ATITA Questions & Answers

N a m e : W a e l A b d e l H a m i d E l - M a g h r a b iE - m a i l : [email protected] o b i l e : 0 1 0 8 4 8 8 7 8 3

No Subject Page No Subject Page1 Table of Parts 1 23 Non-Metallic Materials - Wood 54

2 HYD 2 24 Reinforced Plastics 54

3 Landing Gear 6 25 WASTE & WATER 56

4 Flight Control 9 26

ENGINE

Gas Turbine engine 58

5 A/C structures 17 27 Turbine Construction 61

6 Ground handling 22 28 Propeller provision 63

7 Safety equipment 24 29 Thrust reverser 65

8 Oxygen 25 30 APU 66

9 Baggage 28 31 Engine Fuel SYS 68

10 Air conditioning 29 32 A/C fuel SYS 70

11 Pneumatic Systems 32 33 Lubrication 74

12 Ice & rain protection 33 34 water/methanol injection 72

13 Pressurization 35 35 Air sealing 80

14 Basic Electrics 39 36 Surge protection 81

15 Electrical 41 37 Ice protection 81

16 Work shop tool 43 38 Ignition 82

17 Work shop practices 45 39 Starting 83

18 Common Parts 46 40 Engine controls 84

19 Gases & Compounds 47 41 Electrical 87

20 Metals 49 42 Engine indication 88

21 Aerodynamics 50 43 Answers 90

22 Substructures 51 44 Comments 99

ATITA1

In French: L’Association Technique des Industries Thermiques et Aérauliques.In English : The Technical Association of Thermal and Aeraulic Industries.

EASA2

European Aviation Safety Agency3

EASA Part 21 requirements includeDOAs: Design Organization ApprovalsPOAs: Production Organization Approvals.

Shortcuts:A/C : A/CHYD : HydraulicSYS : SystemConst. : Constant.DC : Direct CurrentAC : Alternative CurrentT/O : Take off

و . ?1 الدافئ للتيار التقنية .صناعاتالالجمعية الهوائية 2. http://www.easa.eu.int/home/pressroom_vid.html.

األوروبية� .3 الطيراِن� أماِن� وكالة

Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME. 1 / 106

http://www.easa.eu.int/home/pressroom_vid.html

mailto:[email protected]

Hydraulic (HYD)

1. HYD reservoirs are pressurised to:a. Minimise the possibility of pump cavitations.b. Provide a reserve of stored energy.c. Maintain a const. fluid level.

2. In an A/C HYD SYS, it is permissible to use:a. Any HYD fluid available.b. Only the specified fluid.c. Any fluid of the same specific gravity.

3. The essential components of HYD SYS of const. delivery type are:a. Accumulator and automatic cut-out valve.b. Accumulator and shuttle valve.c. Accumulator and relay valve.

4. An automatic cut-out valve will:a. Prevent a HYD lock forming.b. Limit pump wear.c. Raise fluid boiling point.

5. One reason for fitting an accumulator in a HYD SYS is to:a. Absorb pressure surges.b. Minimise the possibility of pump cavitations.c. Relieve excess pressure.

6. A thermal relief valve is fitted to:a. Prevent excess temperature.b. Relieve excess pressure.c. Prevent a leak back of pressure.

7. The hand pump fluid supply is drawn from:a. A stack pipe higher than normal fluid supply.b. The bottom of the reservoir.c. A stack pipe tapped into the top of the reservoir.

8. A hand pump is usually fitted to be used for:a. Ground servicing and as an emergency power source.b. Maintaining the fluid level of the reservoir.c. Ground charging of the air pressure in the accumulator and

reservoir.9. The colour of fluid DTD 585 is:

a. Green.b. Blue.c. Red.

10.The effect on the off-load/on-load cycle of too high an air charge pressure in an accumulator would be that the:a. Interval between would be reduced.b. Interval between would be increased.c. Interval between would remain the same.

11.Hand pumps in HYD SYS are generally:a. Double acting.b. Rotary.c. Single acting.

12.What type of delivery SYS uses an automatic cut-out?a. A variable pump SYS.b. The fixed stroke pump SYS.c. All HYD pumps require an automatic cut-out valve.


13.The wasted portion of the EDP drive shaft is:a. Needed as this shape fits the gearbox.b. To protect the pump against further damage.c. To shear if the engine seizes.

14.A depressurisation solenoid is to:a. Unload the pump.b. Disconnect the pump from the engine.c. Shut the blocking valve to isolate more than one pump.

15.The axial piston type pump on a variable displacement pump uses the control piston to:a. Operate the blocking valve.b. Prime the pump.c. Modulate the swash plate (yoke).

16.A throttling valve is a:a. Pressure reducing valve.b. Two way restrictor valve.c. Pressure maintaining valve.

17.Which paint should be used in an area subject to chemically based fluid spillage?a. Oil based.b. Lacquers.c. Polyurethane.

18.How is a component designed to be used with fire resistant fluid identified?a. By fitting a purple band.b. By a painted red stripe.c. The type of fluid is written in paint on the component.

19.If different types of HYD fluid are mixed within a SYS, what will be the effect?a. No effect.b. Swelling of seals.c. The pumps will run hotter.

20.HYD reservoirs are used to:a. Store fluid for emergency use only.b. Provide a supply of fluid and to accept return fluid from SYS.c. Top up leakages from the HYD systems.

21.The normal HYD SYS supply in a stack pipe type reservoir comes:a. Through the stack pipe.b. From either source.c. Below the stack pipe.

22.A pneumatic relief valve incorporated in air manifold is used to:a. Regulate the pressure.b. Regulate the inlet air pressure.c. Protect against a malfunction of the pressure regulation valve.

23.Before disconnecting pipelines or components, reservoir should be:a. Emptied.b. Depressurised.c. No precautions necessary.

24.When a standby pump is incorporated in a multiple HYD SYS, how is it switched on?a. Automatically by a main SYS loss of pressure.b. By a member of the crew.c. Standby SYS pumps run at all times the A/C is operational.


25.If the HYD SYS that supplies the undercarriage fails it can be lowered by:a. Gravity drop.b. Cross feeding another SYS.c. Using a standby SYS.

26.What does a triple redundancy equipped A/C in a single HYD SYS failure condition use for primary control?a. Balance tabs.b. Standby pumps SYS started by the crew.c. The remaining HYD Systems.

27.Pipe runs from the individual pressure supplies are routed differently in case of:a. HYD leakage for detection purposes.b. Structural failures.c. Ease of manufacture.

28.Electrical supplies for the electric pumps come from:a. The same side's generator.b. The opposite side's generator.c. A special battery.

29.Separate reservoirs are used for each HYD SYS:a. that if a leak occurs only that particular SYS will be lost.b. To enable single point replenishment to be carried out.c. To prevent oil starvation at the HYD pumps.

30.Pressure relay valves are fitted:a. Where a fuse is too large.b. In any position that is convenient.c. Vertically.

31.If an internal leak occurs in the power circuit of a HYD SYS what will the symptoms be?a. Jerky movement of control surfaces.b. Slow build up of pressure and rapid drop in pressure when the

pump is stopped.c. There will be no symptoms as the pump wills uprate its output.

32.The RAT propeller is of variable pitch to:a. Maintain a const. speed.b. Produce a faster speed relative to A/C speed.c. Allow the blades to fold for easier stowage.

33.Limit switches are employed on the RAT operating mechanism to:a. Illuminate a light to indicate when the RAT is fully stowed.b. Illuminate a green pressure light.c. Cut the supply to the electric motor when the RAT is fully

extended or retracted, and illuminate a RAT deployed light.34.The lights for speed information from the RAT are powered from:

a. The A/C's battery.b. The speed sensing device in the RAT hub.c. The A/C generator.

35.The RAT will deploy with the A/C on jacks if:a. The engine fuel switches are closed.b. An airspeed test box is operated on the pitot tubes.c. The battery switch is turned on.


36.If the RAT is operating successfully in the air/ the indication to the crew would be:a. A green pressure and an unlocked light.b. A green pressure light only.c. An unlocked light only.

37.SYS interconnects valves are:a. Operated to prevent a leaking SYS operating.b. Are open during all stages of flight.c. Operated when the pressure source is lost on a HYD SYS.

38.What is the main advantage of employing electric or air driven pumps over engine driven pumps?a. They are more reliable.b. They can receive their power from more than one source.c. Their HYD flow rate is greater.

39.Full time electrically powered HYD pumps utilise:a. 28 volts DC.b. 28 volts AC.c. 115 volts AC.

40.The case drain fluid from the pump is:a. Pressure fluid.b. Pump cooling fluid.c. Supply fluid.

41.The angle of the ADP's HYD pump swash plate controls opening of:a. The modulation valve.b. The pressure regulation valve.c. The shut off valve.

42.An ADP over speed shut down:a. Is reset by the pilot to retrieve the pump in flight.b. Is automatically reset once the pump speed has decreased.c. Can only be reset on the ground.

43.The speed sensor monitors:a. The speed of the pump drive shaft.b. The speed of the turbine.c. The speed of the bob weight governor.


Landing Gear

1. The majority of wheels are made from:a. Steel.b. Aluminium alloy or magnesium alloy.c. Manganese steel.

2. The divided wheel consists of:a. Two wheel halves.b. One detachable rim and two drum halves.c. Two detachable rims and one wheel drum.

3. Before removing a serviceable wheel and tyre from an axle, the tyre pressure must be reduced to:a. 50 psib. Zeroc. 25 psi

4. The type of bearing used for wheel bearings is a:a. Roller bearing.b. Tapered bearing.c. Tapered roller bearing.

5. The purpose of a fusible plug is to:a. Indicate a high pressure in the tyre to the ground engineer.b. Provide a second access for an alternative inflation valve.c. Release excessive tyre pressure at a safe rate if the wheel

overheats.6. Tyre beads are made from:

a. Copper.b. High tensile steel.c. Rubberised fabric.

7. The treads of some tyres are re-enforced with:a. Apex strips.b. Layers of strengthening fabric.c. Breakers.

8. The maximum creep for tubeless tyres recommended by CAIP is:a. One inch.b. Two inches.c. Three inches.

9. Which number in the code 34 x 9.50 - 18 indicates the bead diameter?a. 34.b. 9.50.c. 18.

10.If a tyre is worn beyond the level of a tie bar, the tyre can:a. Be considered serviceable.b. Not be used.c. Complete ten more landings only.

11.Kept in ideal conditions a tyre will not deteriorate for up to:a. Ten years.b. Seven years.c. Eight years.


12.The tyres on assembled wheels not required for immediate use should be inflated to between:a. 5 to 10 psi.b. 5 to 15 psi.c. 20 to 30 psi.

13.The red line marked on a tube by the manufacturer indicates the:a. Heavy side.b. Light side.c. Vent hole.

14.Tyres are identified for size in inches, for example:32 x 10.75 - 14. The number 10.75 is the dimension of:

a. Width of tyre section.b. Overall diameter.c. Bead diameter.

15.on large A/C, bogie type undercarriages are used to:a. Absorb increased landing shock.b. Prevent skidding.c. Spread the weight over a large area.

16.To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for Retraction and landing a:a. Snubber is used.b. Hop damper is used.c. Castoring damper is used.

17.In a HYD retraction SYS, operation in the correct order is achieved by:a. Sequence valves.b. Non-return valves.c. Shuttle valves.

18.A shuttle valve is used for:a. Maintaining fluid pressure when the main SYS fails.b. Preventing loss of fluid from a leaking union.c. Change over from main to auxiliary SYS in case of failure.

19.HYD accumulator gas pressure can be checked:a. At any time.b. With the SYS depressurised.c. With the SYS pressurised only.

20.What is the purpose of 'split system' brakes?a. Greater stopping power.b. Less wear as only one set work at a time.c. So that all brakes won't be lost during a HYD SYS failure.

21.In a pneumatic alternate break SYS, what prevents gas pressure from entering the brakes?a. Transfer tube.b. Position of the pneumatic control valve.c. Shuttle valves.

22.Rubber tyre drum on an externally mounted MAXARET4 driven by:a. The wheel.b. The brake unit rotors.c. Gears from the axle.

23.The anti-skid control unit contains:

4 . Maximum Retardation Units.


a. The wheel speed transducers.b. Printed circuit cards.c. Brake metering valves.

24.If power is lost on electronic anti-skid Systems, they will Fail in the:a. Brakes OFF position.b. The position they were in when power was lost.c. In the brakes ON position.

25.Aquaplaning on a four wheel bogie would occur mainly on:a. All four wheels simultaneously.b. The two rear wheels.c. The two front wheels.

26.Tyre life is increased using an anti-skid SYS because:a. Tyre pressures can be lower.b. There is no skidding on rapid decelerations.c. Stopping distances are shorter therefore tyres roll less

distance.27.On a DOWN selection, only two green lights illuminate. What would

be the most probable cause?a. HYD failure to one undercarriage.5

b. A bulb on the other leg indicator blown.c. A selector fault.

28.During a retraction test in the hangar the L/G warning horn sounds. How can it be silenced? Note that the flaps are UP.a. Push one throttle forward.b. Push both throttles forward.c. Push the horn cancel button.

29.When the L/G is locked up the flight deck indicator shows:a. No indication at all.b. A red light.c. A green light.

30.If the A/C is turning right using NWS6 and the pilot lets go of the tiller, which direction would the nose wheel assume?a. Continue turning right.b. Straight ahead.c. Turn right until commanded in the opposite direction.

31.Restrictor valves in NWS Systems provide:a. Damping.b. An open return flow line.c. An open pressure line.

32.The towing pin used in some NWS Systems is:a. For straight ahead steering only.b. To prevent excess turning movement.c. To allow a free castoring action.

33.NWS pressure normally comes from:a. The undercarriage up line.b. The undercarriage down line.c. A special HYD SYS.

Flight Control5 . So in case of 2 Green bulbs Operated mean there is a faulty red bulb not working.6 . Nose Wheel Steering.


1. An inclinometer is used to:a. Check cable tension.b. Check control surface movement.c. Check static friction.

2. R. and L. hand pairs of rudder pedals are sometimes linked by: a. Torque tubes.b. Bell cranks.c. Springs.

3. A control cable may be terminated by a:a. Bolt and nut.b. Swaged sleeve and thimble.c. Clevis pin.

4. A control SYS bell crank may be used to change:a. Rotary motion to linear motion only.b. Linear motion to rotary motion only.c. Either linear to rotary or rotary to linear motion

5. The tension in a cable control SYS is adjusted by:a. The push-pull rods.b. The cable stops.c. The turnbuckles.

6. An American turnbuckle is in safety when:a. No more than three threads are showing at each end.b. No threads are showing at each end.c. The safety holes are covered.

7. Internal cable wear will most often take place:a. At a fairlead.b. At a pulley.c. At a terminal.

8. A duplicate inspection requires:a. One qualified Engineer and any fitter.b. Any two Engineers or fitters.c. Two qualified Engineers.

9. Guards fitted to a pulley should:a. Not be free to rotate about the pulley.b. Be free to rotate about the pulley.c. Be lubricated.

10.Excessive backlash in a control SYS can cause:a. Pilot fatigue.b. Control surface flutter.c. Purposing.

11.A spring bias in a control SYS is used to:a. Apply a correcting force in one direction.b. Remove backlash.c. Adjust the friction.

12.The trim tab indicator should read 0° with the tab in the:a. Full down position.b. Full up position.c. Neutral position.

13.When rigging the trim tab SYS:a. The trim control SYS is rigged before the main control


b. The A/C must be in the rigging position.c. The main control is rigged first.

14.The cables used in a trim control SYS are usually:a. Larger than the main control cables.b. Smaller that the main control cables.c. The same size as the main control cables.

15.Protection in the event of an electric trim actuator seizing is provided by:a. A slipping clutch.b. A disconnect switch.c. A circuit breaker.

16.The stops in a trim SYS:a. Prevent the pilot overstressing the SYS.b. Limit the amount of travel of the trim tab.c. Prevent the tab moving should the cable break.

17.Tab aerodynamic loads are prevented from feeding back into the control SYS:a. By the control SYS stops.b. By the friction damper.c. By using a screw type actuator.

18.In a typical trim SYS the actuator is rigged:a. Before the cable is tensioned.b. After the cable is tensioned.c. Last of all.

19.In an electrically operated elevator trim SYS the motor may be controlled by a pilot's switch or:a. By an elevator cable tension sensor.b. By an elevator trim cable tension sensor.c. By a push-pull type circuit breaker.

20.In an electric trim actuator the motor drives the pulley:a. Through a reduction gearbox.b. By means of a chain.c. Directly.

21.In a pre-select electric flap SYS, full up and full down travel is controlled by:a. Travel limit stops.b. Micro switches on the actuator.c. Micro switches on the follow-up plate.

22.A typical electric flap motor is stopped quickly by:a. Earthling both sides of the motor.b. An electromechanical brake.c. The limit stops.

23.In a pre-select electric flap SYS, the follow-up plate is moved:a. Directly by the electric actuator.b. By the flap interconnect cables.c. By the follow-up cable.

24.Asymmetric protection in a flap SYS is provided to:a. Limit the rate of flap extension and retraction.b. Indicate to the pilot a failure of the drive mechanism.c. Prevent an uncontrollable roll in the event of failure.

25.The actual flap travel is checked during inspection using:a. A tensiometer.


b. An inclinometer.c. The position indicator.

26.in a typical electrical flap SYS the synchronising tube:a. Maintains the correct relationship between bell crank and drive

pulley.b. Synchronises left and right flaps.c. Aligns the actuator with the drive pulley.

27.A screw type actuator is often used in flap Systems in order to:a. Prevent flap loads feeding back into the control SYS.b. Damp flap SYS movements.c. Provide an easily reversed SYS.

28.In a pre-select electric flap sys. flap position indicated by:a. An electrically operated indicator.b. A pointer on the follow-up plate.c. A desynn type indicator.

29.Post adjustment inspections of any turnbuckle should include:a. Correct specified length.b. Security of adjusting nuts.c. Safety and locking.

30.In accordance with the requirements of BCAR A5-3 the flap SYS:a. Does not require a duplicate inspection.b. Requires a duplicate inspection.c. Requires a duplicate inspection if it is power operated.

31.In a pneumatic stall warning SYS, the warning note is produced:a. By a reed.b. By a whistle.c. By a plenum chamber.

32.The calibration of a pneumatic stall warning SYS adjusted by:a. Tuning the reed.b. Adjusting the air flow valve.c. Moving the adjustable plate.

33.in a simple electric stall warning SYS, the vane:a. Operates a potentiometer.b. Operates a micro switch.c. Controls a transformer.

34.An electric stall warning SYS is protected against ice by:a. An alcohol de-icer.b. An electric heater.c. Positioning in a non-icing area.

35.The identification of the horn for the L/G and the horn for the stall warning is achieved by:a. Pulsing the gear warning horn.b. Using horns of different notes.c. Pulsing the stall warning horn.

36.A stick shaker is activated:a. At the actual stall.b. If both sensors indicate a stall.c. At a predetermined speed above the stall.

37.A stick pusher is activated:a. At a predetermined speed above the stall.


b. If both transducers indicate a stall.c. If either transducer indicates a stall.

38.The stick pusher solenoid valves are controlled by:a. The signal summing units.b. The transducers.c. The stick shaker relays.

39.An automatic pitch trim SYS provides a signal to:a. Reposition the elevator.b. Reposition the elevator trim tab.c. Reposition the altitude hold datum.

40.The raw data signals are processed in the:a. Servo units.b. Controller.c. Computer.

41.Pitch and roll displacement signals can be derived from:a. A rate gyro.b. An attitude gyro.c. A horizontal situation indicator.

42.A directional gyro is used to provide a signal proportional to:a. Heading displacement.b. Heading rate of change.c. Roll displacement.

43.An altitude displacement signal is provided by a manometric sensor connected to:a. The static SYS.b. The pitot SYS.c. The glide slope receiver.

44.Manual control of roll trim may be found on the:a. Attitude gyro.b. Mode selector.c. Controller.

45.A feedback potentiometer provides a signal that:a. Keeps servo output proportional to the input signal.b. Prevents too rapid response to the input signal.c. Operates a position indicator for the pilot.

46.In a typical autopilot for a small A/C with electric actuators the motor is:a. A.C. reversible.b. D.C. Reversible.c. D.C. Non reversible.

47.In the heading mode manually rotating the DG card clockwise will make the control wheel move:a. Away from the heading bug.b. Anti-clockwise.c. Clockwise.

48.Slack servo cables will cause an autopilot to:a. Adopt a wing low attitude.b. 'Hunt' about a neutral position.c. Respond sharply.

49.On a power assisted flight control SYS the feel required is normally supplied by:


a. Stretching springs.b. 'Q' feel.c. No feel is required.

50.Irreversibility of a fully powered control surface supplied by:a. Nulling of the servo valve.b. Air loads on the control surface.c. The jack rams being attached to structure.

51.'Q' is a measure of:a. Airspeed.b. Airspeed and air density.c. Airspeed, air density and control surface area.

52.'Q' feel units use:a. Pitot only.b. Pitot and static.c. Static only.

53.Powered flight control Systems are installed in A/C:a. Because the pilot has too many tasks to perform.b. Because at low level air density is high.c. Due to the increase in speed and size of A/C.

54.Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed:a. Roll will not occur.b. Pitch trim is not affected.c. No yaw takes place.

55.Spoiler panels are controlled by:a. A speed brake lever only.b. The aileron wheel only.c. The aileron wheel and speed brake lever.

56.The down position of the speed brake lever is detented7 to:a. Prevent inadvertent operation.b. Lock the speed brakes down during flight.c. Allow ground speed brakes on touchdown.

57.Wheel speed information is used in auto speed brakes To:a. Ensure the A/C is still rolling.b. Ensure the A/C has touched down and to give a slight time lapse

for spoiler deployment.c. Stow the spoilers automatically when the A/C has nearly stopped.

58.Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow?a. Flap.b. Slat.c. Flap and slat.

59.Prevention of flap asymmetry will keep to a minimum:a. Pitch changes.b. Roll.c. Stalling speed.

60.The bypass valve:a. Is an electrically operated HYD valve.b. Is cable operated by the flap lever.c. Ports fluid to the up or down side of the motor.

61.Load relief when operated:a. Will retract the flaps to the up position, using the airflow to

'blow' them retracted.

7. ~Down.


b. Will operate the flap lever and cable SYS to retract the flaps.c. Uses an electric actuator to rotate the PDU8 input cam.

62.The screw jack gimbal is:a. Spun with the screw jack.b. A universal joint which moves along the screw jack.c. Used because of the buttress thread.

63.The angle of attack at which a stall occurs:a. Can be varied by increasing the forward speed.b. Can be varied by using flaps and slats.c. Cannot be varied, it is always const.

64.A stick shaker:a. Is an eccentric weight on a rotary electric motor?b. Is a linear actuator which operates to the elevator SYS.c. Vibrates the elevators to back drive the column.

65.A lift transducer is normally fitted:a. To the nose area of the A/C.b. On the elevator control SYS.c. On the wing leading edges.

66.The stalling speed of an A/C:a. Is increased when it is heavier.b. Is increased when it is lighter.c. Doesn’t change.

67.If electrical power is removed from a fly by wire spoiler SYS the spoiler panels would:a. Remain where they are.b. Go to down if any are not already down.c. Go to full up.

68.The follow up transducer is fitted to:a. The pilot's input.b. The computer or controller.c. The HYD jack.

69.The signal/s used by the auto pilot controller from the gyros is/are the:a. Rate signal.b. Deviation signal.c. Rate and deviation signal.

70.The direction of control operation on const. run servo done by:a. Stopping or starting the electric motor.b. 2 directional clutches.c. A gear SYS.

71.The force opposing thrust is:a. Drag.b. Lift.c. Weight.

72.Directional stability is about the:a. Normal axis.b. Longitudinal axis.c. Lateral axis.

73.Longitudinal stability is about the:a. Normal axis.b. Longitudinal axis.c. Lateral axis.

8 .Flap Power Drive Unit


74.Lateral stability is about the:a. Longitudinal axis.b. Normal axis.c. Vertical axis.

75.All the lift can be said to act through the:a. Centre of pressure.b. Centre of gravity.c. Normal axis.

76.Longitudinal stability is provided by the:a. Horizontal stabiliser.b. Vertical stabiliser.c. Mainplanes.

77.Directional stability is provided by the:a. Horizontal stabiliser.b. Vertical stabiliser.c. Mainplanes.

78.Flutter can be reduced by the use of:a. Mass balance.b. Aerodynamic balance.c. The inset hinge.

79.The pilot's effort to move the flying controls can be assisted by a. The use of a Westland Irving control surface.b. The use of mass balancing.c. The use of an adjustment to the mass balance weights.

80.The aerodynamic device that has an adjustable louver is the:a. Inset hinge.b. Horn balance.c. Westland Irving control surface.

81.The control surface which has a rubberised fabric seal between the surfaces that improves efficiency, is the:a. Westland Irving.b. Inset hinge.c. Horn balanced surface.

82.After a repair to a mass balanced control surface the:a. Surface should be aerodynamically tested.b. Mass balance weight must be adjusted.c. Range of movement should be limited.

83.A trim tab is moved by:a. A spring in the linkage.b. The pilot's control column or foot pedals.c. A trim control in the cockpit.

84.Trim tabs may be moved mechanically, or:a. Electrically.b. Hydraulically.c. By the autopilot.

85.A balance tab is moved:a. Electrically.b. Via a fixed linkage.c. From the cockpit.

86.An anti-balance tab is moved:a. Via a fixed linkage.b. When the C.G, changes.c. Hydraulically.


87.Servo tabs are connected directly to:a. A spring mechanism.b. The pilot's control column or foot pedals.c. A control surface by rods.

88.The A/C is controlled about the lateral axis by the:a. Ailerons.b. Rudder.c. Elevator.

89.The A/C is controlled about the normal axis by the:a. Rudder.b. Elevator.c. Ailerons.

90.The A/C is controlled about the longitudinal axis by the:a. Elevator.b. Ailerons.c. Rudder.

91.Aileron drag causes the A/C:a. To oppose the turn.b. Pitch to increase.c. To yaw.

92.Ruddervators when moved, will move:a. Together only.b. Opposite to each other only.c. Either opposite each other or together ,depending on selecte.

93.The stalling of an aerofoil is affected by the:a. Airspeed.b. Angle of attack.c. Transition speed.

94.The main function of a flap is to:a. Lower the stalling speed.b. Raise the stalling speed.c. Increase the take off speed.

95.An automatic slat will lift by itself when angle of attack is:a. High.b. Low.c. High or low.

96.A droop leading edge increases lift by:a. Reducing airflow over the surface of the wing.b. Increasing camber.c. Increasing angle of attack.

97.A split flap increases lift by increasing The:a. Camber of the top surface.b. Surface area.c. Angle of attack of the lower hinged portion.

98.When the trailing edge flaps are lowered, the A/C will:a. Pitch nose down.b. Sink.c. Pitch nose up.

A/C Structures

1. What load is a tie rod designed to accept?


a. Tensile.b. Torsion.c. Bending.

2. A member taking a compression load is called a:a. Beam.b. Cable.c. Strut.

3. The main longitudinal members in a fuselage are called:a. Frames.b. Spars.c. Longerons.

4. Skin panels may be strengthened by:a. Struts.b. Stringers.c. Cleats.

5. The cross-sectional shape of a fuselage is given by:a. Ribs.b. Frames.c. Spars.

6. Which type of ball is of monocoque construction?a. Golf.b. Cricket.c. Table tennis.

7. What is the normal form of construction of a spar?a. Two booms separated by a web.b. One boom mounted under a web.c. Two webs separated by a boom.

8. One purpose of a rib is to:a. Support the bending loads on a fuselage.b. Maintain the correct contour of an aerofoil's covering.c. Form the main lateral member in an aerofoil.

9. A partition within the A/C's structure is called a:a. Bulkhead.b. Frame.c. Cleat.

10.A production break is an American alternative for the British term:

a. Manufacturers joint.b. Manufacturers break.c. Production joint.

11.A component in a large A/C is located at fuselage station number 100. Whereabouts would you look for it?

a. Close to the rear pressure bulkhead.b. Midway along the passenger saloon.c. In the nose wheel bay.

12.A crack stopper is fitted:a. After a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation.b. Before a crack starts, to prevent its initiation.c. Before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation.

13.When deciding the safe life of a component, the effects of…………………………… , …………………………… and ……………………………must be considered.14.A fail safe structure is one that retains, after the …………………………… of a fracture or crack, sufficient ……………………………for the operation of the A/C


with an acceptable standard of ……………………………, until such failure is detected by ……………………,…………………………15.Structural members are designed to carry:

a. Side loads.b. End loads.c. Side loads and end loads.

16.A pylon structural member supports the:a. Empennage.b. Engine.c. Centre section.

17.The structural member that takes the bending loads is the:a. Stringer.b. Frame.c. Longerons.

18.The structural member that is used to give shape to the fuselage construction is the:

a. Longerons.b. Stringer.c. Former.

19.One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is:a. That it is easier to manufacture.b. That it shares the loads.c. That it takes all the loads in the skin.

20.Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of A/C in:a. Inches.b. Feet.c. Feet and inches.

21.In a fully monocoque fuselage all the loads are carried by the:a. Longerons.b. Frames.c. Skin.

22.The box beam spar is constructed of two main members with connecting:

a. Stringers.b. Frames.c. Bulkheads.

23.Crosspieces that make up the wing framework are called:a. Longerons.b. Stringers.c. Ribs.

24.The removable wing tip is fixed to the wing with:a. Solid rivets.b. Pop rivets.c. Screws.

25.The all metal wing with chemically milled channels can be used for:

a. Fuel storage.b. Truss spar construction.c. Plate web spar construction.

26.The spar construction with vertical and diagonal members is called the:

a. Plate web spar.b. Truss spar.


c. Box beam spar.27.The clearance holes in transparent panels are provided to:

a. Allow for the expansion and contraction of the panel.b. Allow ease of alignment during fitting.c. Fit the temperature sensors.

28.Typical limit for the depth of a scratch on a transparent panel which is pressurised is:

a. 001 inches.b. 010 inches.c. 1 inch.

29.Stress crazing may be found on the:a. Tension side of a stressed panel.b. Compression side of a stressed panel.c. Tension or compression side of a stressed panel.

30.Windshields are heated to:a. Prevent misting and icing only.b. Maintain strength and toughness only.c. Demist ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness.

31.If a passenger compartment window is vented to the cabin, the pressure loads are taken by the:

a. Inside panel.b. Outside panel.c. Both the inside and outside panels.

32.The internal doors of an A/C:a. Carry pressure loads.b. Never carry pressure loads.c. Only carry pressure loads when the A/C is at cruise altitude.

33.A pressure door warning light illuminates only when the door is:a. Not fully opened.b. Locked.c. Not locked.

34.If an electrically operated cargo door lifting actuator fails it may be operated:

a. By alternate actuators.b. Manually by winding.c. By electrical ground power.

35.Bending stresses are a combination of:a. Tension and shear stresses.b. Torsion and compression stresses.c. Tension and compression stresses.

36.Joints that designed to stop the propagation of cracks known as:a. Crack limiting joints.b. Fail safe joints.c. Secondary joints.

37.Fatigue meters measure:a. 'G' loads.b. Compression loads only.c. Landing loads only.

38.During the structural sealing of an integral tank, application of the interfay coat is done:

a. Before the joint is made.b. After the joint is made.c. To prevent the joint from flexing.


39.An integral tank rib dam is a:a. Two way check valve.b. Restrictor valve.c. One way check valve.

40.Integral tank wing dams will be found:a. At the centre of the tank.b. On the upper part of the rib.c. On the lower part of the rib.

41.A structure that has been manufactured from a large piece of alloy sheet is known as:

a. A machined structure.b. An integral structure.c. An etched structure.

42.The structural item which prevents longitudinal stress is known as the:

a. Stringer.b. Frame.c. Pressure bulkhead.

43.Passenger windows in pressure cabins consist of:a. Two panes.b. One pane.c. Seven panes.

44.A 'plug' type window is mounted:a. From the inside.b. From the outside.c. Either side.

45.Air is used to seal the cabin door in pressure cabins, the source of this air is:

a. Cabin pressurised air.b. Ambient pressurised air.c. From air storage bottles.

46.Effective sealing of control cables in pressurised cabins is achieved by:

a. Grease packed seals.b. Rubber bellows and bobbins.c. No sealing is required as air losses will be minimum.

47.Soundproofing blankets are normally manufactured from:a. Flax.b. Fibreglass fabric.c. Hessian.

48.Drain valves in pressurised cabins are closed by:a. Spring pressure.b. Rubber strips.c. Cabin air pressure.

49.Drain holes in UN pressurised areas are:a. Always open.b. Always closed.c. Either open or closed.

50.In a bulk cargo compartment installation, the movement of cargo is prevented by:

a. Containers.b. Ropes.c. Netting and webbing straps.


51.One method of assisting the movement of containers in a cargo hold is by:

a. Running the containers on tracks.b. Using roller balls.c. Using chains within a guide SYS.

52.When fitting a close tolerance bolt the:a. Hole is larger than the bolt.b. The bolt is larger than the hole.c. The bolt requires a stiff nut on assembly.

53.Normally the tolerance on a close tolerance bolt is about:a. 002 tolerances.b. 020 tolerances.c. 0002 tolerance.

54.A close tolerance standard hexagon headed bolt is identified by:a. A raised disc on the head.b. An embossed ring on the head.c. By a green dyed finish.

55.During the curing of sealants, heat is applied to accelerate the curing time. The maximum temperature

a. (a)180 Fb. (b) 120 C c. 120 F

56.Which of the following close tolerance fasteners does the hexagon part of the nut torque off?

a. Lock bolt.b. Unified close tolerance bolt.c. Hi-lock fastener.

57.'Faying Surfaces' are:a. Dry assembled joints on integral tanks.b. Surfaces that are wet assembled during manufacture or repair.c. Electrically bonded joints.

58.The Airworthiness Notice that refers co structural surveys is:a. Notice79b. Notice5c. Notice89

59.Structural survey inspections are normally called up by the:a. Manufacturer.b. Operator.c. Maintenance engineer.

60.Structural surveys are normally carried out on:a. High cycle A/C.b. Low cycle A/C.c. Production line A/C.

61.Epoxy primers normally consist of:a. A twin packs material (must be mixed well before use).b. A single pack material (no mixing required).c. A three part material.

GROUND HANDLING

1. The ideal place for jacking an A/C is:a. On firm ground outside.


b. Inside a hangar.c. With the A/C faced into wind.

2. The correct jack for raising the A/C completely is a: a. Tripod jack.b. Bottle jack.c. Single-base jack.

3. The number of places provided for jacking the A/C is:a. Five.b. Three.c. Two plus one for a steady.

4. On collar equipped jacks the collar should be kept within:a. Two threads of the cylinder during lifting.b. Ten threads of the cylinder during lifting.c. Up tight against the cylinder during lifting.

5. Equipment used for tiedowns can be:a. Cables or rods.b. Ropes or cables.c. Chains or rods.

6. A qualified person should be in the cockpit of an A/C to be towed. His function is to:

a. Stop the A/C during normal towing.b. Stop the A/C, using the brakes, only during an emergency.c. Steer the A/C as the A/C is being towed.

7. A tow bar is designed to carry:a. Torsion loads.b. Shear loads.c. Tensile loads.

8. The shear pin on a tow bar is designed to shear if:a. Towing loads become excessive.b. The tug stalls.c. The tug reverses instead of pulling.

9. When towing an A/C the towing should be:a. As fast as possible.b. At a reasonable speed.c. As slow as possible.

10.Servicing checks are grouped into two categories, they are ramp checks and:

a. Major checks.b. Inter-checks.c. Transit checks.

11.The regulations for the marking of A/C are laid down in:a. British Civil Airworthiness Requirements.b. Civil A/C Inspection Procedures.c. The Air Navigation Order.

12.The ANO marking regulations apply to all A/C that:a. Fly over the U.K.b. Are on the British Register.c. Are owned by British Owners.

13.Paint is a general term that applies to:a. Anodising.b. Chromating.c. Lacquers.

14.One drawback to the use of polyurethane paint is that it :


a. Dries too slowly.b. Tends to 'chalk' quickly.c. Is toxic during spraying.

15.In preparation for storage all HYD accumulator must be:a. Topped up with oil.b. Drained of oil.c. Depressurised.

16.The primary purpose of weight and balance control is:a. To prevent overstressing at high speeds.b. For safety.c. For fuel management.

17.The regulations for weight and balance are in:a. BCAR.b. CAIP.c. JAR.

18.The position of the Centre of Gravity is:a. Forward of the forward limit.b. Rear of the rear limit.c. Between the limits.

19.The empty weight of an A/C for the purposes of weighing includes:a. Lavatory pre-charge.b. Engine oil.c. Fresh water.

20.The A/C datum is a vertical plane or point and:a. Must be at the nose of the A/C.b. There is no rule for fixing this position for a particular

type.c. Must pass through the C of G.

Safety equipment

2. Which extinguisher is recommended for brake fires?a. C02.b. Water/glycol.


c. Dry powder.3. What is a typical figure for the minimum resistance of a water activated cell?

a. 1 mega-ohm.b. 5 mega-ohms.c. 10 mega-ohms.

4. Which gas may be used for the inflation of an escape chute?a. CO2.b. Oxygen.c. Helium.

5. What is a typical 'life' for fire installation components?a. 5yearb. 3 yearc. 1 year

6. What weight may be found stamped on the neck of an extinguisher?a. Empty.b. Charge.c. Empty plus charge.

7. On a passenger carrying A/C an obstruction to a door is:a. Never permitted.b. Permitted on internal doors.c. Permitted on outward opening exits.

8. Under which flight conditions over water is it necessary to carry life jackets?

a. For all flights.b. Those beyond sight of land.c. Those beyond gliding distance of land.

9. How are defects on a life jacket marked for identification?a. Blue crayon.b. Pencil.c. White chalk.

10. If a harness is to be repaired the new stitching must:a. Be superimposed on the original line of stitching.b. Not be parallel to the original line of stitching.c. Be parallel to but not superimposed on the original line of stitching.

11. What is used to clean safety belts?a. Warm water and an approved solvent.b. Warm water and a mild, acid-free soap.c. M.E.K.

12. What proportion of the certified strength of a safety belt should be imposed as a test load?

a. Double.b. Half.c. Treble.

13. The technical crew are provided with seat restraints that have:a. Two anchor points.b. Three anchor points.c. Four anchor points.

14. Cabin crew seat belts are fitted with:a. Inertia reels.


b. Inertia reels if the seats are beside an emergency exit.c. Quick release buckles.

OXYGEN

1. What is the nominal pressure of a high pressure storage cylinder?a. 2800 psi.b. 1800 psi.c. 3000 psi.

2. High pressure oxygen cylinders are manufactured from:a. Light alloy.b. Brass.c. High tensile steel.

3. Supply lines in the high pressure oxygen SYS manufactured from:a. Aluminium alloy.b. Titanium.c. Stainless steel.

4. Oxygen cylinders manufactured in Great Britain are colour coded:a. Black with a white top.b. Green with a white top.c. Grey with O written in white paint.

5. The check to see if a chemical generator has been fired is to:a. Check the quantity gauge.b. Examine the temperature sensitive tape.c. Weigh the generator and compare its weight with the manufactured

weight.6. What is the purpose of the cylinder shut off valve?

a. To prevent leakage when oxygen is not used.b. To facilitate bottle removal.c. To allow for pressure relief during charging.

7. Oxygen is available at the passenger masks:a. As soon as the masks drop.b. When the pilot deploys the emergency oxygen.c. When the passengers pull the mask to their faces.

8. On a pneumatically deployed drop-out SYS the electrical solenoid is used:a. To open PSU doors that has failed to drop using the pneumatic

SYS.b. Should the pilot require opening the PSU doors pneumatically?c. To prevent the PSU doors dropping even with an excessive cabin

altitude.9. Oxygen flow is controlled relative to cabin altitude on a

pneumatically operated SYS by:a. An aneroid capsule which is exposed to cabin pressure.b. The cabin pressurisation SYS.c. Linking the A/C altimeter to the oxygen pneumatic electric flow

regulator.10. The material used for low pressure therapeutic oxygen bottles:

a. Brass.b. Light alloy steel.c. Tungsten.

11. The tape over the on/off valve of a therapeutic bottle is used:


a. To prevent inadvertent operation whilst in the storage compartment.

b. To indicate the HI outlet.c. To prevent leaks from the unused outlet.

12. What indications would the pilot get if automatic deployment had taken place?a. The pilot's masks would have dropped.b. An altitude horn would sound.c. A light on the flight deck instrument panel would illuminate.

13. What stops inadvertent operation of drop-out oxygen equipment?a. The switch and manual handle are guarded.b. The switch is in a hidden position.c. There is nothing to stop inadvertent operation.

14. At what cabin altitude would automatic drop-out occur?a. 10,000 ftb. 35,000 ftc. 14,000 ft

15. In order to isolate bottles it is normal to incorporate a:a. Non return valve.b. ON/OFF manual valve.c. A pressure regulator valve.

16. Oxygen masks are left plugged into the regulator:a. To prevent leaks from the regulator.b. For storage requirements.c. To enable the mask to operate as soon as it is fitted.

17. Reservoir bags on passenger masks are for:a. Storing an immediate supply of oxygen.b. To take exhaled air from the users mouth.c. To make up the loss of oxygen due to the poorly fitted mask.

18. The smoke set can be used in cases of decompression due to:a. The full face mask.b. Its portability.c. Automatic altitude compensation regulator.

19. How is oxygen prevented from escaping into the flight deck when the normal/100% lever on the regulator is at normal?a. The normal/100% lever covers the air hole.b. By a screw blank.c. By a NRV.

20. Oxygen is supplied to the mask only when the user breathes in by the action of:a. A diaphragm deflected by reduction of pressure.b. A check valve in the mask.c. The operation of the ON/OFF switch.

21. The quantity of oxygen that the cylinders are capable of carrying depends on:a. How long the A/C can remain airborneb. How many passenger and crew can be carriedc. The maximum altitude the A/C designed to fly at

22. Supply lines in the cabin distribution ring main are made from:a. Stainless steelb. Brassc. Light alloy

23. Oxygen is available at the passenger drop down masks:


a. as soon as the mask s have droppedb. When the crew switch the oxygen on c. When the oxygen mask is pulled after drop down

24. The colour coded tape for oxygen pipelines has:a. Black rectangles and green colure bandb. Black diamonds and green colure bandc. Green rectangles and black colure band

25. What is the purpose of the cylinder shut off valve:a. To prevent over chargingb. To prevent leakage when changing the bottlec. To prevent leakage during parking of the A/C

26. PSU ( pressure service unit ) are automatically opened when cabin altitude exceeds:a. 10000 ftb. 34000 ftc. 14000 ft

27. Why can't medical oxygen be used to replenish an A/C SYSa. It is not pure enoughb. It contains too much moisturec. It contains additives

28. Permanent brain demand can occur through lack of oxygen , this condition is called:a. Hypoxiab. Asphyxiac. Anoxia

29. What is mean by the minimum dispatch pressure:a. The least oxygen needed for the number of passenger and crew for

the duration of the flightb. The minimum oxygen contents the A/C can containc. The amount of oxygen that must be left in a cylinder to prevent

water ingress30. Aviation oxygen is:

a. 100% pureb. 90% purec. 99.5% pure

31. purging oxygen SYS is carried out toa. Purify the SYS and rid it of moistureb. Ensure correct operation of the oxygen SYSc. Remove water from the cylinders

32. if grease water found on an oxygen valve you were about to fit, you should:a. clean the grease off with a clean lint-free ragb. Use a rag dipped in mentholated spirits and allow the valve to

dry thoroughlyc. Reject the valve

BAGGAGE

1. What is used to prevent dirt entering the balls on the transfer panels?a. They are packed with grease.


b. No protection.c. A wiper ring.

2. Where are fixed load stops fitted?a. At the ends of the container compartment.b. At each container position.c. On the side guide rollers.

3. If the joy stick is moved aft what will happen to the lateral guides?a. Forward guides erect, aft guides erect.b. Forward guides erect, aft guides retract.c. Forward guides retract, aft guides erect.

4. The aft PDU switch position is used:a. For all container loadings.b. For fwd bay loading only.c. For aft bay loading only.

5. When the eight position switch is in the (mid) neutral position the PDUs will:a. Rise ready but will not rotate.b. Retract and not rotate.c. Retract but rotate ready to be raised.

6. Before applying electrical power to the cargo loading SYS you should ensure that:a. No mechanical locks are engaged on an electrically powered

component.b. Mechanical locks are all secure.c. All guides are down.

7. On a container with a vinyl curtain loading door, how is the curtain secured after loading?a. No need for securing.b. By bolts.c. By straps and buckles.

8. When the passenger floor level on a cargo A/C is used for containers it is referred to as:a. Passenger floor.b. Main deck.c. Upper level.

9. Containers can be designated LD - LD stands for:a. The manufacturer's initials.b. The size of the container.c. Containers designed for the lower cargo compartment.

10. Cargo nets are usually constructed from:a. Nylon or polyester.b. Hessian rope.c. Plastic strap.

11. Why must the weight of cars be checked before loading onto a four automobile pallet?a. To ensure that the wheelbase chocks are correctly positioned.b. Because the upper and lower tiers can carry different weights.c. To ensure that the A/C floor loading is not exceeded.


12. The transport document should be given to the A/C commander if his A/C is carrying dangerous goods:a. Prior to the flight.b. After the flight has been safely completed.c. It is not given to the A/C commander.

Air Conditioning

1. An air to air heat exchanger is provided to:a. Reduce the air supply temperature.b. Increase the air supply temperature.c. Provide an emergency ram air supply.

2. temperature control is achieved by:a. controlling the water vapour in the SYSb. varying the ambient air through the heat exchangerc. regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling SYS

3. if pressurisation air ( air conditioning air ) supplies come from a cabin air blower, an internal oil leak will:a. contaminate the airb. not contaminate the airc. have no effect on the cabin as it will be vented over board

4. cold air unit produce a drop in temperature by:a. directing compressed air into a hest exchangerb. expanding hot air across a turbine that is driving a compressorc. by-passing the air conditioning heating SYS

5. A cabin blower is device which:a. removes stale air from a cabinb. control the output of the compressorc. providing compressed air for cabin pressurization

6. When cold air is selected the charge air passes through:a. A pre-cooler onlyb. A pre-cooler and a cold air unitc. A heat exchanger

7. Heating for pressure cabin is obtained:a. from the air supply heated by the pressurising processb. Only by adding heat to the air by electrical meansc. from a tapping from the engine exhaust SYS

8. The coolant normally used in vapour cycle cooling packages is: a. Arcton. b. Water/glycol mixturec. Ram air

9. the condenser converts the super heated gas to a liquid , this is achieved by using:a. Ram airb. Water/glycolc. Freon

10.The amount of the refrigerant passing through the evaporator is controlled by :a. The expansion valveb. A fluid restrictor


c. A pressure regulator11.This liquid in the sensing bulb and capillary tube is:

a. Waterb. Oilc. Similar to the SYS refrigerant

12.If the sensing bulb and capillary tube lost its sensing liquid, the vapour cycle cooling package woulda. Run hotb. Run coldc. Not be affected

13.The purpose of the turbine in the cold air unit is to a. Reduce the air temperatureb. Increase the air temperaturec. Provide additional cooling for the heat exchanger

14.In the air cycle cooling SYS an increase in charge air temperature is provided by the :a. Turbineb. Intercoolerc. Compressor

15.Air leaving the turbine of the cold air unit flows to the a. Intercoolerb. Cabinc. Compressor

16.In the cold air unit, the turbine rotates within aa. Nozzle ringb. Diffuser ringc. Pressure ring

17.In a brake turbine cold air unit, the compressor is subjected to a. Ram air b. Ambient airc. Charging air

18.The cooling medium for heat conversion through the heat exchangers isa. Ram airb. Charge airc. Ambient air

19.The water extractor is normally located:a. Before the cold air unitb. Between the cold air unit and the outlet to the cabin c. Between the cold air unit compressor and turbine

20.An air to air heat exchanger is provided to:a. Reduce the air supply temperatureb. Increase the air supply temperaturec. Provide an emergency ram air supply

21.the most common method by which cabin humidity is increased is: a. To inject water into the cabin blower.b. To Use an atomizing spray of water into the conditioned air as

it enters the cabin.c. To Use a venture humidifier

22.A pre-cooler unit is normally a: a. Heat exchangerb. Mechanical refrigerant devicec. Cooling fan within the SYS


23.A water separator should be installed in a pressurisation SYS toa. Collect any rain accompanying the ram airb. Extract a water from the cabin before it is discharged to

atmospherec. extract surplus water from the charge air

24.Secondary heat exchanger are located a. Between the compressor of the cooled air unit and the A/C engine

compressorb. Between cooled air unit compressor outlet and turbine inletc. After the water separator

25.In a typical duct leakage protection SYS sensor, an increase in temperature will cause : a. An increase in resistance. b. A decrease in resistance. c. No effect upon the sensing element.

26.The function of the pack flow control valve when- the recirculation fan is running is to: a. Reduce the amount of air from the engine compressor. b. Open the fan air valve 50%. c. Increase the amount of air being drawn from the engine

compressor. 27.To ensure the correct mixing of the conditioned air, the mixing

chamber has: a. Jet pumps. b. Baffles. c. Swirl devices.

28.When installing overheat sensors, the recommended minimum radii for bends is: a. 3 inches. b. 0.5 inch. c. 6 inches.

29.Recirculation SYS filters are located: a. Before the recirculation fan. b. After the recirculation fan.c. On the outlet of the manifold duct.

Pneumatic Systems

1. 8th stage air cannot pressurise the 13th stage of the compressor because:


a. Of check valves.b. Of the HPSOV.c. HP stage is higher pressure than LP stage air.

2. The isolation valve%:a. Remains closed unless a cross feed of bleed air are required.b. Will automatically open if a bleed air overheat occurs.c. Is operated through air/ground sense.

3. A leaking pneumatic duct:a. Will cause overheating of adjacent structure.b. Will cause pressure to drop so the HPSOV will open.c. Will cause the engine to increase in rpm to make up loss of pressure.

4. Overpressure is usually caused by:a. Engine rpm too high.b. Excessive bleeds switched on.c. HPSOV seized open.

5. If the heat exchanger flow valve is closed the bleed air temperature is:

a. Too hot.b. Too cool.c. At the correct temperature.

6. The pneumatic bleed air thermostat controls:a. The heat exchanger flow valve.b. The bleed valve.c. The HPSOV.

7. A PRSOV is:a. A shut off valve and regulator combined.b. A shut off valve with high pressure regulator combined.c. A shut off valve only.

8. on a dual needle pneumatic pressure gauge:a. One needle measures HP stage and one LP stage.b. One needle is a back up for the other.c. One needle measures the left SYS the other needle measured the right SYS.

9. What material are the engine bleed air ducts made from?a. Titanium.b. Stainless Steel.c. Aluminium.

10.If a flexible ball joint was found to be leaking what would be your first action?

a. Change the duct section.b. Replace the bearing nut.c. Dismantle, measures the gap and replace the seal, then carry out a leak check.

11.If Skydrol comes in contact with hot titanium bleed air ducts the results would be:

a. Brittleness and corrosion to the duct.b. No appreciable damage.c. The ducts will crack at the welds.


12.If the pressure regulation SYS on a ground car malfunctions how a rise in duct will pressure be contained?

a. Weak sections in the duct will relieve the pressure.b. A relief valve fitted to the ground cart will function.c. The pressure regulation SYS of the bleed air SYS will regulate the pressure.

Ice & rain protection

1. Thermal anti-ice Systems work on the principle of:a. Pumping air through tubes to change the shape of the

aerofoil to break off the ice.b. Heating the leading edge surfaces to raise their

temperature to prevent the formation of ice.c. Heating the boundary layer to blow warm air over all the

lift surfaces.2. the most common source of hot air for TAI is:

a. A gas turbine compressor bleeds.b. An electric heating element in the leading edge.c. Heated de-icing fluid sprayed over the leading edge.

3. Auto/manual Systems are:a. Used by the ground crew prior to take off.b. Set by the pilot when icing conditions are met.c. Used by a flight engineer.

4. On a ground test of a TAI SYS an overheat of the leading edge surfaces is prevented by:

a. Vigilance by the engineer carrying out the run.b. Temperature switches which will close the TAI valves.c. Cool air being blown over the surfaces to act as airflow.

5. The temperature at which ice formation is likely to occur is:a. At freezing point.b. Below +10°C.c. Below +10°F.

6. The hot rod ice detector lamp on flight deck illuminates when:a. Ice is detected.b. When visible moisture is present.c. The pilot selects it.

7. Heating elements in ice detectors are used:a. To clear the mast enabling further monitoring to take place.b. To keep the mast clear of ice at all times.c. To prevent the blockage of pressure holes by ice.

8. The operation of the serrated rotor detector relies upon:a. A speed sensing switch.b. A torque sensing switch.c. A pressure sensing switch.

9. The serrated sleeve on the output of the wipe mechanism, allows the blade arm to:

a. Be adjusted for blade tension.b. Reposition the blade sweep.c. Be replaced without tools.

10.If the sweep of Hydraulically operated wipers is insufficient, your first action would be to:


a. Change the wiper heads.b. Move the blade arm on the serrated sleeve.c. Bleed the wiper SYS.

11.The pressure required to spray rain repellent on the windscreen comes from:

a. A pre-pressurised canister.b. The A/C pneumatic ducting.c. The A/C's air stream.

12.Blade tension should be checked with:a. Feeler gauges to measure the gap between the blade and the windscreen.b. A spring balance.c. There is no need as the wiper arm can be bent towards the screen.

13.Glass always used as the outer layer of a heated windscreen to:a. Give the window strength.b. Resist bird strikes.c. Prevent scratching.

14.On an air ducted SYS with a forward duct this duct is used to:a. Heat the screen.b. Disperse rain.c. Anti-ice the forward part of the A/C's nose.

15.If the conductive coating is close to the outer pane, the main function of the coating is to:

a. Plasticise.b. Demist.c. De-ice.

16.Windscreen heat assists impact resistance by:a. Making the vinyl more flexible.b. Making the glass more flexible.c. Allowing the A/C to fly at higher altitudes.

17.Heating elements are fitted on Pitot probes to the:a. Pitot head.b. Pitot mast.c. Pitot head and mast.

18.A green indicator light on the crew panel indicates:a. That power is on the Pitot heater.b. The heater is being thermostatically controlled.c. There is no heat at the Pitot heater.

19.Static plates are usually unheated because:a. They are not as necessary as Pitot probes.b. They do not project into the air stream.c. Holes are used instead of slots.

20.Drain mast heaters are powered:a. On the ground only.b. When the heaters are switched on.c. All the time the A/C's electrical SYS is powered.

Pressurization

1. In the International Standard Atmosphere, the temperature is assumed to remain const. above an altitude of:


a. 36,090 ft.b. 26,090 ft.c. 56,090 ft.

2. Air consists of:a. 78% nitrogen, 20% hydrogen, 2% other gases.b. 90% oxygen, 6% nitrogen, 4% other gases.c. 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% other gases.

3. With an increase in altitude:a. Pressure increases and temperature decreases.b. Both pressure and temperature increase.c. Both pressure and temperature decrease.

4. Which of the following statements concerning humidity is correct?a. Humidity decreases with decreasing temperature.b. Humidity increases with decreasing temperature.c. Humidity increases with increasing altitude.

5. What is the main cause of anoxia?a. Low atmospheric pressure.b. Lack of oxygen.c. Low temperature.

6. Pressurisation leaks from the fuselage are most detrimental to the smooth flow of air when they are located:a. At the rear of the fuselage.b. At the front of the fuselage.c. At either the front or rear pressure bulkheads.

7. Cabin differential pressure is the difference between:a. 8,000 ft and sea level.b. ISA conditions and A/C altitude.c. Cabin pressure and ambient pressure.

8. When a mechanical linkage passes through pressure bulkheads it:a. Must always be pressure sealed.b. Need only be sealed if motion is linear.c. Need only be sealed if motion is rotary.

9. Stressed skin construction of pressurised A/C is:a. A method of fitting the skin by applying tension.b. A structure in which the skin takes part of the applied loads.c. A process in which the skin and stringers are machined from the

solid.10. Cabin differential pressure is the difference between:

a. 8,000 ft. and sea level.b. ISA conditions and A/C altitude.c. Cabin pressure and ambient pressure.

11. During a normal pressurised climb following take-off:a. The cabin ROC is less than ambient ROC.b. The cabin ROC is more than ambient ROC.c. The differential pressure is const.

12. Cabin altitude in pressurised flight is the:a. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the

altitude of the A/C.b. Altitude at which cabin altitude equals ambient air pressure.


c. Pressure altitude of the cabin as corrected to mean sea level ISA conditions.

13. The purpose of a spill valve in a cabin air supply SYS is:a. To provide additional heating.b. To spill overboard excess air delivered at sea level and low

altitudes.c. To relieve the pressure in the air supply ducting to atmosphere.

14. Cabin pressurisation is achieved by:a. Controlling the supply of air to the cabin.b. Controlling the amount of air released from the cabin.c. Varying the output of the compressor.

15. The purpose of a mass flow controller is to:a. Ensure that a const. mass of air is delivered to the cabin at

all times.b. Allow the pilot to select the desired cabin altitude.c. Ensure that there is an adequate supply of cool Air through the

heat exchangers.16. A cabin supercharger or 'blower' is a device which:

a. Removes stale air from the cabin.b. Keeps electronic and galley equipment cool.c. Provides compressed air for cabin pressurisation purposes.

17. The purpose of a spill valve is to:a. Provide additional heat by creating back pressure.b. Release excess air being delivered at sea level and the lower

altitudes.c. Relieve excess pressure in the air supply ducting.

18. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by:a. Expanding hot air across a turbine which drives a compressor.b. Expanding cold air over a compressor which drives a turbine.c. Passing ram air across the matrix of a heat exchanger.

19. Heating of pressurised A/C cabins is obtained by:a. Supply air which is heated by the process of pressurisation.b. Passing supply air through a heat exchanger.c. Tapping the turbine section of a turbo-jet engine.

20. The control of ventilating and pressurising air being released from the A/C is achieved by the:a. Pressure controller/discharge valve combination.b. Pressure controller/dump valve combination.c. Discharge valve/inwards relief valve combination.

21. In a pneumatic pressurisation SYS, positive pressure signals from the controller will cause:a. The discharge valve to move towards closed.b. The discharge valve to move towards open.c. An excessive rate of cabin air discharge.

22. In an electrically operated pressurisation SYS, air pressure signals entering the controller are converted to electrical signals by:a. AN AUTO/MANUAL switch on the control panel.b. A transducer.c. A potentiometer.


23. Electrically driven discharge valves are usually equipped with more than one motor. The reason for this is:a. To provide the extra power needed to drive large valves against

the high mass of air used in large jets.b. That more motors provide for finer adjustment of the valve

position.c. To provide a means of back up if a particular motor or its

electrical supply fails.24. Inward relief valves will operate when:

a. Depressurising the A/C after descent.b. Cabin altitude exceeds A/C altitude.c. A/C altitude exceeds cabin altitude.

25. Cabin differential pressure is the difference between:a. 8,000 ft and sea level.b. ISA conditions and A/C altitude.c. Cabin pressure and ambient pressure.

26. During a normal pressurised climb following take-off:a. The cabin ROC is less than the A/C's ROC.b. The cabin ROC is more than the A/C's ROC.c. The ROC is const..

27. Failure of the normal Max. Diff. control is catered for by fitting:a. Safety relief valves.b. Inward relief valves.c. Altitude selector valves.

28. Cabin altitude during pressurised flight is:a. The altitude at which cabin altitude equals ambient pressure.b. The pressure altitude of the cabin corrected to mean sea level

conditions.c. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the

altitude of the A/C.29. A ditching control is used to:

a. Close all valves and inlets.b. Rapidly inflate flotation bags.c. Rapidly depressurise the cabin.

30. A dump valve may be used to:a. Close the discharge valves when ditching.b. Rapidly reduce cabin altitude.c. Clear the cabin of smoke or fumes.

31. If the dump valve was inadvertently left open, the cabin would:a. Fail to pressurise.b. Be pressurised to a lower altitude.c. Be pressurised to a higher altitude.

32. In an electrically controlled pressurisation SYS, manual operation of the discharge valves is achieved:a. Mechanically.b. Electrically.c. Pneumatically.

33. Manual control of the pressurisation SYS is provided to:


a. Allow for ground pressure tests.b. Cater for failure of the SYS to operate automatically.c. Minimise inaccuracies which occur during automatic operation.

34. Hollow section pressurised area door seals usually inflated by:a. A small nitrogen gas cylinder fitted to each door.b. The difference in pressure between cabin and ambient.c. Using the A/C's pneumatic SYS.

35. Leakage of cabin pressure through a damaged door or hatch seal has a noticeable effect on A/C performance, particularly if the door is located:a. Near the front of the A/C.b. At the rear of the A/C.c. Immediately behind the wing areas.

36. Pressurisation loads on the door are transmitted to the fuselage structure:a. Via the door seal.b. Through the door latches or pins.c. Only on doors of the plug type.

37. Door unsafe warnings are usually only operated when:a. The cabin is pressurised.b. The cabin is un-pressurised.c. The door locking mechanism is not fully locked.

38. Door pressure locks are usually fitted to:a. Prevent the door from being opened whenever the cabin is

pressurised.b. Automatically lock the doors when the cabin is pressurised.c. Automatically unlock the doors when the cabin is de-pressurised.

39. In pressurising A/C, temperature control is mainly achieved by a. Adding heat to the pressurising airb. Extracting heat from the pressurising airc. Varying the cabin pressure

40. Failure of the normal maximum differential pressure control is catered for by:a. Cabin safety relief valveb. Inward relief valvesc. Spill valves

41. Inward relief valves are usually set to operate a negative differential ofa. psib. psic. psi

Basic electrics

1. The unit of electric current is the ………………………..2. E.M.F. is measured in:

a. Ohms.


b. Farads.c. Volts.

3. The farad is the unit of ………………………..4. When heated the resistance of most conductors will:

a. Increase.b. Decrease.c. Remain the same.

5. If the cross sectional area of a conductor is doubled its resistance will be:

a. Doubled.b. Halved.c. Unchanged.

6. If the total resistance of a circuit is increased the power will:a. Increase.b. Decrease.c. Remain unchanged.

7. The unit of resistance is the:a. Volt.b. Ohm.c. Amp.

8. Current flow refers to:a. Electrons in motion.b. Stationary electrons.c. Moving atoms.

9. Free electrons may be liberated easily in:a. Conductors.b. Insulators.c. Semi-conductors.

10. The resistance of a conductor with a negative temperature coefficient will:

a. Increase with an increase in temperature.b. Decrease with an increase in temperature.c. Fall if the temperature is decreased.

11. One of the materials used for A/C wire conductors is:a. Tinned aluminium.b. Nickel plated steel.c. Tinned copper strand.

12. The wire in the wire wound resistance is wound around a:a. Metal base.b. Porcelain base.c. Silicon base.

13. The colour bands of the resistor marking code are always read from:

a. The end to the centre.b. Left to right.c. The centre to the end.

14. A rheostat is used to vary:a. Voltage.b. Current flow.c. Capacitance.

15. A potentiometer is used to vary:a. Voltage.


b. Capacitance.c. Current flow.

16. The core of a transformer which provides for the magnetic flux is made from:

a. A non-ferrous metal.b. Iron.c. Stainless steel.

17. Fuses are rated in:a. Amps.b. Volts.c. Watts.

18. A current limiter will be able to carry an overload:a. for a short period of time.b. continuously.c. in the same way as a fuse does.

19. If a fuse is rated at 10 amps and is 33 S.W.G. a fuse rated at 20 amps will have a thickness of:

a. 28 S.W.G.b. 38 S.W.G.c. 42 S.W.G.

20. In a moveable coil relay:a. the core is moveable.b. part of the core is moveable.c. the armature is moveable.

21. The target of the reed switch is a:a. Mica strip.b. Magnet.c. Ferrous plate.

22. The current is applied to the commutator of electric motor via:a. Brushes.b. Terminals.c. Field coils.

23. Back E.M.F. is proportional to speed of rotation and: a. Supply voltage.b. Brush resistance.c. Flux density.

24. The electromagnetic field windings are in parallel with the armature loops in a:

a. Shunt motor.b. Series motor.c. Compound motor and series motor.

25. The difference between field rotation speed and the speed of the rotor in an induction motor is called the:

a. Phase speed.b. Phase lag.c. Slip speed.

26. In a synchronous motor the field revolves:a. Exactly in step with the rotor.b. In front of the rotor.c. Behind the rotor.

27. If an actuator brake coil is open-circuited the actuator will:a. Run at reduced speed.


b. Overrun.c. Stop.

Electrical

1. The correct electrolyte for a lead acid battery is:a. Potassium hydroxide.b. Lead peroxide.c. Sulphuric acid.

2. Battery voltage is measured with:a. A voltmeter.b. An ammeter.c. A wattmeter.

3. A Ni-Cad battery consists of 19, 1.2 volt cells. What will the nominal battery output be?

a. 20 Vb. 22 Vc. 24 V

4. The correct neutralizing agent used in a lead acid battery is : a. Bicarbonate of soda.b. Potassium hydroxide.c. Water.

5. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is:a. Const. voltage.b. Const. current.c. Const. speed.

6. The output of a DC. generator is controlled by varying the:a. Engine speed.b. Armature current.c. Field current.

7. The output of a light A/C's alternator is:a. A DC. Voltage.b. Single phase AC.c. 3 phase AC.

8. The 3 phase voltage generated within an alternator is converted to DC. by:

a. The voltage regulator.b. The rotating diodes.c. The armature.

9. The generator output can be measured by using:a. A voltmeter.b. An ammeter.c. A tachometer.

10. The CSD ensures that:a. The engine speed remains const..b. The generator is adequately cooled.c. The generator speed remains const..

11. Which of these factors affecting the output voltage of a DC. generator is normally controlled?


a. Field current.b. The number of conductors in the armature.c. Generator speed.

12. In a carbon pile regulator the core resistance is varied by:a. A spring.b. Generator load current.c. Electro-magnetic force.

13. Generator load sharing is applicable to:a. AC. and DC. Generators.b. AC. generators only.c. DC. Generators only.

14. In an AC. generator SYS, reactive load sharing is achieved by controlling:

a. Generator speed.b. Generator field current.c. Generator current.

15. Real load is measured in:a. Watts.b. Volt amps.c. Joules.

16. Output voltage levels from a rotary inverter are controlled by:a. Varying the speed of the DC. Motor.b. Adjustment of the output voltage of each phase.c. Varying the generator field excitation current.

17. The output frequency of an inverter is controlled by:a. Varying the speed of the DC. Motor.b. Varying the generator field current.c. Switching the DC. Supply.

18. The output voltage is measured by:a. An ammeter.b. A voltmeter.c. An annunciator.

19. Static inverters are usually employed to provide :a. Emergency power to essential loads.b. Continuous power to flight instruments.c. Emergency power to instruments in the event of inverter

failure.20. The output frequency of a static inverter is:

a. 50 Hz.b. 400 Hz.c. 1500 Hz.

21. The number of circuits which can be completed through the poles of a switch is identified by the term:

a. Toggle.b. Throw.c. Position.

22. A relay with a moving core is usually known as a:a. Solenoid.b. Polarised relay.c. Proximity switch.

23. In a moving coil meter, the coil is wound on to:a. A permanent magnet.


b. Part of the control springs.c. An iron core, which is pivoted.

24. What is the colour of a warning light?a. Red.b. Amber.c. Blue.

25. How is an ammeter connected to measure generator load?a. In parallel with the load.b. In an open circuit with the load.c. In series with the load.

26. Larger sizes of aluminium cables when installed:a. Save weight.b. Are more reliable.c. Use less space.

27. Which is the largest wire size for A/C use?a. 40 AWG.b. 1 AWG.c. 00 AWG.

28. Crimped terminals are more satisfactory because:a. Special tools are not required.b. Conductor flexibility is retained.c. A skilled engineer must carry out the crimp.

29. Attachment of conductors to pin and socket contacts is mainly done by:

a. Crimping.b. Soldering.c. Adhesive.

30. Aluminium conductors are terminated with lugs made from:a. Copper.b. stainless steelc. Aluminium copper alloy.

Work Shop Tool

1. A grid plate and plumb-bob is used for checking:a. Position of centre of gravity.b. A/C centre line.c. Longitudinal and lateral levels.

2. The air release valve on a jack is:a. Open all the time except when the jack is stored.b. Never opened.c. Open when the jack ram is moving.

3. The A/C maximum jacking weight is found:a. In the operations manual.b. On a steel plate beside the entry door.c. In the maintenance manual.

4. The lack of a grease nipple on a bearing means that:a. It requires no lubrication.b. It needs to be dismantled to lubricate it.c. It is sprayed with oil.

5. How are files classified?a. By length, grade and material.


b. By length, grade, cut and section.c. By length, grade, cut, section and material.

6. Hammers are classified by:a. Shape of head and length of shaft.b. Weight and length of shaft.c. Weight and type of head.

7. What does the term 'second cut1 indicate as applied to hand files?a. The grade of file.b. A reconditioned file.c. The section of a file.

8. What does the 'cut' of a file mean?a. The arrangement of the teeth.b. The degree of coarseness of the teeth.c. The shape of the section of the file.

9. When is a coarse hacksaw blade used?a. When cutting material of thin cross section.b. When cutting material of thick cross section.c. When cutting ferrous metals only.

10. When using a reamer, in which direction should, it be turned?a. Anti-clockwise when cutting and removing.b. Clockwise when cutting and removing.c. Clockwise when cutting and anti-clockwise when removing.

11. What comprises a full set of B.A. taps?a. A taper, second and plug tap.b. A taper and plug tap.c. A taper and second tap.

12. A combination spanner provides:a. Different size open jaws at each end.b. Different size rings at each end.c. Open jaws at one end and a ring at the other.

13. How are pliers classified?a. By jaw size and overall length.b. By type and thickness of jaws.c. By type and overall length.

14. The screws in a die stock are used to:a. Hold the die in the stock.b. Hold and adjust the die.c. Completely close the gap of a split die.

Work shop practices

1. Solders are available in two forms:a. Stick solder with a flux core and solder in a wire form having

a flux core.


b. Stick solder needing a separate flux and solder in wire form having a flux core.

c. Solder in a wire form needing a separate flux and stick solder needing no flux at all.

2. General purpose solders are an alloy of:a. Rosin, tin and lead.b. Tin, soft iron and lead.c. Tin, antimony and lead.

3. General purpose solders are graded by:a. A colour coding.b. A letter coding.c. A numerical coding.

4. Silver solder melts within the range:a. 200°C - 400°C.b. 400°C - 550°C.c. 600°C - 850°C.

5. A/C are cleaned to:a. Provide a clean working environment.b. Help prevent corrosion.c. Meet the requirements of the manual.

6. Which method of painting would be used on large areas but where dust would be a problem?

a. Brushing.b. Spraying.c. Rolling.

7. Electrolyte spillage from an A/C battery is:a. Treated with water and then cleaned with wire wool.b. Treated with a neutralising agent and then reprotected.c. Left to vent in normal atmospheric conditions.

8. Where should inflammable liquids be stored?a. In a special cupboard in the workshop.b. Anywhere as long as it is out of the sunlight.c. in a special store outside the workshop area.

9. What is the main precaution when handling oxygen equipment?a. Wear goggles.b. Ensure tools are clean.c. Keep oil and grease away from threads.

10. When manhandling light A/C where should the force be applied?a. On the leading edges.b. On the engine mountings.c. Anywhere as long as it is not fabric skin.

11. The most suitable place to store a complete A/C is:a. In a cool dry hangar.b. In the open air provided it was fully covered.c. In the open air with tyres, cockpit and engine covers fitted.

Common parts

1. Which of the following locking devices can be used more than once?a. Split pin.b. Tab washer.


c. Locking plate.2. How often can a spring washer be used?

a. Indefinitely as long as it fits the bolt.b. Indefinitely as long as it hasn't lost its tension and/or bite.c. Only twice.

3. How many threads should protrude through a stiff nut for safety?a. None.b. One.c. At least one and a half.

4. What action is taken with a common type of circlip removed from a component?a. It is replaced with a new item on assembly.b. It is examined for distortion.c. It is checked for springiness.

5. Nicks around the edge of the head of a bolt indicate:a. Light alloy.b. High tensile steel.c. Low tensile cold forged.

6. If the turn buckles in a control SYS are tightened excessively the result would be that:a. The cable will break.b. The A/C will be heavy on controls.c. The cables will vibrate excessively and cause failure of

controls.7. What is the purpose of a lay line on a flexible hose?

a. To indicate any twisting of the pipe.b. To indicate the type of pipe.c. To indicate the manufacturer.

8. A roller bearing is designed to take:a. Thrust loads.b. Horizontal loads.c. Vertical loads.

9. A bearing employing parallel tracks is a:a. Plain bearing.b. Ball bearing.c. Roller bearing.

10.When installing a bearing:a. A tubular copper drift should be used.b. a steel tubular drift should be used,c. A plastic tubular drift should be used.

11.An international pipe line marking containing a series of squares indicates:a. De-icing.b. Fuel.c. Lubricating.

12.Pipe lines are made from materials that are resistant to corrosion. This material is:a. Tungum.b. Stainless steel.c. Aluminium.


13.The flare angle on British Rigid Pipelines is:a. 32°.b. 42°.c. 60°.

14.On a flexible hose, how is the effective length of the hose measured?a. From end fitting to end fitting.b. Length of the rubber flexible outer case only.c. Total length including all angle fittings.

Gases & Compounds

1. If the pressure of a mass of gas is decreased at const. temperature:a. Its volume will increase.b. Its volume will decrease.c. There will be no change in volume.

2. If the temperature of a mass of gas is decreased at const. pressure:a. Its volume will increase.b. Its volume will decrease.c. There will be no change in volume.

3. Boyle's Law relates change in volume of mass of gas to a change in:a. Density.b. Temperature.c. Pressure.

4. Charles' Law relates a change in volume of a mass of gas to a change in:a. Density.b. Temperature.c. Pressure.

5. The combined gas laws can be written as:a. P1V1 = P2V2b. (P1/P2)=(V1/V2)c. (P1V1/T1)=(P2V2/T2)

6. Gases are stored in cylinders at pressures ranging from:a. 800 psi to 10,000 psi.b. 1800 psi to 6000 psi.c. 600 psi to 6000 psi.

7. The cylinder colour for identifying helium is:a. Brown.b. Black.c. Maroon.

8. The cylinder colour for identifying oxygen is:a. Grey.b. White.c. Black.

9. Nitrogen is used on A/C for:a. Fire extinguishing.b. Pressurising gyro cases.c. Charging undercarriage struts.

10.Boundary lubrication is caused as a result of:


a. Chemical failure of the oil.b. Failure of fluid lubrication.c. Water contamination of the oil.

11.Greases of a different specification may not be mixed together:a. Unless their consistencies are the same.b. And then used on A/C.c. Except where they are to be used on the exterior of the A/C.

12.If the removal of heat is a requirement of a lubricant then the lubricant used would be:a. High melting point grease.b. Low melting point grease.c. Oil.

13.Curing of sealing compounds may be accelerated by:a. Mixing a greater proportion of accelerator with the base.b. Heating the work during assembly.c. Heating the work after the work is finished.

14.The applicator used to apply sealants and adhesives should be made from:a. Hardwood.b. Softwood.c. Thin steel.

15.The correct metal to use for a repair will be stated on the:a. Repair scheme drawing.b. Planning sheet.c. Process sheet.

16.If you are given a material for use on A/C and it has its Standard Colour Code removed you may:a. Use the material provided an approximate test is made.b. Not use the material.c. Use the material only in tertiary structure.

17.Sometimes the metal manufacturer marks the material with metal dies only. In this case the material should be colour coded before it is admitted into a:a. Quarantine store.b. Goods inwards store.c. Bonded store.

18.When marking out mild steel using copper sulphate, it turns the bright metal:a. Coppery brown.b. Black.c. White.

19.If the edge of aluminium is treated with caustic soda, the metal turns:a. Black.b. White.c. Black/white/black.

20.If the edge of duralumin is treated with caustic soda the metal turns:a. Black.b. White.c. Brown.


21.If the edge of alclad is treated with caustic soda the metal turns:a. Black/white/black.b. White/black/white.c. Black/brown/black.

Metals

1. What must be added to iron ore to produce pig iron?a. magnesiumb. nickelc. carbon

2. Ball bearings are manufactured from:a. Chromium steel.b. Vanadium steel.c. Tungsten steel.

3. The aluminium alloy that permits further working is:a. Plain alloy.b. Casting alloy.c. Wrought alloy.

4. The alloy Alclad is:a. Aluminium coated in dural.b. Duralumin coated in aluminium.c. Hiduminium coated in aluminium.

5. The alloy hiduminium is as strong as:a. Mild steel.b. Cast iron.c. Chromium steel.

6. Copper is ductile and is able to be drawn out:a. Only when it has been normalised.b. Only when it has been heated.c. Even when it is cold.

7. To soften copper it should be:a. Annealed.b. Solution treated.c. Precipitated.

8. In appearance, titanium is very similar to :a. Beryllium.b. Stainless steel.c. Copper.

9. In terms of elasticity, titanium is between:a. Stainless steel and aluminium.b. Aluminium and copper.c. Copper and stainless steel.

10.Nimonic alloys were specially developed for:a. Rotor blades of gas turbine engines.b. High speed wing skins.c. Low pressure compressor blades.

11.Fatigue is caused by:a. Excessive torsion in one direction.b. Repeated stress reversal.c. The length of time the component is in service.


12.When testing for the fatigue life of a specimen the characteristics considered are the range of stress and the:a. Length of the. .specimen.b. Ultimate tensile strength.c. Number of reversals of the stress.

13.The first visible sign of fatigue failure is:a. A crack.b. Fretting.c. Pitting.

14.One of the factors affecting fatigue resistance is:a. The material stiffness.b. Ductility.c. Abrupt changes in section.

Aerodynamics

1. Is it true that a boundary layer is formed by?a. Friction between successive layers of air in the air stream.b. Shearing action between successive layers of air in the air

stream.c. Increase in pressure causing the air to slow down.

2. Does boundary layer effect give rise to?a. Profile Drag.b. Induced Drag.c. Skin Friction.

3. Will a lamina boundary layer be?a. Thicker than a turbulent one.b. Thinner than a turbulent one.c. The same as a turbulent one.

4. Does Parasitic Drag refer to those parts of an aeroplane which?a. Contribute towards the lift.b. Do not contribute towards the lift.c. Arise as a result of Skin Friction.

5. Does Aspect Ratio have a marked influence on?a. Skin Friction.b. Parasitic Drag.c. Induced Drag.

6. Is Aspect Ratio the?a. Wing span divided by wing chord.b. Wing area divided by wing chord.c. Wing chord divided by wing span.

7. When wing-tip vortices occur, the trailing edge air stream is?a. Directed downwards.b. Directed upwards.c. In the same plane as the approaching air stream.

8. Induced Drag arises as a result of?a. The lift being at right angles to the approaching air stream.b. The direction of lift being tilted slightly backwards,c. The direction of lift being tilted slightly forwards.

9. Which statement is incorrect?a. Smaller aspect ratios give less violent wing-tip vortices.b. Larger aspect ratios give less violent wing-tip vortices.


c. Less violent wing-tip vortices reduce induced drag.10.Streamlining will reduce drag too approximately?

a. 50%b. 5%c. 10%

Substructures

1. The structural members that carry the greatest stresses are classified as:a. Primary structure.b. Secondary structure.c. Tertiary structure.

2. If a colour is used to identify primary structure, it will be:a. Yellow.b. Green.c. Red.

3. Which of the following is primary structure?a. skin,b. frame,c. Stringer.

4. The structural classification for flight deck floors is usually:a. Secondary.b. Primary.c. Tertiary.

5. Blow-out panels are fitted to floors of pressurised A/C to:a. Provide access for pressurising the A/C.b. Blow out if the maximum differential is exceeded.c. Provide venting should a differential pressure build up across

the floor.6. Provided the heat limit is not exceeded thermoplastic panels may be

heated for working:a. Twice without damage.b. Once only without damage.c. Many times without damage.

7. Natural resins include such materials as pitch, amber and:a. Shellac.b. Nylon.c. Butyrate.

8. Synthetic resins are made from nylon, vinyl and:a. Acrylics.b. Cellulose.c. Asphalt.

9. The greatest limitation with fibreglass is that it:a. Is heavy.b. Lacks structural rigidity.c. Cannot be moulded.

10.Honeycomb core can be made from:a. Magnesium alloy.b. Paper.


c. Sponge rubber.11.The face sheets of honeycomb section made from fibreglass or:

a. Aluminium alloy.b. Balsa wood.c. Plywood.

12.Aluminium honeycomb section may be used for the construction of:a. Spar webs.b. Wing skins.c. Spoiler panels.

13.Delaminating is:a. Deep corrosion pitting on the face sheets.b. Separation of the core from the face sheets.c. Found inside the core.

14.Checking for delaminating may be done with a ten pence piece or:a. One pound hammer.b. One ounce steel hammers.c. One ounce aluminium hammer.

15.A Tucker rivet is sometimes described as a:a. 'Pop' rivet.b. Cherry rivet.c. Avdel rivet.

16.Which rivet is not a blind rivet?a. Chobert.b. Avdel.c. Tubular.

17.The sealing pins in Chobert rivets increase the shear strength and:a. Tensile strength.b. Prevent the ingress of moisture.c. Resistance to galvanic action.

18.The lubricant on Avdel rivets should:a. Be cleaned off with white spirit.b. Removed with MEK.c. Not be removed before use.

19.Cherry rivets may be made from:a. Copper.b. Monel.c. Titanium.

20.Special fasteners are used instead of:a. Aluminium rivets.b. L72 rivets.c. Bolts.

21.The purpose of jointing compound is to:a. Provide continuity.b. Bond the mating surfaces.c. Inhibit electrolytic action.

22.Rivnuts are used for floor coverings and:a. Highly stressed structure.b. Other non-structural parts.c. Frame to Longerons attachments.

23.The stanchions provided for fixing wall mounted flight attendant seats are:a. Primary structure.


b. Secondary structure.c. Tertiary structure.

24.Passenger seat rails are part of the:a. Frames.b. Stringers.c. Longerons.

25.Seat track cut-outs provide for various seat spacing's, usually in:a. One foot increments.b. One inch increments.c. Half inch increments.

26.Wall mounted flight attendant seats are fixed to:a. Rails.b. Tracks.c. Stanchions.

27.Aerial masts may be damaged by:a. Skydrol HYD fluids.b. Water.c. Kill frost anti-icing fluid.

28.Most aerials are fitted in the:a. Pressurised area of the fuselage.b. Rear of the pressure bulkhead.c. None pressurised area of the fuselage.

29.Most radio aerial masts are:a. Not bonded.b. Bonded.c. Insulated from the fuselage.

30.Erosion to a blade aerial is usually found:a. Around the attachment flange.b. At the trailing edge of the aerial.c. At the leading edge of the aerial.

31.Water drain masts are:a. Heated on the ground only.b. Heated on the ground and in the air.c. Not heated unless there is an icing warning.

32.The heating element of a Pitot probe can be checked by observing the effect on:a. A voltmeter in the flight deck.b. A bonding tester.c. Circuit ammeter when the current is switched ON.

33.The type of heater that is used on a drain mast isa. Ribbon heater.b. Mat heater.c. Hot air blower.

34.Most of the panels on the centre console are designed for :a. Permanent attachment.b. Quick replacement.c. Removal during maintenance in the hangar only.

35.An instrument which is duplicated on the forward instrument panels is the:a. Engine pressure ratio.


b. Rudder trim indicator.c. Altimeter.

36.Radio racks are similar to:a. Sidewall stowages for cabin crew equipment.b. The centre console.c. Electronic equipment racks.

37.When inspecting stowage doors special attention should be given to the:a. Light micro switches.b. Trim.c. Catches.

38.On some stowage bins a secondary latch may be released by raising and lowering:a. The secondary latch catches.b. The bin.c. A secondary plunger.

Non-Metallic Materials - Wood

1. The type of wood that should be used if a bolt is to be used to attach a fitting is:a. Ash.b. Beech.c. Birch.

2. On inspection the wood has a brownish yellow fungus. This is a disease known as:a. Dote.b. Heart shakes.c. Rot.

3. The three common synthetic resin glues used on wooden A/C are:a. Araldite, Aerolite, and Aerodux.b. Aerolite, Aerodux, and Aerobond.c. Araldite, Aerolite, and Baldite.

4. A wooden structure is finished to:a. Produce a minimum of skin friction.b. Produce a moisture proof surface.c. Prevent bacteriological and insect attack.

Reinforced Plastics

1. Plastics are used in A/C mainly because:a. They are cheaper than metals.b. They are lighter than metals.c. They last longer than metals.

2. A tensile load on a material will:a. Bend it.b. Crush it.c. Stretch it.

3. Fibre orientation will increase composite strength:a. In the fibre direction.b. Across the fibre direction.


c. In all directions.4. Roving based products:

a. Have twisted fibres.b. Do not have twisted fibres.c. Have short fibres.

5. Unidirectional weave cloths should be used where:a. High strength in all directions is required.b. Good impact strength is required.c. High strength in one direction is required.

6. Twill weave gives greater tensile strength than plain weave because:a. The fibres are equally distributed in two directions.b. The fibres have less crimp.c. Most fibres lie in the warp direction.

7. Carbon or Kevlar fibres are not used as generally as glass fibres because:a. They are not as strong.b. They are less reliable.c. They are very expensive.

8. Chopped strand mat is a good general purpose mat because:a. It has short fibres.b. It gives equal properties in all directions.c. It is stiffer than woven cloths.

9. A typical resin/fibre ratio for a glass/polyester composite would be:a. 1:1b. 2:1c. 1%

10.A typical polyester/peroxide catalyst ratio would be:a. 1:1b. 2:1c. 100:1

11.Pot-life is:a. The length of time that a resin can be stored.b. The length of time that a laminate takes to cure.c. The length of time that a resin/catalyst SYS remains useable.

12.What is the effect of increasing the catalyst on cold cure polyester?a. Composite stiffness increases.b. Composite stiffness decreases.c. Pot-life decreases.

13.The effect of increasing the temperature of a cold cure resin means:a. Better lamination.b. Decreased pot-life.c. Increased pot-life.

14.In autoclave moulding, air is removed from the laminate by:a. Pressure.b. Vacuum.c. Rolling.

15.Dermatitis is caused by:a. Skin contact with resins.b. Inhaling resin fumes.


c. Catalyst fumes.16.If a beam's thickness is doubled, its stiffness will increase by a

factor of:a. twob. threec. four

17.Nomex honeycomb is made from:a. Resin impregnated synthetic fibres.b. Resin impregnated glass fibre.c. Carbon fibre.

18.The core of a sandwich panel mainly needs to resist:a. Tension.b. Bending.c. Crushing.

19.When a crack travelling through a composite reaches a fibre, it:a. Is unaffected.b. Travels along the fibre.c. Stops.

20.The most common form of damage to a sandwich structure is:a. Separation of the skin from the core. (Debonding)b. Crushing of the core.c. Complete fracture of the skin.

21.Aluminium core repairs are usually done using:a. An aluminium honeycomb plug.b. A Nomex honeycomb plug.c. A Kevlar honeycomb plug.

22.Why an extra top layer of glass fibre is often added to a panel repair?a. For extra strength.b. To thicken the patch.c. For sacrificial sanding.

WATER & WASTE

1. Overheating of the flush motor could occur if the: a. Toilet is operated with no precharge liquid in the tank. b. Toilet is continuously flushed.

2. What is the purpose of the knife blade on a wet flush toilet's basket? a. Filtering the waste. b. Keeping the basket's surface clear. c. Acts as a seal to prevent fluids entering the basket.

3. At what altitude will the vacuum blowers run? a. On the ground only. b. Above 16,000 feet. c. Below 16,000 feet.

4. What material is used for toilet bowls? a. Teflon. b. Aluminium. c. Stainless Steel.

5. What is the purpose of the safety plug? a. To act as a second seal and prevent inadvertant drainage.


b. To prevent the panel being closed if the cap is not secure. c. To act as an air seal against odours.

6. What is the purpose of the vacuum breaker? a. To allow the flush valve to open. b. Prevents water from the flush ring going back to the water tank. c. Holds a store of vacuum for toilet operation.

7. Which pipeline in the water tank has a stack pipe? a. The fill/vent pipeline. b. The drain line. c. The overflow pipeline.

8. What is the purpose of the riser loop? a. To stop water entering the compressor. b. To give a head of water for supply purposes, c. To ensure water enters the supply line.

9. If the light was illumined on the water heater this would indicate that: a. An over-heat had occurred. b. The heater is operating normally. c. The cycling switched had closed.

10.What is the normal source of tank pressurisation? a. A compressor. b. A pneumatic SYS. c. An external charging point on the service panel.

11.What material is the airline filter commonly made from? a. Charcoal. b. Sintered bronze. c. Paper.

12.On a quantity indication SYS using lights, if the push button when pressed illuminated no lights this would indicate that: a. The tank is empty. b. The tank is full. c. There is no power to the indicator.

13.What waste water is not jettisoned overboard? a. The galley waste, b. The toilet waste, c. The washing water.

E N G I N E


Gas Turbine Engine

Thrust Calculations (g = 32.2ft/sec/sec)1. The thrust produced by an engine or propeller can be calculated

from the following formula, thrust equals:a. W x (V2 + VI) x g.b. M x V2 x g.c. (W x (V2 - VI))/g

2. Given that the mass airflow through a propeller is 322 lb/sec, inlet velocity 200 ft/sec. and outlet velocity 1000 ft/sec, the thrust developed will be:a. 8,000 lbs.b. 12,000 lbs.c. 32,200 lbs.

Convergent/Divergent Ducts3. If we measure the speed of air flowing through a venture we find

that it is at a maximum at the:a. Inlet.b. Outlet.c. Throat.

4. The flow of air through a convergent duct is subject to a process of:a. Compression.b. Expansion.c. Diffusion.

5. A nozzle is said to be 'choked' when the air flow:a. Becomes sonic.b. Is supersonic.c. Decreases due to increasing dynamic pressure.

6. For any given engine, if the velocity of the jet stream is increased this will cause the: •a. Overall efficiency to increase.b. Propulsive efficiency to decrease.c. Thrust to decrease.

7. If the temperature drop across the turbine is increased, this results in an increase in:a. Thermal efficiency.b. Propulsive efficiency.c. Overall efficiency.

8. On a straight gas turbine engine, to achieve a relatively low SFC it will be necessary to operate the engine at a:a. Higher thrust setting.b. Higher exhaust velocity.c. Reduced gas temperature.

9. A high propulsive efficiency will be achieved if for a given A/C speed:a. More fuel is burnt.b. The gas temperature is reduced.c. The jet velocity is increased.

10.When considering a typical bypass type turbo jet twin spool engine, the bypass ratio is determined by the:a. Splitter unit.


b. HP compressor speed.c. LP turbine speed.

11.On a twin spool type engine, what unit controls Nl?a. The HP governor.b. The P3 limiter.c. The LP governor.

12.What unit controls HP compressor pressure?a. The P3 limiter.b. The HP rpm controller.c. The top temperature controller.

13.Increasing altitude will cause an overall:a. Increase in thrust.b. increase in momentum drag.c. decrease in thrust.

14.Increasing forward speed will cause:a. Decreasing momentum drag.b. an overall reduction in thrust.c. increasing pressure thrust.

15.What effect does decreasing OAT have on engine thrust? It causes:a. An increase in overall thrust.b. a thrust decrease, because of decreasing rpm.c. a decrease in thrust due to increasing momentum drag.

16.The pressure ratio at each stage of compression in an axial flow engine is about:a. 4.5 to 1b. 1.2 to 1c. 3.5 to 1

17.During a surge condition the exhaust gas temperature will:a. Increase.b. Decrease.c. Remain stable.

18.A stall normally develops at the:a. Combustion chamber.b. forward stages of compression.c. later stages of compression.

19.As air is compressed it will:a. Reduce in temperature.b. Remain stable.c. Increase in temperature.

20.Energy extraction to drive the turbine is:a. 25% of total energy.b. 75% of total energy.c. 10% of total energy.

21.Air passing through the diffuser case will:a. Increase in velocity.b. Decrease in temperature,c. Increase in pressure.

22.How much air is taken in by the combustion section snout for combustion purposes?a. 25%.


b. 75%.c. 35%.

23.Nozzle guide vanes are cooled by air extracted from:a. Turbine flow.b. Combustion section.c. Compressor section.

24.Dilution holes in a combustion section are used toa. Allow air into the can for mixing purposes.b. Stabilise the flame.c. Cool the hot gases before they reach the nozzle guide vanes.

25.To prolong the life of turbine blades and prevent creep, it is advisable to:a. Keep exhaust temperature to a maximum.b. Keep exhaust temperature to a minimum.c. Fit additional stages of compression.

26.The part of the turbine engine that initially directs air onto the first stage turbine is known as the:a. Nozzle guide vanes.b. Swirl vanes.c. Stators.

27.During a certain stage of its life a turbine blade will creep at a small but const. rate. This stage is known as:a. Tertiary.b. Secondary.c. Primary.

28.The term N1, relates to:a. The low pressure compressor rotation.b. The high pressure compressor rotation.c. The accessory gearbox speed.

29.The water used in water injection Systems has to be:a. Distilled.b. Clean tap water.c. De-mineralised.

30.Compressor discharge pressure (CDP) is sensed at:a. The turbine outlet.b. The compressor inlet.c. The compressor outlet.

31.Fuel fogging takes place at the:a. Compressor inlet.b. Exhaust pipe outlet.c. Compressor outlet.

32.Water injection of fuel Systems:a. Increases the air density.b. Reduces air density.c. Makes no change in air density.

33.The method used by modern airliners to reduce landing runs and wear on wheel and brake Systems is known as :a. Arrester wire and hook method.b. Brake parachute.c. Thrust reversal.

34.In the free turbine propeller turbine design, the propeller is connected to:a. The compressor.


b. The turbine via a separate shaft.c. The engine by-pass fan.

35.The auxiliary power unit:a. Provides electrical power when the engines are not running.b. Is used for additional thrust.c. Is battery operated from a ground power unit.

36.Select the true statement from the three below.a. The propeller turbine engine is more efficient at high altitudes

above 36,000 ft.b. It is more efficient above 450 knots.c. It has better fuel and power efficiency at low altitudes.

37.An engine trim run will be required when:a. An engine is replaced.b. After every landing.c. If the temperature is above 15°C.

38.Information relating to engine trimming and associated charts will be found in:a. Chapter 72 of the Maintenance Manual.b. Chapter 24 of the Maintenance Manual.c. Chapter 79 of the Maintenance Manual.

39.Use of part power settings during trim runs will:a. Reduce hot section life.b. Increase hot section life.c. Increase noise levels but reduce fuel consumption.

Turbine construction

1. To ensure high compressor efficiency, the velocity of the airflow at the compressor inlet is normally not in excess of:

a. Mach 0.5.b. Mach 0.75.c. Mach 1.

2. A supersonic diffuser takes the form of a:a. Convergent/divergent duct.b. Divergent duct.c. Convergent duct.

3. In the vaneless space, the pressure, velocity and temperature of air leaving the impeller will:

a. Increase.b. Remain unchanged.c. Decrease.

4. The maximum pressure ratio obtained by a single stage centrifugal compressor is relatively low, being in the region of:

a. 1:1.b. 4:1.c. 6.25:1.

5. The rotating guide vanes of a centrifugal impeller are normally manufactured from:

a. Steel, as the leading edges are more prone to impact damage.


b. Aluminium alloy, because lightness of structure is important.c. Titanium, because of its good resistance to high temperature.

6. When considering the rotating assembly, the complete disc assembly including spacer rings is secured on the shaft by:

a. Splines.b. a retaining ring nut.c. a bolted flanged plate.

7. Stagger angle is the term applicable to the:a. Angle of twist on a rotor blade.b. Misalignment permissible between rotor blades and stator blades.c. Tangential disposition of inlet guide vanes.

8. The passage formed between individual rotor blades is:a. Convergent.b. Convergent/divergent.c. Divergent.

9. The pressure rise across one stage of the axial flow compressor is:a. Not more than 1.3:1.b. 4:1 maximum.c. Greater than that attained by a single stage centrifugal

compressor.10.Stop plates are fitted in an axial compressor in order to prevent:a. Axial movement of the rotor spacer rings.b. Circumferential movement of the stator blades.c. Axial movement of the compressor shaft at high rpm.

11.Air used for combustion is termed:a. Primary and secondary.b. Primary.c. Tertiary.

12.The ratio of kerosine to air for efficient combustion is :a. 1:45b. 1:130.c. 1:15.

13.What is a can-annular combustion SYS?a. A set of flame tubes each mounted in a separate air casing.b. A set of flame tubes enclosed in a common air casing.c. One common tube enclosed in a common air casing.

14.What is the purpose of the tertiary airflow created in the combustion chamber?

a. To reduce the gas temperature and to cool the flame head.b. To reduce the gas temperature and to cool the burner head.c. To ensure the complete combustion of the fuel.

15.An advantage of an annular combustion chamber is that:a. The diameter of the engine is reduced.b. There is unrestricted airflow at maximum rpm.c. There is a decrease in engine length.

16.The approximate amount of mass airflow taken in by the combustor snout is:

a. 18%.b. 82%.c. 25%.

17.The overall air/fuel ratio of a combustion chamber can vary between:

a. 10:1 to 45:1.


b. 45:1 to 130:1.c. 130:1 to 200:1.

18.Combustion chamber flame temperatures can be as high as:a. 500 C.b. 2000 C.c. 1400 C.

Propeller provision

1. The propulsive efficiency of a propeller turbine engine is higher than that of a jet-turbine at A/C speeds:a. Above 450 mph.b. Below 400 mph.c. Within the range 450 mph and 700 mph.

2. The performance of a turbo-prop engine is measured in:a. Lbs thrust.b. Lbs per square inch.c. Shaft horse power.

3. If the rpm of a variable pitch propeller increases, the blade angle:a. Decreases.b. Increases.c. Remains unchanged.

4. If the blade angle is increased:a. The pitch becomes coarser.b. The pitch becomes finer.c. It has no effect on the pitch of the blade.

5. What does the term 'onspeed' mean?a. The blade pitch remains fixed and the engine speed is const.b. There is sufficient turbine power to drive the propeller.c. The engine has left the minimum const. speed range.

6. Turbo-prop engines require a slightly higher viscosity oil than turbo-jet engines due to:a. The higher engine rpm.b. The lower engine rpm.c. The reduction gear and pitch change mechanism.

7. The taxi range on a turbo-propeller assembly is known as the :a. Alpha range.b. Beta range.c. Delta range.

8. A low torque indication provides a signal which:a. Causes the blades to feather.b. Decreases blade angle.c. Increases blade angle.

9. Propeller pitch is:a. The angle of attack of the blades in relation to the propeller

hub.b. The distance moved forward in one revolution of the propeller.c. The angle between the propeller and the engine shaft.

10.What is blade angle?a. The angle between the chord line and the propeller axis.b. The angle between the line of airflow and the propeller axis.


c. The angle between the chord line and plane of rotation.11.Blades are said to be feathered:

a. When the blade angle is at course.b. When the blade has been turned leading edge on to the airflow.c. When the propeller is wind milling.

12.The const. speed governor works on the principle of:a. Oil under pressure.b. Manual operation.c. Centrifugal force.

13.Centrifugal turning moment tends to turn the blade towards:a. Coarse pitch.b. Fine pitch.c. Negative pitch.

14.What does 'on speed" mean when related to the PCU?a. That the speed of the propeller has been controlled to the speed

of the engine.b. That the speed ratio between the engine and propeller is

correct.c. That the governor weights are balanced to the opposing PCU

spring force.15.On engine starting, the painted lines on the propeller blades and

the spinner coincide when the pitch is:a. Flight fineb. Featherc. Ground fine.

16.If on throttling back to idle during a ground run the EGT starts to rise rapidly, would you:a. Close the HP cock.b. Open the throttle.c. Select 'lock out'.

17.The purpose of the FFPS is to:a. Maintain minimum const. speed in flight.b. Prevent the propeller moving into GFP in flightc. Maintain a minimum blade angle in cruise.

Thrust reverser


1. To ensure that reversers only operate on the ground one of the inputs to the isolation valve control unit is the:a. Ground/air sense.b. Deactivation pin in the isolation valve.c. Feedback cables to the control drum.

2. The directional control valve receives signals from the:a. Isolation valve.b. Control drum.c. Feedback cable.

3. Feedback cables are normally connected to the control drum at one end, and the other end is connected to the:a. Door linkage.b. Isolation valve.c. Directional control valve.

4. Before Reverse Thrust can be selected ,The Fwd Thrust lever must be a. At idle.b. At full power.c. At intermediate power position.

5. The purpose of cascade Vanes is that they direct gas flowa. rearwardb. onto the fan bladesc. In a Forward direction

6. The electric Solenoid on the isolation valve receives its Signal from the: a. reverse thrust leverb. directional control valvec. strut drum box

7. The directional control valve is activated by mechanical signal from the: a. Strut boxb. Isolation valvec. Feedback cable

8. As a safety measure, Pins can be inserted into the SYS to prevent an advertent operation during maintenance, this can be inserted in the:a. Feedback cable b. Strut boxc. Isolation valve

9. In the HYD fan reverser SYS described, how is the centre actuator UN locked?a. By HYD pressure unlocking the lock leverb. By pneumatic air unlocking lock leverc. By the directional control valve unlocking the lock lever

10.Normally the air supply for pneumatic Fan reversers is from: a. Air bottle supplyb. Compressor bleedc. Turbine air bleed

11.How can a thrust reverser SYS be electrically isolated: a. By inserting a locking pinb. By a pulling circuit breakerc. By locking the reverser thrust lever

12.What component is fitted to ensure the correct operating Pressure for a pneumatically operated reverse SYS?


a. An isolation valveb. A directional control valvec. A pressure regulating valve

APU

1. The load compressor is driven by the:a. turbine,b. Accessory gearbox.c. Combustion chamber exhausts gas.

2. As well as providing electrical power, the APU provides pneumatic power to:a. Drive the HYD pump.b. Provide an engine start function.c. Provide equipment cooling.

3. The A/C structure and components are protected from exhaust duct temperature by:a. Wrapping the duct in an insulating blanket.b. Directing cooling air into the exhaust duct.c. Nothing. There is no requirement for structural protection

because of the APU bay size.4. Once the APU inlet door open, signal is sent from the ctrl box to:

a. Operate the load compressor.b. Turn the fuel supply on.c. Turn the starter motor.

5. The by-pass valve acceleration limiter senses air pressure::a. From the exhaust duct.b. From the compressor air.c. From the turbine.

6. During an over temperature condition, the thermostat will bleed air from the:a. By-pass valve (acceleration limiter).b. Exhaust duct.c. Speed governor.

7. The APU speed is controlled by the:a. Thermostat.b. Governor.c. Acceleration limiter.

8. The operation of the flow divider is controlled by the:a. Air pressure.b. Thermostat.c. Fuel pressure.

9. The bleed control valves are:a. Pneumatically operated, electrically controlled.b. Hydraulically operated, pneumatically controlled.c. Pneumatically operated, pneumatically controlled.

10.The control thermostat bleeds air from the:a. Compressor.b. Inlet guide vane actuator.c. Bleed control valve.

11.The switcher valve controls the pressure air to the:a. Inlet guide vane actuator.


b. bleed control valve,c. Control thermostat.

12.In the event of a failure of the control thermostat to operate, the bleed SYS is protected from over temperature by the:a. Bleed valve opening.b. IGV actuator moving the vanes to the open position.c. Immersion thermocouple interrupting power to the bleed valve.

13.The movement of the IGV actuator is controlled by the:a. Bleed switch.b. Control thermostat.c. Auxiliary power control unit.

14.The cooling fan on an APU is driven by the:a. Turbine.b. Compressor.c. Gearbox.

15.The cooling fan shut-off valve is controlled by the:a. Compressor discharge pressure.b. Turbine exhausts pressure.c. Compressor inlet pressure.

16.What component is fitted to protect the APU compartment from differential pressures?a. A pressure switch in the pneumatic duct.b. A 'blow in' door assembly.c. A bleed valve fitted in the pneumatic duct.

17.Which APU indicating gauge will give an indication of the condition of the APU?a. The EGT gauge.b. The bleed air duct pressure gauge.c. The rpm gauge.

18.For the typical APU start sequence described in this booklet, the APU starter will dropout at:a. 7 % rpmb. 50% rpmc. 95%rpm

19.How can we ascertain that the extinguishing has been discharged from the APU fire bottle:a. By a bottle discharge light.b. By a red light on the APU fire handle.c. By a master warning light illuminating.

20.APU electrical generators are designed to run at:a. 12,000 rpm.b. 42,000 rpm.c. 8,000 rpm.

21.During APU start sequence the APU 'load' light illuminate at:a. 50%.b. 100%.c. 95%.

Engine Fuel System


1. Which type of fuel pump has an impeller fitted:a. The const. displacement pump.b. The variable displacement pump.c. The double acting displacement pump.

2. What will be the position of the cam plate of a variable displacement pump if the interrupter blade in the kinetic spill valve completely separates the two opposing flows?a. Off load.b. On load.c. Intermediate load.

3. In a const. displacement type pump, how is maximum pressure controlled?a. By a servo valve.b. By a cam plate.c. By a pressure relief valve.

4. In an engine fuel SYS, the component that meters and computes the correct fuel flow to the engines is the:a. Fuel pump.b. Fuel control unit.c. Fuel heater.

5. A decrease in air density will cause:a. An increase in thrust.b. A decrease in thrust.c. No effect on thrust.

6. Which sensor adjusts fuel flow in relation to temperature changes?a. The CDP limiter.b. The compressor inlet temperature sensor.c. The throttle valve.

7. In which ATA Maintenance Manual chapter will you find information on fuel control?a. Chapter 71.b. Chapter 36.c. Chapter 73.

8. Servo pressure operates certain components within the fuel control unit, one of these is the :a. Pilot valve.b. CDP limiter.c. Compressor inlet temperature sensor.

9. The purpose of the throttle valve is to:a. Ensure that the correct amount of fuel is directed to the

burners.b. Allow servo pressure to the CIT sensor.c. Direct unwanted fuel back to the high pressure boost pump.

10.The electronic engine control SYS receives its electrical power: a. From the A/C's main generators.b. From the battery supply.c. From an independent power source.

11.The T2 electrical sensor provides inlet temperature signal to:a. EEC computer.b. The thrust management computer.c. The fuel control unit.

12.The digital air data computer receives signals related to the:a. Fuel flow.


b. Ambient pressure.c. Compressor discharge pressure.

13.The torque drive motor receives its signal from the:a. Electronic engine control computer.b. Thrust management computer.c. Fuel control unit.

14.The digital air data computer provides signals to the :a. Fuel control unit.b. Electronic engine control computer.c. Flight deck instruments.

15.The flow meter indicates the:a. Mass flow.b. Fuel density.c. Specific gravity.

16.A fuel filter light indicates:a. A fuel filters by-pass condition.b. An oil cooler blockage.c. A blocked fuel filter.

17.The fuel filter differential switch senses:a. Filter inlet pressure only.b. Filter outlet pressure only.c. A combination of inlet and outlet pressures.

18.To prevent fuel loss from the SYS during a fuel filter change, the filter has a:a. By-pass valve fitted.b. Fuel shut-off valve fitted.c. Non return valve in the fuel pump assembly.

19.Duplex nozzles have:a. Primary and secondary flow.b. Secondary flow only.c. Primary flow only.

20.The type of fuel flow associated with a 'tulip' spray is:a. Low pressure flow.b. High pressure flow.c. Intermediate pressure flow.

21.Some nozzles have an airflow directed across the fuel outlet, this is to:a. Help create a better spray pattern.b. Cool the nozzle head.c. Prevent carbon deposits forming.

22.Which nozzle type has tangential swirl ports?a. Duplex.b. Simplex.c. A combination of both.

23.In a typical flow divider, how is the fuel flow prevented from reaching the secondary manifold during start-up?a. By using a spring loaded pressurising valve.b. By incorporating a dump valve.c. By inclusion of a spring loaded filter assembly.

24.A secondary fuel flow manifold is required during:a. Start-up.


b. High power settings.c. Low power settings.

A/C fuel System

1. There are three types of fuel tank. These are:a. Fuselage, wing and saddle tanks.b. Rigid, semi-rigid and flexible.c. Rigid, flexible and integral.

2. An 'integral1 tank is:a. A specific fuel tank fitted in a fuselage.b. A sealed compartment of an A/C structure.c. A permanently fitted external tank.

3. Baffle plates are fitted in fuel tanks to:a. Strengthen the internal structure.b. Attach a rigid tank to the A/C structure.c. Prevent surging of the fuel during abnormal manoeuvres.

4. How are flexible tanks supported within their compartments?a. With rivets.b. With studs or cord.c. No support is required as they are 'wet' assembled during

manufacture.5. When fitting flexible tanks it is important that any protruding

material is:a. Removed.b. Smoothed flat with files.c. Covered with tape or rubber.

6. A 'wet1 tank is:a. An integral tank.b. A flexible tank.c. A rigid tank.

7. Fuel tanks are vented so that:a. Excess fuel can drain away rapidly after over-filling.b. Fuel can be jettisoned in an emergency.c. A vacuum will not form as fuel is used.

8. The international marking symbol for fuel is:a. A black four pointed star.b. A black circle.c. A red triangle.

9. The normal maximum pressure for pressure refuelling is :a. 55 psi,b. 50 psi.c. 70 psi.

10. Fuel tanks are electrically bonded to:a. Prevent a build up of static electricity.b. Ensure a power source is available to operate refuel valves.c. Vent the fuel tank.

11. In an auto slumping jet pump scavenging SYS, the motive force is provided by:


a. Boost pump pressure.b. Refuelling pressure.c. Jet pump pressure.

12. Microbiological organisms are identified by:a. A blue slime.b. A black slime.c. A cloudy fuel mixture.

13. Sump drain valves are positioned at:a. The highest point of the tank.b. In the refuel manifold.c. The lowest point of the tank.

14. Where are boost pumps usually located on large A/C:a. Under the wing.b. In the refuel panel.c. In the refuel manifold.

15. What is the purpose of a float valve?a. To de-energise a fuel shut-off valve.b. To de-energise a refuel valve.c. To vent air to and from a fuel tank.

16. What is the purpose of a fuel boost pump?a. To pump fuel to the engines.b. To assist in venting of the fuel tanks.c. To assist in refuelling of the A/C.

17. State the purpose of a float switch.a. To close off fuel to and from tanks during fuel transfer.b. To de-energise a refuel valve.c. To operate low pressure warning lights on the flight deck.

18. Turbine fuels are normally manufactured from:a. Crude oil.b. Shale oil.c. Petroleum spirits.

19. JET A-l turbine fuel is used:a. For high altitude operations.b. Only in hot climates.c. In low temperatures.

20. Micro-organism growth within fuel tanks can be identified by:a. Blue slime.b. Black slime.c. Yellow slime.

21. Micro-organism growth can be eliminated by:a. The addition of additives in the fuel.b. By heating the fuel.c. By cooling the fuel.

22. What type of liquid supports microbiological growth within fuel tanks:a. Gasoline.b. Water.c. biofor.

23. A drip stick:a. Indicates the amount of water in the fuel.


b. Indicates the severity of a leak.c. Indicates the contents of a fuel tank.

24. Leaks may be classified as:a. Slight or severe.b. A stain, seep or run.c. Small medium and large.

25. State the approximate size of the diameter of a heavy seep:a. 3" - 4".b. 1 1/2" - 3".c. 3/4".

26. One type of fuel measuring SYS is used as a back up for the electrical type. This is the:a. Float switch.b. Float valve.c. Drip stick/sight glass.

27. Filter differential pop out indicators are normally coloured:a. blackb. Greenc. Red

28. When using a heater for filter de-icing, the hot air is obtained from the:a. Engine bleeds air.b. Engine exhausts air.c. Heater mats.

29. High pressure filters are located:a. Downstream of the fuel heater.b. Upstream of the fuel heater.c. Upstream of the wing booster pump.

30. Drain valves are:a. Located at the highest point of the fuel tank.b. Located at the lowest point of the fuel tank.c. Attached to engine driven fuel pump.

31. Wire mesh screens are a form of filter, they are located in:a. The fuel tanks.b. The high pressure filters.c. The fuel heaters.

Water/Methanol injection

1. Injecting water into an engine compressor inlet will:a. Reduce the density of the air.b. Increase the density of the air.c. Increase the density of the water.

2. The correct type of water used in water/methanol Systems is:a. Distilled water.b. Heavy water.c. Demineralised water.

3. Engine inlet compressor water injection should not be used below:a. 40°F.b. 10°C.c. 4 0°C.

4. The addition of water/methanol into a compressor or combustor will:a. Increase thrust.


b. Decrease thrust.c. Cause surging of the engine.

5. In addition to providing another source of combustion, the methanol in the water will:a. Act as a lubricant.b. Act as an anti-freeze.c. Cause a reduction in thrust.

6. The pressure indicating light on the flight deck indicates:a. The SYS tank quantity.b. The SYS operating pressure.c. That the water shut-off valve is open.

7. Where water/methanol is normally injected?a. Into the compressor inlet.b. Into the compressor outlet.c. Into the turbine disc.

8. Air to drive the air turbine pump is extracted from:a. The engine turbine.b. A storage bottle.c. The engine compressor stage.

9. The regulator valve is energised when:a. The throttle is at the idle position.b. The throttle is at the cruise position.c. The throttle is at the take-off position.

Lubrication

1. The oil tank for a gas turbine engine is normally located:a. On the engine casings.b. On the airframe structure.c. Inside the engine structure.

2. An oil tank may be manufactured from:a. Copper.b. Mild steel.c. Aluminium alloy.

3. Which statement is correct?a. An oil tank is always pressurised.b. An oil tank normally has a vent.c. An oil tank level is correct when it is completely full.

4. The primary function of an oil tank is to:a. Provide a means of filling and checking the SYS.b. Store oil and provide a supply to the SYS.c. Provide for expansion within the SYS.

5. Oil flow from the tank to the pressure pump is:a. By means of suction from the pump.b. Under gravity to the pump.c. Under pressure from within the tank.

6. Which statement is correct?a. The manufacturer will state which type of oil must be used.b. The operator will state which type of oil must be used.c. The operator can use any type of oil he chooses.

7. An oil tank is checked for the correct level:


a. At any time after a flight.b. Immediately after a flight.c. At a prescribed time after a flight.

8. Gas turbine lubricating oils:a. Can harm the skin after prolonged contact.b. Will not cause harm to the skin.c. Will only stain the skin.

9. Oil tanks should be topped up from:a. Clean opened cans of the correct type of oil.b. Unopened cans of any type of gas turbine lubricating oil.c. Unopened cans of the approved type specified by the operator.

10.Which statement is correct?a. Oil is not normally drained and replaced as a routine servicing

item.b. Oil is drained and replaced as a routine servicing item.c. Oil is never completely drained from the oil tank or SYS.

11.Oil filter elements are changed:a. Only when they become blocked.b. Whenever they are removed for examination.c. When laid down in the Maintenance Schedule.

12.The oil flow through a spur gear pump:a. Is around the outside of the gears.b. Is between the gears.c. Is around the outside and through the centre of the gears.

13.On a gearotor pump:a. Only the inner rotor rotates.b. Only the outer rotor rotates.c. Both inner and outer rotors rotate.

14.An oil pressure relief valve is fitted:a. To limit the SYS pressure.b. To limit the SYS pressure and protect the pump.c. To by-pass the filter element if it becomes blocked.

15.Engine oil pressure is normally checked:a. At high engine r.p.m.b. At any engine speed.c. At ground idle r.p.m.

16.How many microns are there to the inch?a. 25,400.b. 1,000.c. 25.4.

17.A stacked screen type of filter:a. Is a disposable type filter.b. Is a cleanable type filter.c. Is a self cleaning type filter.

18.A filter by-pass:a. Prevents damage to the filter element if the oil pressure is

high.b. Prevents oil flow back through the filter when the SYS is shut

down.c. Allows unfiltered oil flow through the SYS when the filter

element is blocked.

19.When removing a magnetic plug type filter, oil loss is prevented:


a. Because there is a check valve in the filter housing.b. Because the filter is always on the highest point in the SYS.c. Because the SYS is always shut down before removing the plug.

20.When refitting a filter element:a. New seals are fitted if old ones are damaged.b. New seals are always fitted.c. Seals may be used a second time only.

21.You are ground running an engine, and the oil temperature rapidly increases. The oil pressure is normal, what is the possible cause?a. The oil cooler relief valve is stuck closed.b. The oil cooler relief valve is stuck open.c. The main regulator valve is not working correctly.

22.You are starting an engine and the low oil pressure warning indicator remains illuminated. The main oil pressure indication is normal. What is the possible cause?a. Low oil pressure switch malfunction.b. Not enough oil in the SYS.c. Main pressure pumps not working.

23.If the wax compound in a thermostatic by-pass leaks out of the capsule in an oil cooler. The valve will:a. Stay open.b. Close.c. Not move.

24.As the oil temperature of an engine increases, the oil pressure will:a. Decrease.b. Increase.c. Stay const.

25.The cooling medium used in most gas turbine oil coolers is:a. Fuel.b. HYD fluid.c. Oil and air.

26.The oil cooler will normally be located:a. On the airframe.b. In the engine air intake.c. On the engine.

27.The low oil pressure warning light will illuminate:a. If oil pressure falls below the minimum.b. When oil pressure rises above the minimum.c. If the oil pressure transmitter fails.

28.When ground running an engine the oil pressure indicator falls to zero, the low oil pressure warning light is out and the oil temperature is normal. You should suspect:a. Low oil level in SYS.b. Failure of low oil pressure warning light.c. Failure of oil pressure transmitter.

29."O" ring seals:a. Should be changed each time the component they are fitted to be

dismantled.b. Should be changed only if their condition warrants it.c. Are changed only when stated in the Maintenance Manual.

30.A spring ring seal is only effective:


a. When it is stationary.b. When it is rotating.c. When it is either rotating or stationary.

31.On a labyrinth seal fitted to protect a bearing:a. Air does not pass across the seal.b. Air and oil meet at the centre of the seal.c. Air will pass across the seal.

32.A screw back seal will normally:a. Screw the oil away from the bearing.b. Screw the air away from the bearing.c. Screw oil back to the bearing.

33.Consider the following types of seal. If they became defective, which one is most likely to cause a high breather pressure to occur?a. Screw back.b. Labyrinth.c. '0' ring.

34.Oil is leaking from main filter housing. The most likely cause would be:a. A defective spring ring seal.b. A defective HYD seal.c. A defective '0' ring seal.

35.An oil leak onto the compressor may cause:a. Burning and distress on the compressor.b. Oil baking onto the compressor or dirt sticking to it.c. An increase in oil and breather pressure.

36.Which statement is correct?a. If a carbon seal is defective, both halves would be changed.b. A carbon seal is always backed up with a labyrinth seal.c. If a carbon seal becomes defective, only the defective half

needs to be changed.37.Oil leaking internally into an engine may causer

a. A decrease in fuel consumption.b. A decrease in engine performance.c. A decrease in breather pressure.

38.With respect to seals in the lubrication SYS, which statement is correct?a. They help to prevent loss of oil from the SYS.b. They help to keep breather pressure low in the SYS.c. They help to keep the oil clean in the SYS.

39.A bearing which can accept radial and axial loads in one direction is a:a. Needle roller bearing.b. Angular contact bearing.c. Plain bearing.

40.A cylindrical roller bearing is:a. Used where there is a large radial load.b. Used where there is a large axial load.c. Only used where the motion of the bearing is oscillatory.

41.Tapered roller bearings which are fitted in pairs are :


a. Fitted with the cone ends towards each other.b. Fitted with the cone ends away from each other.c. Fitted with the cone ends both facing in the same direction.

42.Fluid damped bearings :a. Dampen out noise.b. Dampen out vibration.c. Are always ball bearings.

43.Bearings which are to be stored should be stored:a. Flat.b. On their edges.c. In either condition.

44.Which gear would be quietest in operation?a. Spur.b. Straight bevel.c. Helical.

45.Backlash in gears:a. Will only occur with wear.b. Is necessary.c. Should be eliminated on installation.

46.Helical gears:a. Produce an axial load.b. Produce a radial load.c. Are only used to change direction.

47.Plain bearings:a. are made from hard alloys,b. Are made from soft metals.c. Can be made from either.

48.On a torque meter SYS what happens to the oil spill with an increase in engine power?a. It remains const.b. It will decrease.c. It will increase.

49.On a torque meter SYS what will happen to torque meter pressure if the propeller feathers in flight?a. It will remain normal until the gearbox stops rotating.b. It will increase very slowly.c. It will decrease.

50.The oil pressure required for operation of a propeller pitch change mechanism:a. Is the same as the engine oil pressure?b. Will be a higher value than engine oil pressure.c. Will fluctuate above and below engine oil pressure dependent on

engine speed.51.A feathering pump is normally driven:

a. Hydraulically.b. Pneumatically.c. Electrically.

52.The feathering pump oil is supplied from:a. The pitch change mechanism returns supply.b. A separate oil tank.c. The engine oil tank.

53.Turbo-prop engines use a slightly higher viscosity oil than a turbo jet engine, this is due to:


a. Higher engine rpm.b. Lower propeller rpm.c. Gear loading in the reduction gearbox.

54.Which type of oil is used for gas turbine engine lubricating Systems?a. Mineral.b. Vegetable.c. Synthetic.

55.Which type of lubrication provides a measurable quantity of oil between the bearing surfaces?a. Film lubrication.b. Boundary lubrication.c. Splash lubrication.

56.A gas turbine lubricant should possess:a. Stable viscosity.b. Low viscosity.c. High viscosity.

57.Which material would not be affected by synthetic lubricating oil?a. Neoprene.b. Silicones rubber.c. Natural rubber.

58.An extreme pressure additive would be found in engine oil used in an engine where there were:a. Heavily loaded gears.b. High temperature bearings.c. Two or more compressors.

59.An oil sample for an A/C on a SOAP programme will be taken:a. Immediately after engine shutdown.b. Any time after engine shutdown.c. When instructed in the oil sampling procedure.

60.A quick method used to detect water in lubricating oil would be:a. Heat a small sample to 200 C.b. Freeze a small sample to -20 C.c. Mix a small sample in kerosene. Any water falls to the bottom of

the container.61.The amount of solid metallic contaminants in an oil sample is

given as:a. grams per cubic centimetre of fluid,b. a rate of change in its viscosity,c. Parts per million.

62.A chip detector is normally installed:a. In the pressure SYS.b. In the scavenge SYS.c. In either the pressure or scavenge SYS.

63.Which statement is correct?a. Synthetic turbine oils will affect thermo setting plastics.b. Prolonged exposure to synthetic oils may cause dermatitis.c. The flash points of synthetic turbine oils are very low.

64.If you find ageing cracks on a flexible hose during an inspection:a. It is classed as unserviceable and can not be used.


b. It is unserviceable only if the cracks penetrate to the first braided layer.

c. It is unserviceable if the cracks go completely around the hose.65.When carrying out a ball test the ball is:

a. Passed through the hose from both ends.b. Only passed through from one end.c. Pushed through the hose from both ends.

66.A removed flexible hose is found to have a permanent set or twist:a. this would make the hose unserviceableb. This may be gently straightened whilst testing the hose.c. No attempt should be made to straighten out a permanent set.

67.A hose which has been previously installed develops a small blister or bulge when under a pressure test It:a. Is considered unserviceable if the full test pressure has not

been reached.b. Is considered serviceable if the blister or bulge dissipates

when pressure is released.c. would be classed as unserviceable

68.A hose assembly which normally flexes in use:a. Should not be flexed during a pressure test.b. Should be flexed 15 in all directions during a test.c. Should be flexed through its normal angle plus 15 either way

during a test.69.A flexible fire resistant hose may have:

a. A metallic braided outer cover.b. Asbestos braided outer cover.c. A neoprene outer sleeve.

70.On which type of engine drain would there be a 'nil' allowance of drainage?a. Failure drains.b. Unit drains.c. Dump drains.

71.A flexible hose when under pressure:a. Increases in length and diameter.b. Increases in diameter and decreases in length.c. Increases in length and decreases in diameter.

Air sealing


1. Cooling air cleansing is achieved by using a: a. Centrifugal filter.b. Micronics filter.c. Felt filter element.

2. Which stage of cooling air is used for oil sump pressurisation?a. Intermediate air.b. HP air.c. LP air.

3. Which type of air/oil seal is machine ground and finally lapped to a micro finish?a. Rubber Micronics seal.b. Carbon seal.c. Labyrinth seal.

4. How is air sealing achieved with a labyrinth seal arrangement?a. By reduction of air pressure across the knife edge seals.b. By an increase of air pressure across the knife edge seal.c. By application of springs on the carbon seal.

5. Once air cleansing has taken place, where is the dirty air directed?a. Into the turbine disc.b. Into the turbine exhaust.c. Overboard from the engine through side vents.

6. The cooling air that is used to cool the bleed air passing through the heat exchanger is from the:a. Turbine stream.b. Fan stream.c. Bleed air ducts.

7. Pressurising air to the HYD tank:a. Prevents the oil from boiling at altitude.b. Provides cooling of the oil.c. Provides a head of pressure in the tank.

8. Turbine case cooling:a. Prevents the turbine case from expanding.b. Prevents the turbine case from contracting.c. Ensures that compressors run efficiently.

9. The bleed air valve can be electrically closed in an over temperature situation by the:a. Overheat switch.b. Duct temperature sensor.c. Fan air valve.

Surge protection


1. The part of the engine in which surge occurs is the:a. Front fan.b. Turbine.c. Compressor.

2. Compressor stall can be caused by the blades being subjected toa. sonic vibration,b. A low angle of attack.c. An excessively high angle of attack.

3. What should a ground run engineer do when he discovers the first indication of surge?a. Reduce the throttle setting.b. Close the fuel valve.c. Carry out shut down procedure.

4. The value of the airflow and pressure ratio at which a surge occurs is termed the:a. Surge margin.b. Working line.c. Surge point.

5. What must a variable geometry intake SYS do to supersonic airflow?a. Slow it down.b. Compress it.c. Keep it at sonic speeds.

Ice protection

1. An engine requires protection against the icing up of the front of the compressor! Section, and the:a. Turbine disc.b. Leading edge, of the intake.c. Temperature probe.

2. Rotor blades of compressors are:a. Always anti-iced.b. Never anti-iced.c. Sometimes anti-iced.

3. The hot air SYS of ice protection is known as:a. De-icing.b. Ice heating.c. Anti-icing.

4. The stator anti-ice valve is powered by:a. 28 V AC.b. 115 V AC.c. 28 V DC.

5. The nacelle anti-ice valve is located:a. On the engine.b. In the pylon.c. In the wing leading edge.

6. The stator anti-ice valve is located:a. On the engine.b. In the pylon.c. In the wing leading edge.

7. Engine heater elements are sometimes called:


a. Heater strips.b. Ribbon heaters.c. Coils.

8. AC. power is used for anti-icing Systems because it:a. Is readily available.b. Is frequency conscious?c. Has a high power output.

9. Electrical heating pads are attached to the skin by:a. Rivets.b. Bolts.c. Bonding.

10.A two speed cycling SYS is often used for :a. A spinner.b. Generator air cooling.c. Variable inlet guide vanes.

11.The thickness of protective coating covering a de-icing mat is approximately:a. 012 inch.b. 0012 inch.c. 12 inch.

12.The thickness of the conductive film in the de-icing mat is:a. 5 inch.b. 05 inch.c. 005 inch.

Ignition

1. Engine relight circuits are used for:a. Engine starting.b. Wet runway take offs.c. Flame out situations.

2. A joule is a unit of:a. Work done.b. Energy.c. Power.

3. A high energy ignition unit may be supplied by: a. AC. power only.b. DC. Power only.c. AC. or DC. Power.

4. The safe waiting period after disconnecting the low-tension supply before maintenance is :a. Ten seconds.b. 1/2 minute.c. One minute.

5. Which type of HEIU has a trembler unit?a. AC. type.b. DC. Type.c. Transistor type.

6. One of the advantages of a transistorised HEIU is that it:a. Have no moving parts.b. Is fitted with a small trembler.c. Produces a higher voltage than the AC. and DC. Type.


7. Fouling of an igniter plug is minimised by:a. Cleaning nozzle airflows.b. The fuel.c. The intensity of the spark.

8. The igniter plug sometimes referred to as the long reach igniter plug is the:a. Annular-gap igniter.b. Bi-annular-gap igniter.c. Constrained-gap igniter.

Starting

1. Self-sustaining speed is:a. Higher than ground idle.b. Lower than ground idle.c. The same as ground idle.

2. Stopping the starting cycle may be achieved by closing the fuel cock and placing the ignition switch to:a. Stand by.b. Off.c. Flight.

3. In a triple spool engine, the compressor connected to the starter is the:a. LP compressor.b. Intermediate compressor.c. HP compressor.

4. As the cranking speed increases, the starter voltage:a. Reduces.b. Increases.c. Remains unaffected.

5. Which starter is permanently coupled to the engine shaft?a. Current control direct drive.b. Sprag clutch type.c. Starter generator.

6. During starting, the igniter relays are energised by the:a. Throttle ignition switch.b. Battery earth.c. Acceleration control unit.

7. The instrument used for checking the electrical resistance between the insulated terminal and the starter case is a:a. 500 volt insulation tester.b. 250 volt insulation tester.c. Bonding tester.

8. The acceptable resistance for a starter insulation check is:a. 50 fl.b. 500 ft.c. 500000 ft.

9. When compared with an air turbine starter the electric starter:a. Is lighter.b. Produces more torque.c. Is heavier.


10.During a normal start, the starter is disengaged by the:a. Aircrew.b. Ground crew.c. sprag clutch assembly.

11.Air starter rotating parts are lubricated by:a. Application of a grease gun.b. An oil reservoir.c. A drip feed wick.

12.The starter magnetic plug is combined with the:a. Oil fill plug.b. Level plug.c. Drain plug.

13.The type of valve used for a start valve is a:a. Butterfly valve.b. Annular valve.c. Gate valve.

14.When starting speed is reached, the earth for the start solenoid is broken by the:a. Over speed switch.b. Centrifugal cut-out switch.c. Engine start switches being released.

15.The starting air used in an air impingement starting SYS is directed directly onto the engine by the:a. Compressor.b. Turbine.c. Starter.

16.During an engine start the surge bleed valve will be :a. Open.b. Closed.c. Modulating.

Engine control

1. Under normal conditions, the operation of thrust reversers will only be carried out when:a. The feed back signal senses the doors are closed.b. The forward thrust levers are at full power settings.c. The reverser doors are fully open.

2. Insertion of a locking clip into a turnbuckle can only be accomplished when:a. Both slots are opposite each other.b. Three threads are exposed.c. Both slots align with each other.

3. Control cable quick stops :a. Is part of engine control range of movement checks?b. Allow cables to separate when engines separate from the wing.c. Are quick release units used during engine changes?

4. A control cable friction brake:a. Allows the cable to stay in one selected position during engine

changes.b. Ensures cables do not move from their selected position.


c. Allows auto throttle drive units to move the controls.5. The thrust reverser directional control valve:

a. Ports pressure fluid to the pulley control box.b. Keeps a steady tension on the control cables.c. Ports pressure fluid (air or oil) through to the thrust reverser

SYS on a signal from the thrust reverse lever.6. Control cable collets will be found:

a. In pressure seals.b. In pulley assemblies.c. In turnbuckle assemblies.

7. The method of checking the friction of control cables uses a:a. Spring balance.b. Cable tensiometer.c. Clinometers.

8. The prime purpose of friction brakes is to:a. Ensure they cannot be accidentally moved by the crew.b. Ensure that the LP cock opens before the throttle is moved.c. Ensure that the cables stay in their selected position.

9. The engine control drum assembly:a. Converts the cable to control rod operation.b. Converts electrical signals into cable operation.c. Converts control rod movement into cable operation.

10.In a mechanical HP cock operation and thrust lever control, how many cables are required for operation of the control drum assembly?a. Twob. Fourc. Six

11.Controls for the mechanical HP cock operation will be found:a. On the control pedestal.b. On the control column.c. Attached to the fuel control unit.

12.The LP fuel cock is normally:a. Mechanical in operation.b. Pneumatic in operation.c. Electrical in operation.

13.The HP fuel cock will normally be found:a. In the fuel pipe into the engine fuel SYS.b. Adjacent to the fuel outlet pipe from the fuel control unit.c. Within the fuel pump.

14.The auto throttle servo drive receives signals from the:a. Air data computer.b. Thrust management computer.c. Mode control panel.

15.The thrust management computer uses signals from bleed inputs to calculate the thrust setting of the engine. If bleeds are increased the auto throttle will:a. Increase engine thrust.b. Decrease engine thrust.c. Make no change in thrust lever position.

16.The air data computer senses:a. Temperature.b. Engine speed.


c. Throttle position.

17.Selection of a desired airspeed in flight is achieved by the:a. Air data computer.b. Thrust management computer.c. Mode control panel.

18.Selection of the NLG/EPR button is normally done during:a. climbb. crusec. take off

19.Selection of propeller brake can only be achieved:a. When the HP cock is open.b. When the HP cock is closed.c. When the fine pitch control is activated.

20.Engine sensors send information to the:a. Mode control panel.b. Air data computer.c. Thrust management computer.

21.In flight the idle select solenoid is:a. Energised to flight idle.b. De-energised to ground idle.c. De-energised to flight idle.

22.The torque motor within the electronic engine control SYS:a. Provides down trim only.b. Provides up trim only.c. Provides both down and up trim.

23.The electronic engine control computer computes engine speed using two inputs. These inputs originate from:a. The engine.b. The flight deck.c. Air data computers.

24.As the A/C climbs to altitude, the cable tension:a. Decreases.b. Increases.c. Remains the same.

25.How can the correct riser on a tensiometer be determined?a. From the Maintenance Manual.b. By a code number on the riser.c. From a temperature chart.

26.What time should be allowed for a thermometer to stabilize before determining a temperature correction for the cable tension?a. 3 hours.b. 1 hour.c. 1/2 hour.

27.To determine the temperature before calculating cable tensions, the thermometer must sense temperature:a. Within the airframe.b. Outside the airframe.c. On information supplied by the control tower.

28.Before switching off the EEC, the thrust levers must be:a. At full power position.b. At idle position.c. Any position.


29.Pulling the circuit breaker on the idle reset solenoid on the ground will:a. De-energise the solenoid.b. Energise the solenoid.c. Make no difference.

Electrical

1. You have energised the disconnect solenoid of the CSD. The worm drive has disconnected:a. The oil pump shaft.b. The input shaft from the gearbox.c. The output shaft to the generator.

2. The disconnect solenoid can only be reconnected when:a. The engine is shut down in flight.b. The engine is rotating on ground.c. The engine is stationary on ground.

3. The governor assembly controls oil pressure toa. The oil pump.b. The differential unit.c. The control cylinder.

4. What may cause a high oil temperature within the CSD?a. Lack of oil in the SYS.b. An over speeding pump.c. A bypassing filter assembly.

5. The overdrive mode of CSD operation is used for:a. Low engine speeds.b. On speed conditions.c. High engine speeds.

6. Where is the shear section of the CSD located?a. On the oil pump drive shaft.b. On the input drive shaft from the accessory gearbox.c. On the output drive shaft to the generator.

7. What indication is given when a filter element is blocked?a. A pop out indicator.b. A low oil temperature light.c. A high oil pressure light.

8. The governor adjusters alter the:a. Speed of the input shaft.b. Output of the oil pump.c. Generator frequency.

9. The generator in an IDG installation is cooled by:a. Fan air.b. Fuel.c. Oil.

10.What purpose does the undercurrent relay in a starter/generator circuit serve?a. To initially start the motor rotating.b. To terminate the start sequence by de-energising the relays.c. To energise the pump relay to start the fuel pumps.


11.A generator in a CSD/generator configuration normally cooled by:a. Fan air.b. Fuel.c. Oil.

12.A DRIVE light illuminates on the electrical control panel. What does this indicate?a. High oil pressure - low oil temperature.b. Low oil pressure - high oil temperature.c. High oil pressure - high oil temperature.

13.Oil temperature sensing for high oil temperature indications in a CSD/IDG unit occurs at:a. The oil inlet into the CSD.b. The oil outlet of the CSD.c. The oil passing through the differential.

14.Oil pressure sensing:a. Occurs upstream of the charge oil pump.b. Occurs at the scavenge pump outlet.c. Occurs downstream of the charge oil pump.

Engine indication

1. How is EPR expressed?a. Inlet Pressure/ Exhaust Pressureb. Exhaust Pressure/ Inlet Pressurec. Inlet Temperature/ Exhaust Pressure

2. Rapid response thermocouples are found on:a. Turboprop engines.b. Jet turbine engines.c. Piston engines.

3. EGT thermocouples are linked in parallel. This is to ensure that:a. They will continue to indicate if one fails.b. The A/C electric power is directed to all probes.c. They give an average figure.

4. The hot junction of a thermocouple is found at the:a. Probe end.b. Indicator end.c. Junction box.

5. Thermocouples have two wires, one is calomel, the other is normally:a. Steel.b. copperc. Chrome.

6. EGT gauges indicate temperature in degreesa. Fahrenheit.b. Celsius.c. Rankin.

7. Where in the oil SYS is oil temperature sensed?a. As the oil passes into the engine.b. As the oil passes out of the engine.c. Within the oil tank.


8. Which component in a fuel flow transmitter ensures that the fuel flow turns the rotor in the correct direction?a. Swirl generator.b. Restraining spring.c. Turbine.

9. Too little fuel during engine start may cause:a. A hot start.b. A cold start.c. A hung start.

10.The low oil pressure warning light will indicate:a. When the pressure gauge pointer reaches the low limit.b. When the pressure gauge pointer reaches the upper limit.c. When the pointer goes into the yellow band of the pressure

gauge.11.Vibration monitoring sensors:

a. Are non self-generating - requiring electrical power.b. Are self electric generating sensors.c. Are fed from the main battery.

12.The status mode of indication is associated with:a. The minimum dispatch equipment list.b. Maintenance SYS faults.c. A standby indicating SYS.

13.Which of the following is a primary engine indication?a. N2.b. EGT.c. Oil pressure.

14.Secondary engine parameters will be seen on the:a. Upper CRT.b. Lower CRT.c. Maintenance screens„

15.SYS alert messages will be seen on the:a. Lower CRT display.b. Status mode display.c. Upper CRT display.

16.If an engine parameter exceeds its design limits, the indications on the CRT turn:a. Blue.b. Yellow.c. Red.

------------


ANSWERS

HYD Landing gear Flight control1 a 1 b 1 b 50 a2 b 2 a 2 a 51 c3 a 3 c 3 b 52 b4 b 4 c 4 c 53 c5 a 5 c 5 c 54 b6 b 6 b 6 a 55 c7 b 7 b 7 b 56 a8 a 8 c 8 c 57 b9 c 9 c 9 a 58 b10 a 10 b 10 b 59 b11 a 11 b 11 a 60 a12 b 12 c 12 c 61 c13 b 13 a 13 c 62 b14 a 14 a 14 b 63 b15 c 15 c 15 a 64 a16 b 16 b 16 b 65 c17 c 17 a 17 c 66 a18 a 18 c 18 b 67 b19 b 19 b 19 a 68 c20 b 20 c 20 a 69 c21 a 21 a 21 b 70 b22 c 22 a 22 a 71 a23 b 23 b 23 c 72 a24 b 24 c 24 c 73 c25 a 25 c 25 b 74 a26 c 26 b 26 a 75 a27 b 27 b 27 a 76 a28 b 28 c 28 b 77 b29 a 29 a 29 c 78 a30 c 30 b 30 b 79 a31 b 31 a 31 a 80 c32 a 32 c 32 c 81 a33 c 33 b 33 b 82 b34 b

34 b 83 c35 b 35 a 84 a36 a 36 c 85 b37 c 37 b 86 a38 b 38 a 87 b39 c 39 b 88 c40 b 40 c 89 a41 a 41 b 90 b42 c 42 a 91 a43 a 43 a 92 c

44 c 93 a45 a 94 a46 b 95 a47 c 96 b48 b 97 c49 c 98 a


A/C structures Ground handling Safety equipment

1 a 30 c 1 b 1 c2 c 31 b 2 a 2 b3 c 32 b 3 b 3 a4 b 33 c 4 a 4 a5 b 34 b 5 b 5 a6 c 35 c 6 b 6 a7 a 36 a 7 c 7 c8 b 37 a 8 a 8 c9 a 38 a 9 b 9 c

10 a 39 c 10 c 10 b11 c 40 c 11 c 11 b12 c 41 b 12 b 12 c

13 Wear, corrosion, fatigue.4243

ca

13 c 13 c14 c

14Initiation, strength.safety, normal inspection

44 a 15 c

45 a 16 b

46 b 17 c15 b 47 b 18 c16 b 48 c 19 b17 c 49 a 20 b18 b 50 c19 b 51 b20 a 52 b21 c 53 a22 c 54 a23 c 55 c24 c 56 c25 a 57 b26 b 58 c27 a 59 a28 b 60 a29 a 61 a

Oxygen BaggagePneumatic Systems

Ice & rain protection

1 b 1 c 1 c 1 b2 c 2 a 2 a 2 a3 c 3 b 3 a 3 c4 a 4 c 4 c 4 b5 b 5 b 5 b 5 b6 b 6 a 6 c 6 c7 c 7 c 7 a 7 a8 b 8 b 8 c 8 b9 a 9 c 9 b 9 b

10 b 10 a 10 c 10 c11 a 11 b 11 a 11 a12 c 12 a 12 b 12 b13 a Air conditioning 13 c14 c 1 a 14 b15 b 2 c 15 c16 c 3 a 16 a17 a 4 b 17 c

Oxygen Air conditioning Pneumatic Ice & rain


Systems protection18 c 5 c 18 a19 c 6 b 19 b20 a 7 a 20 c21 b 8 b22 c 9 a23 c 10 a24 a 11 c25 b 12 a26 c 13 a27 b 14 c28 c 15 b29 a 16 a30 c 17 b31 a 18 a32 c 19 b

20 a21 b22 a23 c24 b25 b26 a27 c28 c29 a

Pressurization Basic electrics Electrical Work shop tool

1 a 1 Amp. 19 a 1 c

2 c 2 c 20 b 2 c

3 c 3 capacitance 21 b 3 c

4 a 4 a 22 a 4 a

5 b 5 b 23 c 5 b

6 b 6 a 24 a 6 c

7 c 7 b 25 c 7 a

8 a 8 a 26 a 8 b

9 b 9 a 27 c 9 b

10 c 10 b 28 b 10 b

11 a 11 c 29 a 11 a

12 a 12 b 30 c 12 c

13 b 13 a 13 c

14 b 14 b 14 b

15 a 15 a

16 c 16 b

Pressurization Basic electricsWork shop practices

17 b 17 a 1

18 a 18 a 2 c

19 a 19 a 3 b

20 a 20 b 4 c

21 a 21 b 5 b

22 b 22 a 6 c


23 c 23 c 7 b

24 b 24 a 8 c

25 c 25 c 9 c

26 a 26 a 10 a

27 a 27 c 11 a

28 c Electrical Common Parts

29 a 1 c 1 c

30 c 2 a 2 b

31 a 3 b 3 b

32 b 4 a 4 a

33 b 5 b 5 b

34 b 6 c 6 b

35 a 7 a 7 a

36 b 8 b 8 a

37 c 9 a 9 c

38 a 10 c 10 b

39 b 11 a 11 c

40 a 12 c 12 b

41 c 13 a 13 a

14 b 14 a

15 a

16 c

17 a

18 b

Gases & Compounds

SubstructuresNon-Metallic

Materials - WoodWASTE &WATER

1 a 1 a 1 b 1 a2 b 2 c 2 a 2 c3 c 3 b 3 a 3 c4 b 4 b 4 c 4 c

5 c 5 c Reinforced Plastics

5 a

6 b 6 c 6 b

7 a 7 a 1 b 7 c8 c 8 a 2 c 8 a9 c 9 b 3 a 9 b10 b 10 b 4 b 10 b11 b 11 a 5 c 11 c12 c 12 c 6 b 12 c13 c 13 b 7 c 13 b14 a 14 c 8 b15 a 15 a 9 b16 b 16 c 10 c17 c 17 b 11 c18 a 18 c 12 c19 b 19 b 13 b20 a 20 c 14 b21 b 21 c 15 a

Metals 22 b 16 c

1 c 23 a 17 a2 a 24 c 18 c


3 c 25 b 19 b4 b 26 c 20 a5 a 27 a 21 b6 c 28 a 22 c7 a 29 b8 b 30 c9 a 31 b10 a 32 c11 b 33 a12 c 34 b13 a 35 c14 c 36 c

Aerodynamics 37 c

1 b 38 b2 c3 b4 b5 c6 a7 a8 b9 a10 b

Gas Turbine engine

Turbine Construction

Propeller provision

APU

1 c 1 a 1 b 1 a

2 a 2 c 2 c 2 b

3 c 3 b 3 b 3 a

4 b 4 b 4 a 4 c

5 a 5 a 5 a 5 b

6 b 6 b 6 c 6 a

7 a 7 a 7 b 7 b

8 c 8 c 8 a 8 c

9 b 9 a 9 b 9 a

10 a 10 b 10 c 10 c

11 c 11 b 11 b 11 b

12 a 12 c 12 c 12 c

13 c 13 b 13 b 13 c

14 b 14 a 14 c 14 c

15 a 15 c 15 c 15 a

16 b 16 a 16 a 16 b

17 a 17 b 17 b 17 a

18 b 18 b Thrust reverser 18 b

19 c 1 a 19 a

20 b 2 b 20 a

21 c 3 a 21 c

22 a 4 a

23 c 5 c

24 c 6 a

25 b 7 a


26 a 8 c

27 b 9 a

28 a 10 b

29 c 12 b

30 c 13 c

31 b

32 a

33 c

34 b

35 a

36 c

37 a

38 a

39 b

Engine Fuel SYS A/C fuel SYS Lubrication

1 a 1 c 1 a 48 b2 a 2 b 2 c 49 c3 c 3 c 3 b 50 b4 b 4 b 4 b 51 c5 b 5 c 5 b 52 c6 b 6 a 6 a 53 c7 c 7 c 7 c 54 c8 a 8 a 8 a 55 a9 a 9 b 9 c 56 a10 c 10 a 10 a 57 b11 a 11 a 11 c 58 a12 b 12 b 12 a 59 c13 a 13 c 13 c 60 a14 b 14 a 14 b 61 c15 a 15 c 15 c 62 b16 c 16 a 16 a 63 b17 c 17 b 17 b 64 b18 b 18 a 18 c 65 a19 a 19 c 19 a 66 c20 c 20 b 20 b 67 c21 a 21 a 21 b 68 c22 b 22 b 22 a 69 b23 a 23 c 23 b 70 a24 b 24 b 24 a 71 b

25 b 25 a26 c 26 c27 c 27 a28 a 28 c29 a 29 a30 b 30 b31 a 31 c

Water/Methanol Injection

32 c

1 b 33 b2 c 34 c3 a 35 b4 a 36 a5 b 37 b


6 b 38 a7 a 39 b8 c 40 a9 c 41 a

42 b43 a44 c45 b46 a47 b

Air sealing Engine controls Electrical Engine indication1 a 1 c 1 b 1 b2 c 2 c 2 c 2 a3 b 3 b 3 c 3 c4 a 4 b 4 a 4 a5 c 5 c 5 a 5 c6 b 6 a 6 b 6 b7 c 7 a 7 a 7 b8 a 8 c 8 c 8 a9 a 9 a 9 c 9 c

Surge protection 10 b 10 b 10 a1 c 11 a 11 a 11 b2 c 12 c 12 b 12 a3 a 13 b 13 a 13 b4 c 14 b 14 c 14 b5 a 15 a

15 cIce protection 16 a 16 c

1 b 17 c

2 b 18 c3 19 b4 20 c

Ice protection Engine controls

5 b 21 c6 a 22 a7 a 23 c8 c 24 a9 c 25 b10 26 c11 27 a12 28 b

Ignition 29 a1 c

2 b3 c4 c5 b6 a7 c8 aStarting1 b2 b3 c4 b5 c


6 a7 b8 c9 c10 c11 b12 c13 a14 b15 b16 a

Comments:…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

----------------------------------------------------------------END-------------------------------------------------------------------------Landing Gear:

1. The majority of wheels are made from aluminum alloy or magnesium alloy .

2. Divided wheels have a '0' ring seal at the contact face of the wheel halves to form an air seal and to minimize fretting.

3. Before removing a serviceable wheel and tyre from an axle, the tyre pressure must be reduced to 25 psi.

4. Wheel bearings are usually of the tapered roller variety.


5. Fusible plugs are provided to relieve dangerously high pressures in tubeless tyres.

6. Bead wires are usually of copper-coated high tensile steel, and are wrapped in several layers of rubberized fabric together with various rubber fillers which occupy gaps between the wires.\

7. Tier treads: Are patterned to provide a grip on a wet runway. To give good adhesion on hard wet runways, the pattern tread

type tyre is used. The treads of some tyres are re-enforced with layers of

strengthening fabric. The fabric is sometimes referred to as re-enforcing ply.

8. The limits of creep should be strictly observed when inspecting a wheel assembly. In the case of tubeless tyres, the limits are usually much wider. (CAIPs recommend 3 inches maximum).

9. The size of a tyre is usually indicated by a group of three numbers, a typical example being as follows:-

34 x 9.50 – 18.The numbers indicate, in inches:-

a. (34 inches)………..Overall diameter.b. (9.50 inches)…..Section width across the sidewalls.c. (18 inches)………….Bead diameter.

10.Tyre manufacturers provide wear indicators for easy wear assessment by several methods:

Tie bars:o These are small bars of rubber molded in the grooves of the

tyre tread.o Limits - tyre worn to the level of the tie bar.

Wear indicator grooves:o These are grooves in the tread pattern graduated by the

manufacturer to give an indication of tread wear.o The position of these grooves varies from one tyre to

another.o Reference should be made to the appropriate document for

information regarding the exact location of the wear indicator groove on a tyre of any particular part number.

o Limits - tyre worn to the bottom of indicator groove(s). Sipes:

o Certain tyres incorporating a zigzag tread pattern have an axial slit in the tread rubber at some corners of the zigzag.

o The slit does not extend to the depth of the tread, and is called a sipe.

o Limits - tyre worn to the bottom of the sipe.11.Kept in ideal conditions a tyre will not deteriorate for up to

seven years.


12.The tyres on assembled wheels not required for immediate use should be inflated to a pressure between 20 and 30 psi for storage and shipment.

13.BALANCE MARKS:In order that a degree of balancing may be obtained during wheel assembly, the tube is marked, by the manufacturer, with a red line to indicate the heavy side. When the tube is being placed in the tyre, the red line must register with the red dots on the tyre.1246

14.Ref Q.9.

15. ?

16.BOGIE BEAM: The bogie is designed so that the undercarriage can perform

two types of shock absorption. When the weight is off the wheels, as in flight, a small jack

which is attached between the beam and the undercarriage leg ensures that the rear wheels are tilted down, and touch down first on landing.

The tendency for the front wheels to be slammed on to the runway is resisted by this jack, which is known as a bogie tilt jack or hop damper, as it does two jobs.

17.In a HYD retraction SYS, operation in the correct order is achieved by Sequence valves.

18.Pneumatic System: The shuttle valves on the brake units prevent the two systems

being applied to the brakes at the same time, and also keep the two systems separated.

19.HYD accumulator gas pressure can be checked: With the SYS depressurised.

20.ALTERNATE BRAKE PROVISION: A/C that have a split braking system do not need alternate

brakes as 50% braking power will remain usable after one system failure.

21.Pneumatic System: A specially shaped transfer tube is used to prevent the gas

entering the brakes.

22.The MAXARET is driven by a rubber tyre wheel which contacts the A/C wheel. The MAXARET is adjusted so the tyre will firmly contact the A/C wheel.

23.The advantages of anti-skid systems are: Maximum braking efficiency. Reduces the landing run. No skidding or locking of the wheels.


Increased tyre life. The pilot can apply any degree of braking effort without fear

of tyre scrub damage. Anti-Skid Control Unit:

o The anti-skid control unit contains printed circuit cards that send brake release signals to an anti-skid valve. There is normally one card for each brake assembly.

24.?

25.AQUAPLANING9: Aquaplaning or hydroplaning is a condition that occurs on wet

Runways. Although it is a comparatively rare occurrence. It occurs when a wave of water builds up in front of a

spinning wheel, the water is pumped under the wheel by its rotation eventually the tyre is floating on a film of water and not contacting the runway.

The result is a complete loss of braking efficiency from the relevant wheels.

On multi-bogie undercarriages only the front wheels are affected as they wipe a path clear of water for the back wheel to travel through.

Some large modern public transport A/C have aquaplane/hydroplane protection built in to their anti-skid control units to prevent it occurring.

This system compares speeds of tandem wheels on the bogies. Cross cutting of runways has also been tried to allow water to

escape from under the tyres, but on dry runways cross cutting accelerates tyre wear.

26.Ref Q.24.

27.L/G UNSAFE PROTECTION: The position of the L/G is relayed to the pilot by means of

lights on the instrument panel. These lights are operated by micro switches fitted on the "UP"

and "DOWN" LOCKS of the landing gear. On most conventional A/C there are three lights for each L/G

leg:o One green and one red light for normal operation. o And another green light in case of bulb failure.

Some A/C use dual bulbs to guard against bulb failure. Regardless of type, the indications are as follows:-o Green Light……….L/G locked down.o Red Light…………..unlocked.o No Light……………..locked up.

28.HORN CUT OUT BUTTON used.

29.Ref. Q27.

30.NWS systems improves the ground operation of A/C and :

الّس�يطرة . 95 .فقد


Improves tyre life through less scrub. Reduces brake wear. Improves straight line performance during T/O and landing. Saves fuel and engine life, as brakes are no longer required

to turn the A/C with the help of the engines. If the tiller is released the centering spring in the control

valve will return the wheels to the central position.

31.NWS HYD SYSTEMS: The components are: Two jacks with internal centering jacks. A metering (or control) valve sprung loaded to the centre

(wheels straight ahead) position. A bypass valve moved to the bypass position by undercarriage

up line pressure or a towing pin. Damping is provided by the restrictor valves.

32.TOWING: On some A/C a towing pin can be inserted to force the bypass valve to open, this will allow free castoring of the nose wheels when the hydraulic system is pressurized.

33.When undercarriage 'UP' is selected, up line pressure bottoms the centering jacks, the down line becomes the return line.

NWS OPERATION: Inputs are sent to the control valve from the steering tiller in the form of hydraulic pressure from the undercarriage down line.

The bypass valve is opened by up line pressure and ports all sides of the steering jacks to return, so the nose wheels are centered ready to enter the bay.

Flight Control:

1. The range of movement of control surfaces is often expressed in degrees and can be measured with an inclinometer.

2. Rudder pedals may be mounted on torque tubes that cross the floor of the cockpit and link the left and right sets of pedals.

3. The ends of the cable need to be terminated in a manner that will permit them to be connected to the rest of the system. The simplest form is a swaged sleeve used in conjunction with a cable thimble.

4. C.

5. The bell cranks in the wings are linked together by a balance cable in order to maintain the tension in the system, which is adjusted by turnbuckles.

6. To ensure that sufficient thread remains engaged in the barrel, various safety devices are used.

1. With an American turnbuckle there must be no more than three threads showing at each end of the assembly.


2. In a British turnbuckle, small holes are drilled through the barrel, and it must not be possible to push a piece of steel wire through the holes.

7. Wherever a cable flexes in operation, for example round a pulley, wear will take place internally and may lead to failure of the inside wires. Where cables pass through or close to the A/C structure, fairleads made of nylon or fibers are used to prevent contact.

8. A duplicate inspection carried out by two qualified Engineers is required after all work affecting any control system that is used to alter the attitude of the A/C or to change the propulsive force of the engines. This means that all the primary and auxiliary control systems are included.

9. Make sure that pulley guards are in place, that they cannot rotate, and that they do not foul the cable.

10.THE PUSH-PULL RODS: These should be inspected for chafing on the A/C structure and for cracks and corrosion.

1. Cracks are most likely at a change of cross sectional area, a typical area being the last thread on a solid rod.

2. Corrosion is most likely on the inside of hollow rods, especially if they are vertical.

3. Rod ends should be checked for wear, bearing in mind that excessive backlash in a control system can cause control surface flutter.

11.OTHER TRIM SYSTEMS: Another form of trimming device that is often found on the rudder system of light A/C is the spring bias. In this system rotation of the pilot's control wheel will tension one of two springs to apply a slight load .

12. C.

13. C.

14.The loads in the trim system are a lot less than in the main system so much smaller cables and turnbuckles can be used.

15.One of the main considerations in an electric system is that failure of the electric actuator must not prevent the A/C being trimmed manually. From this point of view the actuator is fully reversible and usually incorporates an overload clutch that will slip in an emergency.

16.Adjustable stops are provided at the control surface or at the rear bell crank to limit the range of movement.

17.The screw jack type of actuator has the advantage that the loads on the control system cannot be fed back into the control system. This is known as a non-reversible system.


18. B.

19. In many autopilots an optional unit senses the tension in the main elevator cables and, if it is different in the two cables, it will apply a correction to the trim motor.

20. A.

21. When the flaps reach the full down (up) selection, the actuator trips the down (up) limit switch, which isolates the motor from the power and earths both sides of the motor.

22.The motor is earthed both sides to stop it quickly.

23.In pre-select system the pilot moves the flap selector lever to the desired position, and the flaps will then automatically move to that position. The mechanism is known as a follow-up system or feed-back system.

24.In such a system, it is usual to provide some form of asymmetric protection. Should there be a failure in the system that permits one flap to lower and the other to stay retracted, then the A/C will be subjected to a violent roll maneuver that the pilot may have difficulty controlling.

25.Check the flap travel using an inclinometer and synchronize the position indicator with the actual flap position.

26.B.

27.Ref.Q17.

28.B.

29.C.

30.B.

31.In the simple pneumatic system, the warning is provided by the reed in the horn.

32.The stall warning should sound at a point between five and ten knots before the actual stall.

1. If this margin is not achieved, then it will be necessary to move the sensor on its adjustment slots in the wing.

2. Moving the sensor "adjustable plate" up will cause the warning to operate at a higher speed

3. And moving the plate down reduces the speed at which the warning occurs.

33.As the aerofoil increases its angle of attack, so the vane will be moved upwards. In a simple electric system, the movement of the


vane will operate a micro switch in order to complete an external circuit.

34.In electrically operated systems, it is usual for the vane to be deiced. A small electrical heater is built into the mounting plate, and this is fed from the same circuit as the pitot heater.

35.If the AC has a retractable landing gear and a warning horn is used to indicate that the gear is still retracted, it is necessary to differentiate between the two horns. This is usually done by pulsing the warning horn for the landing gear.

36.In flight, if the wing reaches the stall warning angle of attack:1. The transducer signal to the signal summing unit (SSU)

triggers the audio warning and the stick shaker on the control column.

2. If the angle of attack increases to the stall identification angle, additional warning is given to each pilot by stall identification lights.

37.This also opens the appropriate stick pusher solenoid valve. If there is a stall identification signals from both transducers.then both solenoid valves will be opened and the stick pusher jack moves the elevator to 10 below neutral to pitch the aircraft nose down.

38.The pusher is hydraulically operated, and contains the two solenoid valves that are signaled by the SSUs.

39.Many autopilots provide for automatic pitch trim. A sensor is used to sense the tension in the elevator servo cables If the tensions are uneven the sensor will supply a signal to an electric actuator that will reposition the elevator trim tab.

40. To produce a suitable output signal from the raw input the computer first processes each signal to make it compatible with the others. The processed signals are then brought together and summed algebraically. The output signal is the algebraic sum of the inputs.

41.B.

42.These are the four groups of sensors that provide inputs to an autopilot system, one example of each type:

43.A.

44.The roll trim is often in the form of a small manually operated potentiometer adjacent to, or concentric with, the roll control.

Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.

DISPLACEMENT SENSORS attitude and directional gyrosRATE SENSORS turn and slip gyroMANOMETRIC SENSORS Height and airspeed locks.

RADIO SENSORSSignals derived from radio navigation aids, e.g., VOR, ILS, ADF, VLF, OMEGA and DOPPLER.

104 / 106

Load = 'Q' =

45.However electric motors are not designed for proportional movement and the motor will keep moving the control surface as long as there is an input signal. To avoid this situation we use a potentiometer driven by the servo actuator to provide a feedback signal that is opposite in polarity to the error signal. As the servo actuator displaces the control surface so we have a negative feedback signal that is reducing the amount of the error signal until the motor comes to a standstill.

46.In an electric actuator the signal from the computer is amplified and fed to a reversible D.C. electric motor.

47.The control wheel will follow movement of the DG card and heading bug.

48.One possible cause of an autopilot 'hunting' about the desired attitude is slack servo actuator interconnect cables.

49.C. page 2347 of 4568.

50.A.

51.C. page 2355 of 4568.1. In the spring feel unit we have just discussed, the feel

remains constant throughout the aircraft's operating range; it is solely dependent on the strength of the springs.

2. 'Q' Feel The loading on a control surface depends on 3 factors, the:-i. Air speed. ii. Air density (altitude). iii. Control surface deflection into the airflow.

3. The resultant of airspeed and density is called dynamic pressure.

4. The actual air loads are calculated by the formula:

52.In a simple 'Q' feel system the control inputs are linked to a cylinder with pitot pressure (speed) on one side, and static (Density - altitude) on the other side.

53.Powered flight controls are required on large or high speed aircraft.

Spoilers, Air Brakes, Leading Edge Lift Augmentation

54.The positioning of the spoilers is designed so that the pitch trim of the aircraft is not adversely effected by their deployment.

55.Spoiler panels require two signals to enable them :1. An input from a speed brake lever. 2. An input from the aileron control.


56.The speed brake down position is detented to prevent inadvertent10 operation, the other positions-on the speed brake handle are:

1. Armed.2. Flight.3. Up.

57.B.

58.B.

59.Flap asymmetry is an extremely dangerous condition as it causes severe roll which if left unchecked is unable to be corrected by opposite roll commands from the ailerons, therefore it must be stopped as soon as it is sensed, before it can lead to a hazardous condition.

60.The bypass valve is an electrically operated hydraulic valve, it serves two functions:-

1. Asymmetric protection.2. Alternate operation.

Flap Operating Systems, Asymmetric Protection, Alternate Systems, Flap Load Relief

61.The PDU is located in the wheel well area of the aircraft.1. An input is made by operating the flap lever on the flight

deck.2. a cable system attached to the flap lever terminates at a

cable quadrant which will move the input rod on the PDU.3. This input will revolve the input cam and through a summing

link system move the control valve in the required direction (flaps extend or retract).

4. Hydraulic pressure will enter the hydraulic motor, the motor's rotation will then turn the gearbox which will in turn revolve the torque tube drives out to the flaps.

5. The gearbox also drives a worm gear which operates a follow up (or nulling) cam.

6. When the output is equal to the input command, the summing lever will centralize the control valve and the PDU will stop in the required position.

62.

10 ? . . غافل .


Documents

ATITA Questions & Answers