SPECIAL CLASS25. In a simply supported beam of span, L subjected to uniformly distributed load (UDL) of intensity wkN/m over it [s entire length the maximum bending is given by expression:

Civil Engineering by Sandeep Jyani

SPECIAL CLASS

500 MCQs of Civil Engineering

10 AM

Que. 1 Every material obeys Hooke’s law within

a) Elastic Limit

b) Plastic limit

c) Limit of Proportionality

d) None of the above

Civil Engineering by Sandeep Jyani 2

Que. 1 Every material obeys Hooke’s law within

a) Elastic Limit

b) Plastic limit

c) Limit of Proportionality



Hooke’s Law• When a material is loaded within

elastic limit, the stress is proportional to the strain produced by the stress uptoProportional Limit.

Or

• Ratio of the Stress to the corresponding strain is constant upto Proportional Limit.

• E= Young’s Modulus of Elasticity or Modulus of Elasticity


𝜎 ∝ 𝜀𝜎 = 𝐸𝜀𝐸 =

𝜎

𝜖

𝝈Stress

Strain 𝜺

Proportional Limit.

Elastic Limit.

Que. 2 The ratio between stress and strain is called as

a) Modulus of elasticity

b) Modulus of rigidity

c) Bulk modulus



Que. 2 The ratio between stress and strain is called as

a) Modulus of elasticity

b) Modulus of rigidity

c) Bulk modulus



Que. 3 The % elongation of test piece under tension indicates its

a) Brittleness

b) Malleability

c) Stiffness

d) Ductility


Que. 3 The % elongation of test piece under tension indicates its

a) Brittleness

b) Malleability

c) Stiffness

d) Ductility


Ductility

Que. 4 If cross section area of a bar is doubled, then elongation due to self weight of the bar will be…

a) Doubled

b) Halved

c) Remains same

d) Four times


Que. 4 If cross section area of a bar is doubled, then elongation due to self weight of the bar will be…

a) Doubled

b) Halved

c) Remains same

d) Four times


Q5.Ductility of which of the following is the maximum?

a) Mild steel

b) Cast iron

c) Carbon Steel

d) Pig iron


Q5. Ductility of which of the following is the maximum?

a) Mild steel

b) Cast iron

c) Carbon Steel

d) Pig iron


𝑃𝑖𝑔 𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 (4−5%)> 𝐶𝑎𝑠𝑡 𝐼𝑟𝑜𝑛(2−4.5%)> 𝐶𝑎𝑠𝑡 𝑆𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑙 (>2%)> 𝐶𝑎𝑟𝑏𝑜𝑛 𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑙 (𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑛 2%)> 𝐻𝑖𝑔ℎ 𝑐𝑎𝑟𝑏𝑜𝑛 𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑙 (0.6−1.4%)>𝑀𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑚 𝑐𝑎𝑟𝑏𝑜𝑛(0.25−0.6%)>𝑙𝑜𝑤 𝑐𝑎𝑟𝑏𝑜𝑛 𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑙 (𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑛 0.25%)> 𝑊𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝐼𝑟𝑜𝑛 (𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑛 0.1%)>𝑃𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 (0%)

Carbon Content

Q6. Relation between Young’s modulus (E) and modulus of rigidity (G) is given as

a) E = 3G (1+𝝁)

b) E = 2G (1 – 𝝁)

c) E = 2G (1 + 𝝁)

d) E = 3G (1 – 𝟐𝝁)


Questions: Strength of Materials

Q6. Relation between Young’s modulus (E) and modulus of rigidity (G) is given as

a) E = 3G (1+𝝁)

b) E = 2G (1 – 𝝁)

c) E = 2G (1 + 𝝁)

d) E = 3G (1 – 𝟐𝝁)


E= 𝟐𝑮 𝟏 + 𝝁

E= 𝟑𝑲 𝟏 − 𝟐𝝁

𝑬 =𝟗𝑲𝑮

𝟑𝑲 + 𝑮


Q7. The ratio of normal stress to volumetric strain in defined as

a) Young’s modulus

b) Bulk Modulus

c) Rigidity Modulus

d) Tangent modulus


Q7. The ratio of normal stress to volumetric strain in defined as

a) Young’s modulus

b) Bulk Modulus

c) Rigidity Modulus

d) Tangent modulus


𝑲 =𝝈

∆𝑽𝑽

Q. 8

Poisson’s ratio is defined as

a) Longitudinal strain/lateral strain

b) Lateral strain/longitudinal strain

c) Lateral strain × longitudinal strain

d) ½ (lateral strain) × (Longitudinal strain)


Q. 8

Poisson’s ratio is defined as

a) Longitudinal strain/lateral strain

b) Lateral strain/longitudinal strain

c) Lateral strain × longitudinal strain

d) ½ (lateral strain) × (Longitudinal strain)


𝝁 =− 𝒍𝒂𝒕𝒆𝒓𝒂𝒍 𝒔𝒕𝒓𝒂𝒊𝒏

𝑳𝒐𝒏𝒈𝒊𝒕𝒖𝒅𝒊𝒏𝒂𝒍 𝑺𝒕𝒓𝒂𝒊𝒏

Q. 9 Modulus of rigidity is expressed as

a) Compressive stress/compressive strain

b) Tensile stress/tensile strain

c) Shear stress/shear strain

d) Stress/volumetric strain


Q. 9

Modulus of rigidity is expressed as

a) Compressive stress/compressive strain

b) Tensile stress/tensile strain

c) Shear stress/shear strain

d) Stress/volumetric strain


𝑴𝒐𝒅𝒖𝒍𝒖𝒔 𝒐𝒇 𝒓𝒊𝒈𝒊𝒅𝒊𝒕𝒚 𝒐𝒓 𝑺𝒉𝒆𝒂𝒓𝑴𝒐𝒅𝒖𝒍𝒖𝒔 =𝑺𝒉𝒆𝒂𝒓 𝑺𝒕𝒓𝒆𝒔𝒔

𝑺𝒉𝒆𝒂𝒓 𝑺𝒕𝒓𝒂𝒊𝒏

𝑮 =𝝉

𝒚


Q. 10

The ability of a material to absorb energy till the elastic limit is known as

a) Resilience

b) Ductility

c) Elasticity

d) Malleability


Q. 10

The ability of a material to absorb energy till the elastic limit is known as

a) Resilience

b) Ductility

c) Elasticity

d) Malleability


Q. 11 One cubic metre of mild steel weighs about

a) 1000 kg

b) 3625 kg

c) 7850 kg

d) 12560 kg



Q. 11. One cubic metre of mild steel weighs about

a) 1000 kg

b) 3625 kg

c) 7850 kg

d) 12560 kg


Q. 12

Match List – 1 with List 2

List – 1

1. Young Modulus

2. Poisson’s Ratio

3. Bulk Modulus

4. Rigidity Modulus

List – 2

a) Lateral Strain to linear strain within elastic unit

b) Direct stress to normal strain within elastic limit.

c) Shear stress to shear strain within elastic limit.

d) Direct stress to corresponding volumetric strain.



Q. 12

Match List – 1 with List 2

List – 1

1. Young Modulus

2. Poisson’s Ratio

3. Bulk Modulus

4. Rigidity Modulus

List – 2

a) Lateral Strain to linear strain within elastic unit

b) Direct stress to normal strain within elastic limit.

c) Shear stress to shear strain within elastic limit.

d) Direct stress to corresponding volumetric strain.



1B, 2A, 3D, 4C

Que 13. Strain energy stored in a solid is given as:

a) σ × ϵ × colume

b) σ × ϵ × area of cross section

c) 0.5 × σ × ϵ × 1

d) 0.5 × σ × ϵ × volume

Que 13. Strain energy stored in a solid is given as:

a) σ × ϵ × colume

b) σ × ϵ × area of cross section

c) 0.5 × σ × ϵ × 1

d) 0.5 × σ × ϵ × volume

14. A bar, L meter long and having its area of cross-section A, is subjected to gradually applied tensile load W. The strain energy stored in the bar is given by:

a) 𝐖²𝑳

𝐀𝐄

b) 𝐖²𝑳

𝟐𝐀𝐄

c) 𝐖𝐋

𝟐𝐀𝐄

d) 𝐖𝐋

𝐀𝐄

14. A bar, L meter long and having its area of cross-section A, is subjected to gradually applied tensile load W. The strain energy stored in the bar is given by:

a) W²L

AE

b) 𝐖²𝑳

𝟐𝑨𝑬

c) WL

2AE

d) WL

AE

15. The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into plates, is called:

a) Malleability

b) Ductility

c) Plasticity

d) Elasticity

15. The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into plates, is called:

a) Malleability

b) Ductility

c) Plasticity

d) Elasticity

Que 16. Strain energy due to sudden axial load is given by : (σ : Resultant stress, P : Axial load, Δ : Deformation, ∈∶Strain, E :Modulus of elasticity)

a) 𝟏

𝟐P Δ

b) σ .ϵ

c) P Δ

d) 𝛔²

𝟐𝑬

Que 16. Strain energy due to sudden axial load is given by : (σ : Resultant stress, P : Axial load, Δ : Deformation, ∈∶Strain, E :Modulus of elasticity)

a) 𝟏

𝟐P Δ

b) σ .ϵ

c) P Δ

d) 𝛔²

𝟐𝑬

17.

If a material has identical properties in all directions, It is said to be

a) Homogeneous

b) Elastic

c) Isotropic

d) None of these


17. If a material has identical properties in all directions, It is said to be

a) Homogeneous

b) Elastic

c) Isotropic

d) None of these


18. The bending moment (M) is constant over a length segment (l) of a beam. The shearing force will also be constant over this length and is given by

(a)𝑴

𝑰

(b)𝑴

𝟐𝑰

(c) 𝑴

𝟒𝑰

(d)None of the above


18. The bending moment (M) is constant over a length segment (L) of a beam. The shearing force will also be constant over this length and is given by

(a)𝑴

𝑳

(b)𝑴

𝟐𝑳

(c) 𝑴

𝟒𝑳

(d)None of the above


BM= constantRate of change of BM is shear force, hence slope of constant is 0

SFD

BMD M (N-m)

SF = 0

19. In a cantilever beam with u.d.l. the shear force varies following

(a) linear law

(b) parabolic law

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) None of the above


w N/mx

xL

19. In a cantilever beam with u.d.l. the shear force varies following

(a) linear law

(b) parabolic law

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) None of the above


w N/mx

x xL

20. The bending equation is written as

(a)𝑴/𝑰 = σ𝒃/y = E/R

(b)𝑰

𝑴= σ𝒃/y = E/R

(c)𝑴/𝑰 = σ𝒃/y = R/E

(d)𝑴/𝑰 = 𝒚/σ𝒃 = E/R


20. The bending equation is written as

(a)𝑴/𝑰 = σ𝒃/y = E/R

(b)𝑰

𝑴= σ𝒃/y = E/R

(c)𝑴/𝑰 = σ𝒃/y = R/E

(d)𝑴/𝑰 = 𝒚/σ𝒃 = E/R


21. For a beam, the term M/EI is:

(a) stress

(b) rigidity

(c) curvature

(d) shear force


21. For a beam, the term M/EI is:

(a) stress

(b) rigidity

(c) curvature

(d) shear force


Objective Questions

𝑴/𝑰 = σ𝒃/y = E/R

𝑴/𝑬𝑰 = 1/R

22. The point of contraflexure is a point where

(a) Shear force is maximum

(b) Bending moment is maximum

(c) Shear force changes sign

(d) Bending moment changes sign


Objective Questions

22. The point of contraflexure is a point where

(a) Shear force is maximum

(b) Bending moment is maximum

(c) Shear force changes sign

(d) Bending moment changes sign


Objective Questions

23. The maximum shear force in a simply supported beam of span L, subjected to a central point load, W is given by the following expression:

(a)𝑾

𝟐

(b)𝑾𝑳

(c)𝑾𝑳𝟐

𝟐

(d)𝑾𝑳𝟐

𝟒


23. The maximum shear force in a simply supported beam of span L, subjected to a central point load, W is given by the following expression:

(a)𝑾

𝟐

(b)𝑾𝑳

(c)𝑾𝑳𝟐

𝟐

(d)𝑾𝑳𝟐

𝟒


Objective Questions

L

W

L/2 L/2A B

24. Moment of inertia of rectangular section as shown in figure about its horizontal Centroidal axis is

(a)𝒅𝒃𝟑

𝟏𝟐

(b)𝒅𝒃𝟑

𝟑

(c) 𝒃𝒅𝟑

𝟏𝟐

(d) 𝒃𝒅𝟑

𝟑


b

d

24. Moment of inertia of rectangular section as shown in figure about its horizontal Centroidal axis is

(a)𝒅𝒃𝟑

𝟏𝟐

(b)𝒅𝒃𝟑

𝟑

(c) 𝒃𝒅𝟑

𝟏𝟐

(d) 𝒃𝒅𝟑

𝟑


b

d

25. In a simply supported beam of span, L subjected to uniformly distributed load (UDL) of intensity wkN/m over it’s entire length the maximum bending is given by expression:

(a)𝑾𝑳𝟐

𝟖

(b)𝑾𝑳

𝟐

(c) 𝑾𝑳𝟐

𝟐

(d) 𝒘𝑳


Objective Questions

25. In a simply supported beam of span, L subjected to uniformly distributed load (UDL) of intensity wkN/m over it’s entire length the maximum bending is given by expression:

(a)𝑾𝑳𝟐

𝟖

(b)𝑾𝑳

𝟐

(c) 𝑾𝑳𝟐

𝟐

(d) 𝒘𝑳


L

x

x

SFD

BMD

W N/m

A B

Ra Rb

- wL/2

-

wL/2

+ C

+Mmax = wL2

𝟖

26. The slope of curve of S.F.D (Shear Force Diagram) at any section will be equal to

(a) The slope of loading at the section

(b) The ordinate of loading diagram at the section

(c) The area of loading diagram from the end to that section

(d) None of these


26. The slope of curve of S.F.D (Shear Force Diagram) at any section will be equal to

(a) The slope of loading at the section

(b) The ordinate of loading diagram at the section

(c) The area of loading diagram from the end to that section

(d) None of these


Relationship between Bending Moment, Shear Force and Loading Intensity

1. The slope of the BMD curve at a given section gives the value of Shear Force at that section


10Nm

50Nm

2m 4m𝒅𝑴

𝒅𝒙= slope of BMD = F

⇒ 𝒅𝑴 = F 𝒅𝒙

⇒ 𝑨𝑩𝒅𝑴 = 𝑨

𝑩𝑭𝒅𝒙

⇒ MB – MA = Area of SFD between A and B

𝜽40Nm

AB

Relationship between Bending Moment, Shear Force and Loading Intensity

2. The slope of the SFD curve gives the value of Downward loading intensity on the member


𝒅𝑭

𝒅𝒙= slope of SFD = - w (negative represents downward direction)

⇒ 𝒅𝑭 = -w 𝒅𝒙

⇒ 𝑨𝑩𝒅𝑭 = 𝑨

𝑩−𝒘𝒅𝒙

⇒ FB – FA = Area of Loading diagram between A and B

27. The ratio of moment of inertia about the neutral axis to the distance of the most distant point of the section from the neutral axis is called

(a) Polar module

(b) Section modulus

(c) Modulus of rupture

(d) Flexural rigidity


Objective Questions

27. The ratio of moment of inertia about the neutral axis to the distance of the most distant point of the section from the neutral axis is called

(a) Polar module

(b) Section modulus

(c) Modulus of rupture

(d) Flexural rigidity


28. The maximum bending stress in an I-beam occurs at the ______.

(a) Neutral axis

(b) Outermost fiber

(c) Joint of wedge and flange

(d) Section where shear stress is maximum


Objective Questions

28. The maximum bending stress in an I-beam occurs at the ______.

(a) Neutral axis

(b) Outermost fiber

(c) Joint of wedge and flange

(d) Section where shear stress is maximum


Objective Questions


Objective Questions29. The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress of a circular beam is

(a)𝟐

𝟑

(b)𝟑

𝟐

(c)𝟑

𝟒

(d)𝟒

𝟑


Objective Questions29. The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress of a circular beam is

(a)𝟐

𝟑

(b)𝟑

𝟐

(c)𝟑

𝟒

(d)𝟒

𝟑

30. By applying the static equations i.e. 𝚺𝐇 = 𝟎, 𝚺𝐕 = 𝟎 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝚺𝐌 = 𝟎, to a determinate structure, we may determine

(a) Supporting reactions only

(b) Shear forces only

(c) Bending moments only

(d) All option are correct


30. By applying the static equations i.e. 𝚺𝐇 = 𝟎, 𝚺𝐕 = 𝟎 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝚺𝐌 = 𝟎, to a determinate structure, we may determine

(a) Supporting reactions only

(b) Shear forces only

(c) Bending moments only

(d) All option are correct


Que 31. Gauge pressure at a point is equal to

a) absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure

b) absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure

c) vacuum pressure plus absolute pressure

d) one of the above


Que 31. Gauge pressure at a point is equal to

a) absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure

b) absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure

c) vacuum pressure plus absolute pressure

d) one of the above


Que 32. A U-tube manometer measures

a) Local atmosphere pressure

b) Difference in pressure between two points

c) Difference in total energy between two points

d) Absolute pressure at a point


Que 32. A U-tube manometer measures

a) Local atmosphere pressure

b) Difference in pressure between two points

c) Difference in total energy between two points

d) Absolute pressure at a point


Que 33. Metacentric height is given as the distance

between______.

a) The centre of gravity of the body and the metacentre

b) The centre of gravity of the body and the centre of

buoyancy

c) The centre of gravity of the body and the centre of

pressure

d) Centre of buoyancy and metacentre


METACENTRE• It is the point of intersection of normal axis with

the new line of action of force of buoyancy, when a small displacement is given.

• It is a point about which a body starts to oscillate when it is tilted by small angle.

𝑮.𝑴.= 𝑩.𝑴 − 𝑩.𝑮

𝑮𝑴 =𝑰

𝑽− 𝑩𝑮

• Where 𝑰𝒙𝒙 =𝒃𝒅𝟑

𝟏𝟐; 𝑰𝒚𝒚 =

𝒅𝒃𝟑

𝟏𝟐; 𝑰𝒎𝒊𝒏

𝑽= metacentric radius

• For stability G.M. should be positive, i.e., B.M>B.G


Que 33. Metacentric height is given as the distance

between______.

a) The centre of gravity of the body and the

metacentre

b) The centre of gravity of the body and the centre of

buoyancy

c) The centre of gravity of the body and the centre of

pressure

d) Centre of buoyancy and metacentre


Que 34. When the cohesion between molecules of a

fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid and the

glass, then the free level of fluid in glass tube

dipped in the glass vessel will be_________.

a) Same as the surface of the fluid

b) Lower than the surface of the fluid

c) Higher than the surface of the fluid

d) Dependent on atmospheric pressure


Que 34. When the cohesion between molecules of a

fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid and the

glass, then the free level of fluid in glass tube

dipped in the glass vessel will be_________.

a) Same as the surface of the fluid

b) Lower than the surface of the fluid

c) Higher than the surface of the fluid

d) Dependent on atmospheric pressure


Que 35. A body floats in stable equilibrium_____.

a) When its metacentric height is zero

b) When metacentre is above centre of gravity

c) When its center of gravity is below the center of

buoyancy.

d) None of these


Que 35. A body floats in stable equilibrium_____.

a) When its metacentric height is zero

b) When metacentre is above centre of gravity

c) When its center of gravity is below the center of

buoyancy.

d) None of these


• STABILITY CONDITION FOR FULLY SUBMERGED BODY:

• A completely submerged body will be in Stable Equilibrium when centre of buoyancy is above centre of gravity.

• If centre of buoyancy is below centre of gravity, then completely submerged body will be in Unstable Equilibrium.

• If centre of buoyancy and centre of gravity coincides, then fully submerged body will be in Neutral Equilibrium.

Stable Equilibrium

Unstable Equilibrium

𝑩 𝑮

Neutral EquilibriumCivil Engineering by Sandeep Jyani 76

• STABILITY CONDITION FOR PARTIALLY SUBMERGED BODY:• A partially submerged body will be in

Stable Equilibrium when metacentre is above centre of gravity.

• If metacentre is below centre of gravity, then partially submerged body will be in Unstable Equilibrium.

• If metacentre and centre of gravity coincides, then partially submerged body will be in neutral equilibrium.

• The distance between C.G. and metacenter is called metacentric height.

M

G

B

M

G

B

Neutralequilibrium

G,B

Unstableequilibrium

Stableequilibrium

Stable Equilibrium

Unstable Equilibrium.


Que 36. Center of pressure on an inclined plane

is_______.

a) At the centroid

b) Above the centroid

c) Below the centroid

d) At metacentre


Que 36. Center of pressure on an inclined plane

is_______.

a) At the centroid

b) Above the centroid

c) Below the centroid

d) At metacentre


Que 37. The resultant upward thrust of the fluid on an

immersed body is called

a) Upthrust

b) Buoyancy

c) Centre of pressure

d) All options are correct


Que 37. The resultant upward thrust of the fluid on an

immersed body is called

a) Upthrust

b) Buoyancy

c) Centre of pressure

d) All options are correct


Que 38. The point in the immersed body through which the

resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to act is

known as

a) Metacentre

b) Centre of pressure

c) Centre of buoyancy

d) Centre of gravity


Que 38. The point in the immersed body through which

the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to act

is known as

a) Metacentre

b) Centre of pressure

c) Centre of buoyancy

d) Centre of gravity


39. Pressure in terms of metres of oil (specific gravity = 0.9)

equivalent to 4.5 m of water is

a) 4.05

b) 5.0

c) 3.6

d) 0.298


39. Pressure in terms of metres of oil (specific gravity =

0.9) equivalent to 4.5 m of water is

a) 4.05

b) 5.0

c) 3.6

d) 0.298


40. Capillarity rise is due to

I. Surface tension

II. Cohesion

III. Viscosity

IV. Weight density of liquid

a) II, III

b) IIIc) Id) II, III, V


40. Capillarity rise is due to

I. Surface tension

II. Cohesion

III. Viscosity

IV. Weight density of liquid

a) II, III

b) III

c) I

d) II, III, V


41. Manometer is a device used for measuring

a) Velocity

b) Pressure

c) Density

d) Discharge


41. Manometer is a device used for measuring

a) Velocity

b) Pressure

c) Density

d) Discharge


42. The buoyancy depends upon the

a) Pressure with which the liquid is displaced

b) Weight of the liquid displaced

c) Viscosity of the liquid

d) Compressibility of the liquid


42. The buoyancy depends upon the

a) Pressure with which the liquid is displaced

b) Weight of the liquid displaced

c) Viscosity of the liquid

d) Compressibility of the liquid


44. The ratio of specific weight of a liquid to the specific

weight of pure water at a standard temperature is called

a) Compressibility of liquid

b) Surface tension of liquid

c) Density of liquid

d) Specific gravity of liquid


44. The ratio of specific weight of a liquid to the specific

weight of pure water at a standard temperature is called

a) Compressibility of liquid

b) Surface tension of liquid

c) Density of liquid

d) Specific gravity of liquid


Que 45. Flow of fluid takes place due to its:

a) Viscosity

b) Compressibility

c) Surface tension

d) Deformation under shear force


Que 45. Flow of fluid takes place due to its:

a) Viscosity

b) Compressibility

c) Surface tension

d) Deformation under shear force


Que 46. The magnitude of the buoyant force can be

determined by :

a) Newton’s law of viscosity

b) Archimedes principle.

c) Principles of moments



Que 46. The magnitude of the buoyant force can be

determined by :

a) Newton’s law of viscosity

b) Archimedes principle.

c) Principles of moments



Que 47. Pascal’s law states that pressure at any

point in a fluid at rest has

a) Different magnitude in all directions

b) Same magnitude, in all directions

c) Zero magnitude in all directions



Que 47. Pascal’s law states that pressure at any

point in a fluid at rest has

a) Different magnitude in all directions

b) Same magnitude, in all directions

c) Zero magnitude in all directions



48. The commonly used method for quick determination of water content at field embankments is :

(A) Oven drying method

(B) Sand bath method

(C) Alcohol method

(D) Calcium carbide method

48. The commonly used method for quick determination of water content at field embankments is :

(A) Oven drying method

(B) Sand bath method

(C) Alcohol method

(D) Calcium carbide method

49. Pycnometer I used to determine :

(A) Water content and void ratio

(B) Specific gravity and dry density

(C) Water content and specific gravity

(D) None of the above

49. Pycnometer I used to determine :

(A) Water content and void ratio

(B) Specific gravity and dry density

(C) Water content and specific gravity


50. The moisture content of a soil below which the soil volume becomes constant, is called the :

(A) Liquid limit

(B) Plastic limit

(C) Shrinkage limit


50. The moisture content of a soil below which the soil volume becomes constant, is called the :

(A) Liquid limit

(B) Plastic limit

(C) Shrinkage limit


51. Valid range for S, the degree of saturation of soil, in percentage is :

(A) S > 0

(B) S ≤ 0

(C) 0 < S < 100

(D) 0 ≤ S ≤ 100

51. Valid range for S, the degree of saturation of soil, in percentage is :

(A) S > 0

(B) S ≤ 0

(C) 0 < S < 100

(D) 0 ≤ S ≤ 100

52. Toughness index is defined as the ratio of:

(A) Plasticity index to consistency index.

(B) Plasticity index to flow index.

(C) Liquidity index to flow index.

(D) Consistency index to liquidity index.

52. Toughness index is defined as the ratio of:

(A) Plasticity index to consistency index.

(B) Plasticity index to flow index.

(C) Liquidity index to flow index.

(D) Consistency index to liquidity index.

53. The relationship between void ratio ‘e’ and porosity ‘n’ is :

(A) n=(1+e)/(1−e)

(B) 𝒆=𝒏(𝟏+𝒆)

(C) n=e/(1−e)

(D) e=(1+n)/(1−e)

53. The relationship between void ratio ‘e’ and porosity ‘n’ is :

(A) n=(1+e)/(1−e)

(B) 𝒆=𝒏(𝟏+𝒆)

(C) n=e/(1−e)

(D) e=(1+n)/(1−e)

54. The volume of voids to the total volume of soil is known as :

(A) Porosity

(B) Void ratio

(C) Air ratio

(D) Air content

54. The volume of voids to the total volume of soil is known as :

(A) Porosity

(B) Void ratio

(C) Air ratio

(D) Air content

55. A fundamental equation of void ratio (e), specific gravity (G), water content (w) and the degree of saturation (S_p) is :

(A) e=wG/s

(B) w=eG/S

(C) G=eW/S

(D) S=eW/G

55. A fundamental equation of void ratio (e), specific gravity (G), water content (w) and the degree of saturation (S_p) is :

(A) e=wG/s

(B) w=eG/S

(C) G=eW/S

(D) S=eW/G

56. The void ratio for saturated soil is equal to ______ of water content and specific gravity of solids.

(A) Sum

(B) product

(C) Difference

(D) Ratio

56. The void ratio for saturated soil is equal to ______ of water content and specific gravity of solids.

(A) Sum

(B) product

(C) Difference

(D) Ratio

57. Density index for a natural soil is used to express

(A) Percentage voids

(B) Relative compactness

(C) Shar strength of clays

(D) Specific gravity

57. Density index for a natural soil is used to express

(A) Percentage voids

(B) Relative compactness

(C) Shar strength of clays

(D) Specific gravity

58. If the pores of a soil are completely full of air only, the soil is said to be______.

(A) Wet soil

(B) Fully saturated soil

(C) Dry soil

(D) Partly saturated oil

58. If the pores of a soil are completely full of air only, the soil is said to be______.

(A) Wet soil

(B) Fully saturated soil

(C) Dry soil

(D) Partly saturated oil

59. Geologic cycle for the formation of soil, is _____.

(A) Upheaval – transportation – deposition – weathering

(B) weathering – Upheaval – transportation – deposition

(C) transportation – Upheaval – weathering –– deposition

(D) weathering – transportation – deposition Upheaval

59. Geologic cycle for the formation of soil, is _____.

(A) Upheaval – transportation – deposition – weathering

(B) weathering – Upheaval – transportation – deposition

(C) transportation – Upheaval – weathering –– deposition

(D) weathering – transportation – deposition Upheaval

60. Among the clay minerals, the one having maximum swell tendency, is

a) Kaolinite

b) Illite

c) Montmorillonite

d) None of these

60. Among the clay minerals, the one having maximum swell tendency, is

a) Kaolinite

b) Illite

c) Montmorillonite

d) None of these

Que 61. Dry density of soil is equal to

a) Mass of solids to volume of solids

b) Mass of solids to total volume of soil

c) Density of soil in dried condition

d) None of these

Que 61. Dry density of soil is equal to

a) Mass of solids to volume of solids

b) Mass of solids to total volume of soil

c) Density of soil in dried condition

d) None of these

Que 62. The value of void ratio of a soil mass can

a) Take value between 0 to 1

b) Take any value greater than 0

c) Be 0

d) Never greater than unity

Que 62. The value of void ratio of a soil mass can

a) Take value between 0 to 1

b) Take any value greater than 0

c) Be 0

d) Never greater than unity

Que 63. The degree of saturation in soils can be taken as

a) Ratio of volume of water to that of voids

b) Ratio of water by weight to the dry soil weight

c) Ratio of volume of water to the gross volume of soil

d) Ratio of weight of water to that of soil

Que 63. The degree of saturation in soils can be taken as

a) Ratio of volume of water to that of voids

b) Ratio of water by weight to the dry soil weight

c) Ratio of volume of water to the gross volume of soil

d) Ratio of weight of water to that of soil

Que 64. Optimum moisture content is obtained from

a) Triaxial test

b) Standard Proctor test

c) Consolidation test

d) Hydrometer test

Que 64. Optimum moisture content is obtained from

a) Triaxial test

b) Standard Proctor test

c) Consolidation test

d) Hydrometer test

Que 65. Quick sand is a

a) Type of sand

b) Flow condition occurring in cohesive soil

c) Flow condition occurring in cohesionless soil

d) All of the above

Que 65. Quick sand is a

a) Type of sand

b) Flow condition occurring in cohesive soil

c) Flow condition occurring in cohesionless soil

d) All of the above

Que 66. In sedimentation analysis, the soil fraction should be of what micron size, so as to be kept in a liquid medium (water).a) 75b) 83c) 57d) 70

Que 66. In sedimentation analysis, the soil fraction should be of what micron size, so as to be kept in a liquid medium (water).a) 75b) 83c) 57d) 70

Que 67. The sedimentation analysis is based on _________ law.a) Stokeb) Cullman’sc) Rankine’sd) None of the mentioned

Que 67. The sedimentation analysis is based on _________ law.a) Stokeb) Cullman’sc) Rankine’sd) None of the mentioned

68. What are the features required, for classifying a soil component as boulder?a) Bulky hardb) Diameter more than 30cmc) Round to angular shaped) All of the mentioned

68. What are the features required, for classifying a soil component as boulder?a) Bulky hardb) Diameter more than 30cmc) Round to angular shaped) All of the mentioned

69. Irrigation canals are generally aligned along

a) Ridge line

b) Contour line

c) Valley line

d) Straight line

69. Irrigation canals are generally aligned along

a) Ridge line

b) Contour line

c) Valley line

d) Straight line

70. When a canal and a drainage approach each other at the same level, the structure so provided is

a) An aqueduct

b) A syphon

c) A level crossing

d) Inlet and outlet

70. When a canal and a drainage approach each other at the same level, the structure so provided is

a) An aqueduct

b) A syphon

c) A level crossing

d) Inlet and outlet

71. When a canal is carried over a natural drainage, the structure provided, is known as

a) Syphon

b) Aqueduct

c) Super passage

d) Syphon aqueduct

71. When a canal is carried over a natural drainage, the structure provided, is known as

a) Syphon

b) Aqueduct

c) Super passage

d) Syphon aqueduct

72. When a canal flowing under pressure is carried below a natural drainage such that its F.S.L. does not touch the underside of the supporting structure, the structure so provided, is called

a) Syphon

b) Aqueduct

c) Super passage

d) Syphon aqueduct

72. When a canal flowing under pressure is carried below a natural drainage such that its F.S.L. does not touch the underside of the supporting structure, the structure so provided, is called

a) Syphon

b) Aqueduct

c) Super passage

d) Syphon aqueduct

Que.73 The irrigation water is said to be unsatisfactory, if it contains

a) Chemicals toxic to plants/persons using the plants as food

b) Chemicals which react with the soil to produce unsatisfactory moisture characteristics

c) Bacteria injurious to persons or animals eating plants irrigated with water

d) All of the above





d) All of the above

Que.74 Sandy soils with good drainage become impermeable after prolonged use, if it is irrigated with a water containing _____ sodium

a) 25%

b) 50%

c) 75%

d) 85%

Que.74 Sandy soils with good drainage become impermeable after prolonged use, if it is irrigated with a water containing _____ sodium

a) 25%

b) 50%

c) 75%

d) 85%

Que 75. In India, rain fall is generally recorded at

a)8 AM

b)12 Noon

c)4 PM

d)8 PM

154

Que 75. In India, rain fall is generally recorded at

a)8 AM

b)12 Noon

c)4 PM

d)8 PM

155

Que 76. A recording type rain gauge

a)produces a mass curve of rain fall

b)records the cumulative rain

c)is sometimes called integrating rain gauge or continuous rain gauge

d)all the above.

156

Que 76. A recording type rain gauge

a)produces a mass curve of rain fall

b)records the cumulative rain

c)is sometimes called integrating rain gauge or continuous rain gauge

d)all the above.

157

Que 77. In India the recording type rain gauge generally used, is

a)weighing type

b)tipping type

c)float recording type

d)NOTA

158

Que 77. In India the recording type rain gauge generally used, is

a)weighing type

b)tipping type

c)float recording type

d)NOTA

159

Que 78. For determination of average annual precipitation in a catchment basin, the best method is

a)Arithmetical method

b)Thiessen's mean method

c)Isohyetal method

d)None of these

160

Que 78. For determination of average annual precipitation in a catchment basin, the best method is



c)Isohyetal method

d)None of these

161

Que 79. While calculating the average depth of annual precipitation in a catchment basin, importance to individual raingauge station is given in



c)Isohyetal method

d)both (b) and (c).

162

Que 79. While calculating the average depth of annual precipitation in a catchment basin, importance to individual raingauge station is given in



c)Isohyetal method

d)both (b) and (c).

163

Que 80. The quantity of water retained by the sub-soil against gravity, is known

a)Yield

b)Porosity

c)specific yield

d)Specific retention

164

Que 80. The quantity of water retained by the sub-soil against gravity, is known

a)Yield

b)Porosity

c)specific yield

d)Specific retention

165

Que. 81 Minimum depth of ballast cushion for a Broad Gauge wooden sleeper of size 275x25x13 cm with 75cm sleeper spacing isa) 15 cmb) 20 cmc) 25 cmd) 30cm


Que. 81 Minimum depth of ballast cushion for a Broad Gauge wooden sleeper of size 275x25x13 cm with 75cm sleeper spacing isa) 15 cmb) 20 cmc) 25 cmd) 30cm


Que. 82 Sleeper density in India is normally kept asa) M + 2 to M + 7b) M to M+2c) M + 5 to M+10d) M


Que. 82 Sleeper density in India is normally kept asa) M + 2 to M + 7b) M to M+2c) M + 5 to M+10d) M


Que. 83 Composite sleeper index is the index ofa) hardness and strengthb) strength and toughnessc) toughness and wear resistanced) wear resistance and hardness


Que. 83 Composite sleeper index is the index ofa) hardness and strengthb) strength and toughnessc) toughness and wear resistanced) wear resistance and hardness


Que. 84. The sleepers which satisfy the requirements of an ideal sleeper, are

a) cast iron sleepers

b) R.C.C. sleepers

c) steel sleepers

d) wooden sleepers


Que 84. The sleepers which satisfy the requirements of an ideal sleeper, are

a) cast iron sleepers

b) R.C.C. sleepers

c) steel sleepers

d) wooden sleepers


Que.85 The broad gauge is ………… wide.

a) 0.6096 m

b) 0.762 m

c) 1.00 m

d) 1.676 m


Que.85 The broad gauge is ………… wide.

a) 0.6096 m

b) 0.762 m

c) 1.00 m

d) 1.676 m


Que.86 For main cities and routes of maximum intensities,

the type of gauge adopted is

a) broad gauge

b) metre gauge

c) narrow gauge

d) all of these


Que.86 For main cities and routes of maximum intensities,

the type of gauge adopted is

a) broad gauge

b) metre gauge

c) narrow gauge

d) all of these


Que.87 For undeveloped areas, the type of gauge adopted is

a) broad gauge

b) metre gauge

c) narrow gauge

d) all of these


Que.87 For undeveloped areas, the type of gauge adopted is

a) broad gauge

b) metre gauge

c) narrow gauge

d) all of these


Que.88 the gauge representing the maximum width and height

up to which a railway vehicle may be built, is known as

a) broad gauge

b) narrow gauge

c) loading gauge

d) all of these


Que.88 the gauge representing the maximum width and height

up to which a railway vehicle may be built, is known as

a) broad gauge

b) narrow gauge

c) loading gauge

d) all of these


Que.89 In India, for metre gauge track, the maximum height

of a loaded goods wagon is fixed as

a) 3.43 m

b) 4.72 m

c) 5.32 m

d) 5.87 m


Que.89 In India, for metre gauge track, the maximum height of

a loaded goods wagon is fixed as

a) 3.43 m

b) 4.72 m

c) 5.32 m

d) 5.87 m


Que.90 The coning of wheels is made to prevent the

a) lateral movement of the axle

b) lateral movement of the wheels

c) damage of the inside edges of rails

d) all of these


Que.90 The coning of wheels is made to prevent the

a) lateral movement of the axle

b) lateral movement of the wheels

c) damage of the inside edges of rails

d) all of these


Que. 91 Creep is the ………… movement of rail.

a) longitudinal

b) lateral

c) vertical


Que. 91 Creep is the ………… movement of rail.

a) longitudinal

b) lateral

c) vertical


Que. 92 Creep is greater

a) on curves

b) in new rails than in old rails

c) both (a) and (b)

d) none of these


Que. 92 Creep is greater

a) on curves

b) in new rails than in old rails

c) both (a) and (b)

d) none of these


Que.93 The irrigation engineering may be defined as

a) The process of artificially supplying water to soil for raising crops

b) A science of planning and designing an efficient and economic irrigation system

c) The engineering of controlling and harnessing the various natural sources of water by construction of dams, canals and finally distributing the water to the agricultural fields.

d) All of the above

Que.93 The irrigation engineering may be defined as

a) The process of artificially supplying water to soil for raising crops

b) A science of planning and designing an efficient and economic irrigation system

c) The engineering of controlling and harnessing the various natural sources of water by construction of dams, canals and finally distributing the water to the agricultural fields.

d) All of the above

Que.94 The irrigation is necessary in an area

a) Where there is scanty rainfall

b) Where the rainfall is non uniform

c) where commercial crops require more water

d) All of the above

Que.94 The irrigation is necessary in an area

a) Where there is scanty rainfall

b) Where the rainfall is non uniform

c) where commercial crops require more water

d) All of the above





d) All of the above





d) All of the above

Que.96 For irrigation purposes, pH value of water should be

a) Between 3-6

b) Between 6-8.5

c) Between 8.5-11

d) More than 11

Que.96 For irrigation purposes, pH value of water should be

a) Between 3-6

b) Between 6-8.5

c) Between 8.5-11

d) More than 11

Que.97 Irrigation _______ the chances of water logging.

a) Increases

b) Decreases

Que.97 Irrigation _______ the chances of water logging.

a) Increases

b) Decreases

Que.98 The ratio between area of crop irrigated and the quantity of water required during its entire period of growth, is known as

a) Delta

b) Duty

c) Base period

d) Crop period

Que.98 The ratio between area of crop irrigated and the quantity of water required during its entire period of growth, is known as

a) Delta

b) Duty

c) Base period

d) Crop period

Que.99 The total depth of water required by a crop during the entire period of the crop in the field , is known as

a) Delta

b) Duty

c) Base period

d) Crop period

Que.99 The total depth of water required by a crop during the entire period of the crop in the field , is known as

a) Delta

b) Duty

c) Base period

d) Crop period

Que.100 The relation between duty(D) in hectares/cumec, delta(∆) in metres and base period(B) in days is

a) ∆=8.64𝐵

𝐷

b) ∆=86.4𝐵

𝐷

c) ∆=864𝐵

𝐷

d) ∆=8640𝐵

𝐷

Que.100 The relation between duty(D) in hectares/cumec, delta(∆) in metres and base period(B) in days is

a) ∆=𝟖.𝟔𝟒𝑩

𝑫

b) ∆=86.4𝐵

𝐷

c) ∆=864𝐵

𝐷

d) ∆=8640𝐵

𝐷

Que.101 The type of surveying in which the curvature of the earth is taken into account is called...................

(a) Geodetic surveying

(b) Plane surveying

(c) Preliminary surveying

(d) Topographical surveying

Que.101 The type of surveying in which the curvature of the earth is taken into account is called...................

(a) Geodetic surveying

(b) Plane surveying

(c) Preliminary surveying


Que.102 The surveying used to determine additional details such as boundaries of fields, is called

(a) City surveying

(b) Location surveying

(c) Cadastral surveying


Que.102 The surveying used to determine additional details such as boundaries of fields, is called

(a) City surveying

(b) Location surveying

(c) Cadastral surveying


Que.103 Permissible limits of error in chaining for measurement on rough or hilly ground is...............

(a) 1: 2000 .

(b) 1 : 1000

(c) 1 : 500

(d) 1: 250

Que.103 Permissible limits of error in chaining for measurement on rough or hilly ground is...............

(a) 1: 2000 .

(b) 1 : 1000

(c) 1 : 500

(d) 1: 250

Que.104 In a diagonal scale only

(a) Units can be shown

(b) Units, tenths can be shown

(c) Units, tenths and hundredths can be shown

(d) Units, tenths, hundredths and thousandths can bc shown

Que.104 In a diagonal scale only

(a) Units can be shown

(b) Units, tenths can be shown

(c) Units, tenths and hundredths can be shown

(d) Units, tenths, hundredths and thousandths can be shown

Que.105 In an engineering drawing it is written scale 1 cm= 100 m. Which ratio dose it correspond to?

(a) 1 : 100

(b) 1 : 1000

(c) 1 : 10,000

(d) 1 : 1,00,000

Que.105 In an engineering drawing it is written scale 1 cm= 100 m. Which ratio dose it correspond to?

(a) 1 : 100

(b) 1 : 1000

(c) 1 : 10,000

(d) 1 : 1,00,000

Que.106 A line joining some fixed stations on main survey lines is

(a) Check line

(b) Base line

(c) Tie line

(d) Cross line

Que.106 A line joining some fixed stations on main survey lines is

(a) Check line

(b) Base line

(c) Tie line

(d) Cross line

Que.107 In a well conditions triangle, one angle should not be less than:

(a) 60°

(b) 50°

(c) 30°

(d) 45°

Que.107 In a well conditions triangle, one angle should not be less than:

(a) 60°

(b) 50°

(c) 30°

(d) 45°

Que.108 Ranging is the process of

(a) Fixing ranging rods on the extremities of the area

(b) Aligning the chain in a straight line between two extremities

(c) Taking offset from a chain line

(d) Chaining over a range of mountains

Que.108 Ranging is the process of

(a) Fixing ranging rods on the extremities of the area

(b) Aligning the chain in a straight line between two extremities

(c) Taking offset from a chain line

(d) Chaining over a range of mountains

Que.109 What is the angle in degrees between two plane mirrors of an optical square?

a) 30

b) 60

c) 45

d) 90

Que.109 What is the angle in degrees between two plane mirrors of an optical square?

a) 30

b) 60

c) 45

d) 90

Que.110 The branch of surveying in which only linear measurements are directly made in the field is

(a) land surveying

(b) chain surveying

(c) engineering surveying


Que.110 The branch of surveying in which only linear measurements are directly made in the field is

(a) land surveying

(b) chain surveying

(c) engineering surveying


Que.111 Marking the end of chain length is an example of

(a) Positive error

(b) Negative error

(c) Cumulative error

(d) Compensating error

Que.111 Marking the end of chain length is an example of

(a) Positive error

(b) Negative error



Que.112 A scale is to be devised to read into metre, centimeter and decimeter. Which type of the following scales is best suited for this purpose?

(a) Plain scale

(b) Vernier scale

(c) Diagonal scale

(d) Diagonal or Vernier scale

Que.112 A scale is to be devised to read into metre, centimeter and decimeter. Which type of the following scales is best suited for this purpose?

(a) Plain scale

(b) Vernier scale

(c) Diagonal scale

(d) Diagonal or Vernier scale

Que.113 Which of the following is not used in measuring perpendicular offsets?

(a) Line ranger

(b) Steel tape

(c) Optical square

(d) Cross staff

Que.113 Which of the following is not used in measuring perpendicular offsets?

(a) Line ranger

(b) Steel tape

(c) Optical square

(d) Cross staff

Que.114 Which of the following is least affected by temperature changes and is highly precise

(a) Linen tape

(b) Steel tape

(c) Metallic tape

(d) Invar tape

Que.114 Which of the following is least affected by temperature changes and is highly precise

(a) Linen tape

(b) Steel tape

(c) Metallic tape

(d) Invar tape

Que.115 The error due to sag of tape or chain is known as

(a) Positive error

(b) Negative error



Que.115 The error due to sag of tape or chain is known as

(a) Positive error

(b) Negative error



Que.116 In an optical square, the angle between the first incident ray and the last reflected ray is

(a) 60

(b) 90

(c) 120

(d) 150

Que.116 In an optical square, the angle between the first incident ray and the last reflected ray is

(a) 60

(b) 90

(c) 120

(d) 150

Que.117 In surveying the horizontal angle which a line makes with the magnetic meridian is called

(a) Magnetic bearing

(b) Grid meridian

(c) Arbitrary meridian

(d) Grid bearing

Que.117 In surveying the horizontal angle which a line makes with the magnetic meridian is called

(a) Magnetic bearing

(b) Grid meridian

(c) Arbitrary meridian

(d) Grid bearing

Que.118 The reduced bearing of a line is N87W. Its whole circle bearing would be

(a) 273

(b) 3

(c) 93

(d) 87

Que.118 The reduced bearing of a line is N87W. Its whole circle bearing would be

(a) 273

(b) 3

(c) 93

(d) 87

Que.119 Which of the following methods of levelling eliminates the error due to curvature and refraction?

(a) Fly levelling

(b) Levelling by equalizing the distances of foresight and backsight

(c) Check levelling

(d) Precise levelling

Que.119 Which of the following methods of levelling eliminates the error due to curvature and refraction?

(a) Fly levelling

(b) Levelling by equalizing the distances of foresight and backsight

(c) Check levelling

(d) Precise levelling

Que.120 A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a

(a) Steep slope

(b) Gentle slope

(c) Uniform slope

(d) Plane surface

Que.120 A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a

(a) Steep slope

(b) Gentle slope

(c) Uniform slope

(d) Plane surface

Que.121 Contour lines drawn on a map, are the lines which pass through

(a) Hills and depressions

(b) Same elevation

(c) Same latitude

(d) None of these

Que.121 Contour lines drawn on a map, are the lines which pass through

(a) Hills and depressions

(b) Same elevation

(c) Same latitude

(d) None of these

Que.122 Direct method of contouring is

(a) A quick method

(b) Adopted for large surveys

(c) Most accurate method

(d) Suitable for hilly terrain

Que.122 Direct method of contouring is

(a) A quick method

(b) Adopted for large surveys

(c) Most accurate method

(d) Suitable for hilly terrain

Que.123 Which of the following is not a permanent adjustment in theodolite?

(a) Adjustment of vertical plate level

(b) Adjustment of telescope

(c) Adjustment of vertical circle index

(d) Elimination of parallax

Que.123 Which of the following is not a permanent adjustment in theodolite?

(a) Adjustment of vertical plate level

(b) Adjustment of telescope

(c) Adjustment of vertical circle index

(d) Elimination of parallax

Que.124 How does the size of theodolite specified?

a) By the length of telescope

b) By the diameter of vertical circle

c) By the diameter of upper plate

d) By the diameter of lower plate

Que.124 How does the size of theodolite specified?

a) By the length of telescope

b) By the diameter of vertical circle

c) By the diameter of upper plate

d) By the diameter of lower plate

Que.125 The ratio of focal length of objective to stadia interval is called

a) Additive factor

b) Multiplying factor

c) Staff interval

d) Subtractive interval

Que.125 The ratio of focal length of objective to stadia interval is called

a) Additive factor

b) Multiplying factor

c) Staff interval

d) Subtractive interval

Que 126. The construction of optical squares isbased on the principle of optical

a)reflection

b)refraction

c)Double refraction

d)Double reflection


Que 126. The construction of optical squares isbased on the principle of optical

a)reflection

b)refraction

c)Double refraction

d)Double reflection


Que 127. Cross staff is used for:

a)Setting out right angle

b)Measuring horizontal angle

c)Both (a) and (b)

d)None of the above


Que 127. Cross staff is used for:

a)Setting out right angle

b)Measuring horizontal angle

c)Both (a) and (b)

d)None of the above


Que 128. Building is an obstacle to

a)Both chaining and ranging

b)Chaining but not ranging

c)Ranging but not chaining

d)Neither chaining nor ranging


Que 128. Building is an obstacle to

a)Both chaining and ranging

b)Chaining but not ranging

c)Ranging but not chaining

d)Neither chaining nor ranging


Que 129. The correction for slope in chaining isproportional to

a) ℎ

b)ℎ

c)ℎ2

d)ℎ4


Que 129. The correction for slope in chaining isproportional to

a) ℎ

b)ℎ

c)ℎ2

d)ℎ4


Que 130. “Offsets” are

a)Lateral measurements from chain line

b)Tie or check lines which are perpendicular to chain line

c)Sets of minor measurements in chain surveying

d)Chain lines which go out of alignments


Que 130. “Offsets” are

a)Lateral measurements from chain line

b)Tie or check lines which are propendicular to chain line

c)Sets of minor measurements in chain surveying

d)Chain lines which go out of alignments


Que 131. Survey line provided to verify theaccuracy of the framework is known as

a)Tie line

b)Base line

c)Subsidiary line

d)Check line


Que 131. Survey line provided to verify theaccuracy of the framework is known as

a)Tie line

b)Base line

c)Subsidiary line

d)Check line


Que 132. Every 20 m chain should be accurate towithin

a)± 2 mm

b)± 5 mm

c)± 8 mm

d)None of the above


Que 132. Every 20 m chain should be accurate towithin

a)± 2 mm

b)± 5 mm

c)± 8 mm

d)None of the above


Que 133. Maximum allowable limit upto that ameasurement may very from the true value isknown as

a)Permissible error

b)Residual error

c)Expected error

d)Sale error


Que 133. Maximum allowable limit upto that ameasurement may very from the true value isknown as

a)Permissible error

b)Residual error

c)Expected error

d)Sale error


Que 134. Number of links in a 30 m metric chain is

a)100

b)150

c)180

d)200


Que 135. Positive error is caused if

a)Length of chain is shorter than the standard

b)Slope and sag correction is not applied

c)Measurements are made along the incorrectly aligned line

d)All options are correct


Que 135. Positive error is caused if

a)Length of chain is shorter than the standard

b)Slope and sag correction is not applied

c)Measurements are made along the incorrectly aligned line



Que 136. Compensating errors in chaining are________.

a)Proportional to the length of line

b)Proportional to the square root of the length of line

c)Inversely proportional to the square root of the length

d)Inversely Proportional to the length of the line


Que 136. Compensating errors in chaining are________.

a)Proportional to the length of line

b)Proportional to the square root of the length of line

c)Inversely proportional to the square root of the length

d)Inversely Proportional to the length of the line


Que 137. If a chain is found very short on testing, itcan be adjusted by _______.

a)Straightening the links

b)Inserting additional circular rings

c)Flattening the circular rings

d)Any of the options


Que 137. If a chain is found very short on testing, itcan be adjusted by _______.

a)Straightening the links

b)Inserting additional circular rings

c)Flattening the circular rings

d)Any of the options


Que 138. Chainage is the distance measured

a)Along a chain line

b)Perpendicular to a line

c)Perpendicular to a tie line

d)None of these


Que 138. Chainage is the distance measured

a)Along a chain line

b)Perpendicular to a line

c)Perpendicular to a tie line

d)None of these


Que 139. In chain survey execution, the first steptaken is ________.

a)Reference sketches

b)Marking stations

c)Running survey line

d)Reconnaissance


Que 139. In chain survey execution, the first steptaken is ________.

a)Reference sketches

b)Marking stations

c)Running survey line

d)Reconnaissance


Que 140. In the surveys, the slope correctionapplied to the base line is

a)Always cumulative

b)Always compensating

c)Sometimes cumulative, sometimes compensating

d)None of these


Que 140. In the surveys, the slope correctionapplied to the base line is

a)Always cumulative

b)Always compensating

c)Sometimes cumulative, sometimes compensating

d)None of these


Que 141. If his the difference in height betweenend points of a chain of length l, the required slopecorrection is _______.

a)𝐡𝟐

𝟐𝐥

b)𝐡

𝟐𝐥

c)𝐡𝟐

𝐥

d)𝐡𝟐

𝟒𝐥


Que 141. If h is the difference in height betweenend points of a chain of length l, the required slopecorrection is _______.

a)𝐡𝟐

𝟐𝐥

b)𝐡

𝟐𝐥

c)𝐡𝟐

𝐥

d)𝐡𝟐

𝟒𝐥


Que 142. Check lines (or proof lines) in ChainSurveying are essentially required __________.

a)To plot the chain lines

b)To plot the offsets

c)To indicate the accuracy of the survey work

d)To increase the out-turn


Que 142. Check lines (or proof lines) in ChainSurveying are essentially required __________.

a)To plot the chain lines

b)To plot the offsets

c)To indicate the accuracy of the survey work

d)To increase the out-turn


Que 143. For which of the following, will the chainsurveying be well adopted one?

a)Large areas with difficult details

b)Small surveys in open ground

c)Small surveys with crowded details

d)Large areas with simple details


Que 143. For which of the following, will the chainsurveying be well adopted one?

a)Large areas with difficult details

b)Small surveys in open ground

c)Small surveys with crowded details

d)Large areas with simple details


Que 144. The sag correction in surveys in always________.

a)Positive

b)negative

c)zero

d)None of these


Que 144. The sag correction in surveys in always________.

a)Positive

b)negative

c)zero

d)None of these


Que 145. What is the true area (in acres), if thearea calculated by a chain which is found to be 0.8link too long is 100 acres?

a)100.8

b)99.2

c)98.4

d)101.6


Que 145. What is the true area (in acres), if thearea calculated by a chain which is found to be 0.8link too long is 100 acres?

a)100.8

b)99.2

c)98.4

d)101.6


Que. 146 Correction per chain length of 100 links along a slope of is

a) 1.5𝛼2/100

b) 1.5𝛼/100

c) 1.5𝛼3/100

d) 1.5𝛼3

Que. 146 Correction per chain length of 100 links along a slope of is

a) 1.5𝛼2/100

b) 1.5𝛼/100

c) 1.5𝛼3/100

d) 1.5𝛼3

Que. 147 An angle of 45 with a chain line may be set out with

a) Optical square

b) Open cross staff

c) French cross staff

d) Prismatic square

Que. 147 An angle of 45 with a chain line may be set out with

a) Optical square

b) Open cross staff

c) French cross staff

d) Prismatic square

Que. 148 The rise and fall method of levelling is :

a)Less accurate than height of instrument method

b)Is not suitable for levelling with tilting levels.

c)Quicker and less tedious for large number of intermediate sights

d)Provides a check on the reduction of intermediate levels

Que. 148 The rise and fall method of levelling is :

a)Less accurate than height of instrument method

b)Is not suitable for levelling with tilting levels.

c)Quicker and less tedious for large number of intermediate sights

d)Provides a check on the reduction of intermediate levels

Que.149 In an adjusted level when the bubble is centred the axis of the bubble tube become parallel to

a)Line of sight

b)Line of collimation

c)Axis of the telescope

d)None of these

Que.149 In an adjusted level when the bubble is centred the axis of the bubble tube become parallel to

a)Line of sight



d)None of these

Que.150 The line normal to the plumb line is known as

a)Horizontal line

b)Level line

c)Datum line

d)Vertical line

Que.150 The line normal to the plumb line is known as

a)Horizontal line

b)Level line

c)Datum line

d)Vertical line

Que.151 Levelling deals with measurement in :

a)Horizontal plane

b)Vertical plane

c)Both horizontal and vertical planes

d)Inclined plane

Que.151 Levelling deals with measurement in :

a)Horizontal plane

b)Vertical plane

c)Both horizontal and vertical planes

d)Inclined plane

Que.152 The rise and fall method of levelling provides a complete check on :

a)Back sight

b)Intermediate sight

c)Fore sight

d)All of above

Que.152 The rise and fall method of levelling provides a complete check on :

a)Back sight

b)Intermediate sight

c)Fore sight

d)All of above

Que.153 Cross hairs in surveying telescopes are fitted

a)In the objective lens.

b)At the centre of the telescope

c)At the optical centre of the eyepiece

d)In front of the eyepiece

Que.153 Cross hairs in surveying telescopes are fitted

a)In the objective lens.

b)At the centre of the telescope

c)At the optical centre of the eyepiece

d)In front of the eyepiece

Que.154 The fixed point whose elevation is known, is called :

a)Benchmark

b)Change point

c)Reduced level

d)Station

Que.154 The fixed point whose elevation is known, is called :

a)Benchmark

b)Change point

c)Reduced level

d)Station

Que.155 The correction is elevations due to the curvature and refraction is proportional to :

a)D/R

b)D2/R

c)R/D2

d)R/D

Que.155 The correction is elevations due to the curvature and refraction is proportional to :

a)D/R

b)D2/R

c)R/D2

d)R/D

Que.156 A level line is a :

a)Line Parallel to the mean spherical

b)Line passing through centre of cross hairs and centre of eye – piece

c)Line passing through object line and the eye – piece

d)Horizontal line

Que.156 A level line is a :

a)Line Parallel to the mean spherical

b)Line passing through centre of cross hairs and centre of eye – piece

c)Line passing through object line and the eye – piece

d)Horizontal line

Que.157 The height of instrument is equal to :

a)Reduced level of bench mark – back sight

b)Reduced level of bench mark + back sight

c)Reduced level of bench mark – fore sight

d)Reduced level of bench mark + intermediate sight

Que.157 The height of instrument is equal to :

a)Reduced level of bench mark – back sight

b)Reduced level of bench mark + back sight

c)Reduced level of bench mark – fore sight

d)Reduced level of bench mark + intermediate sight

Que.158 A staff reading taken on a point whose elevation is to be determined as a change point is called :

a)Foresight reading :

b)Backsight reading :

c)Intermediate sight

d)Long sight

Que.158 A staff reading taken on a point whose elevation is to be determined as a change point is called :

a)Foresight reading

b)Backsight reading

c)Intermediate sight

d)Long sight

Que.159 The method of levelling used to carry out reconnaissance of area is :

a)Check levelling

b)Fly levelling

c)Profile levelling

d)Simple levelling

Que.159 The method of levelling used to carry out reconnaissance of area is :

a)Check levelling

b)Fly levelling

c)Profile levelling

d)Simple levelling

Que.160 In an adjusted level when the bubble is central, the axis of the bubble tubes becomes parallel to _____

a)Line of sight



d)None of the these

Que.160 In an adjusted level when the bubble is central, the axis of the bubble tubes becomes parallel to _____

a)Line of sight



d)None of the these

Que.161 An internal focusing typing surveying telescope may be focused by the movement of _______

a)Objective glass of the telescope

b)Convex – lens in the telescope

c)Concave lens in the telescope

d)Plane – convex lens in the telescope

Que.161 An internal focusing typing surveying telescope may be focused by the movement of _______

a)Objective glass of the telescope

b)Convex – lens in the telescope

c)Concave lens in the telescope

d)Plane – convex lens in the telescope

Que. 162 Which of the following levelling carried out to determine the elevation difference between two points on the surface to earth ?

a)Reciprocal Levelling

b)Simple Levelling

c)Longitudinal Levelling

d)Differential Levelling

Que. 162 Which of the following levelling carried out to determine the elevation difference between two points on the surface to earth ?

a)Reciprocal Levelling

b)Simple Levelling

c)Longitudinal Levelling

d)Differential Levelling

Que.163The surface of zero elevation around the earth, which is slightly irregular and curved is known as

a)Mean sea level

b)Good Surface

c)Level Surface

d)Horizontal Surface

Que.163 The surface of zero elevation around the earth, which is slightly irregular and curved is known as

a)Mean sea level

b)Good Surface

c)Level Surface

d)Horizontal Surface

Que.164 The sensitiveness of a level tube decreases if _______.

a)Radius of curvature of its inner surface is increased.

b)Diameter of the tube is increased.

c)Length of the vapour bubble increased.

d)Both viscosity and surface tension are increased.

Que.164 The sensitiveness of a level tube decreases if _______.

a)Radius of curvature of its inner surface is increased.

b)Diameter of the tube is increased.

c)Length of the vapour bubble increased.

d)Both viscosity and surface tension are increased.

Que.165 Which of the following levelling method is used to determine the difference of elevation of two points that are quite apart ?

a)Check levelling

b)Fly Levelling

c)Reciprocal Levelling

d)Simple Levelling

Que.165 Which of the following levelling method is used to determine the difference of elevation of two points that are quite apart ?

a)Check levelling

b)Fly Levelling

c)Reciprocal Levelling

d)Simple Levelling

Que.166 Which of the following are correct for sensitivity of the bubble tube ?

a)Sensitivity decrease with increase in internal radius of the tube.

b)Sensitivity decrease with increase in diameter of the tube.

c)Sensitivity increase with decrease in length of the tube

d)Sensitivity increase with decrease in viscosity of the liquid.

Que.166 Which of the following are correct for sensitivity of the bubble tube ?

a)Sensitivity decrease with increase in internal radius of the tube.

b)Sensitivity decrease with increase in diameter of the tube.

c)Sensitivity increase with decrease in length of the tube

d)Sensitivity increase with decrease in viscosity of the liquid.

Que.167 Which of the following is the CORRECT ratio of refraction correction to curvature correction ?

a)1/4

b)1/6

c)1/7

d)1/9

Que.167 Which of the following is the CORRECT ratio of refraction correction to curvature correction ?

a)1/4

b)1/6

c)1/7

d)1/9

Que.168 The height of any point with respect to mean sea level is called

a)Bench mark

b)Datum

c)Level surface

d)Reduced Level

Que.168 The height of any point with respect to mean sea level is called

a)Bench mark

b)Datum

c)Level surface

d)Reduced Level

Que.169 Which of the following is true for the correction for curvature ?

a)It is proportional to the distance between the staff and instrument.

b)It is always negative and proportion to square of distance between the staff and instrument.

c)It is always positive and proportion to square of distance between the staff and instrument.

d)It is always positive and proportion to the distance between the staff and instrument.

Que.169 Which of the following is true for the correction for curvature ?

a)It is proportional to the distance between the staff and instrument.

b)It is always negative and proportion to square of distance between the staff and instrument.

c)It is always positive and proportion to square of distance between the staff and instrument.

d)It is always positive and proportion to the distance between the staff and instrument.

Que.170 The difference between the last reduced level and the first reduced level is equal to ______.

a)Difference between the sum of back sights and intermediate sights.

b)Difference between the sum of back sights and reduced level of benchmark.

c)Difference between the sum of back sights and fore sights

d)Difference between the sum of back sights and height of instrument.

Que.170 The difference between the last reduced level and the first reduced level is equal to ______.

a)Difference between the sum of back sights and intermediate sights.

b)Difference between the sum of back sights and reduced level of benchmark.

c)Difference between the sum of back sights and fore sights

d)Difference between the sum of back sights and height of instrument.

Que.171 Correction of length due to reduction to mean sea level is ____.

a)Directly proportional to measured length

b)Directly proportional to radius of the earth

c)Inversely proportional to measured length

d)Inversely proportional to height above mean sea level.

Que.171 Correction of length due to reduction to mean sea level is ____.

a)Directly proportional to measured length

b)Directly proportional to radius of the earth

c)Inversely proportional to measured length

d)Inversely proportional to height above mean sea level.

Que.172 Which of the following expression is used for calculation of RL of a point ?

a)Height of instrument minus back sight

b)Height of instrument plus fore sight

c)Reduced level of previous point minus fore sight

d)Reduced level of previous point minus fall

Que.172 Which of the following expression is used for calculation of RL of a point ?

a)Height of instrument minus back sight

b)Height of instrument plus fore sight

c)Reduced level of previous point minus fore sight

d)Reduced level of previous point minus fall

Que.173 If the formation level of a highway a uniform gradient for a particular length and the ground is also having a longitudinal slope, the earthwork may be calculated by

a)Mid – section formula

b)Trapezoidal formula

c)Prismoidal formula


Que.173 If the formation level of a highway a uniform gradient for a particular length and the ground is also having a longitudinal slope, the earthwork may be calculated by

a)Mid – section formula

b)Trapezoidal formula

c)Prismoidal formula


Que.174 The assumption on which the trapezoidal formula for volumes is based, is ______

a)The end sections are parallel planes

b)The mid – area of a pyramid is half the average of the ends

c)The volume of the prismoidal is overestimated and hence a prismoidal correction is applied.

d)All options are correct.

Que.175 The assumption on which the trapezoidal formula for volumes is based, is ______

a)The end sections are parallel planes

b)The mid – area of a pyramid is half the average of the ends

c)The volume of the prismoidal is overestimated and hence a prismoidal correction is applied.

d)All options are correct.

Que.175 Which of the following method estimate the best volume of earthwork of an irregular embankment ?

a)Average ordinate method

b)Mid – ordinate method

c)Simpson’s method

d)Trapezoidal method

Que.175 Which of the following method estimate the best volume of earthwork of an irregular embankment ?

a)Average ordinate method

b)Mid – ordinate method

c)Simpson’s method

d)Trapezoidal method

Que.176 Which one of the following set of internal angles (degree) of a triangle does not show well condition triangle?a) 20, 90, 70b) 25, 45,110c) 40, 125, 15d) 35, 80, 65

Que.176 Which one of the following set of internal angles (degree) of a triangle does not show well condition triangle?a) 20, 90, 70b) 25, 45,110c) 40, 125, 15d) 35, 80, 65

Que.177 The length and links of revenue chain respectively, is

a) 100 ft and 10 links

b) 50 ft and 5 links

c) 33 ft and 16 links

d) 30 ft and 10 links

Que.177 The length and links of revenue chain respectively, is

a) 100 ft and 10 links

b) 50 ft and 5 links

c) 33 ft and 16 links

d) 30 ft and 10 links

Que.178 If the fore bearing of a line AB is 35° and that of line BC is 15°, then the included angle between the line is

a) 20°

b) 50°

c) 160°

d) 230°

Que.178 If the fore bearing of a line AB is 35° and that of line BC is 15°, then the included angle between the line is

a) 20°

b) 50°

c) 160°

d) 230°

Que.179 Closed contour lines with higher values inside, represent a

a) Hill

b) Pond

c) Plain Surface

d) None of these

Que.179 Closed contour lines with higher values inside, represent a

a) Hill

b) Pond

c) Plain Surface

d) None of these

Que.180 The most accurate instrument for measuring horizontal vertical angles is

a) Tape and chain

b) Dumpy level

c) Theodolite

d) Compass

Que.180 The most accurate instrument for measuring horizontal vertical angles is

a) Tape and chain

b) Dumpy level

c) Theodolite

d) Compass

Que.181 Orientation of plane-table, by solving two-point problem, is adopted only when

a) saving of time is a main factor

b) better accuracy is a main factor

c) given points are inaccessible

d) none of these

Que.181 Orientation of plane-table, by solving two-point problem, is adopted only when

a) saving of time is a main factor

b) better accuracy is a main factor

c) given points are inaccessible

d) none of these

Que 182. In a metric chain, number of links permeter run can be

a)2

b)5

c)8

d)0


Que 182. In a metric chain, number of links permeter run can be

a)2

b)5

c)8

d)0


Que 183. The distance between two brass rings in asurveyor’s chain is

a)20 cm

b)40 cm

c)75 cm

d)1 m


Que 183. The distance between two brass rings in asurveyor’s chain is

a)20 cm

b)40 cm

c)75 cm

d)1 m


Que 184. The total number of links provided in aGunter’s chain is

a)132

b)100

c)66

d)50


Que 184. The total number of links provided in aGunter’s chain is

a)132

b)100

c)66

d)50


Que 185. Chain surveying is most suitable when

a)The ground is fairly levelled and open with simple details

b)The area is small in extent

c)Plans are required on a large scale



Que 185. Chain surveying is most suitable when

a)The ground is fairly levelled and open with simple details

b)The area is small in extent

c)Plans are required on a large scale



Que 186. EDM stands for:

a) Errorless Distance Measurement

b) Electronic Direct Measurement

c) Electronic Distance Measurement

d) Errorless Direct Measurement


Que 186. EDM stands for:

a) Errorless Distance Measurement

b) Electronic Direct Measurement

c) Electronic Distance Measurement

d) Errorless Direct Measurement


Que 187. __________ instrument is used to sightto an object.

a) Compass

b) U-frame

c) Plumbing fork

d) Alidade


Que 187. __________ instrument is used to sightto an object.

a) Compass

b) U-frame

c) Plumbing fork

d) Alidade


Que 188. Which of the below is used for levelling aplane table?

a) Plumb bob

b) Spirit level

c) Compass

d) U-frame


Que 188. Which of the below is used for levelling aplane table?

a) Plumb bob

b) Spirit level

c) Compass

d) U-frame


Que 189. A plumbing fork is used to __________the plane table.

a) Focus

b) Centre

c) Orient

d) Level


Que 189. A plumbing fork is used to __________the plane table.

a) Focus

b) Centre

c) Orient

d) Level


Que 190. ________ is a term used that preventsthe needle from pointing to the magnetic North ina given locality.

a) Local attraction

b) Declination

c) Deviation

d) Local distraction


Que 190. ________ is a term used that preventsthe needle from pointing to the magnetic North ina given locality.

a) Local attraction

b) Declination

c) Deviation

d) Local distraction


Que 191. Chain surveying uses the principle of:

a) Traversing

b) Chaining

c) Ranging

d) Triangulation


Que 191. Chain surveying uses the principle of:

a) Traversing

b) Chaining

c) Ranging

d) Triangulation


Que 192. In _________ levelling, the first and lastpoint are at a far distance.

a) Fly

b) Differential

c) Profile

d) Reciprocal


Que 192. In _________ levelling, the first and lastpoint are at a far distance.

a) Fly

b) Differential

c) Profile

d) Reciprocal


Que 193. Stadia levelling is a modified form of:

a) Fly levelling

b) Differential levelling

c) Simple levelling

d) Trigonometric levelling


Que 193. Stadia levelling is a modified form of:

a) Fly levelling

b) Differential levelling

c) Simple levelling

d) Trigonometric levelling


Que 194. The last reading taken from theinstrument is called:

a) End sight

b) Free sight

c) Fore sight

d) Back sight


Que 194. The last reading taken from theinstrument is called:

a) End sight

b) Free sight

c) Fore sight

d) Back sight


Que 195. Reciprocal levelling is used when,

a) Flat terrain

b) Obstacles are there

c) BM not visible

d) Highway construction


Que 195. Reciprocal levelling is used when,

a) Flat terrain

b) Obstacles are there

c) BM not visible

d) Highway construction


Que 196. Which instrument is used intrigonometric levelling?

a) Wye level

b) Compass

c) Theodolite

d) Dumpy level


Que 196. Which instrument is used intrigonometric levelling?

a) Wye level

b) Compass

c) Theodolite

d) Dumpy level


Que 197. Plane and geodetic surveying areclassifications of surveying based on:

a) Methodology

b) Earth’s curvature

c) Object of survey

d) Instrument


Que 197. Plane and geodetic surveying areclassifications of surveying based on:

a) Methodology

b) Earth’s curvature

c) Object of survey

d) Instrument


Que 198. _________ errors are small unavoidablefluctuation.

a) Random

b) Gross

c) Systematic

d) Mistake


Que 198. _________ errors are small unavoidablefluctuation.

a) Random

b) Gross

c) Systematic

d) Mistake


Que 199. In the triangulation method, the wholearea is divided into:

a) Scale triangles

b) Triangles

c) Obtuse triangles

d) Well-conditioned triangles


Que 199. In the triangulation method, the wholearea is divided into:

a) Scale triangles

b) Triangles

c) Obtuse triangles

d) Well-conditioned triangles


Que 200. Which of the below is not a method ofdoing resection?

a) Back sighting

b) Solving two-point problem

c) Solving three-point problem

d) Solving four-point problem


Que 200. Which of the below is not a method ofdoing resection?

a) Back sighting

b) Solving two-point problem

c) Solving three-point problem

d) Solving four-point problem


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SPECIAL CLASS25. In a simply supported beam of span, L subjected to uniformly distributed load (UDL) of intensity wkN/m over it [s entire length the maximum bending is given by expression: