPLANATION

Average production cost per machine employed by Line A in August is 0.62 x

37

Average production cost per machine employed by Line C in August is

0.45 x 16.5

Difference = 0.45 x 16.5 - 0.62 x 37 = 57.31 ≈ 57

Answer: (B)

P a g e | 84



Jun

Jul

Aug

Sept

Oct

Average

cost per

unit of

production

( $ )

Line

A

Unit produced* 201 433 505 774 775

$0.62 Machine

Employed 25 26 37 38 40

Line

B

Unit produced* 308 608 677 722 895

$0.54 Machine

Employed 35 87 92 93 106

Line

C

Unit produced* 214 336 935 990 1,109

$0.45 Machine

employed 50 87 165 184 187

Question-7

What was the average cost per machine employed across all three lines in June?

A. 875

B. 3,520

C. 3,537

D. 4,752

E. None of the above

P a g e | 85


EXPLANATION

Total production across the three lines = 201+308+215 = 723

Average cost per unit production across the three lines =

(0.62+0.54+0.45)/3 = 0.5367

Cost across the three production lines = 0.5367 X 723 = 388.02

But the total machine employed across the three lines = 25+35+50 = 110

cost per unit machine = 388.02 / 110 = 3.527 in 000's = 3,527 = 3520 (Safe

Choice)

Advice: Don't get bogged down by questions like these. Move on when a

question is

taking beyond normal.

Answer: (B)

P a g e | 86



Jun

Jul

Aug

Sept

Oct

Average

cost per

unit of

production

( $ )

Line

A

Unit produced* 201 433 505 774 775

$0.62 Machine

Employed 25 26 37 38 40

Line

B

Unit produced* 308 608 677 722 895

$0.54 Machine

Employed 35 87 92 93 106

Line

C

Unit produced* 214 336 935 990 1,109

$0.45 Machine

employed 50 87 165 184 187

Question-8

What was the average cost per machine employed across all three lines in Aug?

A. 1209

B. 3,220

C. 3,740

D. 4,752

E. 4,985

P a g e | 87


EXPLANATION

Similar steps above.

Answer: (A) 1377,

P a g e | 88


SKG Leisure Revenue Comparisons

Question-9

If the revenue for Car Rental in 2004 was half that for Hotels in 2005 when Holiday Lettings

accounted for 5.04m Euros, what was the revenue from Hotels in 2004?

A. 0.84m

B. 1.05m

C. 1.26m

D. 2.10m

E. 2.52m

2005

10%

10%

20%

20%

40%

2004 8% 12% 20% 25% 35%

P a g e | 89


EXPLANATION

Let the revenue for car rental in 2004 be x

Let the hotel in 2005 be y

Holidays lettings = 5.04m

Therefore in 2015 = 40/100 x y = 5.04m

Y = 5.04/ 0.4 = 12.6m, where y in the total revenue in 2005

Therefore, the revenue for hotel y in 2005is given by 20/100 x 12.6 =

2.52m Euros

Since x for car rental in 2004 equal half hotels that is x = ½ x 2.52 = 1.26m

Euros

The revenue of car rental in 2004 is 1.26m Euros.

Answer: (C)

P a g e | 90


Question-10

If Other Revenue grew by 50% to 1.26m in 2005, approximately how much revenue did

Holiday Lettings generate in 2004?

A. 1.05m

B. 1.26m

C. 2.52m

D. 2.63m

E. 3.68m

2005

10%

10%

20%

20%

40%

2004 8% 12% 20% 25% 35%

P a g e | 91


EXPLANATION

Other revenue increase by 50% to 1.26m in 2005

Initial amount for other revenue is 10%

For 50% increase = 0.5 x 0.1 x x + 0.1 x x = 1.26, where x is the total

revenue in 2005

0.15x = 1.26, x = 8.4m Euros

Therefore 0.1 x 8.4 = 0.08 x y, where y is the total revenue in 2004

0.84 = 0.08y, y = 10.5m Euros

Since holiday and lettings in 2004 = 0.35 x 10.5 = 3.675 ~ 3.68m.

Answer: (E)

P a g e | 92


Question-11

If starting from 2004, Hotel revenue grew by 20% year on year to 2.26m at at2007,

approximately how much revenue did hotel revenue account for as at 2004?

A. 1.16m

B. 1.26m

C. 1.52m

D. 1.63m

E. 1.68m

2005

10%

10%

20%

20%

40%

2004 8% 12% 20% 25% 35%

P a g e | 93


EXPLANATION

16 Seconds year 2004 and hotel revenue = 20% of x,

where x is the revenue at 2004: 0.2 x x = 0.2x

Year 5 is 20% increase = 20% of 0.2x + 0.2x

0.2 x 0.2x + 0.2x = 0.24x

Year 2006 = 0.2 x 0.24x + 0.24x = 0.288x

Year 2007 = 0.2 x 0.288x + 0.288x = 2.26m

30.3456x = 2.26m,, x = 6.539m

Therefore the revenue for 2004 = 0.2 x 6.53m =1. 31m (1.26 is safe)

Answer: (C)

P a g e | 94


Question-12

If Travel Revenue grew by 30% to 1m in 2005, approximately how much revenue did Holiday

Lettings generate in 2004?

A. 1.05m

B. 1.26m

C. 1.54m

D. 2.63m

E. 3.68m

2005

10%

10%

20%

20%

40%

2004 8% 12% 20% 25% 35%

P a g e | 95


EXPLANATION

3rd in 2004, travel revenue = 0.35x, where x is the total revenue

In 2005 is 30% increase = 0.30 x 0.25x + 0.25x = 1m, 0.325x = 1

Total revenue for x = 3.077m in 2004

Therefore holiday lettings revenue = 0.35 x 3.077 = 1.05.

Answer: (A)

P a g e | 96


Question-13

What proportion of the total commission generated by Emma smith was generated through

the sale of private properties?

A. 1/6

B. 2/9

C.1/4

D.1/3

E. 2/5

2.3

3.52.7

3.64

2.4

0.8

1.9

1.1

1.5

2

1

privateproperties (6)

commercialproperties (3)

vacant Land (5) privateproperties (8)


vacant Land (3)

Asset sales and commission

selling price (in $ 100,000) commision (in $ 10,000)

P a g e | 97


EXPLANATION

Total commission generated = 1.5 + 2 + 1 = 4.5

Therefore, proportion generated through private properties sales is given by

1.5/4.5 = 15/45 = 1/3

Answer: (D)

P a g e | 98


Question-14

Approximately, what proportion of the total commission Barbara Philips was generated

through the sale of private properties?

A. 1/7

B. 2/9

C. 1/4

D. 1/3

E. 1/5

2.3

3.52.7

3.64

2.4

0.8

1.9

1.1

1.5

2

1





vacant Land (3)



P a g e | 99


EXPLANATION

Total commission generated by Barbara Philips = 0.8 + 1.9 + 1.1 = 3.8

Therefore, proportion generated through private properties sales is given by

0.8/3.8 = 8/38 = 4/19 = ¼.75 = 1/5

Answer: (E)

P a g e | 100


Question-15

What proportion of the total commission generated by Emma smith was generated through

the sale of private properties?

A. 1/6

B. 2/9

C. 1/4

D. 1/3

E. 2/5

2.3

3.52.7

3.64

2.4

0.8

1.9

1.1

1.5

2

1





vacant Land (3)



P a g e | 101


Answer: (D)

P a g e | 102


Question-16

What percentage of total commission generated by Emma smith across all three assets was

generated by Barbara Philips?

A. 82.2%

B. 118%

C. 92.3%

D. 84.4%

E. 78.3%

2.3

3.52.7

3.64

2.4

0.8

1.9

1.1

1.5

2

1





vacant Land (3)



P a g e | 103


EXPLANATION

The percentage commission generated by Emma Smith = x/100 x 4.5 = 38

4.5x/45 = 100 x 3.8/4.5, x = 84.4%

Answer: (D)

P a g e | 104


MOCK TEST 1 SHL® numerical reasoning questions present a series of graphs and tables,

and questions that relate to them. This is a mock test comprising just 20

questions. You will have 20 minutes to answer them. Set a timer and be

sure to stop solving once your time is up. You can assess your

performance and check the correct answers and explanations.

Calculators are permitted for this test, and it is recommended you have

some rough paper to work on.

You will have to work quickly and accurately to perform well in this test. If

you don’t know the answer to a question, leave it and come back to it if

you have time.

Each question will have up to five possible answers, one of which is

correct. You may go back and forth during the test to review or skip

questions.

Try to find a time and place where you will not be interrupted during the

test. When you are ready, turn to the next page and begin.

NUMERICAL

REASONING

P a g e | 105


Question-1

In which two categories is there a larger share of subjects treated with Drug B compared to

those treated with Drug A?

A. Moderate improvement & No Change

B. Mild Improvement & No Change

C. No Change & Marked Improvement

D. Marked Improvement & Condition Worsened

E. Marked Improvement & Mild Improvement

1%

11%

23%

37%

28%

1%

10%

27%

32%30%

0%

5%

10%

15%

20%

25%

30%

35%

40%

Conditionworsened

No change Midimprovement

Moderateimprovement

Markedimprovement

Clinical Trials-Effect on Test Subjects

Drug A Drug B

P a g e | 106


Question-2

In which two categories is there a larger share of subjects treated with Drug A compared to

those treated with Drug B?

A. Moderate improvement & No Change

B. Mild Improvement & No Change

C. No Change & Marked Improvement

D. Marked Improvement & Condition Worsened

E. Marked Improvement & Mild Improvement

Question-3

In which two categories is there a larger change between the subject treated with drug A and

drug B?

A. Moderate improvement

B. Mild Improvement

C. No Change

D. Condition Worsened

E. Marked Improvement

Question-4

In which categories is the two drugs mostly used to treat a subject?

A. Mild Improvement

B. Moderate improvement

C. No Change

D. Condition Worsened

E. Marked Improvement

P a g e | 107


Question-5

What proportion of the medals won by jump 2 are Silver?

A. 31.14%

B. 32.14%

C.33.14%

D. 34.14%

E. 35.14%

Question-6

What was the percentage difference in the total gold medals won in jump 2 and bronze

medal won in jump 4?

A. 1.2%

B. 1.3%

C. 1.4%

D. 1.5%

E. 1.6%

Question-7

800802804806808810812814816818820822824826828830

Jump 1 Jump 2 Jump 3 Jump 4 Jump 5 Jump 6

Long Jump Final Result-Top 3 Athletes

Gold Medalist Silver Medalist Bronze Medalist

P a g e | 108



A. 33.42%

B. 33.92%

C. 33.66%

D. 33.52%

E. 33.29%

Question-8

Assume that 1500 medals was wrongly awarded in jump 4, by how many percent will its total

medals be reduced?

A. 33.75%

B. 33.65%

C. 33.73%

D. 33.56%

E. 33.89%

P a g e | 109


Question-9

What proportion of the Centre Seats used by a person are lower?

A. 12%

B. 13%

C. 14%

D. 15%

E. 16%

90

80

70

18

45

95

100

75

22

50

80

90

60

12

40

50

65

35

14

30

40

50

30

10

20

0

10

20

30

40

50

60

70

80

90

100

110

A Centre Seats B Box Seats C Aisle & Sides Seats D Standing Seats E Restricted ViewSeats

Euro

(€

)Opera House Ticket Prices (in Euros)

Stalls Grand Balcony Lower Upper Circle

P a g e | 110


Question-10

What was the percentage difference in the price of the Balcony and Upper circle for Box

Seats and Standing Seats respectively?

A. 80%

B. 75%

C. 83%

D. 89%

E. 69%

Question-11

What proportion of the Ticket Price used by Restricted View Seats are Grand?

A. 25%

B. 27%

C. 22%

D. 29%

E. 30%

Question-12

Assume that Box Seat lost 45 of its Stall due to damages, by how many percent will the Box

Seats be reduced?

A. 13.0%

B. 13.6%

C. 9.0%

D. 12.6%

E. 11.6%

P a g e | 111


P a g e | 112


Survey of Cigarette Smokers

Age Group

16-24 25-34 35-44 45-54 55-64 65 and over

Year 1 27 33 27 25 19 20

Year 2 35 31 30 28 20 23

Year 3 27 30 26 24 20 22

Year 4 25 30 26 24 19 22

Year 5 26 29 28 21 17 20

Question-13

Approximately what percentage of age 16-24 in year 2 are smokers?

A. 10%

B. 14%

C. 17%

D. 25%

E. 23%

Question-14

Find the approximate percentage increase between age group 35-44 in year 5 and age

group 55-64 in year 5

A. 67%

B. 65%

C. 39%

D. 35%

E. 55%

P a g e | 113


P a g e | 114


Question-15

Which age group has the highest number of smokers for the given years?

A. 16-25

B. 25-34

C. 35-44

D. 45-54

E. 55-64

F. 65 and over

Question-16

Which age group has the highest number of smokers in year 1?

A. 16-25

B. 25-34

C. 35-44

D. 45-54

E. 55-64

F. 65 and over

P a g e | 115


Question-17

What is the total amount in dollars made by trader A in February and trader B in May?

A. 14040 US Dollars

B. 14140 US Dollars

C. 14240 US Dollars

D. 14340 US Dollars

E. 14440 US Dollars

Question-18

Which month has the highest difference between the two traders?

A. January

B. February

C. March

D. April

E. May

P a g e | 116


P a g e | 117


Question-19

What is the difference between shares owned by trader A and trader B in the month of April

in US Dollar?

A. 8910 US Dollars

B. 9910 US Dollars

C. 7910 US Dollars

D. 5910 US Dollars

E. 6910 US Dollars

Question-20

What is the total of the difference between the Shares in May and January for trader A , and

the Shares in May and January for trader B?

A. 2000 Euros

B. 3000 Euros

C. 4000 Euros

D. 3500 Euros

E. 4500 Euros

P a g e | 118











you have time.



questions.



NUMERICAL

REASONING

P a g e | 119


Question-1

Approximately what proportion of Beauty & Fragrance are Store-Brand Product?

A. 12.5%

B. 15.8%

C. 16.8%

D. 10.8%

E. 19.7%

Question-2

What proportion of Jewelry & Watches are National Product?

A. 13.41%

B. 18.29%

C. 31.71%

D. 26.83%

E. 9.76%

Question-3

P a g e | 120


What is the approximate ratio of National Product to Imported products?

A. none

B. 3.73:1

C. 1:3.73

D. 1:2.73

E. 2.73:1

Question-4

What proportion of Clothing & Shoes and Home Products are Imported Products.

A. 50%

B. 51%

C. 54%

D. 53%

E. 52%

P a g e | 121


Question-5

In which department are those studying in North-West University exactly half those studying

in the same department in Central University?

A. Economics

B. Arts

C. Humanities

D. Philosophy & Languages

E. Applied Science

10%

15%

35%

19%

21%

Central University (8,000)

Economics Humanties Arts Philosphy & Languages Applied Science

5%

37%

20%

17%

21%

North-West University (4,000)


P a g e | 122


Question-6

What fraction of those studying Arts in North-West University are those studying Arts in

Central University?

A. 1/7

B. 1/8

C. 1/6

D. 1/5

E. 1/4

Question-7

What is the percentage change between those studying Arts in Central University an those

studying Arts in North-Central University?

A. 81.4%

B. 61.4%

C. 71.4%

D. 51.4%

E. 41.4%

Question-8

By how are those studying Humanities in North-West University greater than those studying

Humanities in Central University?

A. 270

B. 170

C. 210

D. 280

E. 250

P a g e | 123


Question-9

If the amount of energy consumed by cooking appliance was predicted to increase by 400

units in year 80 from year 70. Approximately what percentage increase would that be?

A. 23%

B. 24%

C. 25%

D. 26%

E. 27%

P a g e | 124


Question-10

By Year 120 it is estimated that energy consumption from cooking appliances will be 2,500

(Kilowatt-hour). If consumption increases by the same amount each decade to reach this, by

what percentage will energy usage from cooking appliances increase between Year 70 and

Year 80?

A. 14.1

B. 16.5

C. 11.3

D. 12.7

E. 18.2

Question-11

What was the average increase Year in domestic energy consumption from all types of

appliances per year between Year 65 and 70?

A. 12 Million

B. 23 Million

C. 32 Million

D. 230 Million

E. Cannot say

Question-12

If energy usage for all types of appliances doubled every 10 years from Year 10 until Year 40,

what was the ratio of Kilowatt consumed for cooking appliances in Year 30 to lighting

appliances in Year 50?

A. 1:3

B. 6:5

C. 5:4

D. 2:3

E. 11:5

P a g e | 125


Question-13

If the percentage difference in Fuel consumption between Plant A and Plant B in Year 4

remained the same, but Plant B had used 4,950 Kilo litres per day, approximately how much

fuel could Plant A have been expected to use in an average week?

A. 45,900Kilolitres

B. 25,906Kilolitres

C. 34,655Kilolitres

D. 41,285Kilolitres

E. 12,330Kilolitres

Question-14

In Year 7, by approximately what percentage would Plant A need to reduce its fuel

consumption in order to be at the same level as Plant B for that year?

A. 83%

B. 73%

C. 82%

D. 72%

E. 53%

Question-15

P a g e | 126


If the rate of change in fuel consumption between Year 13 and Year 14 was the same as it was

between Year 12 and Year 13, what would the difference in fuel consumption be between

Plant A and Plant B in Year 14?

A. 763Kilolitres

B. 764Kilolitres

C. 523Kilolitres

D. 524Kilolitres

D. 524Kilolitres

Question-16

In which year did Plant A consumed an average 182% of the fuel consumed by Plant B per

day?

A. Year 7

B. Year 8

C. Year 9

D. Year 10

E. Year 11

P a g e | 127


Question-17

On how many occasions was there a decrease in the length of traffic jams over the previous

day for all three roads?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

27

35

31

28

25

15

21

1618

15

2022

17

20

2523

21

11

0

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Fridays Weekends

Length of traffic jams split by day of the week (in kilometers)

Road 1

Road 2

Road 3

P a g e | 128


Question-18

Which day has the highest number of traffic jams?

A. Wednesday

B. Tuesday

C. Monday

D. Friday

E. Weekends

Question-19

Which day has the highest number of traffic jams?

A. Wednesday

B. Tuesday

C. Monday

D. Friday

E. Weekends

Question-20

Which two days has the highest difference in traffic jams?

A. Wednesday & Friday

B. Tuesday & Weekends

C. Wednesday & Weekends

D. Friday & Weekends

E. Tuesday & Wednesday

P a g e | 129











you have time.



questions.



NUMERICAL

REASONING

P a g e | 130


Question-1

The average member of the total workforce accounted for 0.75 AWU 3 years ago. Today this

figure has increased by 10%. By how many percent has the total work force for Denmark

changed today?

A. 14% increase

B. 9% increase

C. No change

D. 18% decrease

E. 36% decrease

Question-2

If the decrease in total labour input continues at the current rate, approximately what will the

labour input be (in AWU) in 3 years’ time?

A. 44,000

B. 48,000

C. 442,000

D. 4,426,000

E. None of these

70 65

165 156

63 57

198 190

0%

20%

40%

60%

80%

100%

3 Years Ago Today

Agricultural Labour Input(in 1000 annual work units(AWU)

Belgium Austria Denmark Netherland

P a g e | 131


Question-3

What is the percentage decrease for Netherland between 3 years Ago and Today?

A. 4% increase

B. 9% increase

C. No change

D. 8% decrease

E. 3% decrease

Question-4

If the decrease in total labour input for Belgium continues at the current rate, approximately

what will the labour input be (in AWU) in 3 years’ time for Belgium?

A. 40,000

B. 30,000

C. 50,000

D. 25,000

E. 60,000

P a g e | 132


World Bank Lending Overview

South Asia

Africa

Latin

America &

Caribbean

East Asia &

Pacific

Middle East

& North

Africa

Population

(in million)

1500

800

600

1900

300

Total

Lending

(in million

of dollars)

4,427

5,687

4,460

4,468

1,470

Lending as

% of last

year

117

119

75

131

86

GNI per

capita

$880

$952

$5,540

$2,180

$2,794

Question-5

Which region has the lowest ratio of total lending to GNI per capita?

A. Middle East & North Africa

B. East Asia & Pacific

C. Latin America & Caribbean

D. Africa

E. South Asia

P a g e | 133


Question-6

If GNI per capita has remained the same as last year, for which region was the ratio of total

lending to GNI the smallest that year?




D. Africa

E. South Asia

Question-7

Which region has the highest ratio of total lending to GNI per capita?




D. Africa

E. South Asia

Question-8

If GNI per capita has remained the same as last year, for which region was the ratio of total

lending to GNI the smallest that year?




D. Africa

E. South Asia

P a g e | 134


Question-9

In which region is the weekly alcohol consumption, measured in units per person, the highest

(Beer & Wine and Spirits)?

A. Central

B. North

C. East

D. South

E. West

2.4 2.2 1.2 1.8 2.8

16.1

11.6

5.9

11.1

16.3

7.9

6.14.6

5.67.2

2675

2184

2450

1986

2390

0

500

1000

1500

2000

2500

3000

Central North East South West0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

Regions

Mill

ion

sWeekly alcohol consumption by region

population Beer & wine-units consumed (millions)

Spirits-units consumed (millions) Year Expenditure on Alcohol per person ()

P a g e | 135


Question-10

In which region is the weekly alcohol consumption, measured in units per person, the lowest

(Beer & Wine and Spirits)?

A. Central

B. North

C. East

D. South

E. West

Question-11

Which region has the highest expenditure of alcohol consumption?

A. Central

B. North

C. East

D. South

E. West

Question-12

Which region has the lowest expenditure of alcohol consumption?

A. Central

B. North

C. East

D. South

E. West

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Question-13

How many less high season visitors visited the NAM Annex per week in Year 6 than in Year 1?

A. 25

B. 100

C. 83

D. 200

E. None of these

11

20.4

12.5

248.6

12

10

13.6

12.5

16.5

12.2

15

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

45

50

55

Low Season (32weeks)

High Season (20weeks)

Low Season (28weeks)

High Season (24weeks)

National Arts Museum-Visitor Numbers (in thousands)

NAM Annex

Seasonal Exhibitions

Main Gallery

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Question-14

The total growth in high season visitors for the Main Gallery between Year 1 and Year 6 is

equivalent to what constant annual rate of growth?

A. 3.3%

B. 3.5%

C. 3.7%

D. 3.9%

E. Cannot say

Question-15

If Company A and Company B were to merge, approximately what percentage of estimated

Investment expenditure would university scholarships account for, assuming that the current

total expenditures did not change?

A. 23%

B. 28%

C. 26%

D. 11%

E. 12%

Question-16

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If the estimated amount of Investment expenditure on entertainment was the same in

Company A as it is in Company B, what would the approximate total Investment expenditure

be for Company A?

A. $623,477Million

B. $723,440Million

C. $56,025Million

D. $112,689Million

E. $866,204Million

Household spending (in Euros)

YEAR 1 YEAR 2 YEAR 3 YEAR 4

Food 4,500 4,480 4,600 4,900

House & Home 9,990 10,200 10,500 10,900

Clothes & Shoes 1,725 1,770 1,820 1,870

Hygiene & health 2,260 2,240 2,220 2,250


Question-17


A. 8,080 Euros

B. 8,280 Euros

C. 8,480 Euros

D. 8,680 Euros

E. 8,880 Euros

Question-18

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If the amount spent on food in Year 5 was 20% lower than in year 4, what was spent in Year

5?

A. 3,860 Euros

B. 3,920 Euros

C. 3,980 Euros

D. 4,060 Euros

E. 4,140 Euros

Question-19

If the amount spent on Clothes & Shoes in Year 5 was 20% higher than in year 4, what was

spent in Year 5?

A. 2,244 Euros

B. 2,234Euros

C. 2,254 Euros

D. 2,264 Euros

E. 2,224 Euros

Question-20

Which year was the household spending greatest than the previous year for food?

A. Year 3 and Year 4

B. Year 1 and Year 2

C. Year 2 and Year 3

D. Year 1 and Year 2

E. Year 3 and Year 4

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ANSWERS &

EXPLANATIONS

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MOCK TEST 1

1. Answer: (E) from the bar graph plotted

2. Answer: (A) from the bar graph plotted

3. Answer: (A) from the graph moderate improvement 37% - 32% = 57%

4. Answer: (B) from the graph moderate improvement Drug A = 37%, Drug B = 32%

5. Total medal won in jump 2 is Gold = 810, Silver = 804, Bronze = 812

Therefore, proportion of Silver won in jump 2: 804/2426 x 100 = 33.14% Answer: (C)

6. Percentage difference of total Gold won in jump 2 and Bronze won in jump 4

Gold in jump 2 = 810 – Bronze won in jump 4 = 800, 810 – 800/810 x 100 = 1.2% Answer: (A)

7. Proportion of medal that are Gold won in jump 3:

Total medal won in jump 3 = 822 + 816 + 804 = 2442 medals: 816/2442 x 100 = 33.42%

Answer: (A) 33%

8. If 1500 medals were removed on result of fake athlete participating in jump 4, initially there

is total of 820 + 820 + 800 = 2448, therefore 2448 – 15000 = 948

Percentage reduction = 2448 – 1500/2448 x 100 = 38.73% Answer: (C)

9. Total centre seats used in Grand = 95, Stalls = 90, Balcony = 80, Laver = 50, Upper circle =

40 so therefore 95 + 90 + 80 + 50 + 40 = 355 Centre seats. Therefore proportion of lower

seat used in Euros = 50/355 x 100 = 14% Answer: (C)

10. Balcony for Box seats price = 90Euros and Upper circle for stand seats price = 90.

So therefore (90 - 10)/90 x 100 = 80/90 x 100 = 89% Answer: (D)

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11. Total seat price by Restricted view seats = 50 + 45 + 30 + 20 = 185.

Therefore, proportion Grand = 50/185 x 100 = 27% Answer: (B)

12. Initial total Box seats = 50 + 65 + 80 + 90 + 100 = 385%, after damages = 385 – 45 = 340

Percentage reduction = 385 – 340/385 x 100 = 45/385 x 100 = 11.6% Answer: (E)

13. Total smokers between the ages of 16-24 = 27 + 35 + 27 + 26 + 25 = 140

Approximate percentage of age 16-24 in year 2 = 35/140 x 100 = 25% Answer: (D)

14. Number of smokers in age group 35-44 in year 5 = 28 and number of smokers in age

group 55-64 in year 5 = 17, therefore percentage increase = 28 – 17/17 x 100 = 11/17 x 100 =

64. 7 Answer: (B) 65%

15. Which age group has the highest member of smokers for the given year?

Year 1 to year 5 total number for age group 16-24 153

Year 1 to year 5 total number for age group 25-44 = 137

Year 1 to year 5 total number for age group 45-56 =122

Year 1 to year 5 total number for age group 55-64 = 95

Year 1 to year 5 total number for age group 65 and above = 107

The correct Answer: (B)

16. From the information given of group 25.84 has the highest number of smokers.

Therefore, in year 1 = 33, Answer is 25 - 84

17. Small stove = US dollar, in February, Trader A made 1900Euros, therefore in dollars will be

1400Euros x 1.35USdollars/1Euro = 1890dollars

In May, Trader B made 9000Euros, therefore in dollars will be 9000EUROS X 1.35 US

dollars/1Eurro = 12150 US Dollars

Total Dollars made = (1890 + 12150) US dollars = 14040215 US dollars correct Answer: (A)

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18. The highest difference Euros between any two trader is in month May correct Answer: (E)

19. Shares awarded by trader A in US dollars in month April is 1800 x 1.35 = 2450 US dollars

Shares awarded by trader B in US dollars in month April is 8400 x 1.35 = 11340 US dollars

Difference = 11340 – 3430 = 8910 US dollars correct Answer: (A)

20. Trader A = 1800 – 1200 = 600 and Trader B = 9000 – 6000 = 3000, therefore the Total

will be 600 + 3000 = 3600 correct Answer: (B)

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MOCK TEST 2

1. What proportion of beauty and fragrance are stored-brand products:

Beauty and fragrance that are brand = 30

Total stored-brand products = 45 + 30 + 60 +15 = 190

So therefore, proportion of beauty and fragrance that are stored-brand products:

30/190 x 100 = 15.8%. Answer: (B)

2. Jewelry and watches that are natural products = 80

Total natural products = 160 + 150 + 200 + 220 + 80 = 820

So therefore, proportion of Jewelry and watches that are natural products are:

80/820 x 100 = 9.76%. Answer: (E)

3. Total natural products = 820, total imported products = 2240

Ratio of national products to imported products = 820: 2240 =

820/2240 = 41/114 = 41:112 = 1:2.73

4. What proportion of clothing and shoe and home products are imported products

Clothing and shoes = 680 for imported products

Homes products = 345 for imported products, total = 1025

1025/2240 x 100 = 54%. Answer: (C)

5. In which department is these studying in North West University exactly half those studying

the same course in Central University?

21/100 x 8,000 = 1680

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21/100 x 400 = 840, therefore 1680/840 = 2. Answer: (E)

6. Those studying Arts in Central University = 35/100 x 8000 = 2800

Those studying Arts in North West University = 20/100 x 4000 = 800

Fraction of those studying Arts in North West University to those studying Arts in Central

University is 800/2800 = 1/7. Answer: (A)

7. (2800 - 800)/2800 X 100 = 71.4%. Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The percentage change of those studying Arts in Central University and those studying Arts

in North West University is 71.4%.

8. In North West University the percentage of those studying Humanities = 15/100 x 800 =

1200

- In North West University the percentage of those studying Humanities = 37/100 x 4000 =

1480 those studying Humanities in North West University = 1480 – 1200 = 280 greater than

those studying Humanities in Central University. Answer: (D)

9. E

Step 1

Year 70 value for cooking appliances = 1467

Year 80 value for cooking appliances = 1467 + 400 = 1,867

Step 2

Percentage = (1867 – 1467) / 1467 = 27% Approx

STP Approach:

Since the change has already been given in this question

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Simply go ahead to divide by old value

= 400/1467 = 27% Approx.

10. A

Step 1

In year 120 consumption = 2500

Total Amount of Increase from year 70= 2500 – 1467 = 1,033

Step 2

Increase was in equal amount every decade (10 Years)

There are 5 ten years between year 70 and year 120.

So, Yearly amount of increase = 1033/5 = 206.6

Meaning that 206.6 is added every 10-years.

Step 3

Following the amount of increase given above.

Consumption in year 80 will be = 1467 + 206.6 = 1,673.3

Step 4

In percentage term, this represents

206.6/1467 percent increase = 14.1% Increase.

11. E

STAY ALERT!

Note that the question asked for consumption between

Year 65 and Year 70.

Neither the values for year 65, not the relationship between the years was stated. Hence we

cannot say

12. E

Step 1

Find the value of Kilowatt consumed for cooking appliances

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In year 30.

Year 30 = (year 40) / 2 = 1280/2 = 640

Step 2

Ratio= Cooking in year 30 / Lightening in 50

Ratio = 640: 290

13. D

Step 1

Looking at year 4:

Percentage difference between Plant A and Plant B

= (5600-4700) / 4700 = 900 / 4700 = 19.15%

Step 2

At the same percentage difference.

When Plant B now has 4950.

Plant A will increase by 19.15%

= 4950 X 1.1915 = 5,897.925Kilolitres per day

= 5,897.925 X 7 = 41,285.5Kilolitres per week

14. C

Step 1

In other word, what is the percentage decrease between

7100 and 3900

= 7100 / 3900

= 1.82 = 82% decrease

15. B

Step 1

First start from the known to unknown

What we know is the value for Year 12 and 13

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Rate of consumption:

For plant A

= (1700 – 2300) / 2300 = 600/2300

= 26.087%Decrease.

For plant B

= (800 – 1300) / 1300 = 500 / 1300

= 38.462% Decrease.

Step 2

Find the values in year 14.

Fuel consumption

For Plant A

= 1700 X 0.73913 = 1252.5

For Plant B

= 800 X 0.61538 = 492.3

Step 3

Difference between fuel consumption = 764.2Kilolitres

16. A

Step 1

Here you’ve got to work smart not hard.

There are a total of 10 years.

You could eliminate some by careful observing

How?

182% is almost double the amount (200%).

Comparing the two values, we could eliminate any values

That have do not look like a 200% difference.

Looking through the given years,

Year3, Year4, Year5, Year6, Year9, Year11, Year12 and Year13

Leaving Year 7 and Year 8 and Year 10 as possible answers.

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So we can now quickly check by multiplying by 1.82.

Year 7: 3900 X 1.82 = 7,098

Approximately = 7,100 (Correct)

Year 8: 3600 X 1.82 = 6,552

Year 10: 2600 X 1.82 = 3,700

Obviously, the year is year 7.

17. Answer: (A) = 1

18. Answer: (A) = Wednesday

Explanation:

Add all the traffic jam and choose the highest.

19. Answer: (E) = Wednesday

20. Answer: (C) = Wednesday and weekends

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MOCK TEST 3

1. Average total work force = 0.75 AWU in 3 years ago.

Then total workforce is = 496,000 /0.75 = 661333.33333

10% increase for today = 10 = (661333.33333 - x)/ 661333.33333 x 100 =

X = 661333.33333 - 661333.33333 = 595,200

Therefore percentage change = 595,200 – 57,000/595,200 x 100 = 9%. Answer: (B)

2. Total labour input for 3 years ago = 496,000 and the total labour inputs for today =

468,000

Therefore decrease = 496,000 - 468,000 = 28,000.

Also in 3 year time the decrease will be 468,000 - 28,000 = 440,000.

The correct Answer: (E). None of these

3. 198 – 190/198 x 100 = 4.04 ~ 4%. Answer: (A)

4. Labour input for Belgium 3 years ago = 70,000 and labour input for Belgium today =

65,000

Therefore decrease 70000 – 65000 = 5000

In three 3 year time = 65000 – 5000 = 60000

5. For south Asia = 4427:880 = 5:1

For Africa = 5687:952 = 6:1

For Latin America and Caribbean = 4468: 5540 = 0.8:1

For East Asia and Pacific = 4468: 2180 = 2: 1

For Middle East and North Africa = 1470: 2794 = 0.5: 1 (Lowest). Answer: (A)

6. Answer: (A)

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7. Answer: (D)

8. Answer: (D)

9. For Central = 16.1 + 7.9/2.4 = 10

For North = 11.5 + 6.1/2.2 = 8.05

For East = 5.9 + 4.6/1.2 = 8.75

For South = 11.1 + 5.6/1.8 = 9.28

For West = 16.3 + 7.2/2.8 = 8.39

Answer: (A) = Central

10. Answer: (B) = North

11. Answer: (A) = Central from the graph

12. Answer: (D) = South from the graph

13. Answer: (E) = None

14. Answer: (E) = Cannot say

15. B

Step 1: Find new value after Merger

After combination;

New total = Company A Total + Company B Total = 400,380 + 549,700 = 950,080

Step 2: Find new Uni scholarship value after Merger

After combination;

University Scholarship= Company A Value + Company B Value

= 46.7/100 X 400,380 + 14.8/100 X 549,700

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= 186,977.46 + 81,355.6 = 268,333.06

Step 3: Find the required percentage

Now what percentage of 950,080 is 268,333.06 = 268,333 ÷ 950,080 = 28% Approx.

STP Approach:

You’ve got to let your calculator do the job:

(.467X400380) + (.148X549700) ÷ 950080 =28% Approx.

16. C

Step 1

First understand the question.

Another way to reframe this questions is, If the company A entertainment value was changed

to the corresponding value in company B, Then what will the new total expenditure be in

company A.

Company A Current Total = 400,380

Expenditure on Entertainment = 5.9% of Current total = 23,622.42

Step 2

Subtract this value from total.

400,380 – 23,622.42 = 376,757.58 (This value is constant)

Step 3

New total for company A will now be = 376,757.58 + current entertainment value in company

B.

Current entertainment value in company B = 20.5% of 549,700 = 112,688.5

Therefore, new total investment expenditure for company A = 376,757.58 + 112,688.5 =

$866,204Million (Approx.)

17. In year 3 10,500 was spent on house and home and 2220 was spent on hygiene and

health

Therefore 10,500 – 2220 = 8280 Euros. Answer: (B)

18. Amount spent on food in year 4 = 4900

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Year 5i is 20% lower = 4900 – 20/100 4900 = 4900 – 980 = 3920 Euros. Answer: (B)

19. A mount spent on clothes and shoes in year 4 is 1870

Year 5 is 20% higher = 1870 + 20/100 x 1870 = 1870 + 374 = 2244 Euros. Answer: (A)

20. Answer: (A) and (E) = (Subtraction from data given)

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VERBAL REASONING

MOCK TEST 1 This verbal reasoning test comprises 30 questions, and you will have 25

minutes in which to correctly answer as many as you can.

You will be presented with a passage to read, and a statement about that

passage. For each statement you must select one of the following

answers:

True: The statement follows logically from the information contained in

the passage.

False: The statement is logically false from the information contained in

the passage.

Cannot Say: It is not possible to determine whether the statement is true

or false without further information.



you have time.


test. When you are ready, begin the test, turn to the next page

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One of the foremost concerns for reputable commercial construction companies is the

significant amount of time require for contractors and cost estimators to commit to pricing up

raw materials like steel and concrete. This is due to the constantly changing massive inflation

rates, which result in a need for continuous researching and reporting on pricing information.

In addition, these companies need to ensure they have good relationships with their major

subcontractors and suppliers, in order to capitalize on their capacity to forecast and budget

the costs effectively throughout the whole construction process.

However, some construction owners are taking a more proactive role throughout the whole

process to streamline communication and impel project completion, by functioning as a team

member.

Question 1

Constantly changing inflation rates causes considerable problems for cost estimators

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Question 2

By working as part of a team it is possible for construction owners to reduce the amount of

money they spend on a construction project.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

A UN report has warned of the potential problems of global warming. If the production of

greenhouse gases continues at the current rate, this will result in the melting of ice sheets in

Greenland and the Antarctic. The consequences of this will be rising sea levels, which will

endanger 145 million people. In response to the problem, the report observes the need for an

immediate international agreement on reducing emissions.

Question 3

Emission of greenhouse gases can result in a change in sea levels.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Question 4

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The report recommends an international agreement to stabilize emissions.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

A few ‘Safe As Houses’ alarms have been redesigned in an attempt to reduce the large number

of complaints where alarms have sounded by accident. One of the new types of alarm is less

sensitive than its predecessors. Studies have shown that these newer alarms are rarely

activated for no apparent reason. ‘Safe As Houses’ still sells a number of the original, sensitive

alarm systems, because the increase in threshold for motion detection means that the new

style alarms may fail to register break-in where limited force is being used.

Question 5

All of the company’s alarm system are now less sensitive.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Question 6

The new alarm systems should reduce the number of accidental soundings by at least a half.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

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Sages Store enjoys an international reputation for quality and style. Nowhere is this more

important than in the dress and appearance of its staff. The company sets minimum standards

of appearance which are demanded of all shop floor staff, although some departments have

specific additional requirements. Hair must be clean, tidy and well cut at all times. With very

few exceptions, such as “Designer Corner”, which operates a different staff dress code

reflecting their particular style, business dress must be worn…Women should wear tailored

suits, with a white or cream blouse. Men should wear dark grey trousers together with a white

shirt and navy blazer.

Question 7

Women in “Designer Corner” are allowed to wear jewelry.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Question 8

Business dress must be worn by staff in all departments.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

The early chaos of the home computing industry in the USA, where it developed, probably

had a more detrimental effect in Europe than it did in the States. All the inovators in the field

were companies which were too small to cope with or understand foreign sales. As a result,

all US companies sold exclusively through European distributors, some of which were only

interested in making maximum profits in a minimum amount of time. Home computing in

Europe got off to a slow start because greedy distributors worked through incompetent

suppliers, none of which had any real interest in the long term future of the technology.

Question 9

Incompetent suppliers were one of the reasons for the slow development of home

computing in Europe.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

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Question 10

None of the American inovators in the field were able to deal adequately with foreign sales.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Staff training can have a number of objectives. It can be educational, aiming to develop the

knowledge, skills and abilities of the trainees; it can be a vehicle to promote company policy

or values; or finally, it can raise levels of staff satisfaction by ensuring employees are able to

improve their existing skills. Lively debate usually accompanies the allocation of expenditure

to the annual training budget. Critics argue that certain costs associated with such programs

could be scaled down, and those courses which are unproductive could be axed .

Question 11

Knowledge-based training is the most effective form for staff.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Question 12

Training sharpens an organization’s competitive edge.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

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Despite decrease in the miles travelled by the average cyclist in recent years, increase in

bicycle sales over the last 5 years have meant a corresponding increase in cyclist accidents.

This increase is especially marked amongst teenagers and young children. Last year, 45% of

all cyclist casualties were under 14 and another 20% under 20 years. The provisional figures

for this year show some improvement, but the fact remains that the number of cyclist of all

ages injured each year is unacceptably high.

Question 13

The majority of cyclist casualties last year involved people under 20 years of age.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Question 14

Fewer adults were involved in cycle casualties this year.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Hargraves, one of the country’s leading specialist electrical engineering companies

announced the rejection of a take-over bid made by the larger, more generalized MLT Group.

The Board of Directors stated that this was the decision of the majority of shareholders and

the announcement kept the price of Hargraves shares where it had stood before the bid had

been made. The Chairman was known to be very relieved by the decision as he could see no

advantage for the shareholders, the company or its employees in the take-over.

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Question 15

Some shareholders were against accepting the proposed take-over.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Question 16

The employees of Hargraves were against the take- over.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Although people are buying less sugar to add to their food, the percentage of sugar eaten in

manufactured foods is increasing sharply. In that form it is often referred to on the label as

fructose, sucrose or dextrose. Although there is concern at the growing compulsion to eat

over-sugared food, there is no proven link between sugar and coronary heart disease, and

sugar does not by itself make people fat.

Question 17

over-consumption of sugar sometimes results in heart disease.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Question 18

The average individual consumption of sugar in all its various forms is increasing.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

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Research into the diets of other countries and cultures can be used to point out the health

benefits of certain foods. One example of this is the Japanese diet, which is rich in omega-3

fatty acids, compared to a Western diet, in which omega-6 fatty acids are more prevalent. A

recent study has discovered that diets which incorporate high levels of omega-3 fatty acids,

found particularly in fish oils, may prevent some types of blindness. Tests performed only on

mice so far revealed that omega-3 fatty acids protect against retinopathy, which leads to loss

of vision. Further tests are scheduled to begin soon to ascertain the potential benefits for

humans.

Question 19

Japanese people tend to have better eyesight than their Western counterparts.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Question 20

The Western diet incorporates very few omega-3 fatty acids.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Despite vehicle improvements and campaigns for road safety, many injuries and fatalities are

still caused by collisions and other incidents involving vehicles. According to investigations in

the United States, some of these accidents could be prevented through the development of

a mobile internet network. All of the cars on a stretch of road would be linked to each other,

comprising the mobile network. Only one of these vehicles would need to be connected to the

internet to download travel news to the mobile network. The studies highlight the safety

advantages of such a system, which would enable drivers to find out about accidents and

potential dangers as they happen and in relation to their particular location. Drivers and

emergency service teams would detailed information about problematic areas. There are,

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however, possible drawbacks to the development of such networks, not least that the

availability of data within them could facilitate privacy infringements.

Question 21

Mobile networks could provide current travel and road information.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Question 22

Mobile networks are not a good way of decreasing the road accident rate.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Economic research has identified a trend exhibited by one in six Britons of hiding cash in their

homes instead of investing it. This is termed the ‘Biscuit Tin Economy’. It is estimated that £3.5

billion is currently hidden, sometimes in obscure places, such as under mattresses or in fridges,

in homes across the country. Reasons for this are varied, for example 6% are concealing it

from their partners, and 4% believe their money to be safer at home than in a bank.

Researchers maintain that these actions demonstrate economic folly, and that, as a result,

Britons are sacrificing up to £174 million in interest every year. This ‘Biscuit Tin Economy’ is

betraying those who trust in it, as it renders their hidden money both unproductive and

potentially unsafe, whereas it could be profitably invested in a stocks or high-interest savings

plan, for example.

Question 23

A consequence of hiding money rather than investing it is a nationwide loss of many millions

in interest each year.

A. True

B. False

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C. Cannot say

Question 24

6% of couples hide their money at home

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

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A report from a prestigious university has urged the world’s richest countries to consider the

precarious position of bird species from around the world. The study suggest that acting now

could ensure the survival of the 400 to 900 species of land bird that are at risk because of

the actions of man. The report pays particular attention to the dangers faced by those species

which are highly specialized, and may not be able to adapt to changes in their environment.

Richer countries currently have little awareness of the dangers faced by bird species around

the globe, and tend to concentrate on the preservation of local species instead.

Question 25

A large proportion of birds species in the world are currently endangered

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Question 26

The actions of man are the primary threats to birds Worldwide.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

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The diverse topography of the Peak District is chiefly due to stretching of the earth’s crust,

and thinning of Chart and Limestone as a result of plate tectonics. Chart is a variety of quartz

created where diatoms and microscopic creatures have died and been condensed as a form

of liquid silica. The chalk equivalent is flint, which has different properties, and was used during

the stone ages for making tools. Limestone is primarily of shell, algae or plankton deposits

within sediment. Although it would appear that the current topography came about from re-

exposed earlier features, there is not much that can be uncovered about the geology of the

Peak District after the Carboniferous period. It is possible that there were Permo-Triassic

deposits as outcrops of this age have been discovered close to the boundaries of the area.

Question 27

Permo-Triassic deposits can be found on the periphery of the Peak District.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Question 28

Limestone is created from a combination of shell deposits and sediment.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Timed examinations have always played an influential role in assessing the abilities of students;

however, with increasing worries that pupils are plagiarizing material from the internet for their

final year assignments, there is going to be a renewed emphasis on traditional supervised

assessment, albeit in a revised format. The new form of controlled assessment will still allow

students to conduct independent research on the internet and participate in beneficial

practical activities, such as educational trips, but it will also require students to present their

final conclusions under supervised conditions within their school. It is hoped that these

controlled assessments will maintain the integrity of their school qualifications, while also not

disadvantaging those students who become stressed by traditional timed examinations

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Question 29

Pupils are using plagiarized material in their assignments.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Question 30

The new form of assessment will not disadvantage those students who become stressed by

traditional

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

**End of Test**

P a g e | 167


VERBAL REASONING





answers:


the passage.


the passage.





you have time.



P a g e | 168


In the past 12 months benefit fraud has fallen by £½ billion to its lowest level for over a decade.

The fall is equivalent to a 25 per cent drop to 1.5 percent of the total £100 billion benefit bill.

This spectacular fall follows permission for the benefit office to access Inland Revenue taxation

data. Benefit officers can now immediately check to see if a claimant is working and claiming

benefits intended only for those out of work. This new measure has le d to over 80,000 people

being caught making false claims. A similar initiative has also succeeded in a substantial cut in

the level of fraud committed by claimants of housing benefit. Local authorities are responsible

for the administration of this allowance which is awarded to the unemployed and low paid to

help with housing costs. Until recently local authority staff had been unable to access central

government records to check the information provided by claimants. These checks have so

far identified 44,000 claimants who have provided false information in order to make claims

for allowances for which they are not eligible.

Question 1.

By making it possible to share information, over 120,000 cases of fraud have been detected.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 2.

Ten years ago the level of benefit fraud was higher.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 3.

Only the unemployed should legitimately claim these benefits.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 169


Question 4.

The tone of the passage suggests that these reductions in fraud are a good thing.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 5.

A year ago the level of benefit fraud totaled £2 billion.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

In most parts of the developed world many middle class people ask themselves over and over

again should they buy or rent a house. If they live in the United States, Spain, Ireland or the UK

then in a loud chorus they answer ‘buy’. In these countries house prices have almost doubled

over the past seven years. Other parts of the developed world have not seen such house price

inflation and anyway, is it realistic to assume that prices will always continue to rise?

Some people argue that paying rent is like throwing money away and it is better to repay a

mortgage and build some equity. But what if house prices fall? A really quite minor adjustment

would quickly wipe out the equity of many home owners. If house price inflation is something

of the past then home ownership becomes less attractive. Renting too has some advantages.

In particular, people who rent find it far easier to move for their work.

Question 6.

The passage raises the spectra that homeowners may not always be able to rely on capital

growth.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 170


Question 7.

Most middle class people in the developed world prefer to own their own home.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 8.

It is reasonable to infer that fewer people will rent if house prices stop going up in value.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 9.

Spaniards have seen their homes more than double in value.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 10.

The passage is written from the standpoint that buying may not always be better than

renting.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 171


For most of the last two decades of the previous century the economy of the city of Liverpool

was mostly stagnant and far behind that of the rest of the UK. But as other cities have become

more expensive Liverpool has become a more popular place in which to invest and live.

Liverpool’s population dropped from 800,000 after the war to less than 500,000 at the turn

of the century. The process of depopulation has now reduced to a trickle and for the first time

in decades the working population has grown. The level of unemployment, which once stood

at 20 per cent, is down to under 5 percent. Construction of office space is booming and

currently being built are conference complexes, a series of department stores and two 50-

floor tower blocks. It is not surprising, therefore, that the working population is expected to

grow further still. Low living and housing costs have attracted many public sector organizations

to relocate to the city. Forty per cent of the workforce of Liverpool work in this sector and it

seems that this trend will continue as over half of the new jobs created are public

appointments. Subsidy has played a significant part in attracting jobs and investment. Over £4

billion has been spent in the regeneration of the region and the lion’s share of this has been

committed to the city of Liverpool itself.

Question 11.

The city of Liverpool is no longer a net exporter of people.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 12.

Forty per cent of the new jobs are public appointments.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 13.

During the 1990s the economy of the region fell far behind that of the rest of the UK.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 14.

Without the subsidy fewer jobs would have been attracted to the region.

P a g e | 172


A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 15.

Much of Liverpool’s recent success is owed to the fact that the costs of living and housing

there are less than other cities in the UK.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

In 1993, a group of 16 nations announced their desire to construct a permanent outpost in

space, called the International Space Station. Since 1993, the construction of the station has

been plagued by problems, including poor weather impeding shuttle launches and the

destruction of the Columbia shuttle in 2003, while its construction may also be delayed by

potential strike action by shuttle workers. Partly as a response to the problems they faced,

NASA has developed a specialized computer program which, when fitted to their space

shuttles, will ensure the crew’s safety should there be any anomalies in the shuttles’ mechanics.

After two and a half years, the Space Shuttle program resumed flight in 2005, with their first

mission both to test new safety measures implemented since the Columbia disaster, and to

deliver supplies to the station.

Question 16

The destruction of the Columbia shuttle in 2003 stopped the Shuttle flight program.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Question 17

NASA ‘s new computer programme is designed to protect the lives of the crew.

A. True

P a g e | 173


B. False

C. Cannot say

A number of things should be taken into consideration when looking to purchase a new

computer. One of the major things to bear in mind is what its primary uses will be. For instance,

if it is to be used for graphic design or complex data analysis, one would look to invest in a

computer that has been recommended as the most efficient choice to satisfy these specific

needs. The cost of a suitable computer can vary depending on the specification required, the

brand and the speed. The performance of the system is dependent on major components such

as the processor, memory hard disk space, it therefore becomes a case of striking a balance

between purchasing a computer that will meet the user’s requirements, while also not over-

spending in areas where the extra investment may be wasted.

Question 18

A computer with good specifications required to carry out complex data analysis.

A. True

B. False

Question 19

A hard disk is one of the fundamental parts of a computer.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

P a g e | 174


In the future it may be possible to construct environments in space, capable of supporting

significant numbers of inhabitants in conditions that resemble those on Earth. New

manufacturing technologies are being studied, which will enable work to be done in space by

means of a combination of heat and kinetic energy. It has been shown that steel casting and

welding is possible, heating the metal using a combination of sunlight and electrical energy.

Solar power provides manufacturers with the utilizations of an arrangement of maneuverable

mirrors. Theoretically, space manufacturing could require only a very small amount of materials

begin brought from Earth.

Question 20

The mirrors used to harness solar power must track the movement of the sun in order to

provide energy.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Question 21

Steel may be moulded and joined using merely solar power.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Within the next 6 months, all deposit taken by landlords must be protected by a tenancy

deposit scheme. Deposits have long been a point of contention at the end of a tenancy, where

landlords and tenants have disputed the spending of a tenant’s deposit to repair or clean the

rented space. Now, landlords or agents will be able to choose between two authorized tenancy

deposit schemes: a singles custodial scheme or an insurance-based scheme. These schemes

are designed to provide a service which allows disagreements between tenant and landlord or

agent to be resolved by an indifferent party, and without the possibility of involving costly legal

fees. Under each scheme, the landlord or agent receive the deposit, as is currently standard

procedure. Under the custodial scheme, the landlord or agent then pays the deposit to the

scheme, which will retain it until the termination of the tenancy. The insurance-based scheme

differs in that the landlord or agent keeps the deposit but pays insurance premiums to the

scheme, which will repay the tenant the agreed amount directly should there be any dispute.

It is up to the landlord or agent to decide which scheme to use and to provide details to the

tenant within 14 days of receipt of the deposit.

P a g e | 175


Question 22

Tenancy deposit schemes have been designed to offer protection to tenants by allowing

disputes to be settled out of court.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

Question 23

After 14 days, the landlord or agent must decide what scheme to use and provide details to

the tenant.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot say

I felt the wall of the tunnel shiver. The master alarm squealed through my earphones. Almost

simultaneously, Jack yelled down to me that there was a warning light on. Fleeting but

spectacular sights snapped into and out of view, the snow, the shower of debris, the moon,

looming close and big, the dazzling sunshine for once unfiltered by layers of air. The last twelve

hours before re-entry were particular bone-chilling. During this period, I had to go up in to

command module. Even after the fiery re-entry splashing down in 81o water in south pacific,

we could still see our frosty breath inside the command module.

Question 24

The word 'Command Module' used twice in the given passage indicates perhaps that it deals

with a journey into outer space

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

P a g e | 176


Question 25

That a catastrophe was imminent is a considered as possible for the warning lights to be on?

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

**End of Test**

P a g e | 177


VERBAL REASONING





answers:


the passage.


the passage.





you have time.



P a g e | 178


Light is made up of electromagnetic waves. These vary in length and it is these differences

that we perceive as different colours. White light has all the wavelengths of the light spectrum

mixed up together. An object looks coloured because light falls on it and it reflects only certain

parts of the spectrum. The rest of the spectrum is absorbed by the object. An object that looks

white reflects all the light that falls on it. An object that looks red reflects the red part of the

spectrum and absorbs the rest. Our eyes detect these different reflected waves and we see

them as different colours.

Question 1.

Without colours we would consider the world a dull and less beautiful place.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 2.

White light is an amalgam of all the wave lengths of light.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 3.

The passage states that an object that looks blue absorbs all but the blue wavelengths of

light.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 4.

The colour we perceive an object to be is determined by the electromagnetic waves that it

absorbs or reflects.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 179


Question 5.

White paint reflects more light than red paint.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Between 1797 and 1815 Europe went through the Napoleonic wars. This period saw France at

war with the kingdoms of Prussia, Russia, Austria, Spain and Britain. At that time the French

army was the most powerful in Europe.

By 1808 France had conquered much of the continent and had created the largest European

empire since the Romans two thousand years before. Napoleon Bonaparte was its emperor

and the military leader who oversaw the many major victories. However, a disastrous campaign

in Russia, retreat from the Spanish peninsular and British supremacy at sea eventually allowed

a combined European force to defeat Napoleon’s army at Waterloo.

Question 6.

The Napoleonic wars lasted 18 years.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 7.

By 1808 Napoleon headed an empire that controlled most of the continent of Europe.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 8.

At the height of Napoleon’s victories the French army was the largest in Europe.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 9.

France won battles against Prussia, Russia, Austria and Britain.

P a g e | 180


A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 10.

The passage states that the battle of Waterloo took place in 1815.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Traditionally medicine was the science of curing illness with treatments. For thousands of years

people would have used plants and would have turned to priests for cures. In more recent

times illness has been attributed less to the intervention of gods or magic and instead too

natural causes. Medicine today is as much concerned with prevention as cure. Doctors use

treatments of many types, including radiation and vaccination, both of which were unknown

until very recent times. Other treatments have been known about and practised for centuries.

Muslim doctors were skilled surgeons and treated pain with opium. When Europeans first reach

the Americas they found healers who used many plants to cure illnesses. The Europeans

adopted many of these treatments and some are still effective and in use today.

Question 11.

Modern medicine is the science of curing illness.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 12.

Medicine is a science that owes its success to modern treatments.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 13.

Vaccination is a relatively recent discovery.

A. True

P a g e | 181


B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 14.

The author of the passage believes that prevention is better than cure.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 15.

Practitioners of modern medicine make use of many techniques and technologies.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Asia is the world’s largest continent and stretches from the Baring Sea in the east to Turkey

and Europe in the west. Its southern border comprises many islands, including those that make

up Indonesia. Since independence of colonial powers Asian economies have boomed. First

were Japan, Singapore, Taiwan and South Korea and later Malaysia, Thailand and Indonesia.

More recently China and India have enjoyed rapid economic growth. The southwest and

central parts of the continent are deserts. The Himalayan mountains divide the cold north from

the tropical south. The people of Asia make up over two-thirds of the world’s population and

they live in the birthplace of the world’s earliest civilizations.

Question 16.

Civilization began in the continent of Asia.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 17.

The colonial era was a disaster for Asia.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 182


Question 18.

More of the world’s population live in Asia than in any other continent.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 19.

Post-colonial growth first occurred in Singapore.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 20.

The continent of Antarctica is smaller than Asia.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 183


In tropical rainforests the climate remains hot and damp all the year round. In the artic it is cold

all year and high up in mountain ranges the climate is much colder than in nearby low-lying

lands. Climate is not the same as weather. The weather can change quickly whereas the climate

describes the likely weather conditions over a much longer period of time. The world is divided

into five climate zones. Polar is the only zone where it is always cold, tropical where it is hot all

year round, temperate where there are warm summers and cold winters, desert where it is dry

and cool, and forest where the summers are cool and short. Great climate changes have

occurred, an example of which is the last ice age. Mankind can affect climate when, for example,

he causes great forest fi res that create so much smoke that the sun is obscured for months,

cooling a region. More recently man has affected the climate as a result of pollution from

industry causing the earth to warm through what is called the greenhouse effect.

Question 21.

The passage states that the weather in high mountain ranges is cooler than in nearby low-

lying areas.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 22.

The passage describes how climate can change.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 23.

In a tropical rainforest the climate is the same winter and summer.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 24.

In deserts the winter is cooler than the summer.

A. True

P a g e | 184


B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 25.

You can infer from the passage that the artic is a polar climate zone.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

The theory goes that everything around us is built up of tiny particles called atoms. Some

materials are made up of only one type of atom; these are called elements. An example is

hydrogen. Others are made up of different sorts of atom bonded together into molecules.

These are called compounds.

Water, for example, is a compound made up of molecules that contain two hydrogen and one

oxygen atom. The force which holds atoms together is called bonds. Atoms are made up of

even smaller particles such as neutrons, electrons and protons. Neutrons and protons are

made up of even smaller particles. These have been called quarks and gluons. The search is

on for the particles that make up quarks.

Question 26.

The atom is the smallest particle of matter.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 27.

All substances are made up of elements.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 28.

A molecule is a cluster of atoms held together by bonds.

A. True

B. False

P a g e | 185


C. Cannot tell

Question 29.

Neutrons are made up of quarks and gluons.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 30.

It can be inferred from the passage that molecules are made up of neutrons, electrons and

protons.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

**End of Test**

P a g e | 186


VERBAL REASONING





answers:


the passage.


the passage.





you have time.



P a g e | 187


Credit card fraud has reached £500 million despite the introduction of new controls. Figures

show that losses to fraud rose by 20 per cent last year. Most frauds result from cards

intercepted in the post. One hundred thousand cards were posted to customers every day

last year. This represents rich pickings for fraudsters. The banks knew the year would be

difficult because it was thought that fraudsters would try to commit as many crimes as possible

before new controls were introduced. It is hoped that this time next year the effect of the new

measures will be known and that the level of fraud will have fallen considerably.

Question 1.

Top of the table of types of fraud are those committed with credit cards stolen from people’s

post.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 2.

The new measures are sophisticated anti-fraud strategies.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 3.

The new measures are already in place.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 4.

Credit card fraud committed as a result of cards intercepted through the post has reached

£500 million.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 5.

The level of losses to overall credit card fraud rose by 20 per cent.

P a g e | 188


A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

The ambulance service estimates that as many as 500 lives are lost because of the slower

emergency response times caused by road humps. Some claim that road humps, or sleeping

policemen as they are sometimes called, cost more lives than are saved as a result of the traffic

being slowed. Critics of road humps also claim that they cause more pollution as drivers

repeatedly slow down and speed up and that they cause more congestion by disrupting the

flow of traffic. Residents complain of the noise of cars crossing them and accelerating away

from them. Some of these claims run counter to published research which shows that road

humps cause average speeds to drop by 10 mph and as a result save lives. Since 1980 and

the widespread introduction of road humps, figures show that the level of deaths and serious

injury fell by 60 per cent.

Question 6.

Delays to the ambulance service and environmental concerns are raised as objections to

road humps.

A. True

B. False Answer

C. Cannot tell

Question 7.

It is fair to say that road humps can save lives and injuries but at a price.

A. True

B. False Answer

C. Cannot tell

Question 8.

Drivers find road humps annoying.

A. True

B. False

P a g e | 189


C. Cannot tell

Question 9.

Critics believe that traffic would flow more smoothly if road humps were removed.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 10.

The passage states that it is true that the repeated slowing and accelerating of cars over

road humps causes more pollution.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

People assume that they go to hospital to get well. However, in the past few years this

perception has been challenged by the real risk of acquiring a deadly infection while in

hospital. As a consequence, public confidence in the health service has suffered. An antibiotic-

resistant strain of bacteria was first identified in the 1950s. It was a staphylococcus common

in abscesses and bloodstream infections and it had become resistant to the antibiotic

penicillin. Since then the bacteria have become resistant to a second antibiotic and have

become established as a source of infection in many nursing homes and hospitals. Today it is

believed to cause about 1,000 deaths each year as a result of hospital-acquired infections.

Action that can beat this ‘superbug’ is simple but expensive. It requires very high levels of

hygiene and cleanliness and a programme of testing so that infected patients can be isolated

and treated.

Question 11.

Staphylococcus infections kill around 1,000 people a year.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 190


Question 12.

If clean hospitals had been a priority in the 1950s we would not face this threat today.

A. True

B. False Answer

C. Cannot tell

Question 13.

Staphylococcus became established as a source of infection in many nursing homes and

hospitals in the 1950s.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 14.

Staphylococcus has become a ‘superbug’.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 15.

Infections of the bloodstream are more serious than abscesses.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Recent changes to the postal voting system are considered by election officials to significantly

increase the risk of electoral fraud. If it were to be widespread such fraud could discredit the

whole electoral process. Greatest concerns centre around the very limited time the new

system allows electoral administrators to check that requests for postal ballots are genuine.

The government are keen to increase the number of people who cast a vote and believe that

people should not be denied a vote simply because they do not apply in good time. Fraud is

currently rare and there is so far no evidence of postal votes leading to widespread fraud.

P a g e | 191


Question 16.

The government was warned by electoral administrators that the risk of fraud is now much

higher.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 17.

There is currently insufficient fraud to bring the electoral system into disrepute.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 18.

The previous system of postal voting was considered by election administrators to be less

open to fraud.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 19.

There is a process for checking the validity of applications for postal votes.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 20.

It is clear that the author of the passage agrees with the concerns raised by the

administrators.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 192


Oil prices have been at record levels and are currently at around $45 a barrel. In the most

efficient oil fields it costs only 80 to 90 cents to extract a barrel. Most producing countries

want greater oil price stability and fear for the effect on their economies and on world demand

when, as in recent years, oil prices have fluctuated between $20 and $50 a barrel. In response,

some producers are expanding production capacity in order that they can respond more

flexibly to demand and rising prices with greater production.

Exploration and research into extraction techniques have been commissioned to investigate

ways in which production can be expanded. This exploration and research brought unexpected

results. Oil analysts have concluded that there is much more oil in the world than current

estimates assume and that new techniques make it possible to extract much more of the known

reserves economically than previously thought.

Question 21.

The record price for crude oil is $50 a barrel.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 22.

New extraction techniques allow oil to be extracted at a price of between 80 and 90 cents a

barrel.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 23.

It is reasonable to assume that greater capacity at times of high demand will help stabilize

prices.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 193


Question 24.

The passage states that the recent exploration has found new reserves.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 25.

It would be reasonable to infer from the passage that oil analysts were impressed by the

findings of the exploration and research.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Solicitors, doctors and priests have all traditionally kept in strict confidence information they

hold about or are told by their clients. A doctor will not disclose a patient’s illness to anyone

but the patient or next of kin. Priests have sought to keep secret the content of what they learn

in the confessional and solicitors have guarded carefully the confidentiality of the client–lawyer

relationship.

However, under certain circumstances all these professions make exceptions and will break

confidences. A doctor must by law report injuries they believe are the result of gunshots and

conditions that represent serious threats to public health. Priests have provided information

to the police in relation to child abuse cases and murder. Solicitors are required to report only

suspicions they have of money laundering. Journalists also adopt a code of confidentiality to

protect their sources. They have a reputation for being profession far less likely to break their

code even when ordered by the courts.

In a number of high-profile cases journalists have chosen to go to jail for contempt of court

rather than reveal the source of a story.

Question 26.

The passage mentions priests, doctors and solicitors as professions with a confidentiality

ethic.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 194


Question 27.

Solicitors are obliged to report a client to the authorities if they suspect them of tax evasion.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 28.

The passage details circumstances where a client’s confidentiality might be broken by all the

mentioned professions.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 29.

All professions have a confidentiality code but some are stricter than others.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 30.

The passage states that a doctor can be prosecuted if he or she does not report a patient

who has suffered gunshot wounds.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 195


ANSWERS &

EXPLANATIONS

P a g e | 196


MOCK TEST 1

ANSWERS Question 1.

A, Explanation: The passage says …constantly changing massive inflation rates leads to

significant time required to commit to pricing. This can be considered as considerable.

Question 2.

C, Explanation: No details of reduction in money spent. We only know they join the team in

order to streamline communication and impel project completion. We cannot also say the

statement is “False” since the passage did not expressly say so.

Question 3.

A, Explanation: The passage states this in line 3.

Question 4.

B, Explanation: Although it is true that the report recommends an international agreement,

but it was meant to reduce and not to stabilize.

Question 5.

C, Explanation: This was not expressly stated in the passage.

Question 6.

C, Explanation: Again, there was no mention of how much reduction in accidental soundings

the new alarm systems will bring;

Question 8.

C, Explanation: The passage does not inform us of what women in “designer corner” must

wear; and we cannot say if jewelry is allowed

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Question 9.

A, Explanation: The passage states in the last sentence of the passage that because the

suppliers worked through incompetent suppliers, Home computing in Europe got off to a

slow start.

Question 10.

A. Explanation: The passage stated this fact in the second sentence.

Question 11.

A, Explanation: We cannot tell from the passage that knowledge-based training is the most

effective;

Question 12.

C, Explanation: The passage does not list training as one that promotes competitive edge.

We must note that every deduction must be made based on what is clearly stated or inferred

from the passage. Even if we know this to be true in real life.

Question 13.

A, Explanation: The passage states that a total of 65% were under 20; which meant the

majority

Question 14.

C, Explanation: This statement was not expressly stated, the same cannot be said to be false;

Question 15.

A, Explanation: The passage clearly states this rejection as a decision of majority of the

shareholders.

Question 16.

C, Explanation: The passage does not say whether or not the employees voiced their

concerns about the takeover bid;

Question 17.

C, Explanation: The passage states that there is no proven link between sugar consumption

and heart disease; But that there is no proof doesn’t expressly make this a fact.

P a g e | 198


Question 18.

A, Explanation: The truth of this assertion can be inferred from the passage; in line 3

Question 19.

A, Explanation: The passages states that better sight is the main benefit of omega3 which is

found in Japanese people’s diet

Question 20.

A, -Explanation: This fact is stated in the passage.

Question 21.

A, Explanation: The passage does not give details of the actual record price, only the range

of prices and the current price;

Question 22.

B, Explanation Mobile networks are definitely good at reducing road accidents according to

the passage

Question 23.

A, Explanation: It is not explicitly stated that 174 million is lost each year;

Question 24.

B, Explanation: 6% hide their money from their partners, another 4% hide their money for

another reason.

Question 25.

C, Explanation: We only know that birds around the world are endangered, there is no

express mention of what proportion that number constitute.

Question 26.

C, Explanation: We cannot tell if the world only has 400 to 900 species of land birds which

are at risk because of the actions of man;

P a g e | 199


Question 27.

B, Explanation: The passage does not expressly state that; Permo-Triassic deposits can be

found on the periphery of the Peak District. However, that does not eliminate the possibility.

Question 28.

A, Explanation: The passage describes in second paragraph that Limestone is primarily of

shell, algae or plankton deposits in sediment.;

Question 29.

C, Explanation: The statement as presented only shows that there is worry of pupils

plagiarizing. It wasn’t stated that this happened – only speculative;

Question 30.

A, Explanation: The last sentence in the passage expressly states that as a fact.

P a g e | 200


MOCK TEST 2

ANSWERS Question 1.

A, Explanation: 80,000 by benefit officers and 44,000 by local authorities;

Question 2.

B, Explanation: The passage states that the new lower total was the lowest for 10 years so the

level must have been lower 10 years ago;

Question 3.

B, Explanation: Housing benefit is also awarded to the low paid;

Question 4.

A, Explanation: In the passage the fall in false claims is described as spectacular;

Question 5.

A, Explanation: The passage states that the £½ billion drop is equivalent to 25%, so the level

of fraud 12 months previously would have been £2 billion. 50 Ultimate psychometric tests

Question 6.

A, Explanation: Such growth does not occur in some parts of the developed world and the

passage asked if it is realistic to assume that prices will always rise;

Question 7.

C, Explanation: Only the views of middle class people in the United States, Spain, Ireland and

the UK are detailed; we are not informed of the views of the middle classes from other

countries and cannot infer this information;

P a g e | 201


Question 8.

B, Explanation: Homeownership would become less attractive so we might expect more

people to rent not fewer;

Question 9.

B, Explanation: The passage states that prices have almost doubled;

Question 10.

A, Explanation: This is a fair summary of the passage.

Question 11.

B, Explanation: The process of depopulation is described as having reduced to a trickle, so it

continues;

Question 12.

B, Explanation: Over half of the new jobs are public appointments;

Question 13.

C, Explanation: The city of Liverpool is described this way but no information is given or can

be inferred as to the relative state of the region’s economy;

Question 14.

A, Explanation: The subsidy is described as playing a significant part in attracting jobs and

investment;

Question 15.

A, Explanation: Low living and housing costs have attracted jobs and as other cities have

become expensive Liverpool has become more popular.

P a g e | 202


MOCK TEST 3

ANSWERS

Question 1.

C, Explanation: The passage makes no comment on how the world would be if there were no

colours;

Question 2.

A, Explanation: ‘Amalgamate’ means mixture and the passage states that white light is a mix of

all the wavelengths;

Question 3.

B, Explanation: The passage does not make this statement;

Question 4.

A, Explanation: The truth of this statement follows logically from the passage;

Question 5.

A, Explanation: The truth of this statement can be inferred from the passage.

Question 6.

A, Explanation: The period 1797 to 1815 totals 18 years;

Question 7.

A, Explanation: The passage states that Napoleon was the emperor of France which

conquered much of the continent of Europe;

Question 8.

C, Explanation: The passage states that the French army was the most powerful but you

cannot safely infer that it was also the largest;

P a g e | 203


Question 9.

C, Explanation: The passage states that France was at war with these kingdoms but does not

say whether France won battles against them all;

Question 10.

B, Explanation: No date for this battle is given in the passage.

Question 11.

B, Explanation: The passage states that this was true traditionally but that today medicine is

also concerned with prevention;

Question 12.

B, Explanation: The passage describes the legacy of treatments and techniques pioneered

centuries ago;

Question 13.

A, Explanation: This is stated in the passage;

Question 14.

C, Explanation: The views of the author are not disclosed;

Question 15.

A, Explanation: The passage states that doctors use treatments of many types and gives

examples of both techniques (surgery) and technologies such as radiation and vaccines.

Question 16.

A, Explanation: The passage states that Asia was the birthplace of civilization;

Question 17.

C, Explanation: The passage does not provide any information on this point;

Question 18.

A, Explanation: The passage states that the people of Asia make up over two-thirds of the

world’s population;

P a g e | 204


Question 19.

C, Explanation: The passage states that the first economies to boom were Japan, Singapore,

Taiwan and South Korea. It does not say in which of these it first occurred;

Question 20.

A, Explanation: The passage states that Asia is the world’s largest continent so the truth of

this statement can be inferred.

Question 21.

B, Explanation: The passage states that the climate will be cooler, not the weather;

Question 22.

A, Explanation: The passage gives examples of causes and mechanisms of climate change;

Question 23.

A, Explanation: The passage states that in tropical rainforests the climate remains hot and

damp all the year round;

Question 24.

C, Explanation: The passage does not provide information on this point and it cannot be

safely inferred from the passage;

Question 25.

A, Explanation: The passage states that the artic is cold all year and that the polar zone is the

only climate zone where it is always cold.

Question 26.

B, Explanation: The passage describes smaller particles;

Question 27.

B, Explanation: The passage describes matter as being either elements or compounds;

Question 28.

C, Explanation: A tricky one – the passage describes molecules as atoms bonded together

P a g e | 205


but it states only that atoms are held together by bonds. The means by which molecules are

bonded together is not stated;

Question 29.

A, Explanation: This is stated in the passage;

Question 30.

A, Explanation: The passage states that all matter is made up of atoms including molecules

and that atoms are made from these smaller particles.

P a g e | 206


MOCK TEST 4

ANSWERS Question 1.

C, Explanation: The passage does not provide details of which type of fraud is the most

common;

Question 2.

C, Explanation: No details of the new measures are given in the passage

Question 3.

B, Explanation: The passage states that the new measures are not yet in place

Question 4.

B, Explanation: Total card fraud has reached £500 million; most but not all of this fraud is

committed as a result of intercepted cards; 3Question 5.

A, Explanation: This is clear from a careful reading of the passage.

Question 5.

A, Explanation: This can be readily deduced from the passage

Question 6.

A, Explanation: The passage provides details of the lives and injuries saved and details the

cost in terms of the environment and delays to the ambulance service;

Question 8.

C, Explanation: The passage does not inform us of driver attitudes;

Question 9.

A, Explanation: The passage states that road humps disrupt the flow of traffic

P a g e | 207


Question 10.

B. Explanation: The passage does not state that this is true, only that critics claim this to be

the case.

Question 11.

B, Explanation: The 1,000 deaths result from hospital-acquired infections;

Question 12.

C, Explanation: The passage provides no information on how the antibiotic resistant bacteria

might have been countered in the 1950s;

Question 13.

B, Explanation: The passage states that the infection became established in hospitals and

nursing homes since that time;

Question 14.

A, Explanation: The term is used to describe it in the passage;

Question 15.

C, Explanation: The passage does not provide information on the relative severity of these

conditions.

Question 16.

C, Explanation: The passage does not say whether or not the administrators voiced their

concerns to government;

Question 17.

A, Explanation: The passage states that widespread fraud would discredit the electoral

process but that fraud is currently rare;

Question 18.

A, Explanation: The passage states that recent changes to the system have led to an

increased fear of fraud. So the truth of this assertion can be inferred from the passage;

P a g e | 208


Question 19.

A, Explanation: The passages states that checks are made but the new system may not allow

sufficient time to complete them;

Question 20.

B, -Explanation: It is not clear as the views of the author are not given.

Question 21.

C, Explanation: The passage does not give details of the actual record price, only the range

of prices and the current price;

Question 22.

B, Explanation: The most efficient fields currently extract oil at these prices; the new

techniques will allow for more oil to be economically extracted but the price of extraction for

these techniques is not given;

Question 23.

A, Explanation: While it is not explicitly stated in the passage it is a reasonable assumption

from reading the passage;

Question 24.

B, Explanation: This is not explicitly stated in the passage;

Question 25.

A, Explanation: The results are described as unexpected and to have led to improved

forecasts of both the amount of oil and the amount that can be economically extracted. It is

fair therefore to conclude that analysts were impressed by the findings.

Question 26.

A, Explanation: It also mentions journalists but this does not affect the truth of the statement;

Question 27.

B, Explanation: The passage states that solicitors only have to report suspicions of money

laundering;

P a g e | 209


Question 28.

A, Explanation: The passage describes exceptions for all the professions, including

journalists, who might break their code under order of a court;

Question 29.

C, Explanation: Only four professions are covered in the passage so we do not know if all

professions have these codes;

Question 30.

B, Explanation: The passage states only that they must report such injuries, not that they can

be prosecuted.

P a g e | 210


FULL LENGTH 1

TEST-1: NUMERICAL REASONING

SHL® numerical reasoning questions presents a series of graphs and

tables, and questions that relate to them. This is a mock test comprising

just 20 questions. You will have 20 minutes to answer them. Set a timer,

and be sure to stop solving once your time is up. You can assess you

performance, and check the correct answers and explanations.





you have time.



questions.



P a g e | 211


Newsela Retail Outlets

Staff Purchase

Quantity

Cost to Company per item

Type No Dresscode* Trousers Suits Shirts Shoes

Office 212 Admin 1-10 £13.54 £137.65 £7.67 £32.35

Sales 64 Admin 11-25 £8.64 £112.35 £5.23 £28.64

Senior 16 Admin 26-50 £8.26 £98.34 £4.25 £23.65

Delivery 33 Operational 51-99 £7.64 £85.64 £4.05 £20.32

Warehouse 112 Operational 100+ £7.49 £76.15 £3.26 £18.64

* Operational workers are only entitled to shirt, trousers and shoes.

Admin workers are only entitled to suits with shoes.

Question 1

How much money would the company save if delivery staff and warehouse staff wore the

same uniforms and their purchases could therefore be combined?

A. 136.95

B. 223.41

C. 346.50

D. 432.96

E. 516.85

Question 2

Which type of staff will cost the company the least in providing uniforms?

A. Office

B. Sales

C. Senior

D. Delivery

E. Warehouse

P a g e | 212


Question 3

What percentage discount is offered on admin uniforms for purchase quantities greater than

100, compared to the price for the smallest purchase quantity?

A. 42.4%

B. 44.2%

C. 49.9%

D. 55.8%

E. 57.6%

Question 4

If all staff, both operations and admin, were required to wear trousers, shirts and shoes, how

much would this cost the company?

A. £4,698

B. £12,843

C. £18,648

D. £27,364

E. £33,615

P a g e | 213


World Fossil Fuel Regulation

UK Coal

Energy

Extraction (000s)

Tonnes per year

Electricity

production per kg

(units)

Remaining coal

(millions of tonnes)

UK Mines 46,324 17.0 68.27

Folen 34,953 12.3 70.95

Dirme 74,036 14.2 62.73

Lit 13,684 21.0 61.02

All Others 385,306 14.7 82.63

- 1 tonne = 1,000 kilograms

- An average UK household utilizes 4.5 unites of electricity per day

- One unit of electricity is sold for £0.08

Question 5

What is the total number of units (in millions) of electricity produced each year based on the

current extraction rates of coal from all mines combined assuming all mines have an endless

supply of coal?

A. 1.05 million

B. 4.29 million

C. 7 .87 million

D. 8.2 million

E. 11.9 million

P a g e | 214


World Fossil Fuel Regulation

UK Coal

Energy

Extraction (000s)

Tonnes per year

Electricity

production per kg

(units)

Remaining coal

(millions of tonnes)

UK Mines 46,324 17.0 68.27

Folen 34,953 12.3 70.95

Dirme 74,036 14.2 62.73

Lit 13,684 21.0 61.02

All Others 385,306 14.7 82.63

- 1 tonne = 1,000 kilograms

- An average UK household utilizes 4.5 unites of electricity per day

- One unit of electricity is sold for £0.08

Question 6

If there are 22.36 million homes in the UK, approximately how much money in total do UK

households pay for their electricity per year? Assume 365 days in a year.

A. £850,000

B. £2.94 million

C. B million

D. £652 million

E. £2,938 million

P a g e | 215


Question 7

At the continued rate of extraction, in how many years is the coal from the Folen Mine likely

to run out?

A. 1.5 years

B. 3 years

C. 4.5 years

D. 6 years

E. 7.5 years

Question 8

Which mine can produce the greatest amount of units of electricity before it runs out of

coal?

A. Folen

B. Dirme

C. lit

D. Ryken

E. All Others

P a g e | 216


Company Figures at the end of the current Financial Year

Hardlow

plc GRT plc Xiang IKO Inc Aurore

Turnover ($m*) 11.4 160.7 2.3 7.3 60.0

Profit ($m*) 9.2 -33.9 -1.9 £7.67 £32.35

Assets ($m*) 42.3 640.1 25.2 27.1 130.1

Debt ($m*) 9.7 341.0 1.7 8.2 30.8

Share Price (pence) 108.0 172.1 6.0 11.3 48.7

No of Shares m*) 0.5 2.7 0.9 3.2 7.2

* m = millions

Question 9

If Xiang's Turnover is down 7% from the last financial year, what was the Turnover for that

year?

A. 1.56m

B. 2.45m

C. 2.47m

D. 2.74m

E. Cannot say

Question 10

Which company has the greatest value of Assets per share?

A. Hardlow pie

B. GRT pie

C. Xiang

D. IKO Inc

E. Aurore

P a g e | 217


Question 11

Which company has the lowest value of Assets per share?

A. Hardlow pie

B. GRT pie

C. Xiang

D. IKO Inc

E. Aurore

Question 12

Between which years did the largest percentage growth in Sales Margin occur?

A. 1995-1996

B. 1996-1997

C. 1997-1998

D. 1998-1999

E. 1999-2000

Operating Performance for International Paper Goods (IPG)

1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000

Net sales 1,600 2,158 2,375 2,375 2,508 2,709

Cost of goods sold 1,089 1,487 1,661 1,508 1,568 1,716

Sales margin 511 671 886 867 922 993

Fixed costs 289 411 582 578 592 596

Operating cash flow 222 260 304 289 331 397

P a g e | 218


Question 13

The average annual growth rate in Net Sales for the industry from 1995 onwards was 20%. By

how many EUR did the Net Sales of IPG exceed the industry average by 1997?

A. 320m

B. 324m

C. 328m

D. 332m

E. None of these

Question 14

Efficiency is th e Operating C a s h Flow a s a percentage of total costs (Goods Sold & Fixed

Costs). What was the efficiency of JPG in 1996?

A. 13.1%

B. 13.3%

C. 13.5%

D. 13.7%

E. None of these

P a g e | 219


Question 15

Of the total sales over the 5-year period, approximately what percentage were trousers?

A. 16%

B. 17%

C. 22%

D. 23%

E. 30%

Question 16

What is the approximate ratio of shirts sold in Year 1 and Year 2 to the total sales of all

products in Year 5?

A. 1:2

B. 1:3

C. 2:1

D. 2:3

E. 3:2

Question 17

JINGY Fashion Productions

Product Production Cost

per Item

Total number of Sales (000s) by Year

Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5

Trousers $3.20 7,230 5,124 6,186 4,820 12,945

Shirts $4.73 9,542 5,462 4,654 3,698 7,684

Jumpers $2.64 6,437 4,369 8,438 5,815 8,428

Suits $11.36 2,564 7,264 1,579 6,479 2,545

Other $2.45 5,456 8,126 7,126 9,433 11,943

P a g e | 220


Over the 5-year period, which product was the most expensive to produce?

A. Trousers

B. Shirts

C. Jumpers

D. Suits

E. Other

P a g e | 221


Sales Figures for the Top Popular Cars

Model code G02F F326 E323 S365 G636

Production cost $16,000 $14,390 $11,654 $17,265 $11,314

Retail price $22,000 1,487 1,661 1,508 1,568

Engine size (litres) 1.8 2.0 1.6 2.3 1.8

Miles per UK Gallon 32 27 38 37 35

Fuel cost (per UK gallon) $4.75 $4.75 $5.05 $5.05 $4.75

6.22

9.74

5.14

7.54

6.15

4.79 5.34 4.32

2.21 3.33

G02F F326 S365 G636 E323

Un

its

sold

(m

illio

ns)

Private Cars Business Cars

P a g e | 222


Question 18

Considering the number of vehicles bought as business cars, how much profit did the model

that benefited the most by targeting this market make?

A. £20,513 million

B. £35,126 million

C. £50,684 million

D. £65,236 million

E. £80,457 million

Question 19

If a journey of 200 miles was to be made, which model would prove the most cost effective

in terms of fuel economy?

A. G02F

B. F326

C. E323

D. 5365

E. G636

Question 20

If a gallon is 4.55litres, how many litres would the most fuel economic model use for a journey

of 200 miles?

A. 24 litres

B. 25 litres

C. 26 litres

D. 27 litres

E. 28 litres

P a g e | 223


TEST-2: VERBAL REASONING

Instructions:

You have 30 minutes to complete the 20 questions in this part of your assessment.

This verbal reasoning assessment consists of several passages, each followed by statements.

Your task is to read the passages and find out if the statement is true, false or if you cannot

tell, based on the information provided in the passage.

Try to work quickly but accurately. Do not spend too long on any question. If you are not sure

of an answer select your best choice and go on to the next question.

You will have the opportunity to review your choices later on if you still have time.

Once you are ready to get started, please turn to the next page.

P a g e | 224


Lack of water is an ever-worsening global crisis, with over forty percent of the world's

population now suffering from regular

and severe water shortages. Increases in population mean that there is less water available

per capita. In addition, pollution related global warming is making some countries, which were

already short of water, even hotter and drier. Demand for water is doubling every twenty years

and there are predictions that, in the future, nations may go to war to tight for its control.

Question 1

Some countries are not affected by global warming.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 2

Oil shortages, more than a lack of water, are likely to result in war.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 3

Neither climate change nor population expansion are exacerbating the water shortage

problem.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 225


Water, the most common liquid used for cleaning, has a property called surface tension.

Molecules in the body of the water are surrounded by other molecules, but at the surface a

'tension' is created as molecules are only surrounded by other molecules on the waterside.

This tension inhibits the cleaning process, as it slows the wetting of surfaces due to tension

causing the water to bead up. This is where water droplets hold their shape and do not spread.

For effective cleaning to take place 'surface tension' must be reduced so that water can

spread. Surface-active gents, or surfactants, are chemicals which are able to do this

effectively.

Question 4

Water is the only known liquid used for cleaning.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 5

Surface active agents, or surfactant s, are only used for cleaning.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 6

If surfactant chemicals are added to water when cleaning a surface, surface tension will

occur.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 226


Horticulturalists must take into account many factors when planning the reproduction of

plants. Propagation by seed is the most common method employed as it is relatively easy and

has a good expected rate of germination, although this can drop if the seed has been

packaged for more than a year. Many seeds can remain viable for up to 5 years if properly

stored, as their protective coats prevent sprouting until ideal growing conditions exist. External

conditions can be manipulated in order to bring seeds out of dormancy and hasten

germination. However, even in optimal conditions, some seeds are reluctant to sprout.

Question 7

All seeds will germinate given the right environmental conditions.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 8

The rate at which seeds sprout can de-cline after the first year of being packaged.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 9

The reproduction of flora involves many aspects for horticulturalists to consider.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 227


The biggest risk facing the world's insurance companies is possibly the rapid change now

taking place within their own ranks. Sluggish growth in core markets and intense price

competition, coupled with shifting patterns of customer demand and the rising cost of losses,

are threatening to overwhelm those too slow to react.

Question 10

Insurance companies are experiencing a boom in their core markets.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 11

Insurance companies that are cautious in responding to change will prevail in the long term.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 12

Insurance companies are competing to provide the best prices to customers.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 228


Over the past decade there has been a steady growth in the holiday industry whilst the number

of travel agencies has declined. This is due to the increasing number of customers who are

booking their holidays online, because of a quicker and more financially viable service.

However, specialist travel agencies, such as those focusing on particular regions or holiday

activities, remain successful as they .have an in-depth understanding of a region and the

customers who go there.

The staff are also multilingual, and thanks to their specialised knowledge they can provide

good deals, meaning that their prices are often lower than non-specialist travel agents and

online companies:

Question 13

Only specialist travel agencies employ multilingual staff.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 14

It is not always more expensive for the customer to book holidays with a travel agent.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 15

Specialist travel agents visit certain regions in order to gain a detailed knowledge of these

areas and the customers they attract.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 229


Significant advances in float furnace design and operation, in the development of glass

compositions, and in the glass forming process itself have all played a role in the optimisation

of glass manufacturing. For example, thermodynamic modelling assists with the enhancement

of glass composition and offers control over devitrification characteristics, and studies

examining burner design, to ensure flames have maximum luminosity and impinge on the glass

at the correct angle, aid the minimisation of fuel consumption. The exploitation of such

advanced research allows glass manufacturers to reduce their expenditure on fuel, decrease

their defect rates and produce glass of the highest quality, all of which are important if they

are to retain their commercial standing and customer loyalty.

Question 16

Ensuring the flames come into contact with the glass at a particular point can reduce the

amount of energy required in the glass manufacturing process.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 17

Glass of a higher quality is produced when the float furnace is at its maximum temperature.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 18

The radiance of furnace flames has no direct impact on the amount of fuel used in the glass-

forming process.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 230


Organisations are encouraged to provide employees with flexible working opportunities

through work-life balance strategies, and workers are increasingly attracted to organisations

that offer such strategies. For employees, the opportunity to work flexible hours can reduce

conflicts between work and family life, workplace stress, and work overload. However, some

senior managers are reluctant to fully support these initiatives due to the substantial costs

involved, which escalate with staff numbers. Then again, the cost of implementing flexible

working strategies can be compensated by a reduction in absenteeism and improvements in

organisational commitment and employee motivation.

Question 19

A likely increase in employee motivation would not be a reason for an organisation to

implement strategies aimed at improving employees' work life balance.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 20

Employees who have flexible working hours will have happier home lives compared to those

who do not.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 21

Removing work-life balance strategies could result in an associated reduction in

absenteeism.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 231


The airline industry has always acknowledged first-aid training to be imperative for their staff,

but with the ever increasing numbers of people to whom air travel is becoming accessible,

airline staff will need to be even more alert and better equipped to deal with any medical

emergency that may arise. Flight attendants must be able to identify the details and severity

of the crisis, and administer first-aid calmly and effectively. To ensure that these requirements

are met, regular first-aid courses and emergency procedure drills have become common

practice in the majority of airline companies. This on-going training has meant that airline staff

can react with even greater lucidity, composure and meticulousness than ever before.

Question 22

The entire airline industry has adopted the practice of regular first aid training for their staff.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 23

An increasing amount of people need first-aid attention from airline staff.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 24

Fright attendants must be able to identify their first-aid training requirements.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 232


In recent years, many issues have been considered when attempting to ameliorate the

wellbeing of patients and the efficiency of hospital administration. Patients have often

complained about endless waiting lists, low standards of cleanliness, poor hospital food, and

unsatisfactory doctor patient communication and now, according to an expert from a leading

image consultancy, doctors' dress codes and their general appearance must come under

close scrutiny. If healthcare professionals have an unwashed appearance, dirty nails or

unkempt hair, this exudes the impression of recklessness and untrustworthiness; wearing red

reminds patients of blood; and power dressing is discouraged because patients may feel

undermined and less relaxed. Although campaign groups approve of healthcare professionals

leading by example with high standards of hygiene in hospitals, some individuals argue that

this potential new image legislation is merely a case of jumping on the bandwagon of the

current media trend for home and lifestyle makeovers.

Question 25

Individuals have argued that the current media trend for lifestyle make-overs is a direct result

of the concern over the image of healthcare professionals.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 26

Most campaign groups are mainly concerned with long hospital waiting lists.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 27

It is always preferable for healthcare professionals to wear blue instead of red.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 233


Scientists believe we are experiencing a dramatic change in the overall climate system, verified

by the 10-15 cm rise in sea levels over the last 100 years and the increases in severe weather

conditions. Although climate change occurs naturally, scientists believe human activities have

led to increased carbon dioxide, methane and nitrous oxide concentrations, leading to climate

changes and, in turn, observed increases in sea levels, atmospheric temperatures, and erratic

weather systems. This means that today's climate shift differs dramatically from previous shifts

in climate in both magnitude and rate. Scientific research suggests that advancing sea levels,

rising temperatures and severe weather conditions caused by climate change will result in a

host of negative consequences such as a threat to international trade patterns, an increase in

the movement of tropical disease, and an increased risk of forest fires and landslides.

Question 28

People will catch more tropical diseases due to climate change.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 29

Only the difference in velocity distinguishes current climate shifts from previous shifts.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

Question 30

The enormity of alterations to our climate system has never been experienced by human

beings before.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot tell

P a g e | 234


FULL LENGTH 2

TEST-1: NUMERICAL REASONING

SHL® numerical reasoning questions presents a series of graphs and

tables, and questions that relate to them. This is a mock test comprising

just 20 questions. You will have 20 minutes to answer them. Set a timer,

and be sure to stop solving once your time is up. You can assess you

performance, and check the correct answers and explanations.





you have time.



questions.



P a g e | 235


States IRS: Tax Revenue by Geolocation

Location

Below

$10,000

$10,000 to

$99,999

$100,000

to

$149,999

$150,000

to

$199,999

$200,000

and over

Totals

Metropolita

n

(Metros)

3,316

2,843

1,896

948

474

9,475

Shoppin

g malls

(Malls)

158

316

633

949

1,107

3,163

Totals 3,474 3,159 2,528 1,896 1,581 12,638

Question-1

Approximately what proportion of total metropolitan outlets sold less than $50,000?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 2

D. 6

E. Cannot say

Question-2

How many outlets in total, independently sold more than $200,000?

A. 1581

B. 1107

C. 2084

D. 3000

E. 4086

Question-3

P a g e | 236


What is the approximate ratio of Malls to the total number of outlets

A. 1:4

B. 1:2

C. 2:1

D. 3:1

E. 4:1

Question-4

What is the approximate ratio of Metropolitan outlets to the total number of shopping malls

that sold between 150,000 and 199,999?

A. 1:1

B. 1:2

C. 2:3

D. 3:4

E. 4:5

P a g e | 237


Question-5

In which department are those studying in North-West University exactly half those studying

in the same department in Central University?

A. Economics

B. Arts

C. Humanities

D. Philosophy & Languages

E. Applied Science

10%

15%

35%

19%

21%

Central University (8,000)


5%

37%

20%

17%

21%

North-West University (4,000)


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Question-6

What fraction of those studying Arts in North-West University are those studying Arts in

Central University?

A. 1/7

B. 1/8

C. 1/6

D. 1/5

E. 1/4

Question-7

What is the percentage change between those studying Arts in Central University an those

studying Arts in North-Central University?

A. 81.4%

B. 61.4%

C. 71.4%

D. 51.4%

E. 41.4%

Question-8

By how are those studying Humanities in North-West University greater than those studying

Humanities in Central University?

A. 270

B. 170

C. 210

D. 280

E. 250

P a g e | 239


Question-9

Approximately how many tons of coal were extracted per sites on average in year 1?

A. 178

B. 183

C. 188

D. 193

E. 198

4.7

9

13.4

7.2

12

16

1.6

1.8

0.2

3

4

2

0

2

4

6

8

10

12

14

16

18

20

Country A (32) Country B (62) Country C (50) Country A (50) Country B (48) Country C (40)

Coal mining by Country (in 1,000s of Tones)

Coal Gas

P a g e | 240


Question-10

Approximately what percentage of graduates and non-graduates are self-employed?

A. 10%

B. 14%

C. 17%

D. 22%

E. 23%

Question-11

If the number of graduates employed in Health is forecast to decline by 20% year-on-year

while the number of non-graduates is forecast to remain the same, how many years will it take

for non-graduate employees to outnumber graduate employees in Health?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Graduate & Non-Graduate Employment profiles for Tarleton

District

Employment Sector Graduate Non-graduate



Education 294,000 117,000

Health 315,000 162,000


Other 210,000 207,000

Total 2,100,000 900,000

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Question-12

If the number of graduates employed in Education remains the same while the number of

non-graduates increases by 15% per year, how many years will it take for the number of non-

graduate to exceed the number of graduates employed in education?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

E. 7

Question-13

What is the number of self-employed graduates as a proportion of the total number of

individuals in Tarleton district?

A. 3%

B. 4%

C. 5%

D. 6%

E. 7%

P a g e | 242


Question-14:

How much was spent on Clothes and Shoes in year 5 if the same percent increase was

maintained as between year 3 and year 4?

A. 1,920 Euros

B. 1,921 Euros

C. 1,922 Euros

D. 1,934 Euros

E. 1,935 Euros

Question-15


A. 8,080 Euros

B. 8,280 Euros

C. 8,480 Euros

D. 8,680 Euros

E. 8,880 Euros

Question-16



Food 4,500 4,480 4,600 4,900

House & Home 9,990 10,200 10,500 10,900

Clothes & Shoes 1,725 1,770 1,820 1,870

Hygiene & health 2,260 2,240 2,220 2,250


P a g e | 243


Which of the items accounts for the highest percent change between year 2 and 3?

A. Food

B. House & Home

C. Clothes & Shoes

D. Hygiene & Health

E. Leisure & Transport

Question-17

What is the total percent change in money spent on hygiene & health between year 1 & year

4?

A. 0.4% decrease

B. 4% increase

C. 4% decrease

D. 0.4% increase

E. 5% decrease

P a g e | 244


Question-18

What proportion of the medals won by France are Silver?

A. 20%

B. 30%

C. 40%

D. 50%

E. 60%

19

14

16

78

15 15

10

16

10

13

17

15

17

10

0

2

4

6

8

10

12

14

16

18

20



Gold Silver Bronze

P a g e | 245


Question-19

What was the percentage difference in the total silver medals won between Australia and

bronze medal won by Italy?

A. 33%

B. 30%

C. 25%

D. 39%

E. 60%

Question-20


A. 35%

B. 38%

C. 27%

D. 39%

E. 30%

P a g e | 246


TEST-2: VERBAL REASONING

Instructions:

You have 36 minutes to complete the 36 questions in this part of your assessment.

This verbal reasoning assessment consists of several passages, each followed by statements.

Your task is to read the passages and find out if the statement is true, false or if you cannot

tell, based on the information provided in the passage.

Try to work quickly but accurately. Do not spend too long on any question. If you are not sure

of an answer select your best choice and go on to the next question.

You will have the opportunity to review your choices later on if you still have time.

Once you are ready to get started, please turn to the next page.

P a g e | 247


Genuine altruism, when defined as 'selfless helping', has been shown in recent years to be a

most elusive, indeed paradoxical, concept. In fact, some people now view it as some kind of

ideal that never really existed. How could anybody be entirely selfless and help without any

expectation of a reward of some type? According to some people, the pleasure of helping is

itself its own reward, whereas others also mention the displeasure that would accompany a

refusal to help somebody in need as the motive underlying altruistic behaviour. True

believers suggest that altruism, based on the notion of selfless helping, should be something

that we all strive towards.

Question 1

Some people may be unsure about whether their perceived selfless helping behaviour is

really selfless.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Question 2

Helping is never genuinely selfless,

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Question 3

There is currently no consensus surrounding the true motives for perceived altruistic helping,

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Question 4

P a g e | 248


We can now say that altruistic behaviour, that is selfless helping, used to be better

understood in the past.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

In many organisations, middle management positions can be difficult, especially during periods

of significant change. While trying to do their best to implement changes imposed by senior

management, they may realise that promoting the interests of the organisation often conflicts

with their own best

interests, and those of their colleagues and subordinates.

Such realisations can sometimes result in high levels of additional stress for those managers.

No effective solution to this problem has been found and, if the way in which most

organisations operate does not change in some relevant way soon, it is likely that we will see

an increase in absenteeism

and turnover amongst middle managers.

Question 5

Some middle managers have to operate in ways that may interfere with their own interests.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Question 6

Some middle managers do not have to operate in ways that may interfere with their own

interests.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Question 7

P a g e | 249


If the way in which most organisations operate changes soon in some relevant way, it is likely

that we will see a decrease in absenteeism and turnover among middle managers.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Question 8

Middle managers who realise that they have to implement changes that are imposed upon

them that are not in line with their own best interests, will always experience stress as a

result,

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Question 9

Conflicts of interest are common for middle managers during periods of organisational

change,

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Success in management and success in sports have similar roots, involving the mastery of

techniques and of oneself, yet the analogy between management and sport has seldom been

stressed. Far more often, writers have sought management lessons from warfare. Many books

have dipped into military history, going as far back as the 1100s, to discover the

secrets of business success. Sport offers an alternative model of leadership, one that stresses

the importance of coaching, teamwork and communication.

P a g e | 250


Question 10

Communication is more important in sport than in warfare,

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Question 11

Sport is a more valid analogy for management than warfare is,

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Horticulturalists must take into account many factors when planning the reproduction of

plants. Propagation by seed is the most common method employed as it is relatively easy and

has a good expected rate of germination, although this can drop if the seed has been

packaged for more than a year. Many seeds can remain viable for up to 5 years if properly

stored, as their protective coats prevent sprouting until ideal growing conditions exist. External

conditions can be manipulated in order to bring seeds out of dormancy and hasten

germination. However, even in optimal conditions, some seeds are reluctant to sprout.

Question 12

The rate at which seeds sprout can decline after the first year of being packaged.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Question 13

All seeds will germinate, given the right environmental conditions.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

P a g e | 251


Question 14

The reproduction of flora involves many aspects for horticulturalists to consider.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

The location of a shop operated by a charity in an affluent neighbourhood could be deemed

extremely advantageous because this increases the potential for a continuous supply of highly

valuable donations. However, this may be counterbalanced by an exorbitant rent for the

property. Of fundamental importance to the success of the shop is a dedicated group of

volunteers who should sort through donations promptly to ensure that items are quickly made

available for purchase, in order to promote financial prosperity.

Volunteers and staff must be vigilant of thieves, to which these shops are particularly

susceptible, usually due to a lack of security cameras or bar codes on the items.

Question 15

It is less likely that shops operated by charities which are situated in affluent

neighbourhoods will have volunteers who are more dedicated, than those in less wealthy

neighbourhoods.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Question 16

Shops operated by charitable organisations are particularly vulnerable to shoplifters if there

are no security cameras or bar codes on items,

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

P a g e | 252


The location of a shop operated by a charity in an affluent neighbourhood could be deemed

extremely advantageous because this increases the potential for a continuous supply of highly

valuable donations. However, this may be counterbalanced by an exorbitant rent for the

property. Of fundamental importance to the success of the shop is a dedicated group of

volunteers who should sort through donations promptly to ensure that items are quickly made

available for purchase, in order to promote financial prosperity.

Volunteers and staff must be vigilant of thieves, to which these shops are particularly

susceptible, usually due to a lack of security cameras or bar codes on the items.

Question 17

The only factor affecting the financial success of a shop operated by a charity is its location,

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Political, economic and demographic developments are combining to increase the wealth of

individuals in leading economies. These individuals take a much more active role in managing

their personal financial affairs and in determining how their assets should be invested for their

long-term benefit.

As a result, we are seeing the emergence of a new market, consisting of so- called 'affluent

individuals'. This structural trend is set to continue and will provide significant opportunities

for financial services providers. This band of individuals has traditionally been dominated by

old money inheritance, and this will remain a factor, but the rise of new affluent money is

increasing as individuals benefit from higher salaries and compensation in the form of stock

options. These new affluent individuals are also creating wealth as small business

entrepreneurs.

Question 18

Inherited old money will be completely replaced by new affluent money.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

P a g e | 253


Question 19

Individuals may become 'affluent' through inheriting old money,

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

The prospect of accepting negative feedback about ourselves elicits conflict as we need to

assess the immediate emotional costs of negative information about ourselves against the

long-term benefits of gaining useful feedback. Studies have confirmed what most managers

seem to have known already;

that the mood we are in whilst receiving feedback often influences the relative weight people

assign to emotional costs versus the informational benefits of receiving negative feedback.

The studies that have been carried out have demonstrated that positive moods can function

as a buffer and therefore enable people affected in this way to both accept, as well as better

handle, the emotional costs of negative self-related information.

Question 20

A positive mood enhances the perception of there being long-term benefits associated with

receiving negative feedback.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Question 21

Managers are increasingly taking employees' moods into consideration when providing them

with negative feedback regarding their performance.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

P a g e | 254


Significant advances in float furnace design and operation, in the development of glass

compositions, and in the glass forming process itself have all played a role in the optimization

of glass manufacturing. For example, thermodynamic modelling assists with the enhancement

of glass composition and offers control over devitrification characteristics, and studies

examining burner design, to ensure flames have maximum luminosity and impinge on the glass

at the correct angle, aid the minimisation of fuel consumption. The exploitation of such

advanced research allows glass manufacturers to reduce their expenditure on fuel, decrease

their defect rates and produce glass of the highest quality, all of which are important if they

are to retain their commercial standing and customer loyalty.

Question 22

Only thermodynamic modelling can be said to have spurred significant improvements in

glass manufacturing.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Question 23

Glass companies should not avail themselves of the latest research in thermodynamics

should they want to maintain their commercial reputation.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Question 24

Ensuring the flames come into contact with the glass at a particular point can reduce the

amount of energy required in the glass manufacturing process.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

P a g e | 255


The company expects the new factory, its first in Asia, to begin production early next year, and

aims to build 18,000 tractors during its first year of operation. Full capacity will be achieved

about five years later, by which time annual output will be about 40,000 tractors, making it the

company's largest producer worldwide. The move to open such a large production site

stemmed from the availability of labour within the region, low production costs, positive

inducements by the government to encourage foreign investment, good communication and

transport links, and increasing demand for tractors locally.

Question 25

If all goes to plan, in just over five years' time the new plant will be the largest global

producer of tractors.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Question 26

The government has strict rules concerning foreign investment.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Question 27

The numbers of tractors required locally is on the increase.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

P a g e | 256


For most people, any reference to hypnosis brings to mind images of individuals involved in

amusing, and often out of character, behaviour. However, hypnosis is also a topic of scientific

research. Research by scientists over the last few decades has revealed ways in which memory

processes, and

processes involved in pain perception can be changed using hypnosis. It has also been found

that hypnotic suggestions can regulate activity in identifiable sections of the brain and can

contribute to the effective management of cognitive conflict. Findings from several related

brain imaging studies, for example, have suggested that people under hypnosis can exhibit

reduced levels of brain activity in both visual areas and the anterior cingulate cortex. Disparate

research has already established the role of these brain structures in the monitoring of

cognitive conflict.

Question 28

Scientific research on the effects of hypnosis on memory and pain perception started a few

decades ago.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Question 29

Under hypnosis most individuals participate in entertaining activities.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

With the rapid technological advancement today, bridges are becoming increasingly more

sophisticated, and are spanning significantly greater distances. Earthquakes, however, remain

a potential threat to these immense structures as they may do irreparable and costly damage

to an important bridge. As a bridge's major vulnerability to earth movement lies in its supportive

structures, a promising solution has been found to be a self- anchored suspension bridge. This

bridge design is one in which the pull of the cables is opposed by the push of the deck, thus

eliminating the supporting anchorages.

P a g e | 257


Question 30

The elimination of the anchorages has been a proposed solution to the threat of damage

caused by seismic activity,

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Question 31

A possible solution to the risk of earthquake damage is the self-anchored

suspension bridge as the forces of the cables and the anchorages oppose each other.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Financial fraud is a crime of growing significance. In 2003, 8% of reported business-related

crimes was fraud, averaging 35 ,000 in losses. By 2005, whilst financial fraud was found to be

the sixth-most frequent crime, it was the third-highest concern amongst business leaders.

Researchers found that, globally, Internet-based fraud was rising dramatically, accounting for

two- thirds of all reported fraud cases in 2005.

The main reasons for fraud included poor supervision and lack of proper division of duties,

inadequate control of access to systems, and poor authorisation controls. Internal detective

measures uncovered less than half of the cases, with an increasing number of cases being

discovered by accident. One third of the cases were committed by management staff, while

half were committed by non-managerial staff.

Question 32

Over half of all cases of fraud in 2005 were discovered by accident.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

P a g e | 258


Question 33

Detective methods were operating very effectively in 2005.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Question 34

The average cost of financial fraud in 2005 was more than in 2003.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

Political, economic and demographic developments are combining to increase the wealth of

individuals in leading economies. These individuals take a much more active role in managing

their personal financial affairs and in determining how their assets should be invested for their

long-term benefit.

As a result, we are seeing the emergence of a new market, consisting of so- called 'affluent

individuals'. This structural trend is set to continue and will provide significant opportunities

for financial services providers. This band of individuals has traditionally been dominated by

old money inheritance, and this will remain a factor, but the rise of new affluent money is

increasing as individuals benefit from higher salaries and compensation in the form of stock

options. These new affluent individuals are also creating wealth as small business

entrepreneurs.

Question 35

Affluent individuals want to manage their own assets rather than use financial service

providers.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

P a g e | 259


For most people, any reference to hypnosis brings to mind images of individuals involved in

amusing, and often out of character, behaviour. However, hypnosis is also a topic of scientific

research. Research by scientists over the last few decades has revealed ways in which memory

processes, and

processes involved in pain perception can be changed using hypnosis. It has also been found

that hypnotic suggestions can regulate activity in identifiable sections of the brain and can

contribute to the effective management of cognitive conflict. Findings from several related

brain imaging studies, for example, have suggested that people under hypnosis can exhibit

reduced levels of brain activity in both visual areas and the anterior cingulate cortex. Disparate

research has already established the role of these brain structures in the monitoring of

cognitive conflict.

Question 36

Few people think that when hypnotised, individuals do things that they would not normally

have done.

A. True

B. False

C. Cannot Say

**End of Test**

P a g e | 260


1. C

2. C

3. B

4. C

5. B

6. B

7. B

8. A

9. A

10. B

11. C

12. A

13. C

14. C

15. C

26. C

27. C

28. C

29. B

30. A

Full Length 1

Answers Part-1: Numerical Reasoning Part-2: Verbal Reasoning

16. B

17. C

18. B

19. A

20. C

21. B

22. B

23. C

24. B

25. B

11. B

12.

13. E

14. E

15. A

16. B

17. D

18. B

19. E

20. A

1. C

2. D

3. D

4. C

5. -

6. B

7. A

8. B

9. C

10. B

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Full Length 2

Answers Part-1: Numerical Reasoning Part-2: Verbal Reasoning

1. C

2. B

3. A

4. C

5. A

6. A

7. A

8. C

9. A

10. B

11. C

12. A

13. B

14. A

15. C

26. B

27. A

28. C

29. B

30. B

31. A

32. C

33. B

34. A

35. B

36. C

1. D

2. A

3. A

4. A

5. C

6. A

7. A

8. C

9. C

10. A

11. C

12. E

13. E

14. A

15. B

16. –

17. -

18. C

19. A

20. D

16. A

17. B

18. C

19. A

20. A

21. C

22. B

23. C

24. B

25. B

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SHL VERIFY

ABSTRACT

REASONING TEST

P a g e | 263


PRACTICE SET 1

Question 1

From the options available, please choose which diagram would come next in the series.

A. B.

C. D.

E.

Question 2


A. B.

C. D.

E.

Question 3

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D

A. B.

C. D.

E.

Question 4


A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 5


A. B.

C. D.

E.

Question 6


A. B.

C. D.

E.

Question 7

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A. B.

C. D.

E.

Question 8


A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 9


A. B.

C. D.

E.

Question 10


A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 11


A. B.

C. D.

E.

Question 12


A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 13


A. B.

C. D.

E.

Question 14


A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 15


A. B.

C. D.

E.

Question 16


A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 17


A. B.

C. D.

E.

Question 18


A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 19


A. B.

C. D.

E.

Question 20


A. B.

C. D.

E.

PRACTICE SET 2

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Question 1


A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 2

Use the image at the top of the page to determine the correct response option from those

listed below. Select the response choice that replaces the question mark. If no question mark

exists, you are to select the response choice that comes next in the sequence.

A. B.

C. D.

E.

P a g e | 275


Question 3




A. B.

C. D

E.

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Question 4




A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 5




A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 6




A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 7




A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 8




A. B.

D.

C.

E.

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Question 9




A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 10




A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 11




A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 12




A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 13




A. B.

C. C.

E.

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Question 14




A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 15




A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 16




A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 17




A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 18




A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 19




A. B.

C. D.

E.

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Question 20




A. B.

C. D.

E.

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VODACOM GENERAL RECRUITMENT ASSESSMENT

AVERAGE TEST TIMING: 50QUESTIONS – 45 MINUTES

PAPER 1: QUANTITATIVE REASONING:

DIRECTIONS: These questions are multiple-choice questions. Your task is to

select only one answer choice from a list of five choices.

1. If Sally can paint a house in 4 hours, and John can paint the same house in 6

hour, how long will it take for both of them to paint the house together?

A. 2 hours and 24 minutes

B. 3 hours and 12 minutes

C. 3 hours and 44 minutes

D. 4 hours and 10 minutes

E. 4 hours and 33 minutes

Correct answer: A

2. The sales price of a car is $12,590, which is 20% off the original price. What

is the original price?

A. $14,310.40

B. $14,990.90

C. $15,290.70

D. $15,737.50

E. $16,935.80

Correct answer: D

3. Of the following units, which would be most likely to measure the amount of

sugar needed in a recipe for 2 dozen cookies

A. degrees Celsius

B. milliliters

C. quarts

D. kilograms

E. cups

Correct answer: E

4. Jim can fill a pool carrying buckets of water in 30 minutes. Sue can do the

same job in 45 minutes. Tony can do the same job in 1 ½ hours. How quickly

can all three fill the pool together?

A. 12 minutes

B. 15 minutes

C. 21 minutes

D. 23 minutes

E. 28 minutes

Correct answer: B

5. If Leah is 6 years older than Sue, and John is 5 years older than Leah, and

the total of their ages is 41. Then how old is Sue?

A. 8

B. 10

C. 14

D. 19

E. 21

Correct answer: A

6. Sarah needs to make a cake and some cookies. The cake requires 3/8 cup

of sugar and the cookies require 3/5 cup of sugar. Sarah has 15/16 cups of

sugar. Does she have enough sugar, or how much more does she need?

A. She has enough sugar.

B. She needs 1/8 of a cup of sugar.

C. She needs 3/80 of a cup of sugar.

D. She needs 4/19 of a cup of sugar.

E. She needs 1/9 of a cup of sugar.

Correct answer: C

7. Mary is reviewing her algebra quiz. She has determined that one of her

solutions is incorrect. Which one is it?

A. 2x + 5 (x-1) = 9 x = 2

B. p - 3(p-5) = 10 p = 2.5

C. 4 y + 3 y = 28 y = 4

D. 5 w + 6 w – 3w = 64 w = 8

E. t – 2t – 3t = 32 t = 8

Correct answer: E

8. Subtract the following numbers rounded to the nearest tenths place.

134.679 -45.548 -67.8807

A. 21.3

B. 21.25

C. -58.97

D. -59.0

E. 1

Correct answer: A

9. What is the absolute value of -9?

A. -9

B. 9

C. 0

D. -1

E. 1

Correct answer: B

10. -37 + -47 equals:

A. 64

B. -84

C. 65

D. -75

E. -66

Correct answer: C

11. Which of the following numbers could be described in the following way: an

integer that is a natural, rational and whole number?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2.33

D. -3

E. none of the above

Correct answer: B

12. If the value of x and y in the following fraction are both tripled, how does

the value of the fraction change? XZ Y

A. increases by half

B. decreases by half

C. triples

D. doubles

E. remains the same

Correct answer: E

13. Two cyclists start biking from a trail's start 3 hours apart. The second cyclist

travels at 10 miles per hour and starts 3 hours after the first cyclist who is

traveling at 6 miles per hour. How much time will pass before the second

cyclist catches up with the first from the time the second cyclist started

biking?

A. 2 hours

B. 4 ½ hours

C. 5 ¾ hours

D. 6 hours

E. 7 ½ hours

Correct answer: B

14. You need 4/5 cups of water for a recipe. You accidentally put 1/3 cups into

the mixing bowl with the dry ingredients. How much more water in cups do you

need to add?

A. 1/3 cups

B. 2/3 cups

C. 1/15 cups

D. 7/15 cups

E. 7/16 cups

Correct answer: D

14. At a certain high school, the respective weights for the following subjects

are: Mathematics 3, English 3, History 2, Science 2 and Art 1. What is a

student's average whose marks were the following: Geometry 89, American

Literature 92, American History 94, Biology 81, and Sculpture 85?

A. 85.7

B. 87.8

C. 88.9

D. 89.4

E. 90.2

Correct answer: C

16. Add 0.98 + 45.102 + 32.3333 + 31 + 0.00009

A. 368.573

B. 210.536299

C. 109.41539

D. 99.9975

E. 80.8769543

Correct answer: C

17. What is 1230.932567 rounded to the nearest hundredths place?

A. 1200

B. 1230.9326

C. 1230.93

D. 1230

E. 1230.933

Correct answer: C

18. Describe the following sequence in mathematical terms. 144, 72, 36, 18, 9

A. Descending arithmetic sequence

B. Ascending arithmetic sequence

C. Descending geometric sequence

D. Ascending geometric sequence

E. Miscellaneous sequence

Correct answer: C

13. What is the area of the triangle below?

A. 22 cm2

B. 33 cm2

C. 44 cm2

D. 50 cm2

E. 66 cm2

Correct answer: B

19. What is the measure of angle B in the following figure if angle A measures

135°?

A. 40°

B. 45°

C. 50°

D. 135°

E. 225°

Correct answer: B

20. In the following figure, what is the area of the shaded circle inside of the

square?

A. 512

B. 256

C. 16

D. 50.24

E. 12.57

Correct answer: E

21. What are the coordinates of point A on the following graph?

A. (-3, -4)

B. (-4, 3)

C. (3, -4)

D. (-4, -3)

E. (3, 4)

Correct answer: C

22. If 3,750 2-door sedans were sold in 1999, then how many 4-door sedans

were sold in 1999 by XYZ Auto Company?

A. 3,578

B. 4,950

C. 5,120

D. 5,670

E. 5,845

Correct answer: B

23. If 7,650 trucks were sold in 1999, how many total vehicles were sold in 1999

by XYZ Auto Company?

A. 35,000

B. 40,000

C. 45,000

D. 50,000

E. 55,000

Correct answer: C

24. If XYZ Auto Company sold 23,000 vehicles in 1999, how many were SUV's?

A. 2,990

B. 3,030

C. 3,450

D. 4,760

E. 4,775

Correct answer: A

25. In the figure below, determine the area of the shaded region of the figure.

A. 9.354

B. 10.52

C. 16.437

D. 49

E. 104.86

Correct answer: E




1. Lee worked 22 hours this week and made $132. If she works 15 hours next

week at the same pay rate, how much will she make?

A. $57

B. $90

C. $104

D. $112

E. $122

Correct answer: B

2. A student receives his grade report from a local community college, but the

GPA is smudged. He took the following classes: a 2 hour credit art, a 3 hour

credit history, a 4 hour credit science course, a 3 hour credit mathematics

course, and a 1 hour science lab. He received a “B” in the art class, an “A” in the

history class, a “C” in the science class, a “B” in the mathematics class, and an

“A” in the science lab. What was his GPA if the letter grades are based on a 4

point scale? (A=4, B=3, C=2, D=1, F=0)

A. 2.7

B. 2.8

C. 3.0

D. 3.1

E. 3.2

Correct answer: C

3. You need to purchase a textbook for nursing school. The book cost $80.00,

and the sales tax where you are purchasing the book is 8.25%. You have $100.

How much change will you receive back?

A. $5.20

B. $7.35

C. $13.40

D. $19.95

E. $21.25

Correct answer: C

4. You purchase a car making a down payment of $3,000 and 6 monthly

payments of $225. How much have you paid so far for the car?

A. $3225

B. $4350

C. $5375

D. $6550

E. $6398

Correct answer: B

5. Your supervisor instructs you to purchase 240 pens and 6 staplers for the

nurse's station. Pens are purchased in sets of 6 for $2.35 per pack. Staplers

are sold in sets of 2 for 12.95. How much will purchasing these products cost?

A. $132.85

B. $145.75

C. $162.90

D. $225.25

E. $226.75

Correct answer: A

6. If Sam can do a job in 4 days that Lisa can do in 6 days and Tom can do in 2

days, how long would the job take if Sam, Lisa, and Tom worked together to

complete it?

A. 0.8 days

B. 1.09 days

C. 1.23 days

D. 1.65 days

E. 1.97 days

Correct answer: B

7. Jim has 5 pieces of string. He needs to choose the piece that will be able to

go around his 36-inch waist. His belt broke, and his pants are falling down. The

piece needs to be at least 4 inches longer than his waist so he can tie a knot

in it, but it cannot be more that 6 inches longer so that the ends will not show

from under his shirt. Which of the following pieces of string will work the best?

A. 3 feet

B. 3 ¾ feet

C. 3 ½ feet

D. 3 ¼ feet

E. 2 ½ feet

Correct answer: C

8. The last week of a month a car dealership sold 12 cars. A new sales

promotion came out the first week of the next month and the sold 19 cars that

week. What was the percent increase in sales from the last week of the

previous month compared to the first week of the next month?

A. 58%

B. 119%

C. 158%

D. 175%

E. 200%

Correct answer: A

9. If two planes leave the same airport at 1:00 PM, how many miles apart will

they be at 3:00 PM if one travels directly north at 150 mph and the other

travels directly west at 200 mph?

A. 50 miles

B. 100 miles

C. 500 miles

D. 700 miles

E. 1,000 miles

Correct answer: C

10. During a 5-day festival, the number of visitors tripled each day. If the

festival opened on a Thursday with 345 visitors, what was the attendance on

that Sunday?

A. 345

B. 1,035

C. 1,725

D. 3,105

E. 9,315

Correct answer: E

11. What is the mathematical average of the number of weeks in a year,

seasons in a year, and the number of days in January?

A. 36

B. 33

C. 32

D. 31

E. 29

Correct answer: E

12. In a college, some courses contribute more towards an overall GPA than

other courses. For example, a science class is worth 4 points; mathematics is

worth 3 points; history is worth 2 points; and English is worth 3 points. The

values of the grade letters are as follows, A= 4, B=3, C=2, D=1, F=0. What is the

GPA of a student who made a “C” in Trigonometry, a “B” in American History,

an “A” in Botany, and a “B” in Microbiology?

A. 2.59

B. 2.86

C. 3.08

D. 3.33

E. 3.67

Correct answer: C

13. Over the course of a week, Fred spent $28.49 on lunch. What was the

average cost per day?

A. $4.07

B. $3.57

C. $6.51

D. $2.93

E. $5.41

Correct answer: A

14. A roast was cooked at 325° F in the oven for 4 hours. The internal

temperature rose from 32° F to 145° F. What was the average rise in

temperature per hour?

A. 20.2° F/hr

B. 28.25° F/hr

C. 32.03° F/hr

D. 37° F/hr

E. 37.29° F/hr

Correct answer: B

15. In the number 743.25 which digit represents the tenths space?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

E. 6

Correct answer: A

16. What is the improper fraction or mixed number represented by the

following figure?

A. 2 1/3

B. 7/6

C. 2 5/8

D. 11/3

E. 11/9

Correct answer: C

17. Which of the following fractions most correctly depicts the shaded area of

the circle below?

A. 3/8

B. 5/8

C. 3/4

D. 5/11

E. 1/2

Correct answer: B

18. There are 8 ounces in a 1/2 pound. How many ounces are in 7 3/4 lbs?

A. 12 ounces

B. 86 ounces

C. 119 ounces

D. 124 ounces

E. 138 ounces

Correct answer: D

19. Which of the following letters represents the vertex in the following picture?

A. D and E

B. E and H

C. F and G

D. G only

E. H only

Correct answer: E

20. If a circle has the diameter of 8, what is the circumference?

A. 6.28

B. 12.56

C. 25.13

D. 50.24

E. 100.48

Correct answer: C

21. What was the average number of babies that Dr. Jones delivered each year

from 1995 to 1998?

A. 35

B. 40

C. 45

D. 50

E. 55

Correct answer: C

22. How many babies did Dr. Jones deliver in 1998?

A. 25

B. 35

C. 45

D. 55

E. 65

Correct answer: D

23. If Dr. Jones delivered 85 babies in 1999, how many rattles would represent

this number?

A. 6 ½

B. 7

C. 7 ½

D. 8

E. 8 ½

Correct answer: E

24. In the graph below, no axes or origin is shown. If point B's coordinates are

(10,3), which of the following coordinates would most likely be A's?

A. (17, -2)

B. (10, 6)

C. (6, 8)

D. (-10, 3)

E. (-2, -17)

Correct answer: C



A. 3,578

B. 4,950

C. 5,120

D. 5,670

E. 5,845

Correct answer: B




1. If Lynn can type a page in p minutes, what piece of the page can she do in 5

minutes?

A. 5/p

B. p - 5

C. p + 5

D. p/5

E. 1- p + 5

Correct answer: A

2. If Sally can paint a house in 4 hours, and John can paint the same house in

6 hour, how long will it take for both of them to paint the house together?

A. 2 hours and 24 minutes

B. 3 hours and 12 minutes

C. 3 hours and 44 minutes

D. 4 hours and 10 minutes

E. 4 hours and 33 minutes

Correct answer: A

3. You need to purchase a textbook for nursing school. The book cost $80.00,

and the sales tax where you are purchasing the book is 8.25%. You have $100.

How much change will you receive back?

A. $5.20

B. $7.35

C. $13.40

D. $19.95

E. $21.25

Correct answer: C

4. Alfred wants to invest $4,000 at 6% simple interest rate for 5 years. How

much interest will he receive?

A. $240

B. $480

C. $720

D. $960

E. $1,200

Correct answer: E

5. Mary is reviewing her algebra quiz. She has determined that one of her

solutions is incorrect. Which one is it?

A. 2x + 5 (x-1) = 9 x = 2

B. p - 3(p-5) = 10 p = 2.5

C. 4 y + 3 y = 28 y = 4

D. 5 w + 6 w – 3w = 64 w = 8

E. t – 2t – 3t = 32 t = 8

Correct answer: E

6. What simple interest rate will Susan need to secure to make $2,500 in

interest on a $10,000 principal over 5 years?

A. 4%

B. 5 %

C. 6%

D. 7%

E. 8%

Correct answer: B

7. If two planes leave the same airport at 1:00 PM, how many miles apart will

they be at 3:00 PM if one travels directly north at 150 mph and the other

travels directly west at 200 mph?

A. 50 miles

B. 100 miles

C. 500 miles

D. 700 miles

E. 1,000 miles

Correct answer: C

8. During a 5-day festival, the number of visitors tripled each day. If the festival

opened on a Thursday with 345 visitors, what was the attendance on that

Sunday?

A. 345

B. 1,035

C. 1,725

D. 3,105

E. 9,315

Correct answer: E

9. Round 907.457 to the nearest tens place.

A. 908.0

B. 910

C. 907.5

D. 900

E. 907.46

Correct answer: B





A. 85.7

B. 87.8

C. 88.9

D. 89.4

E. 90.2

Correct answer: C

11. Ginger over the course of an average work-week wanted to see how much

she spent on lunch daily. On Monday and Thursday, she spent $5.43 total. On

Tuesday and Wednesday, she spent $3.54 on each day. On Friday, she spent

$7.89 on lunch. What was her average daily cost?

A. $3.19

B. $3.75

C. $3.90

D. $4.08

E. $4.23

Correct answer: D

12. What is the mathematical average of the number of weeks in a year,

seasons in a year, and the number of days in January?

A. 36

B. 33

C. 32

D. 31

E. 29

Correct answer: E

13. 7.95 ÷ 1.5

A. 2.4

B. 5.3

C. 6.2

D. 7.3

E. 7.5

Correct answer: B

14. -32 + 7 equals:

A. -25

B. 25

C. -26

D. 26

E. 27

Correct answer: A

15. -37 + -47 equals:

A. 64

B. -84

C. 65

D. -75

E. -66

Correct answer: B

16. Describe the following sequence in mathematical terms. 144, 72, 36, 18, 9

A. Descending arithmetic sequence

B. Ascending arithmetic sequence

C. Descending geometric sequence

D. Ascending geometric sequence

E. Miscellaneous sequence

Correct answer: C

17. Which of the following is not a whole number followed by its square?

A. 1, 1

B. 6, 36 C.

8, 64

D. 10, 100

E. 11, 144

Correct answer: E

18. What is the next number in the sequence? 6, 12, 24, 48, ___

A. 72

B. 96

C. 108

D. 112

E. 124

Correct answer: B



A. 0

B. 1

C. 2.33

D. -3


Correct answer: B

20. If the average person drinks 8, (8oz) glasses of water per day, a person

who drinks 12.8 oz of water after a morning exercise session has consumed

what fraction of the daily average?

A. 1/3

B. 1/5

C. 1/7

D. 1/9

E. 1/10

Correct answer: B



need to add?

A. 1/3 cups

B. 2/3 cups

C. 1/15 cups

D. 7/15 cups

E. 7/16 cups

Correct answer: D

22. How much did the infant gain in the first month of life?

A. 6 ounces

B. 12 ounces

C. 15 ounces

D. 8 lbs 8 ounces

E. 9 lbs 4 ounces

Correct answer: B

23. What was the average weight of the infant from April to October, rounded

to the nearest ounce?

A. 10 lbs

B. 10 lbs 5 ounces

C. 10 lbs 9 ounces

D. 11 lbs 5 ounces

E. 11 lbs 9 ounces

Correct answer: C

24. Between which two months did the infant gain the most weight?

A. April and May

B. June and July

C. July and August

D. August and September

E. September and October

Correct answer: D

25. In the following figure, what is the area of the shaded circle inside of the

square?

A. 512

B. 256

C. 16

D. 50.24

E. 12.57

Correct answer: E




1. The city council has decided to add a 0.3% tax on motel and hotel rooms. If

a traveler spends the night in a motel room that costs $55 before taxes, how

much will the city receive in taxes from him?

A. 10 cents

B. 11 cents

C. 15 cents

D. 17 cents

E. 21 cents

Correct answer: D

2. A student receives his grade report from a local community college, but the

GPA is smudged. He took the following classes: a 2 hour credit art, a 3 hour

credit history, a 4 hour credit science course, a 3 hour credit mathematics

course, and a 1 hour science lab. He received a “B” in the art class, an “A” in the

history class, a “C” in the science class, a “B” in the mathematics class, and an

“A” in the science lab. What was his GPA if the letter grades are based on a 4

point scale? (A=4, B=3, C=2, D=1, F=0)

A. 2.7

B. 2.8

C. 3.0

D. 3.1

E. 3.2

Correct answer: B

3. Your supervisor instructs you to purchase 240 pens and 6 staplers for the

nurse's station. Pens are purchased in sets of 6 for $2.35 per pack. Staplers

are sold in sets of 2 for 12.95. How much will purchasing these products cost?

A. $132.85

B. $145.75

C. $162.90

D. $225.25

E. $226.75

Correct answer: A

4. If y = 3, then y3(y3-y)=

A. 300

B. 459

C. 648

D. 999

E. 1099

Correct answer: C

5. A study reported that in a random sampling of 100 women over the age of

35 showed that 8 of the women were married 2 or more times. Based on the

study results, how many women in a group of 5,000 women over the age of 35

would likely be married 2 or more times?

A. 55

B. 150

C. 200

D. 400

E. 600

Correct answer: D

6. John is traveling to a meeting that is 28 miles away. He needs to be there in

30 minutes. How fast does he need to go to make it to the meeting on time?

A. 25 mph

B. 37 mph

C. 41 mph

D. 49 mph

E. 56 mph

Correct answer: D

7. What is 1230.932567 rounded to the nearest hundredths place?

A. 1200

B. 1230.9326

C. 1230.93

D. 1230

E. 1230.933

Correct answer: C

8. Subtract the following numbers rounded to the nearest tenths place.

134.679 -45.548 -67.8807

A. 21.3

B. 21.25

C. -58.97

D. -59.0

E. 1

Correct answer: A

9. What is the absolute value of -9?

A. -9

B. 9

C. 0

D. -1

E. 1

Correct answer: B

10. 7.95 ÷ 1.5

A. 2.4

B. 5.3

C. 6.2

D. 7.3

E. 7.5

Correct answer: B

11. -32 + 7 equals:

A. -25

B. 25

C. -26

D. 26

E. 27

Correct answer: A

12. -37 + -47 equals:

A. 64

B. -84

C. 65

D. -75

E. -66

Correct answer: B

13. 41% equals:

A. 4.1

B. .41

C. .041 q

D. .0041

E. .00415

Correct answer: B

14. Which of the following correctly identifies 4 consecutive odd integers

where the sum of the middle two integers is equal to 24?

A. 5, 7, 9, 11

B. 7, 9, 11, 13

C. 9, 11, 13, 15

D. 11, 13, 15, 17

E. 13, 15, 17, 19

Correct answer: C


A. 72

B. 96

C. 108

D. 112

E. 124

Correct answer: B



A. 0

B. 1

C. 2.33

D. -3


Correct answer: B

17. What is the next number in the following pattern? 1, 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, ___

A. 1/10

B. 1/12

C. 1/14

D. 1/15

E. 1/16

Correct answer: E



A. degrees Celsius

B. milliliters

C. quarts

D. kilograms

E. cups

Correct answer: E

19. What is the measure of angle B in the following figure if angle A measures

135°?

A. 40°

B. 45°

C. 50°

D. 135°

E. 225°

Correct answer: B

20. How many boys attended the 1995 convention?

A. 358

B. 390

C. 407

D. 540

E. 716

Correct answer: A

21. Which year did the same number of boys and girls attend the conference?

A. 1995

B. 1996

C. 1997

D. 1998

E. None

Correct answer: A

22. Which two years did the least number of boys attend the convention?

A. 1995 and 1996

B. 1995 and 1998

C. 1996 and 1997

D. 1996 and 1992

E. 1997 and 1998

Correct answer: A

24. If 7,650 trucks were sold in 1999, how many total vehicles were sold in 1999

by XYZ Auto Company?

A. 35,000

B. 40,000

C. 45,000

D. 50,000

E. 55,000

Correct answer: C



A. 3,578

B. 4,950

C. 5,120

D. 5,670

E. 5,845

Correct answer: B




1. What is the measure of the solid line angle depicted by the following figure?

A. 90 degrees

B. 180 degrees

C. 225 degrees

D. 270 degrees

E. 0 degrees

Correct answer: D

2. Sarah needs to make a cake and some cookies. The cake requires 3/8 cup

of sugar and the cookies require 3/5 cup of sugar. Sarah has 15/16 cups of

sugar. Does she have enough sugar, or how much more does she need?

A. She has enough sugar.

B. She needs 1/8 of a cup of sugar.

C. She needs 3/80 of a cup of sugar.

D. She needs 4/19 of a cup of sugar.

E. She needs 1/9 of a cup of sugar.

Correct answer: C

3. There are 8 ounces in a 1/2 pound. How many ounces are in 7 3/4 lbs?

A. 12 ounces

B. 86 ounces

C. 119 ounces

D. 124 ounces

E. 138 ounces

Correct answer: D

4. If the value of x and y in the following fraction are both tripled, how does the

value of the fraction change? XZ Y

A. increases by half

B. decreases by half

C. triples D. doubles

E. remains the same

Correct answer: E

5. Which of the following fractions is the equivalent of 0.5%

A. 1/20

B. 1/200

C. 1/2000

D. 1/5

E. 1/500

Correct answer: B

6. Which of these numbers is a factor of 21

16

A. 2

B. 5

C. 7

D. 42

E. 44

Correct answer: C

7. There are 12 more apples than oranges in a basket of 36 apples and

oranges. How many apples are in the basket?

A. 12

B. 15

C. 24

D. 28

E. 36

Correct answer: C

8. Which of the following correctly identifies 4 consecutive odd integers where

the sum of the middle two integers is equal to 24?

A. 5, 7, 9, 11

B. 7, 9, 11, 13

C. 9, 11, 13, 15

D. 11, 13, 15, 17

E. 13, 15, 17, 19

Correct answer: C


A. 72

B. 96

10. 108

D. 112

E. 124

Correct answer: B



A. 0

B. 1

C. 2.33

D. -3


Correct answer: B

12. What is the next number in the following pattern? 1, 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, ___

A. 1/10

B. 1/12

C. 1/14

D. 1/15

E. 1/16

Correct answer: E



A. degrees Celsius

B. milliliters

C. quarts

D. kilograms

E. cups

Correct answer: E

14. 7.95 ÷ 1.5

A. 2.4

B. 5.3

C. 6.2

D. 7.3

E. 7.5

Correct answer: B

15. -32 + 7 equals:

A. -25

B. 25

C. -26

D. 26

E. 27

Correct answer: A

16. -37 + -47 equals:

A. 64

B. -84

C. 65

D. -75

E. -66

Correct answer: B

17. 41% equals:

A. 4.1

B. .41

C. .041 q

D. .0041

E. .00415

Correct answer: B

19. Round 907.457 to the nearest tens place.

A. 908.0

B. 910

C. 907.5

D. 900

E. 907.46

Correct answer: B





A. 85.7

B. 87.8

C. 88.9

D. 89.4

E. 90.2

Correct answer: C

21. Which of the following fractions most correctly depicts the shaded area of

the circle below?

A. 3/8

B. 5/8

C. 3/4

D. 5/11

E. ½

Correct answer: B

22. Which of the following is not a fraction equivalent to 3/4?

A. 6/8

B. 9/12

C. 12/18

D. 21/28

E. 27/36

Correct answer: C

23. Solve: 0.25 + 0.65

A. 1/2

B. 9/10

C. 4/7

D. 2/9

E. 5/16

Correct answer: B

24. If the average person drinks 8, (8oz) glasses of water per day, a person

who drinks 12.8 oz of water after a morning exercise session has consumed

what fraction of the daily average?

A. 1/3

B. 1/5

C. 1/7

D. 1/9

E. 1/10

Correct answer: B



need to add?

A. 1/3 cups

B. 2/3 cups

C. 1/15 cups

D. 7/15 cups

E. 7/16 cups

Correct answer: D

VERBAL REASONING

PAPER 1: VERBAL REASONING:



1. Everyone in the bank-including the manager and the tellers, ran to the door

when the fire alarm rang.

A. tellers, ran

B. tellers: ran

C. tellers, had run

D. tellers-ran

E. tellers' ran”

Correct answer: D

2. The word boycott derives from the name of Charles C. Boycott, an English

land agent in Ireland that was ostracized for refusing to reduce rent.

A. that was ostracized for refusing

B. who was ostracized for refusing

C. which was ostracized for refusing

D. that had been ostracized for refusing

E. who had been ostracized for refusing

Correct answer: B

3. David was known for belching; and telling inappropriate jokes in public.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: B

4. To no ones surprise, Joe didn't have his homework ready.

A. no ones surprise

B. noones surprise

C. no-ones surprise

D. no ones' surprise

E. no one's surprise

Correct answer: E

5. As a result of his method for early music education, Shinichi Suzuki has

been known as one of the world's great violin teachers.

A. has been known as one

B. had been known as one

C. is seen as one

D. is being seen as one

E. has been one

Correct answer: C

6. If he would have read “The White Birds,” he might have liked William Butler

Yeats's poetry.

A. would have read

B. could have read

C. would of read

D. could of read

E. had read

Correct answer: E

7. Last night the weather forecaster announced that this is the most rainy

season the area has had in the past decade.

A. this is the most rainy season the

B. this has been the most rainy season the

C. this was the most rainy season the

D. this is noted as the most rainy season the

E. this is the rainiest season the

Correct answer: E

8. Graduation from High School is considered by many a momentous occasion.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: A

9. Although Mandy is younger than her sister, Mandy is the tallest of the two.

A. is the tallest of the

B. is the taller of the

C. has been the taller of the

D. is the most tall of the

E. is the more taller of the

Correct answer: B

10. After having his tonsels removed, the child was listless for a few days.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: C

11. After the hurricane, uprooted trees were laying all over the ground.

A. were laying

B. lying

C. were lying

D. were laid

E. was laid

Correct answer: C







Correct answer: B

13. Nurses plays a vital role in the healthcare profession.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: D

14. Ralph Waldo Emerson (1803-1882), the great Transcendentalist

philosopher, wrote in his essay “Self-Reliance” of the need for an individual to

develop his capacities.

A. essay “Self–Reliance”

B. essay, “Self-Reliance”

C. essay: Self-Reliance

D. essay, Self-Reliance

E. essay; “Self-Reliance”

Correct answer: A

15. When Katherine Hepburn's play came to town, all the tickets had sold out

far in advance.

A. had sold out far

B. have sold out far

C. were sold out far

D. had been sold out far

E. had been sold out for

Correct answer: D

16. The park was serine at twilight.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: C

17. The recently built children's amusement park has been called “ a boon to

the community “ by its supporters and “an eyesore” by its harshest critics.

A. and “an eyesore” by its harshest

B. and, “ an eyesore,” by its harshest

C. and, an eyesore; by its harshest

D. and-an eyesore- by its' harshest

E. and-“an eyesore”- by its' harshest

Correct answer: A

18. The origins of most sports is unknown.

A. sports is unknown

B. sports have been unknown

C. sports are unknown

D. sports has been unknown

E. sports are now unknown

Correct answer: C

19. I always have trouble remembering the meaning of these two common

verbs, affect (to change” or “to influence”) and effect (“to cause” or “ to

accomplish ) . “

A. “ to accomplish. “

B. “ to accomplish” .

C. “to accomplish”.

D. To accomplish.

E. “ to accomplish. “

Correct answer: B

20. Neither of the Smith brothers expect to be drafted by a major league team

this year.

A. expect to be drafted

B. expects to be drafted

C. has expected to be drafted

D. is expecting to be drafted

E. was expecting to be drafted

Correct answer: B

21. The bachalor never married. Most people thought it was because of

misogyny.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: C

22. My class just finished reading- “ The Fall of the House of Usher “, a short

story by Edgar Allen Poe.

A. reading- “ The Fall of the House of Usher”,

B. reading, The Fall of the House of Usher,

C. reading “The Fall of the House of Usher, “

D. reading, The Fall of the house of Usher, “

E. reading: The Fall of the House of Usher-

Correct answer: C

23. Has any of the witnesses been sworn in yet?

A. Has any of the

B. Is any of the

C. Will any of the

D. Are any of the

E. Have any of the

Correct answer: E

24. The hybrid tomatoes is immune to most common diseases.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: D

25. After it was repaired it ran perfect again.

A. ran perfect

B. ran perfectly

C. could run perfect

D. could of run perfect

E. would run perfectly

Correct answer: B

PAPER 1: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE



1. The Lusitania sunk on May 7, 1915.

A. sunk

B. did sink

C. was sunk

D. did sank

E. sank

Correct answer: E


A. ran perfect

B. ran perfectly




Correct answer: B

3. The circus audience received a well-deserved round of applause for the

perfectly timed acrobatic stunt.

A. audience received a well-deserved

B. audience gave a well deserved

C. audience did receive a well deserved

D. audience gave a well-deserved

E. audience did get a well-deserved

Correct answer: D

4. Looking directly at me, my Mother said, “ These are your options: the choice

is yours.”

A. Mother said, “ These are your options: the choice is

B. Mother said- these are your options, the choice is

C. Mother had said, These are your options; the choice is

D. Mother had said, “These are your options; the choice is

E. Mother said, “These are your options; the choice is

Correct answer: E

5. Whos in the office now?

A. Whos in

B. Whose in

C. Who is in

D. Who's in

E. Whose' in

Correct answer: D

6. There are now many kinds of dictionaries, such as a dictionary of synonyms

and antonyms, a biographical dictionary, and a geographical dictionary with

pronunciations given.

A. with pronunciations given

B. that has pronunciations given

C. with pronunciations' given

D. that have pronunciations given

E. that do have pronunciations given

Correct answer: A

7. Towering seven hundred feet above the valley floor, Mount Rushmore

National Memorial was an impressive site.

A. was an impressive site

B. is a impressive sight

C. is an impressive sight

D. was an impressive sight

E. is an impressive site

Correct answer: C

8. San Francisco lays southwest of Sacramento.

A. lays southwest

B. has laid southwest

C. is lying southwest

D. lain southwest

E. laid southwest

Correct answer: E

9. Did they know that Labor Day always came on the first Monday in

September?

A. came on

B. comes on

C. has come on

D. had come on

E. has came on

Correct answer: B

10. Eating, drinking, and to stay up late at night were among her pleasures.

A. to stay up late

B. to remain up late

C. staying up late

D. she liked staying up late

E. trying to stay up late

Correct answer: C

11. Each night when night came and the temperature fell, my parents lit the fire

in the bedroom.

A. and the temperature fell,

B. and that the temperature did fall

C. and that the temperature fell

D. and because the temperature fell

E. and when the temperature fell

Correct answer: E

12. Francis promised to bring the Papago basket that she bought in Arizona.

A. bought in

B. had bought in

C. has bought in

D. did buy in

E. purchased in

Correct answer: B

13. The professor was humiliated when his students reported him to the Dean

for verbal abuse.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: A

14. The con artist hoodwinked the old lady when he sold her fradulent

insurance.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: C

15. The movie star was accused of a misdemeanor, when she stole 15 dollars

worth of merchandise from the store.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: B

16. The congregation sang a comtemporary hymn.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: C

17. The wound were necrotic when examined.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: D

18. The defendint exhibited a peevish appearance.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: C

19. The band director was scheduled to play the piccolo on tuesday.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: A

20. The renter was remiss; about the rent.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: B

21. The inventor create several specious ideas to solve the problem.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Answer: D

22. The teacher identified the troublemakers, in her classroom.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: B

23. I would have lent you my notes if you would have asked me.

A. would have asked me

B. could of asked

C. could ask

D. had asked

E. had of asked

Correct answer: D

24. Many scientists are still hoping to have found life on another planet.

A. to have found

B. to find

C. two find

D. to have been found

E. too have found

Correct answer: B

25. Because she had an astounding memory, Sue has never forgotten an

important equation.

A. had an

B. could have had

C. has

D. did have

E. has had

Correct answer: C




1. "Are there two e's in beetle," asked Margo?

A. there two e's in beetle," asked Margo?

B. their two e's in beetle?" asked Margo.

C. there two e's in beetle," asked Margo?

D. there two e's in beetle?" asked Margo.

E. there two e's in beetle, asked Margo?

Correct answer: D








Correct answer: D


is yours.”






Correct answer: E

4. Porcupine is from Latin porcus, “pig,” and spina, “spine.”

A. porcus, “pig,” and spina, “spine.”

B. Porcus-pig and spina, “spine.”

C. Porcus-pig, and Spina, “spine.”

D. Porcus-Pig-,Spina-spine.

E. Porcus, “pig,” and spina “spine”.

Correct answer: A


A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: B


A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: D

7. By next month Ms. Jones will be Mayor of Tallahassee for two years.

A. will be Mayor of Tallahassee

B. will have been Mayor of Tallahassee

C. will be mayor of Tallahassee

D. will have been mayor of Tallahassee

E. could have been mayor of Tallahassee

Correct answer: D


A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: C








Correct answer: A







Correct answer: C



accomplish ) . “




D. To accomplish.


Correct answer: B

12. Seeing the dolphins, some sharks, a killer whale, and a Moray eel made the

visit to the marine park worthwhile.

A. a killer whale, and a Moray eel made the visit

B. a killer whale, and a moray eel made the visit

C. a killer whale and a moray eel makes the visit

D. a killer whale and a Moray eel makes the visit

E. a killer whale and a moray eel made the visit

Correct answer: B

13. Still, the fact that a planet exists outside our solar system encourages hope

that other solar systems exist, and in them, perhaps, a planet that does

support life.

A. that a planet exists outside our solar system encourages hope that other

solar systems exist, and

B. that a Planet exists out side our solar system encourages hope that other

solar systems exist and

C. could be that a planet exists outside our solar system encourages hope that

other solar systems exist, and

D. that a planet exist outside our solar systems encourage hope that other


E. that a planet does exists out side our solar system encourages hope that


Correct answer: A

14. Mail-order shopping can be convenient and timesaving with appropriate

precautions, it is safe as well.

A. can be convenient and timesaving

B. can be convenient and timesaving;

C. should be convenient and time saving;

D. could be convenient and time saving;

E. can be convenient and time-saving;

Correct answer: E

15. Among the many fields of science, no matter what turns you on, there are

several fields of study.

A. science, no matter what turns you on,

B. Science, no matter what turns you on,

C. Science, no matter which you chose,

D. Science, no matter which of these you chose-

E. science, no matter which you choose,

Correct answer: E

16. The fact that boxing is known to cause head injuries and brain damage

should lead us to inform the public and push for a ban on boxing.

A. should lead us to inform

B. could lead us to inform

C. should of led us to inform

D. will lead us to inform

E. should have led us to inform,

Correct answer: A

17. The first part of the test was on chemistry, the second on mathematics, and

the third on english.

A. on mathematics, and the third on english.

B. on mathematics; and the third on English.

C. on Mathematics; and the third on English.

D. on mathematics, and the third on English.

E. on mathematics: and the third on English.

Correct answer: D

18. The Diary of Anne Frank showed a young girl's courage during two years of

hiding.

A. showed a young girl's courage

B. shows a young girl's courage

C. did show a young girls courage

D. has shown a young girl's courage

E. showed a young girl's courage

Correct answer: B

In the sixteenth century, an age of great marine and terrestrial exploration,

Ferdinand Magellan led the first expedition to sail around the world. As a

young Portuguese noble, he served the king of Portugal, but he became

involved in the quagmire of political intrigue at court and lost the king's favor.

After he was dismissed from service to the king of Portugal, he offered to

serve the future Emperor Charles V of Spain.

A papal decree of 1493 had assigned all land in the New World west of 50

degrees W longitude to Spain and all the land east of that line to Portugal.

Magellan offered to prove that the East Indies fell under Spanish authority. On

September 20, 1519, Magellan set sail from Spain with five ships. More than a

year later, one of these ships was exploring the topography of South America

in search of a water route across the continent. This ship sank, but the

remaining four ships searched along the southern peninsula of South America.

Finally they found the passage they sought near a latitude of 50 degrees S.

Magellan named this passage the Strait of All Saints, but today we know it as

the Strait of Magellan.

One ship deserted while in this passage and returned to Spain, so fewer

sailors were privileged to gaze at that first panorama of the Pacific Ocean.

Those who remained crossed the meridian we now call the International Date

Line in the early spring of 1521 after ninety-eight days on the Pacific Ocean.

During those long days at sea, many of Magellan's men died of starvation and

disease.

Later Magellan became involved in an insular conflict in the Philippines and

was killed in a tribal battle. Only one ship and seventeen sailors under the

command of the Basque navigator Elcano survived to complete the westward

journey to Spain and thus prove once and for all that the world is round, with

no precipice at the edge.

19. The sixteenth century was an age of great ___exploration.

A. cosmic

B. land

C. mental

D. common man


Correct answer: B

20 . Magellan lost the favor of the king of Portugal when he became involved

in a political ___.

A. entanglement

B. discussion

C. negotiation

D. problems


Correct answer: A

21. The Pope divided New World lands between Spain and Portugal according

to their location on one side or the other of an imaginary geographical line 50

degrees west of Greenwich that extends in a ___ direction.

A. north and south

B. crosswise

C. easterly

D. south east

E. north and west

Correct answer: A

22. One of Magellan's ships explored the ___ of South America for a passage

across the continent.

A. coastline

B. mountain range

C. physical features

D. islands


Correct answer: C

23. Four of the ships sought a passage along a southern ___.

A. coast

B. inland

C. body of land with water on three sides

D. border

E. answer not available

Correct answer: C

24. The passage was found near 50 degrees S of ___.

A. Greenwich

B. The equator

C. Spain

D. Portugal

E. Madrid

Correct answer: B

25. In the spring of 1521, the ships crossed the ___ now called the International

Date Line.

A. imaginary circle passing through the poles

B. Imaginary line parallel to the equator

C. area

D. land mass

E. answer not found in article

Correct answer: A






A. tellers, ran

B. tellers: ran

C. tellers, had run

D. tellers-ran

E. tellers' ran”

Correct answer: D








Answer: B


is yours.”






Correct answer: E


A. Whos in

B. Whose in

C. Who is in

D. Who's in

E. Whose' in

Correct answer: D









Correct answer: A








Correct answer: C


A. lays southwest



D. lain southwest

E. laid southwest

Correct answer: E








Correct answer: A







Correct answer: C



accomplish ) . “




D. To accomplish.


Correct answer: B








Answer: B



support life.











Correct answer: A

Marie Curie was one of the most accomplished scientists in history. Together

with her husband, Pierre, she discovered radium, an element widely used for

treating cancer, and studied uranium and other radioactive substances. Pierre

and Marie's amicable collaboration later helped to unlock the secrets of the

atom.

Marie was born in 1867 in Warsaw, Poland, where her father was a professor of

physics. At the early age, she displayed a brilliant mind and a blithe personality.

Her great exuberance for learning prompted her to continue with her studies

after high school. She became disgruntled, however, when she learned that

the university in Warsaw was closed to women. Determined to receive a higher

education, she defiantly left Poland and in 1891 entered the Sorbonne, a

French university, where she earned her master's degree and doctorate in

physics.

Marie was fortunate to have studied at the Sorbonne with some of the

greatest scientists of her day, one of whom was Pierre Curie. Marie and Pierre

were married in 1895 and spent many productive years working together in the

physics laboratory. A short time after they discovered radium, Pierre was killed

by a horse-drawn wagon in 1906. Marie was stunned by this horrible

misfortune and endured heartbreaking anguish. Despondently she recalled

their close relationship and the joy that they had shared in scientific research.

The fact that she had two young daughters to raise by herself greatly

increased her distress.

Curie's feeling of desolation finally began to fade when she was asked to

succeed her husband as a physics professor at the Sorbonne. She was the

first woman to be given a professorship at the world-famous university. In 1911

she received the Nobel Prize in chemistry for isolating radium. Although Marie

Curie eventually suffered a fatal illness from her long exposure to radium, she

never became disillusioned about her work. Regardless of the consequences,

she had dedicated herself to science and to revealing the mysteries of the

physical world.

14.The Curies' ____ collaboration helped to unlock the secrets of the atom.

A. friendly

B. competitive

C. courteous

D. industrious

E. chemistry

Correct answer: A

15. Marie had a bright mind and a __personality.

A. strong

B. lighthearted

C. humorous

D. strange

E. envious

Correct answer: B

16. When she learned that she could not attend the university in Warsaw, she

felt___.

A. hopeless

B. annoyed

C. depressed

D. worried


Correct answer: B

17. Marie ___ by leaving Poland and traveling to France to enter the Sorbonne.

A. challenged authority

B. showed intelligence

C. behaved

D. was distressed

E. answer not available in article

Correct answer: A

18. _____she remembered their joy together.

A. Dejectedly

B. Worried

C. Tearfully

D. Happily

E. Sorrowfully

Correct answer: A

19. Her ____ began to fade when she returned to the Sorbonne to succeed her

husband.

A. misfortune

B. anger

C. wretchedness

D. disappointment

E. ambition

Correct answer: C

20. Even though she became fatally ill from working with radium, Marie Curie

was never ____.

A. troubled

B. worried

C. disappointed

D. sorrowful

E. disturbed

Correct answer: C


A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: D


A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: B


A. Has any of the

B. Is any of the

C. Will any of the

D. Are any of the

E. Have any of the

Correct answer: E


A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: D


A. ran perfect

B. ran perfectly




Correct answer: B




Mount Vesuvius, a volcano located between the ancient Italian cities of

Pompeii and Herculaneum, has received much attention because of its

frequent and destructive eruptions. The most famous of these eruptions

occurred in A. D. 79. The volcano had been inactive for centuries. There was

little warning of the coming eruption, although one account unearthed by

archaeologists says that a hard rain and a strong wind had disturbed the

celestial calm during the preceding night. Early the next morning, the volcano

poured a huge river of molten rock down upon Herculaneum, completely

burying the city and filling in the harbor with coagulated lava. Meanwhile, on

the other side of the mountain, cinders, stone and ash rained down on

Pompeii. Sparks from the burning ash ignited the combustible rooftops

quickly. Large portions of the city were destroyed in the conflagration. Fire,

however, was not the only cause of destruction. Poisonous sulphuric gases

saturated the air. These heavy gases were not buoyant in the atmosphere and

therefore sank toward the earth and suffocated people.

Over the years, excavations of Pompeii and Herculaneum have revealed a

great deal about the behavior of the volcano. By analyzing data, much as a

zoologist dissects a specimen animal, scientist have concluded that the

eruption changed large portions of the area's geography. For instance, it

turned the Sarno River from its course and raised the level of the beach along

the Bay of Naples. Meteorologists studying these events have also concluded

that Vesuvius caused a huge tidal wave that affected the world's climate. In

addition to making these investigations, archaeologists have been able to

study the skeletons of victims by using distilled water to wash away the

volcanic ash. By strengthening the brittle bones with acrylic paint, scientists

have been able to examine the skeletons and draw conclusions about the diet

and habits of the residents. Finally, the excavations at both Pompeii and

Herculaneum have yielded many examples of classical art, such as jewelry

made of bronze, which is an alloy of copper and tin.

The eruption of Mount Vesuvius and its tragic consequences have provided us

with a wealth of data about the effects that volcanoes can have on the

surrounding area. Today volcanologists can locate and predict eruptions,

saving lives and preventing the destruction of cities and cultures.

1.Herculaneum and its harbor were buried under ___lava.

A. liquid

B. solid

C. flowing

D. gas


Correct answer: B

2. The poisonous gases were not ___ in the air.

A. able to float

B. visible

C. able to evaporate

D. invisible

E. able to condense

Correct answer: A

3. Scientists analyzed data about Vesuvius in the same way that a zoologist ___

a specimen.

A. describes in detail

B. studies by cutting apart

C. photographs

D. chart


Correct answer: B

4. ____have concluded that the volcanic eruption caused a tidal wave.

A. Scientist who study oceans

B. Scientist who study atmospheric conditions

C. Scientist who study ash

D. Scientist who study animal behavior

E. Answer not available in article

Correct answer: B

5. Scientist have used ___water to wash away volcanic ash from the skeletons

of victims.

A. bottled

B. volcanic

C. purified

D. sea

E. fountain

Correct answer: C

Americans have always been interested in their Presidents' wives. Many First

Ladies have been remembered because of the ways they have influenced their

husbands. Other First Ladies have made the history books on their own.

At least two First Ladies, Bess Truman and Lady Bird Johnson, made it their

business to send signals during their husbands' speeches. When Lady Bird

Johnson thought her husband was talking too long, she wrote a note and sent

it up to the platform. It read, “It's time to stop!” And he did. Once Bess Truman

didn't like what her husband was saying on television, so she phoned him and

said,” If you can't talk more politely than that in public, you come right home.”

Abigail Fillmore and Eliza Johnson actually taught their husbands, Millard

Fillmore and Andrew Johnson, the thirteenth and seventeenth Presidents. A

schoolteacher, Abigail eventually married her pupil, Millard. When Eliza

Johnson married Andrew, he could not read or write, so she taught him herself.

It was First Lady Helen Taft's idea to plant the famous cherry trees in

Washington, D. C. Each spring these blossoming trees attract thousands of

visitors to the nation's capital. Mrs. Taft also influenced the male members of

her family and the White House staff in a strange way: she convinced them to

shave off their beards!

Shortly after President Wilson suffered a stroke, Edith Wilson unofficially took

over most of the duties of the Presidency until the end of her husband's term.

Earlier, during World War I, Mrs. Wilson had had sheep brought onto the White

House lawn to eat the grass. The sheep not only kept the lawn mowed but

provided wool for an auction sponsored by the First Lady. Almost $100,000

was raised for the Red Cross.

Dolly Madison saw to it that a magnificent painting of George Washington was

not destroyed during the War of 1812. As the British marched toward

Washington, D. C., she remained behind to rescue the painting, even after the

guards had left. The painting is the only object from the original White House

that was not burned. One of the most famous First Ladies was Eleanor

Roosevelt, the wife of President Franklin D. Roosevelt. She was active in

political and social causes throughout her husband's tenure in office. After his

death, she became famous for her humanitarian work in the United Nations.

She made life better for thousands of needy people around the world.

6. What is the main idea of this passage?

A. The Humanitarian work of the First Ladies is critical in American government.

B. Dolly Madison was the most influential president's wife.

C. Eleanor Roosevelt transformed the First Lady image.

D. The First Ladies are important in American culture.

E. The First Ladies are key supporters of the Presidents.

Correct answer: D

Of the many kinds of vegetables grown all over the world, which remains the

favorite of young and old alike? Why, the potato, of course.

Perhaps you know them as “taters,” “spuds,” or “Kennebees,” or as “chips,”

“Idahoes,” or even “shoestrings.” No matter, a potato by any other name is still

a potato- the world's most widely grown vegetable. As a matter of fact, if you

are an average potato eater, you will put away at least a hundred pounds of

them each year.

That's only a tiny portion of the amount grown every year, however. Worldwide,

the annual potato harvest is over six billion bags- each bag containing a

hundred pounds of spuds, some of them as large as four pounds each. Here in

the United States, farmers fill about four hundred million bags a year. That may

seem like a lot of “taters,” but it leaves us a distant third among world potato

growers. Polish farmers dig up just over 800 million bags a year, while the

Russians lead the world with nearly 1.5 billion bags.

The first potatoes were grown by the Incas of South America, more than four

hundred years ago. Their descendants in Ecuador and Chile continue to grow

the vegetable as high as fourteen thousand feet up in the Andes Mountains. (

That's higher than any other food will grow.) Early Spanish and English

explorers shipped potatoes to Europe, and they found their way to North

America in the early 1600s.

People eat potatoes in many ways-baked, mashed, and roasted, to name just

three. However, in the United States most potatoes are devoured in the form

of French fries. One fast-food chain alone sells more than $1 billion worth of

fries each year. No wonder, then, that the company pays particular attention to

the way its fries are prepared.

Before any fry makes it to the people who eat at these popular restaurants, it

must pass many separate tests. Fail any one and the spud is rejected. To start

with, only russet Burbank potatoes are used. These Idaho potatoes have less

water content than other kinds, which can have as much as eighty percent

water. Once cut into “shoestrings” shapes, the potatoes are partly fried in a

secret blend of oils, sprayed with liquid sugar to brown them, steam dried at

high heat, then flash frozen for shipment to individual restaurants.

Before shipping, though, every shoestring is measured. Forty percent of a

batch must be between two and three inches long. Another forty percent has

to be over three inches. What about the twenty percent that are left in the

batch? Well, a few short fries in a bag are okay, it seems.

So, now that you realize the enormous size and value of the potato crop, you

can understand why most people agree that this part of the food industry is no

“small potatoes.”


A. Potatoes from Ireland started the Potato Revolution.

B. The average American eats 50 lbs of potatoes a year.

C. French fries are made from potatoes.

D. Potatoes are a key vegetable in America.

E. The various terms for potatoes have a long history

Correct answer: D

What does the word patent mean to you? Does it strike you as being

something rather remote from your interests? If it does, stop and think a

moment about some of the commonplace things that you use every day,

objects that you take for granted as part of the world around you. The

telephone, radio, television, the automobile, and the thousand and one other

things (even the humble safety pin) that enrich our lives today once existed

only as ideas in the minds of men. If it had not been possible to patent their

ideas and thus protect them against copying by others, these inventions might

never have been fully developed to serve mankind.

If there were no patent protection there would be little incentive to invent and

innovate, for once the details of an invention became known, hordes of

imitators who did not share the inventor's risks and expenses might well flood

the market with their copies of his product and reap much of the benefit of his

efforts. The technological progress that has made America great would wither

rapidly under conditions such as these.

The fundamental principles in the U. S. patent structure came from England.

During the glorious reign of Queen Elizabeth I in England, the expanding

technology was furthered by the granting of exclusive manufacturing and

selling privileges to citizens who had invented new processes or tools- a step

that did much to encourage creativity. Later, when critics argued that giving

monopoly rights to one person infringed on the rights of others, an important

principle was added to the patent structure: The Lord Chief Justice of England

stated that society had everything to gain and nothing to lose by granting

exclusive privileges to an inventor, because a patent for an invention was

granted for something new that society never had before.

Another basic principle was brought into law because certain influential

people in England had managed to obtain monopoly control over such age-

old products as salt, and had begun charging as much as the traffic would

bear. The public outcry became so great that the government was forced to

decree that monopoly rights could be awarded only to those who created or

introduced something really unique. These principles are the mainstays of our

modern patent system in the United States.

In colonial times patent law was left up to the separate states. The

inconsistency, confusion, and unfairness that resulted clearly indicated the

need for a uniform patent law, and the men who drew up the Constitution

incorporated one. George Washington signed the first patent law on April

10,1790, and less than four months later the first patent was issued to a man

named Samuel Hopkins for a chemical process, an improved method of

making potash for use in soapmaking.

In 1936 the Patent Office was established as a separate bureau. From the staff

of eight that it maintained during its first year of operation it has grown into an

organization of over 2500 people handling more than 1600 patent

applications and granting over 1000 every week.

The Patent Office in Washington, D. C., is the world's largest library of scientific

and technical data, and this treasure trove of information is open for public

inspection. In addition to more than 3 million U. S. patents, it houses more than

7 million foreign patents and thousands of volumes of technical literature.

Abraham Lincoln patented a device to lift steam vessels over river shoals,

Mark Twain developed a self-pasting scrapbook, and millionaire Cornelius

Vanderbilt invented a shoe-shine kit.

A patent may be granted for any new and useful process, machine, article of

manufacture, or composition of matter ( a chemical compound or

combinations of chemical compounds), or any distinct and new variety; of

plant, including certain mutants and hybrids.

The patent system has also helped to boost the wages of the American worker

to an unprecedented level; he can produce more and earn more with the

computer, adding machines, drill press or lathe. Patented inventions also help

keep prices down by increasing manufacturing efficiency and by stimulating

the competition that is the foundation of our free enterprise system.

The decades of history have disclosed little need for modification of the

patent structure. Our patent laws, like the Constitution from which they grew,

have stood the test of time well. They encouraged the creative processes,

brought untold benefits to society as a whole, and enabled American

technology to outstrip that of the rest of the civilized world.

8.What is the main idea of this passage?

A. The patent system encourages free enterprise.

B. The Constitution protects the patent system.

C. The patent system in England has been influential in American patent

development.

D. Patents are important tools for inventors.

E. Patented inventions protect the inventor, free enterprise, and the creative

process.

Correct answer: E

Most people think it's fine to be “busy as a beaver.” Little do they know.

Beavers may work hard, but often they don't get much done.

Beavers are supposed to be great tree cutters. It is true that a beaver can

gnaw through a tree very quickly. (A six-inch birch takes about ten minutes.)

But then what? Often the beaver does not make use of the tree. One expert

says that beavers waste one out of every five trees they cut.

For one thing, they do not choose their trees wisely. One bunch of beavers cut

down a cottonwood tree more than one hundred feet tall. Then they found that

they could not move it.

In thick woods a tree sometimes won't fall down. It gets stuck in the other

trees. Of course, doesn't think to cut down the trees that are in the way. So a

good tree goes to waste.

Some people think that beavers can make a tree fall the way they want it to.

Not true. (In fact, a beaver sometimes gets pinned under a falling tree.) When

beavers cut a tree near a stream, it usually falls into the water. But they do not

plan it that way. The fact is that most trees lean toward the water to start with.

Now what about dam building? Most beaver dams are wonders of engineering.

The best ones are strongly built of trees, stones, and mud. They are wide at the

bottom and narrow at the top.

Beavers think nothing of building a dam more than two hundred feet long. One

dam, in Montana, was more than two thousand feet long. The largest one ever

seen was in New Hampshire. It stretched four thousand feet. It made a lake

large enough to hold forty beaver homes.

So beavers do build good dams. But they don't always build them in the right

places. They just don't plan. They will build a dam across the widest part of the

stream. They don't try to find a place where the stream is narrow. So a lot of

their hard work is wasted.

Beavers should learn that it's not enough to be busy. You have to know what

you're doing, too. For example, there was one Oregon beaver that really was a

worker. It decided to fix a leak in a man-made dam. After five days of work it

gave up. The leak it was trying to block was the lock that boats go through.


A. Beavers may be hard working animals, but they don't always choose the

most efficient mechanisms.

B. Beavers are excellent dam builders.

C. New Hampshire was the site of the largest beaver dam.

D. Beavers are well developed tree cutters.

E. Beavers are poor surveyors of aquatic environments in some cases.

Correct answer: A

The raisin business in America was born by accident. It happened in 1873 in

the San Joaquin Valley of California. Many farmers raised grapes in this valley.

That year, just before the grape harvest, there was a heat wave. It was one of

the worst heat waves ever known. It was so hot the grapes dried on the vines.

When they were picked, California had its first raisin crop.

People were surprised to find how good raisins were. Everybody wanted more.

So the San Joaquin farmers went into the raisin business. Today, of course,

they do not let the grapes dry on the vines. They treat them with much more

care.

In late August the grapes start to ripen. They are tested often for sweetness.

The growers wait until the sugar content is twenty-one percent. Then they

know the grapes are ripe enough to be picked. Skilled workers come to the

vineyards. They pick the bunches of grapes by hand. The workers fill their flat

pans with grapes. They gently empty the pans onto squares of paper. These

squares lie between the long rows of vines. They sit in the sun.

Here the grapes stay while the sun does its work. It may take two weeks or

longer. The grapes are first dried on one side. When they have reached the

right color, they are turned to dry on the other side. The grapes are dried until

only fifteen percent of the moisture is left. Then they have turned into raisins.

The raisins are rolled up in the paper on which they have dried. Trucks take

them from the fields. They are poured into big boxes called sweatboxes. Each

box holds one hundred and sixty pounds of raisins. Here, any raisins that are a

bit too dry take moisture from those that have a bit too much. After a while

they are all just moist enough.

The big boxes are trucked next to the packaging plant. They are emptied onto

a conveyor belt that shakes the raisins gently. This knocks them from their

stems. A blast of air whisks the stems away. The water bath is next. Then the

plump brown raisins have a last inspection. They are again checked for

moisture and sugar. Then they go on a belt to packing machines. Here they are

poured into packages, which are automatically weighed and sealed. The raisins

are now ready for market.


A. The creation of raisins in America was an accident.

B. The process of raisin development requires multiple steps.

C. Raisins on the grocery store shelf undergo a brief fermentation process.

D. Raisins are cleaned thoroughly at the packing plant.

E. California has been the leader in American raisin development

Correct answer: B

In 1892 the Sierra Club was formed. In 1908 an area of coastal redwood trees

north of San Francisco was established as Muir Woods National Monument. In

the Sierra Nevada mountains, a walking trail from Yosemite Valley to Mount

Whitney was dedicated in 1938. It is called John Muir Trail.

John Muir was born in 1838 in Scotland. His family name means “moor,” which

is a meadow full of flowers and animals. John loved nature from the time he

was small. He also liked to climb rocky cliffs and walls.

When John was eleven, his family moved to the United States and settled in

Wisconsin. John was good with tools and soon became an inventor. He first

invented a model of a sawmill. Later he invented an alarm clock that would

cause the sleeping person to be tipped out of bed when the timer sounded.

Muir left home at an early age. He took a thousand-mile walk south to the Gulf

of Mexico in 1867and 1868. Then he sailed for San Francisco. The city was too

noisy and crowded for Muir, so he headed inland for the Sierra Nevadas.

When Muir discovered the Yosemite Valley in the Sierra Nevadas, it was as if

he had come home. He loved the mountains, the wildlife, and the trees. He

climbed the mountains and even climbed trees during thunderstorms in order

to get closer to the wind. He put forth the theory in the late 1860's that the

Yosemite Valley had been formed through the action of glaciers. People

ridiculed him. Not until 1930 was Muir's theory proven correct.

Muir began to write articles about the Yosemite Valley to tell readers about its

beauty. His writing also warned people that Yosemite was in danger from

timber mining and sheep ranching interests. In 1901 Theodore Roosevelt

became president of the United States. He was interested in conservation.

Muir took the president through Yosemite, and Roosevelt helped get

legislation passed to create Yosemite National Park in 1906. Although Muir

won many conservation battles, he lost a major one. He fought to save the

Hetch Valley, which people wanted to dam in order to provide water for San

Francisco. In the late 1913 a bill was signed to dam the valley. Muir died in 1914.

Some people say losing the fight to protect the valley killed Muir.

11. What happened first?

A. The Muir family moved to the United States.

B. Muir Woods was created.

C. John Muir learned to climb rocky cliffs.

D. John Muir walked to the Gulf of Mexico

E. Muir visited along the east coast.

Correct answer: C

12. When did Muir invent a unique form of alarm clock?

A. while the family still lived in Scotland

B. after he sailed to San Francisco

C. after he traveled in Yosemite

D. while the Muir family lived in Wisconsin

E. after he took the long walk

Correct answer: D

13. What did John Muir do soon after he arrived in San Francisco?

A. He ran outside during an earthquake.

B. He put forth a theory about how Yosemite was formed.

C. He headed inland for the Sierra Nevadas.

D. He began to write articles about the Sierra Nevadas.

E. He wrote short stories for the local newspaper.

Correct answer: C

14. When did John Muir meet Theodore Roosevelt?

A. between 1901 and 1906

B. between 1838 and 1868

C. between 1906 and 1914

D. between 1868 and 1901

E. between 1906-1907

V A

15. What happened last?

A. John Muir died.

B. John Muir Trail was dedicated.

C. Muir's glacial theory was proven.

D. The Sierra Club was formed.

E. John's family visited him.

Correct answer: B

The village of Vestmannaeyjar, in the far northern country of Iceland, is as

bright and clean and up-to-date as any American or Canadian suburb. It is

located on the island of Heimaey, just off the mainland. One January night in

1973, however, householders were shocked from their sleep. In some

backyards red-hot liquid was spurting from the ground. Flaming “skyrockets”

shot up and over the houses. The island's volcano, Helgafell, silent for seven

thousand years, was violently erupting!

Luckily, the island's fishing fleet was in port, and within twenty-four hours

almost everyone was ferried to the mainland. But then the agony of the island

began in earnest. As in a nightmare, fountains of burning lava

spurted three hundred feet high. Black, baseball-size cinders rained down. An

evil-smelling, eye-burning, throat-searing cloud of smoke and gas erupted into

the air, and a river of lava flowed down the mountain. The constant shriek of

escaping steam was punctuated by ear-splitting explosions.

As time went on, the once pleasant village of Vestmannaeyjar took on a weird

aspect. Its street lamps still burning against the long Arctic night, the town lay

under a thick blanket of cinders. All that could be seen above the ten-foot

black drifts were the tips of street signs. Some houses had collapsed under

the weight of cinders; others had burst into flames as the heat ignited their oil

storage tanks. Lighting the whole lurid scene, fire continued to shoot from the

mouth of the looming volcano.

The eruption continued for six months. Scientists and reporters arrived from

around the world to observe the awesome natural event. But the town did not

die that easily. In July, when the eruption ceased, the people of Heimaey Island

returned to assess the chances of rebuilding their homes and lives. They

found tons of ash covering the ground. The Icelanders are a tough people,

however, accustomed to the strange and violent nature of their Arctic land.

They dug out their homes. They even used the cinders to build new roads and

airport runways. Now the new homes of Heimaey are warmed from water pipes

heated by molten lava.

16. The village is located on the island of-

A. Vestmannaeyjar

B. Hebrides

C. Heimaey

D. Helgafell

E. Heimma

Correct answer: C

17. The color of the hot liquid was-

A. orange

B. black

C. yellow

D. red

E. gray

Correct answer: D

18. This liquid was coming from the –

A. mountains

B. ground

C. sea

D. sky

E. ocean

Correct answer: B

19. The island's volcano had been inactive for-

A. seventy years

B. seven thousand years

C. seven thousand months

D. seven hundred years

E. seventy decades

Correct answer: B

20. Black cinders fell that were the size of__

A. baseballs

B. pebbles

C. golf balls

D. footballs

E. hail-stones

Correct answer: A

21. Despite the eruption-

A. buses kept running

B. the radio kept broadcasting

C. the police kept working

D. street lamps kept burning

E. the television kept broadcasting

Correct answer: D

22. This volcanic eruption lasted for six ___.

A. weeks

B. hours

C. months

D. days

E. years

Correct answer: C

23. If the books have been cataloged last week, why haven't they been placed

on the shelf?

A. have been cataloged

B. would have been cataloged

C. was cataloged

D. were cataloged

E. had been cataloged

Correct answer: D

24. Jessica Mitford wrote The American Way of Death, a best-selling book, that

led eventually to an official investigation of the funeral industry.

A. that led eventually

B. that had led eventually

C. that eventually led

D. which led eventually

E. who eventually led

Correct answer: D

25. Sabotage came from the French saboter, which means“to clatter with

wooden shoes (sabots).”

A. which means “to

B. which means, “ to

C. that means “to

D. that means- “to

E. that means, “to

Correct answer: A






A. tellers, ran

B. tellers: ran

C. tellers, had run

D. tellers-ran

E. tellers' ran”

Correct answer: D








Correct answer: B

3. David was known for belching; and telling inappropriate jokes in public.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: B

4. To no ones surprise, Joe didn't have his homework ready.

A. no ones surprise

B. noones surprise

C. no-ones surprise

D. no ones' surprise

E. no one's surprise

Correct answer: E

5. As a result of his method for early music education, Shinichi Suzuki has

been known as one of the world's great violin teachers.

A. has been known as one

B. had been known as one

C. is seen as one

D. is being seen as one

E. has been one

Correct answer: C

6. If he would have read “The White Birds,” he might have liked William Butler

Yeats's poetry.

A. would have read

B. could have read

C. would of read

D. could of read

E. had read

Correct answer: E

7. Last night the weather forecaster announced that this is the most rainy

season the area has had in the past decade.

A. this is the most rainy season the

B. this has been the most rainy season the

C. this was the most rainy season the

D. this is noted as the most rainy season the

E. this is the rainiest season the

Correct answer: E

8. Graduation from High School is considered by many a momentous occasion.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: A







Correct answer: B

10. After having his tonsels removed, the child was listless for a few days.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: C

11. After the hurricane, uprooted trees were laying all over the ground.

A. were laying

B. lying

C. were lying

D. were laid

E. was laid

Correct answer: C







Correct answer: B

13. Nurses plays a vital role in the healthcare profession.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: D

14. Ralph Waldo Emerson (1803-1882), the great Transcendentalist

philosopher, wrote in his essay “Self-Reliance” of the need for an individual to

develop his capacities.

A. essay “Self–Reliance”

B. essay, “Self-Reliance”

C. essay: Self-Reliance

D. essay, Self-Reliance

E. essay; “Self-Reliance”

Correct answer: A

15. When Katherine Hepburn's play came to town, all the tickets had sold out

far in advance.

A. had sold out far

B. have sold out far

C. were sold out far

D. had been sold out far

E. had been sold out for

Correct answer: D


A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: C








Correct answer: A







Correct answer: C



accomplish ) . “




D. To accomplish.


Correct answer: B

20. Neither of the Smith brothers expect to be drafted by a major league team

this year.

A. expect to be drafted

B. expects to be drafted

C. has expected to be drafted

D. is expecting to be drafted

E. was expecting to be drafted

Correct answer: B

21. The bachalor never married. Most people thought it was because of

misogyny.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: C

22. My class just finished reading- “ The Fall of the House of Usher “, a short

story by Edgar Allen Poe.

A. reading- “ The Fall of the House of Usher”,

B. reading, The Fall of the House of Usher,

C. reading “The Fall of the House of Usher, “

D. reading, The Fall of the house of Usher, “

E. reading: The Fall of the House of Usher-

Correct answer: C


A. Has any of the

B. Is any of the

C. Will any of the

D. Are any of the

E. Have any of the

Correct answer: E


A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: D


A. ran perfect

B. ran perfectly




Correct answer: B

PAPER 1: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE



1. The Lusitania sunk on May 7, 1915.

A. sunk

B. did sink

C. was sunk

D. did sank

E. sank

Correct answer: E


A. ran perfect

B. ran perfectly




Correct answer: B








Correct answer: D


is yours.”






Correct answer: E


A. Whos in

B. Whose in

C. Who is in

D. Who's in

E. Whose' in

Correct answer: D









Correct answer: A








Correct answer: C


A. lays southwest



D. lain southwest

E. laid southwest

Correct answer: E

9. Did they know that Labor Day always came on the first Monday in

September?

A. came on

B. comes on

C. has come on

D. had come on

E. has came on

Correct answer: B

10. Eating, drinking, and to stay up late at night were among her pleasures.

A. to stay up late

B. to remain up late

C. staying up late

D. she liked staying up late

E. trying to stay up late

Correct answer: C

11. Each night when night came and the temperature fell, my parents lit the fire

in the bedroom.

A. and the temperature fell,

B. and that the temperature did fall

C. and that the temperature fell

D. and because the temperature fell

E. and when the temperature fell

Correct answer: E

12. Francis promised to bring the Papago basket that she bought in Arizona.

A. bought in

B. had bought in

C. has bought in

D. did buy in

E. purchased in

Correct answer: B

13. The professor was humiliated when his students reported him to the Dean

for verbal abuse.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: A

14. The con artist hoodwinked the old lady when he sold her fradulent

insurance.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: C

15. The movie star was accused of a misdemeanor, when she stole 15 dollars

worth of merchandise from the store.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: B

16. The congregation sang a comtemporary hymn.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: C

17. The wound were necrotic when examined.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: D

18. The defendint exhibited a peevish appearance.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: C

19. The band director was scheduled to play the piccolo on tuesday.

A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: A


A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: B


A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Answer: D


A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: B

23. I would have lent you my notes if you would have asked me.

A. would have asked me

B. could of asked

C. could ask

D. had asked

E. had of asked

Correct answer: D

24. Many scientists are still hoping to have found life on another planet.

A. to have found

B. to find

C. two find

D. to have been found

E. too have found

Correct answer: B

25. Because she had an astounding memory, Sue has never forgotten an

important equation.

A. had an

B. could have had

C. has

D. did have

E. has had

Correct answer: C

PAPER 1: VERBAL REASONING



1. "Are there two e's in beetle," asked Margo?

A. there two e's in beetle," asked Margo?

B. their two e's in beetle?" asked Margo.

C. there two e's in beetle," asked Margo?

D. there two e's in beetle?" asked Margo.

E. there two e's in beetle, asked Margo?

Correct answer: D








Correct answer: D


is yours.”






Correct answer: E

4. Porcupine is from Latin porcus, “pig,” and spina, “spine.”

A. porcus, “pig,” and spina, “spine.”

B. Porcus-pig and spina, “spine.”

C. Porcus-pig, and Spina, “spine.”

D. Porcus-Pig-,Spina-spine.

E. Porcus, “pig,” and spina “spine”.

Correct answer: A


A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: B


A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: D

7. By next month Ms. Jones will be Mayor of Tallahassee for two years.

A. will be Mayor of Tallahassee

B. will have been Mayor of Tallahassee

C. will be mayor of Tallahassee

D. will have been mayor of Tallahassee

E. could have been mayor of Tallahassee

Correct answer: D


A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: C








Correct answer: A







Correct answer: C



accomplish ) . “




D. To accomplish.


Correct answer: B








Correct answer: B



support life.











Correct answer: A

14. Mail-order shopping can be convenient and timesaving with appropriate

precautions, it is safe as well.

A. can be convenient and timesaving

B. can be convenient and timesaving;

C. should be convenient and time saving;

D. could be convenient and time saving;

E. can be convenient and time-saving;

Correct answer: E

15. Among the many fields of science, no matter what turns you on, there are

several fields of study.

A. science, no matter what turns you on,

B. Science, no matter what turns you on,

C. Science, no matter which you chose,

D. Science, no matter which of these you chose-

E. science, no matter which you choose,

Correct answer: E

16. The fact that boxing is known to cause head injuries and brain damage

should lead us to inform the public and push for a ban on boxing.

A. should lead us to inform

B. could lead us to inform

C. should of led us to inform

D. will lead us to inform

E. should have led us to inform,

Correct answer: A

17. The first part of the test was on chemistry, the second on mathematics, and

the third on english.

A. on mathematics, and the third on english.

B. on mathematics; and the third on English.

C. on Mathematics; and the third on English.

D. on mathematics, and the third on English.

E. on mathematics: and the third on English.

Correct answer: D

18. The Diary of Anne Frank showed a young girl's courage during two years of

hiding.

A. showed a young girl's courage

B. shows a young girl's courage

C. did show a young girls courage

D. has shown a young girl's courage

E. showed a young girl's courage

Correct answer: B

In the sixteenth century, an age of great marine and terrestrial exploration,

Ferdinand Magellan led the first expedition to sail around the world. As a

young Portuguese noble, he served the king of Portugal, but he became

involved in the quagmire of political intrigue at court and lost the king's favor.

After he was dismissed from service to the king of Portugal, he offered to

serve the future Emperor Charles V of Spain.

A papal decree of 1493 had assigned all land in the New World west of 50

degrees W longitude to Spain and all the land east of that line to Portugal.

Magellan offered to prove that the East Indies fell under Spanish authority. On

September 20, 1519, Magellan set sail from Spain with five ships. More than a

year later, one of these ships was exploring the topography of South America

in search of a water route across the continent. This ship sank, but the

remaining four ships searched along the southern peninsula of South America.

Finally they found the passage they sought near a latitude of 50 degrees S.

Magellan named this passage the Strait of All Saints, but today we know it as

the Strait of Magellan.

One ship deserted while in this passage and returned to Spain, so fewer

sailors were privileged to gaze at that first panorama of the Pacific Ocean.

Those who remained crossed the meridian we now call the International Date

Line in the early spring of 1521 after ninety-eight days on the Pacific Ocean.

During those long days at sea, many of Magellan's men died of starvation and

disease.

Later Magellan became involved in an insular conflict in the Philippines and

was killed in a tribal battle. Only one ship and seventeen sailors under the

command of the Basque navigator Elcano survived to complete the westward

journey to Spain and thus prove once and for all that the world is round, with

no precipice at the edge.

19. The sixteenth century was an age of great ___exploration.

A. cosmic

B. land

C. mental

D. common man


Correct answer: B

20 . Magellan lost the favor of the king of Portugal when he became involved

in a political ___.

A. entanglement

B. discussion

C. negotiation

D. problems


Correct answer: A

21. The Pope divided New World lands between Spain and Portugal according

to their location on one side or the other of an imaginary geographical line 50

degrees west of Greenwich that extends in a ___ direction.

A. north and south

B. crosswise

C. easterly

D. south east

E. north and west

Correct answer: A

22. One of Magellan's ships explored the ___ of South America for a passage

across the continent.

A. coastline

B. mountain range

C. physical features

D. islands


Correct answer: C

23. Four of the ships sought a passage along a southern ___.

A. coast

B. inland

C. body of land with water on three sides

D. border


Correct answer: C

24. The passage was found near 50 degrees S of ___.

A. Greenwich

B. The equator

C. Spain

D. Portugal

E. Madrid

Correct answer: B

25. In the spring of 1521, the ships crossed the ___ now called the International

Date Line.

A. imaginary circle passing through the poles

B. Imaginary line parallel to the equator

C. area

D. land mass

E. answer not found in article

Correct answer: A






A. tellers, ran

B. tellers: ran

C. tellers, had run

D. tellers-ran

E. tellers' ran”

Correct answer: D








Answer: B


is yours.”






Correct answer: E


A. Whos in

B. Whose in

C. Who is in

D. Who's in

E. Whose' in

Correct answer: D









Correct answer: A








Correct answer: C


A. lays southwest



D. lain southwest

E. laid southwest

Correct answer: E








Correct answer: A







Correct answer: C



accomplish ) . “




D. To accomplish.


Correct answer: B








Answer: B



support life.











Correct answer: A

Marie Curie was one of the most accomplished scientists in history. Together

with her husband, Pierre, she discovered radium, an element widely used for

treating cancer, and studied uranium and other radioactive substances. Pierre

and Marie's amicable collaboration later helped to unlock the secrets of the

atom.

Marie was born in 1867 in Warsaw, Poland, where her father was a professor of

physics. At the early age, she displayed a brilliant mind and a blithe personality.

Her great exuberance for learning prompted her to continue with her studies

after high school. She became disgruntled, however, when she learned that

the university in Warsaw was closed to women. Determined to receive a higher

education, she defiantly left Poland and in 1891 entered the Sorbonne, a

French university, where she earned her master's degree and doctorate in

physics.

Marie was fortunate to have studied at the Sorbonne with some of the

greatest scientists of her day, one of whom was Pierre Curie. Marie and Pierre

were married in 1895 and spent many productive years working together in the

physics laboratory. A short time after they discovered radium, Pierre was killed

by a horse-drawn wagon in 1906. Marie was stunned by this horrible

misfortune and endured heartbreaking anguish. Despondently she recalled

their close relationship and the joy that they had shared in scientific research.

The fact that she had two young daughters to raise by herself greatly

increased her distress.

Curie's feeling of desolation finally began to fade when she was asked to

succeed her husband as a physics professor at the Sorbonne. She was the

first woman to be given a professorship at the world-famous university. In 1911

she received the Nobel Prize in chemistry for isolating radium. Although Marie

Curie eventually suffered a fatal illness from her long exposure to radium, she

never became disillusioned about her work. Regardless of the consequences,

she had dedicated herself to science and to revealing the mysteries of the

physical world.

14.The Curies' ____ collaboration helped to unlock the secrets of the atom.

A. friendly

B. competitive

C. courteous

D. industrious

E. chemistry

Correct answer: A

15. Marie had a bright mind and a __personality.

A. strong

B. lighthearted

C. humorous

D. strange

E. envious

Correct answer: B

16. When she learned that she could not attend the university in Warsaw, she

felt___.

A. hopeless

B. annoyed

C. depressed

D. worried


Correct answer: B

17. Marie ___ by leaving Poland and traveling to France to enter the Sorbonne.

A. challenged authority

B. showed intelligence

C. behaved

D. was distressed

E. answer not available in article

Correct answer: A

18. _____she remembered their joy together.

A. Dejectedly

B. Worried

C. Tearfully

D. Happily

E. Sorrowfully

Correct answer: A

19. Her ____ began to fade when she returned to the Sorbonne to succeed her

husband.

A. misfortune

B. anger

C. wretchedness

D. disappointment

E. ambition

Correct answer: C

20. Even though she became fatally ill from working with radium, Marie Curie

was never ____.

A. troubled

B. worried

C. disappointed

D. sorrowful

E. disturbed

Correct answer: C


A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: D


A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: B


A. Has any of the

B. Is any of the

C. Will any of the

D. Are any of the

E. Have any of the

Correct answer: E


A. Capitalization

B. Punctuation

C. Spelling

D. Grammar

Correct answer: D


A. ran perfect

B. ran perfectly




Correct answer: B




Mount Vesuvius, a volcano located between the ancient Italian cities of

Pompeii and Herculaneum, has received much attention because of its

frequent and destructive eruptions. The most famous of these eruptions

occurred in A. D. 79. The volcano had been inactive for centuries. There was

little warning of the coming eruption, although one account unearthed by

archaeologists says that a hard rain and a strong wind had disturbed the

celestial calm during the preceding night. Early the next morning, the volcano

poured a huge river of molten rock down upon Herculaneum, completely

burying the city and filling in the harbor with coagulated lava. Meanwhile, on

the other side of the mountain, cinders, stone and ash rained down on

Pompeii. Sparks from the burning ash ignited the combustible rooftops

quickly. Large portions of the city were destroyed in the conflagration. Fire,

however, was not the only cause of destruction. Poisonous sulphuric gases

saturated the air. These heavy gases were not buoyant in the atmosphere and

therefore sank toward the earth and suffocated people.

Over the years, excavations of Pompeii and Herculaneum have revealed a

great deal about the behavior of the volcano. By analyzing data, much as a

zoologist dissects a specimen animal, scientist have concluded that the

eruption changed large portions of the area's geography. For instance, it

turned the Sarno River from its course and raised the level of the beach along

the Bay of Naples. Meteorologists studying these events have also concluded

that Vesuvius caused a huge tidal wave that affected the world's climate. In

addition to making these investigations, archaeologists have been able to

study the skeletons of victims by using distilled water to wash away the

volcanic ash. By strengthening the brittle bones with acrylic paint, scientists

have been able to examine the skeletons and draw conclusions about the diet

and habits of the residents. Finally, the excavations at both Pompeii and

Herculaneum have yielded many examples of classical art, such as jewelry

made of bronze, which is an alloy of copper and tin.

The eruption of Mount Vesuvius and its tragic consequences have provided us

with a wealth of data about the effects that volcanoes can have on the

surrounding area. Today volcanologists can locate and predict eruptions,

saving lives and preventing the destruction of cities and cultures.

1.Herculaneum and its harbor were buried under ___lava.

A. liquid

B. solid

C. flowing

D. gas


Correct answer: B

2. The poisonous gases were not ___ in the air.

A. able to float

B. visible

C. able to evaporate

D. invisible

E. able to condense

Correct answer: A

3. Scientists analyzed data about Vesuvius in the same way that a zoologist ___

a specimen.

A. describes in detail

B. studies by cutting apart

C. photographs

D. chart


Correct answer: B

4. ____have concluded that the volcanic eruption caused a tidal wave.

A. Scientist who study oceans

B. Scientist who study atmospheric conditions

C. Scientist who study ash

D. Scientist who study animal behavior

E. Answer not available in article

Correct answer: B

5. Scientist have used ___water to wash away volcanic ash from the skeletons

of victims.

A. bottled

B. volcanic

C. purified

D. sea

E. fountain

Correct answer: C

Americans have always been interested in their Presidents' wives. Many First

Ladies have been remembered because of the ways they have influenced their

husbands. Other First Ladies have made the history books on their own.

At least two First Ladies, Bess Truman and Lady Bird Johnson, made it their

business to send signals during their husbands' speeches. When Lady Bird

Johnson thought her husband was talking too long, she wrote a note and sent

it up to the platform. It read, “It's time to stop!” And he did. Once Bess Truman

didn't like what her husband was saying on television, so she phoned him and

said,” If you can't talk more politely than that in public, you come right home.”

Abigail Fillmore and Eliza Johnson actually taught their husbands, Millard

Fillmore and Andrew Johnson, the thirteenth and seventeenth Presidents. A

schoolteacher, Abigail eventually married her pupil, Millard. When Eliza

Johnson married Andrew, he could not read or write, so she taught him herself.

It was First Lady Helen Taft's idea to plant the famous cherry trees in

Washington, D. C. Each spring these blossoming trees attract thousands of

visitors to the nation's capital. Mrs. Taft also influenced the male members of

her family and the White House staff in a strange way: she convinced them to

shave off their beards!

Shortly after President Wilson suffered a stroke, Edith Wilson unofficially took

over most of the duties of the Presidency until the end of her husband's term.

Earlier, during World War I, Mrs. Wilson had had sheep brought onto the White

House lawn to eat the grass. The sheep not only kept the lawn mowed but

provided wool for an auction sponsored by the First Lady. Almost $100,000

was raised for the Red Cross.

Dolly Madison saw to it that a magnificent painting of George Washington was

not destroyed during the War of 1812. As the British marched toward

Washington, D. C., she remained behind to rescue the painting, even after the

guards had left. The painting is the only object from the original White House

that was not burned. One of the most famous First Ladies was Eleanor

Roosevelt, the wife of President Franklin D. Roosevelt. She was active in

political and social causes throughout her husband's tenure in office. After his

death, she became famous for her humanitarian work in the United Nations.

She made life better for thousands of needy people around the world.


A. The Humanitarian work of the First Ladies is critical in American government.

B. Dolly Madison was the most influential president's wife.

C. Eleanor Roosevelt transformed the First Lady image.

D. The First Ladies are important in American culture.

E. The First Ladies are key supporters of the Presidents.

Correct answer: D

Of the many kinds of vegetables grown all over the world, which remains the

favorite of young and old alike? Why, the potato, of course.

Perhaps you know them as “taters,” “spuds,” or “Kennebees,” or as “chips,”

“Idahoes,” or even “shoestrings.” No matter, a potato by any other name is still

a potato- the world's most widely grown vegetable. As a matter of fact, if you

are an average potato eater, you will put away at least a hundred pounds of

them each year.

That's only a tiny portion of the amount grown every year, however. Worldwide,

the annual potato harvest is over six billion bags- each bag containing a

hundred pounds of spuds, some of them as large as four pounds each. Here in

the United States, farmers fill about four hundred million bags a year. That may

seem like a lot of “taters,” but it leaves us a distant third among world potato

growers. Polish farmers dig up just over 800 million bags a year, while the

Russians lead the world with nearly 1.5 billion bags.

The first potatoes were grown by the Incas of South America, more than four

hundred years ago. Their descendants in Ecuador and Chile continue to grow

the vegetable as high as fourteen thousand feet up in the Andes Mountains. (

That's higher than any other food will grow.) Early Spanish and English

explorers shipped potatoes to Europe, and they found their way to North

America in the early 1600s.

People eat potatoes in many ways-baked, mashed, and roasted, to name just

three. However, in the United States most potatoes are devoured in the form

of French fries. One fast-food chain alone sells more than $1 billion worth of

fries each year. No wonder, then, that the company pays particular attention to

the way its fries are prepared.

Before any fry makes it to the people who eat at these popular restaurants, it

must pass many separate tests. Fail any one and the spud is rejected. To start

with, only russet Burbank potatoes are used. These Idaho potatoes have less

water content than other kinds, which can have as much as eighty percent

water. Once cut into “shoestrings” shapes, the potatoes are partly fried in a

secret blend of oils, sprayed with liquid sugar to brown them, steam dried at

high heat, then flash frozen for shipment to individual restaurants.

Before shipping, though, every shoestring is measured. Forty percent of a

batch must be between two and three inches long. Another forty percent has

to be over three inches. What about the twenty percent that are left in the

batch? Well, a few short fries in a bag are okay, it seems.

So, now that you realize the enormous size and value of the potato crop, you

can understand why most people agree that this part of the food industry is no

“small potatoes.”


A. Potatoes from Ireland started the Potato Revolution.

B. The average American eats 50 lbs of potatoes a year.

C. French fries are made from potatoes.

D. Potatoes are a key vegetable in America.

E. The various terms for potatoes have a long history

Correct answer: D

What does the word patent mean to you? Does it strike you as being

something rather remote from your interests? If it does, stop and think a

moment about some of the commonplace things that you use every day,

objects that you take for granted as part of the world around you. The

telephone, radio, television, the automobile, and the thousand and one other

things (even the humble safety pin) that enrich our lives today once existed

only as ideas in the minds of men. If it had not been possible to patent their

ideas and thus protect them against copying by others, these inventions might

never have been fully developed to serve mankind.

If there were no patent protection there would be little incentive to invent and

innovate, for once the details of an invention became known, hordes of

imitators who did not share the inventor's risks and expenses might well flood

the market with their copies of his product and reap much of the benefit of his

efforts. The technological progress that has made America great would wither

rapidly under conditions such as these.

The fundamental principles in the U. S. patent structure came from England.

During the glorious reign of Queen Elizabeth I in England, the expanding

technology was furthered by the granting of exclusive manufacturing and

selling privileges to citizens who had invented new processes or tools- a step

that did much to encourage creativity. Later, when critics argued that giving

monopoly rights to one person infringed on the rights of others, an important

principle was added to the patent structure: The Lord Chief Justice of England

stated that society had everything to gain and nothing to lose by granting

exclusive privileges to an inventor, because a patent for an invention was

granted for something new that society never had before.

Another basic principle was brought into law because certain influential

people in England had managed to obtain monopoly control over such age-

old products as salt, and had begun charging as much as the traffic would

bear. The public outcry became so great that the government was forced to

decree that monopoly rights could be awarded only to those who created or

introduced something really unique. These principles are the mainstays of our

modern patent system in the United States.

In colonial times patent law was left up to the separate states. The

inconsistency, confusion, and unfairness that resulted clearly indicated the

need for a uniform patent law, and the men who drew up the Constitution

incorporated one. George Washington signed the first patent law on April

10,1790, and less than four months later the first patent was issued to a man

named Samuel Hopkins for a chemical process, an improved method of

making potash for use in soapmaking.

In 1936 the Patent Office was established as a separate bureau. From the staff

of eight that it maintained during its first year of operation it has grown into an

organization of over 2500 people handling more than 1600 patent

applications and granting over 1000 every week.

The Patent Office in Washington, D. C., is the world's largest library of scientific

and technical data, and this treasure trove of information is open for public

inspection. In addition to more than 3 million U. S. patents, it houses more than

7 million foreign patents and thousands of volumes of technical literature.

Abraham Lincoln patented a device to lift steam vessels over river shoals,

Mark Twain developed a self-pasting scrapbook, and millionaire Cornelius

Vanderbilt invented a shoe-shine kit.

A patent may be granted for any new and useful process, machine, article of

manufacture, or composition of matter ( a chemical compound or

combinations of chemical compounds), or any distinct and new variety; of

plant, including certain mutants and hybrids.

The patent system has also helped to boost the wages of the American worker

to an unprecedented level; he can produce more and earn more with the

computer, adding machines, drill press or lathe. Patented inventions also help

keep prices down by increasing manufacturing efficiency and by stimulating

the competition that is the foundation of our free enterprise system.

The decades of history have disclosed little need for modification of the

patent structure. Our patent laws, like the Constitution from which they grew,

have stood the test of time well. They encouraged the creative processes,

brought untold benefits to society as a whole, and enabled American

technology to outstrip that of the rest of the civilized world.


A. The patent system encourages free enterprise.

B. The Constitution protects the patent system.

C. The patent system in England has been influential in American patent

development.

D. Patents are important tools for inventors.

E. Patented inventions protect the inventor, free enterprise, and the creative

process.

Correct answer: E

Most people think it's fine to be “busy as a beaver.” Little do they know.

Beavers may work hard, but often they don't get much done.

Beavers are supposed to be great tree cutters. It is true that a beaver can

gnaw through a tree very quickly. (A six-inch birch takes about ten minutes.)

But then what? Often the beaver does not make use of the tree. One expert

says that beavers waste one out of every five trees they cut.

For one thing, they do not choose their trees wisely. One bunch of beavers cut

down a cottonwood tree more than one hundred feet tall. Then they found that

they could not move it.

In thick woods a tree sometimes won't fall down. It gets stuck in the other

trees. Of course, doesn't think to cut down the trees that are in the way. So a

good tree goes to waste.

Some people think that beavers can make a tree fall the way they want it to.

Not true. (In fact, a beaver sometimes gets pinned under a falling tree.) When

beavers cut a tree near a stream, it usually falls into the water. But they do not

plan it that way. The fact is that most trees lean toward the water to start with.

Now what about dam building? Most beaver dams are wonders of engineering.

The best ones are strongly built of trees, stones, and mud. They are wide at the

bottom and narrow at the top.

Beavers think nothing of building a dam more than two hundred feet long. One

dam, in Montana, was more than two thousand feet long. The largest one ever

seen was in New Hampshire. It stretched four thousand feet. It made a lake

large enough to hold forty beaver homes.

So beavers do build good dams. But they don't always build them in the right

places. They just don't plan. They will build a dam across the widest part of the

stream. They don't try to find a place where the stream is narrow. So a lot of

their hard work is wasted.

Beavers should learn that it's not enough to be busy. You have to know what

you're doing, too. For example, there was one Oregon beaver that really was a

worker. It decided to fix a leak in a man-made dam. After five days of work it

gave up. The leak it was trying to block was the lock that boats go through.


A. Beavers may be hard working animals, but they don't always choose the

most efficient mechanisms.

B. Beavers are excellent dam builders.

C. New Hampshire was the site of the largest beaver dam.

D. Beavers are well developed tree cutters.

E. Beavers are poor surveyors of aquatic environments in some cases.

Correct answer: A

The raisin business in America was born by accident. It happened in 1873 in

the San Joaquin Valley of California. Many farmers raised grapes in this valley.

That year, just before the grape harvest, there was a heat wave. It was one of

the worst heat waves ever known. It was so hot the grapes dried on the vines.

When they were picked, California had its first raisin crop.

People were surprised to find how good raisins were. Everybody wanted more.

So the San Joaquin farmers went into the raisin business. Today, of course,

they do not let the grapes dry on the vines. They treat them with much more

care.

In late August the grapes start to ripen. They are tested often for sweetness.

The growers wait until the sugar content is twenty-one percent. Then they

know the grapes are ripe enough to be picked. Skilled workers come to the

vineyards. They pick the bunches of grapes by hand. The workers fill their flat

pans with grapes. They gently empty the pans onto squares of paper. These

squares lie between the long rows of vines. They sit in the sun.

Here the grapes stay while the sun does its work. It may take two weeks or

longer. The grapes are first dried on one side. When they have reached the

right color, they are turned to dry on the other side. The grapes are dried until

only fifteen percent of the moisture is left. Then they have turned into raisins.

The raisins are rolled up in the paper on which they have dried. Trucks take

them from the fields. They are poured into big boxes called sweatboxes. Each

box holds one hundred and sixty pounds of raisins. Here, any raisins that are a

bit too dry take moisture from those that have a bit too much. After a while

they are all just moist enough.

The big boxes are trucked next to the packaging plant. They are emptied onto

a conveyor belt that shakes the raisins gently. This knocks them from their

stems. A blast of air whisks the stems away. The water bath is next. Then the

plump brown raisins have a last inspection. They are again checked for

moisture and sugar. Then they go on a belt to packing machines. Here they are

poured into packages, which are automatically weighed and sealed. The raisins

are now ready for market.


A. The creation of raisins in America was an accident.

B. The process of raisin development requires multiple steps.

C. Raisins on the grocery store shelf undergo a brief fermentation process.

D. Raisins are cleaned thoroughly at the packing plant.

E. California has been the leader in American raisin development

Correct answer: B

In 1892 the Sierra Club was formed. In 1908 an area of coastal redwood trees

north of San Francisco was established as Muir Woods National Monument. In

the Sierra Nevada mountains, a walking trail from Yosemite Valley to Mount

Whitney was dedicated in 1938. It is called John Muir Trail.

John Muir was born in 1838 in Scotland. His family name means “moor,” which

is a meadow full of flowers and animals. John loved nature from the time he

was small. He also liked to climb rocky cliffs and walls.

When John was eleven, his family moved to the United States and settled in

Wisconsin. John was good with tools and soon became an inventor. He first

invented a model of a sawmill. Later he invented an alarm clock that would

cause the sleeping person to be tipped out of bed when the timer sounded.

Muir left home at an early age. He took a thousand-mile walk south to the Gulf

of Mexico in 1867and 1868. Then he sailed for San Francisco. The city was too

noisy and crowded for Muir, so he headed inland for the Sierra Nevadas.

When Muir discovered the Yosemite Valley in the Sierra Nevadas, it was as if

he had come home. He loved the mountains, the wildlife, and the trees. He

climbed the mountains and even climbed trees during thunderstorms in order

to get closer to the wind. He put forth the theory in the late 1860's that the

Yosemite Valley had been formed through the action of glaciers. People

ridiculed him. Not until 1930 was Muir's theory proven correct.

Muir began to write articles about the Yosemite Valley to tell readers about its

beauty. His writing also warned people that Yosemite was in danger from

timber mining and sheep ranching interests. In 1901 Theodore Roosevelt

became president of the United States. He was interested in conservation.

Muir took the president through Yosemite, and Roosevelt helped get

legislation passed to create Yosemite National Park in 1906. Although Muir

won many conservation battles, he lost a major one. He fought to save the

Hetch Valley, which people wanted to dam in order to provide water for San

Francisco. In the late 1913 a bill was signed to dam the valley. Muir died in 1914.

Some people say losing the fight to protect the valley killed Muir.

11. What happened first?

A. The Muir family moved to the United States.

B. Muir Woods was created.

C. John Muir learned to climb rocky cliffs.

D. John Muir walked to the Gulf of Mexico

E. Muir visited along the east coast.

Correct answer: C

12. When did Muir invent a unique form of alarm clock?

A. while the family still lived in Scotland

B. after he sailed to San Francisco

C. after he traveled in Yosemite

D. while the Muir family lived in Wisconsin

E. after he took the long walk

Correct answer: D

13. What did John Muir do soon after he arrived in San Francisco?

A. He ran outside during an earthquake.

B. He put forth a theory about how Yosemite was formed.

C. He headed inland for the Sierra Nevadas.

D. He began to write articles about the Sierra Nevadas.

E. He wrote short stories for the local newspaper.

Correct answer: C

14. When did John Muir meet Theodore Roosevelt?

A. between 1901 and 1906

B. between 1838 and 1868

C. between 1906 and 1914

D. between 1868 and 1901

E. between 1906-1907

V A

15. What happened last?

A. John Muir died.

B. John Muir Trail was dedicated.

C. Muir's glacial theory was proven.

D. The Sierra Club was formed.

E. John's family visited him.

Correct answer: B

The village of Vestmannaeyjar, in the far northern country of Iceland, is as

bright and clean and up-to-date as any American or Canadian suburb. It is

located on the island of Heimaey, just off the mainland. One January night in

1973, however, householders were shocked from their sleep. In some

backyards red-hot liquid was spurting from the ground. Flaming “skyrockets”

shot up and over the houses. The island's volcano, Helgafell, silent for seven

thousand years, was violently erupting!

Luckily, the island's fishing fleet was in port, and within twenty-four hours

almost everyone was ferried to the mainland. But then the agony of the island

began in earnest. As in a nightmare, fountains of burning lava

spurted three hundred feet high. Black, baseball-size cinders rained down. An

evil-smelling, eye-burning, throat-searing cloud of smoke and gas erupted into

the air, and a river of lava flowed down the mountain. The constant shriek of

escaping steam was punctuated by ear-splitting explosions.

As time went on, the once pleasant village of Vestmannaeyjar took on a weird

aspect. Its street lamps still burning against the long Arctic night, the town lay

under a thick blanket of cinders. All that could be seen above the ten-foot

black drifts were the tips of street signs. Some houses had collapsed under

the weight of cinders; others had burst into flames as the heat ignited their oil

storage tanks. Lighting the whole lurid scene, fire continued to shoot from the

mouth of the looming volcano.

The eruption continued for six months. Scientists and reporters arrived from

around the world to observe the awesome natural event. But the town did not

die that easily. In July, when the eruption ceased, the people of Heimaey Island

returned to assess the chances of rebuilding their homes and lives. They

found tons of ash covering the ground. The Icelanders are a tough people,

however, accustomed to the strange and violent nature of their Arctic land.

They dug out their homes. They even used the cinders to build new roads and

airport runways. Now the new homes of Heimaey are warmed from water pipes

heated by molten lava.

16. The village is located on the island of-

A. Vestmannaeyjar

B. Hebrides

C. Heimaey

D. Helgafell

E. Heimma

Correct answer: C

17. The color of the hot liquid was-

A. orange

B. black

C. yellow

D. red

E. gray

Correct answer: D

18. This liquid was coming from the –

A. mountains

B. ground

C. sea

D. sky

E. ocean

Correct answer: B

19. The island's volcano had been inactive for-

A. seventy years

B. seven thousand years

C. seven thousand months

D. seven hundred years

E. seventy decades

Correct answer: B

20. Black cinders fell that were the size of__

A. baseballs

B. pebbles

C. golf balls

D. footballs

E. hail-stones

Correct answer: A

21. Despite the eruption-

A. buses kept running

B. the radio kept broadcasting

C. the police kept working

D. street lamps kept burning

E. the television kept broadcasting

Correct answer: D

22. This volcanic eruption lasted for six ___.

A. weeks

B. hours

C. months

D. days

E. years

Correct answer: C

23. If the books have been cataloged last week, why haven't they been placed

on the shelf?

A. have been cataloged

B. would have been cataloged

C. was cataloged

D. were cataloged

E. had been cataloged

Correct answer: D

24. Jessica Mitford wrote The American Way of Death, a best-selling book, that

led eventually to an official investigation of the funeral industry.

A. that led eventually

B. that had led eventually

C. that eventually led

D. which led eventually

E. who eventually led

Correct answer: D

25. Sabotage came from the French saboter, which means“to clatter with

wooden shoes (sabots).”

A. which means “to

B. which means, “ to

C. that means “to

D. that means- “to

E. that means, “to

Correct answer: A

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© 2019 MyJob Test Services. · 2020. 7. 9. · SHL / VODACOM Mock Verbal Tests Set 1 Set 2 Set 3 Set 4 Mock Test Answers SHL Full-length Test 1 Test 1: Numerical Reasoning - Test