Upkar Prakashan, Agra-2

By

Dr. Lal & Jain

© Publishers

PublishersUPKAR PRAKASHAN2/11A, Swadeshi Bima Nagar, AGRA–282 002Phone : 4053333, 2530966, 2531101Fax : (0562) 4053330E-mail : care@upkar.in, Website : www.upkar.in

Branch Offices4845, Ansari Road, Daryaganj, 1-8-1/B, R.R. Complex (Near Sundaraiah Park, Paras Bhawan (First Floor),New Delhi–110 002 Adjacent to Manasa Enclave Gate), Khazanchi Road,Phone : 011–23251844/66 Bagh Lingampally, Hyderabad–500 044 Patna–800 004

Phone : 040–66753330 Phone. : 0612–2673340

28, Chowdhury Lane, Shyam B-33, Blunt Square, 8-310/1, A. K. House,Bazar, Near Metro Station, Kanpur Taxi Stand, Mawaiya, Heeranagar, Haldwani,Gate No. 4 Lucknow–226 004 (U.P.) Distt.–Nainital–263139Kolkata–700004 (W.B.) Phone : 0522–4109080 (Uttarakhand)Phone : 033–25551510 Mob. : 7060421008

1461, Juni Shukrawari, 63-64, Kailash Marg,Sakkardara Road, Ground Floor,Opp. Hanuman Mandir, Shreeji Avenue, Malharganj,Nagpur–440 009 Indore–452 002 (M.P.)Phone : 0712–6564222 Phone : 9203908088

● The publishers have taken all possible precautions in publishing this book, yet if any mistake has creptin, the publishers shall not be responsible for the same.

● This book or any part thereof may not be reproduced in any form by Photographic, Mechanical, orany other method, for any use, without written permission from the Publishers.

● Only the courts at Agra shall have the jurisdiction for any legal dispute.

ISBN : 978-93-85888-94-6

Code No. 1916

Printed at : UPKAR PRAKASHAN (Printing Unit) Bye-pass, AGRA

Contents

• Solved Model PapersSECTION–I

• English Language .....................................................................................................1– 71

1. Common Errors .......................................................................................................... 3–27

2. Antonyms ................................................................................................................... 28–32

3. Synonyms ................................................................................................................... 33–38

4. Sentence Completion (Effective Words, Phrases, Prepositions, Conjunctions etc.) ......... 39–46

5. One Word Substitution ................................................................................................ 47–49

6. Comprehension ........................................................................................................... 50–60

7. Passage Completion .................................................................................................... 61–64

8. Completion of Paragraphs & Sentences (Re-ordering of Sentences, Phrases) .............. 65–71

SECTION–II

• Reasoning Ability .....................................................................................................1– 96

1. Commonsense Reasoning ............................................................................................ 3–4

2. Coding and Decoding .................................................................................................. 5–7

3. Statement and Argument ............................................................................................. 8–10

4. Analytical Reasoning .................................................................................................. 11–20

5. Statement and Course of Action ................................................................................. 21–27

6. Statement and Conclusion ........................................................................................... 28–31

7. Statement and Assumption .......................................................................................... 32–39

8. Direction Sense Test ................................................................................................... 40–41

9. Sitting Arrangement ..................................................................................................... 42–44

10. Data Sufficiency ......................................................................................................... 45–48

11. Logical Diagrams ........................................................................................................ 49–50

12. Ranking Test ...............................................................................................................51–52

13. Numerical Puzzles ....................................................................................................... 53–55

( iv )

14. Syllogism ..................................................................................................................... 56–67

15. Fictitious Symbols ........................................................................................................ 68–73

16. Input-Output ................................................................................................................ 74–81

17. Cause and Effect ........................................................................................................ 82–85

18. Passage and Inferences .............................................................................................. 86–93

19. Word Relationship (Analogy and Classification) ........................................................... 94–96

SECTION–III

• Quantitative Aptitude ..............................................................................................1– 80

1. Percentage ................................................................................................................. 3–5

2. Profit & Loss ............................................................................................................ 6–10

3. Ratio and Proportion .................................................................................................. 11–15

4. Partnership ................................................................................................................. 16–18

5. Average ..................................................................................................................... 19–21

6. Simple Interest ........................................................................................................... 22–24

7. Compound Interest ..................................................................................................... 25–27

8. Discount, Stock and Shares ........................................................................................ 28–29

9. Work and Time ........................................................................................................... 30–33

10. Speed, Time and Distance .......................................................................................... 34–39

11. Unitary Method .......................................................................................................... 40–42

12. Problems Based on Ages ............................................................................................ 43–46

13. Problems Based on Fractions ...................................................................................... 47–50

14. Problems Based on Numbers ...................................................................................... 51–54

15. Alligation ..................................................................................................................... 55–58

16. Area ........................................................................................................................... 59–62

17. Interpretation of Data ................................................................................................. 63–80

( v )

GENERAL INFORMATION

●●●●● NationalityA candidate applying for recruitment in the Company must be either—

(a) a citizen of India, or (b) a subject of Nepal, or (c) a subject of Bhutan, or (d) a Tibetan refugee who cameover to India before January 1, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or (e) a person of Indianorigin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the UnitedRepublic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling inIndia.

Please note that the eligibility criteria specified herein are the basic criteria for applying for the post.At the time of interview the Candidates must necessarily produce the relevant documents in original anda self-attested photocopy in support of their identity and eligibility pertaining to category, nationality, age,educational qualifications etc. as indicated in the online application form. Please note that no change ofapplication data will be permitted at any stage after completion of registration process of the onlineapplication. Merely applying for the post and being shortlisted in the online examination and/or in thesubsequent interview and/or subsequent processes does not imply that a candidate will necessarily beoffered employment in the Company. No request for considering the candidature under any category/postother than the one in which applied will be entertained.

Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) shall be a person in whose favoura certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

●●●●● Service ConditionsThe service conditions will be applicable as per the prevalent rules of the Company from time-to-time.

Selected candidates on appointment may be posted or transferred to any place in India as may be decided by theCompany.

●●●●● ProbationA candidate appointed in the Officers’ cadre on regular pay rolls of the Company shall be on probation for

a period of one year from the date of joining the duty. The probation period may be extended twice by a furtherperiod of six months at a time stretching up to one year.

During the probation period the Officers would be required to pass the non-life “Licentiate Examination”conducted by Insurance Institute of India. Only after passing the said examination the Officer will be eligible forconfirmation of his/her services in the Company. Failure to pass the said Examination within the extendedprobation period will render the officer liable to be terminated from service on expiry of the period so specified.

The Company reserves the right to terminate the services of the candidate if found unsuitable at any timeduring the probation period or the extended probation period without any notice or assigning any reason thereof.

●●●●● Guarantee BondBefore joining as probationer, the selected candidates will be required to give an undertaking to serve the

Company for a minimum period of four years including probation period. In the event of their resigning fromthe Company before the expiry of the bond period, they will be liable to pay liquidated damages equivalent toone year’s gross salary paid to them during the year of probation which could be proportionately reduceddepending on the length of service rendered. Besides, he/she will have to submit a stamped Bond duly executedby two sureties (not blood relatives) of sound financial standing for an amount equivalent to one year’s gross salary.

( vi )

Candidates resigning from the Company during the probation period and candidates whose services areterminated by the Company during the probation period shall be liable to pay the salary received by them duringtheir entire service in the Company in addition to an amount of `25,000/- towards partial cost of training.

No lien/bond executed to retain a substantive post with present employer will be binding upon the Companyand no leave Salary or Pension Contribution will be made.

●●●●● Educational Qualification (As on stipulated date)

For Generalist Stream, a candidate must possess the minimum qualification of a graduate/postgraduate in any discipline from a recognized University or any equivalent qualification recognized as such byCentral Government with at least 60% marks in either of the degree examination for General candidates andat least 55% marks for SC/ST/PWD candidates.

Candidate should possess certificate in proof of passing the qualifying examination as on stipulated date.

Note :(a) Educational qualifications should be from a University/Institution/Board recognised by Govt. of India/

approved by Govt. Regulatory Bodies and the result should have been declared on or before stipulated date.

(b) Proper document from Board/University for having declared the result on or before stipulated date has tobe submitted at the time of interview.

(c) The candidate must possess valid Mark-sheet/Degree Certificate of the necessary qualification as onstipulated date.

(d) The percentage marks shall be arrived at by dividing the total marks obtained by the candidate in all thesubjects in all semester(s)/year(s) by aggregate maximum marks in all the subjects irrespective of honours/optional/additional optional subject, if any. This will be applicable for those Universities also where Class/Grade is decided on basis of Honours marks only. The fraction of percentage so arrived will be ignored i.e.,59·99% will be treated as less than 60%.

(e) Where CGPA/OGPA are awarded, the candidate will have to produce a certificate issued by the appropriateauthority inter alia stating the norms of the University regarding conversion of grade into percentage andthe percentage of marks scored by the candidate in terms of norms.

●●●●● Age (As on stipulated date)

A candidate must be of the Minimum Age of 21 years and the Maximum Age of 30 years as on the stipulateddate for this purpose. Relaxation in upper age limit will be permissible as per rules.

●●●●● Selection ProcedurePhase-I : Preliminary Examination

Preliminary Examination consisting of Objective Tests for 100 marks will be conducted online. This testwould be of 1 hour duration consisting of 3 sections as follows :

S. No.Name of the Test Type of Max.

Duration Version(not in sequence) Test Marks

1. English Language Objective 30 English

2. Reasoning Ability Objective 35 1 hours Eng./Hin.

3. Quantitative Aptitude Objective 35 Eng./Hin.

Total 100

Candidates have to qualify in each test by securing passing marks to be decided by the Company. Adequatenumber of candidates in each category as decided by the Company (approximately 15 times the numbers ofvacancies subject to availability) will be shortlisted for the Main Examination.

1 hour

( vii )

Phase-II : Main Examination

Main Examination will consist of Objective Tests for 200 marks and Descriptive Test for 30 marks. Both the

Objective and Descriptive Tests will be online. Candidates will have to answer Descriptive Test by typing on thecomputer. Immediately after completion of Objective Test, Descriptive Test will be administered.

(i) Objective Test : The Objective Test of 2 hours duration consists of 4 sections for total 200 marks.

S. No.Name of the Test Type of Max. Medium of

Duration(not in sequence) Test Marks Exam

1. Test of Reasoning Objective 50 Eng./Hin.

2. Test of English Language Objective 50 English

3. Test of General Awareness Objective 50 Eng./Hin.

4. Test of Quantitative Aptitude Objective 50 Eng./Hin.

Total (Aggregate) 200

(ii) Descriptive Test : The Descriptive Test of 30 minutes duration with 30 marks will be a Test of EnglishLanguage (Letter Writing-10 marks & Essay-20 marks). The descriptive test will be in English and will be

conducted through on-line mode.

Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum score for each section of objective test separately forshort listing for the Descriptive Test Evaluation/Interview. Descriptive answer script would be evaluated only in

respect of those candidates who qualify the objective test. Depending on the number of vacancies available, cut

offs will be decided for Descriptive paper evaluation.

Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum total score (to be decided by the Company according

to number of vacancies) in the objective test (main examination) and qualify in the descriptive test for short listing

for the Interview.

A candidate shall be required to qualify in the descriptive test, but the marks in the descriptive test willnot be counted towards short listing for Interview or final selection.

Penalty for Wr ong Answers (Applicable to both – Preliminary and Main Examination)

There will be penalty for wrong answers marked in the Objective Tests. Each question for which a wrong

answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as

penalty to arrive at corrected score. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is marked by the candidate, therewill be no penalty for that question.

The Company reserves the right to modify the structure of the examination which will be intimated through

its website.

Phase-III : Interview

Candidates who have been shortlisted at the end of Phase-II will subsequently be called for an Interview to

be conducted by the Company. Interview will be conducted at select centres. The weightage (ratio) of online

Examination and interview will be 80 : 20 respectively. The centre, address of the venue, time & date of Interviewwill be informed to the shortlisted candidates in the call letter. Candidates are required to download their interview

call letters from company’s website. Please note that any request regarding change in date, centre etc. of interview

will not be entertained. However the company reserves the right to change the date/venue/time/centre etc. ofinterview or hold supplementary process for particular date/session/venue/centre/set of candidates at its discretion,

under unforeseen circumstances, if any.

120 minutes

( viii )

Final Selection

Final selection would be based on consolidated marks of main examination (objective test) & Interview. Thefinal merit list shall be prepared in descending order of the consolidated marks secured by the candidates.Candidates who fall within the number of vacancies in the merit list shall be considered for appointment. Theselected candidates may be appointed in more than one batch as per the discretion of the Management. Theseniority of the selected candidates will be as per the merit/select list. A waiting list of candidates not exceeding50% of the number of vacancies may also be prepared and may be utilized in the event of non-acceptance ofemployment offer by the candidates selected in the final merit list.

The candidates are advised to ensure that they fulfill requirements of age and qualification (final resultfor the qualification must have been published on or before stipulated date) before they apply. If a candidateis found ineligible, his/her candidature will be cancelled at any stage of recruitment. Appearing in the ONLINEEXAMINATION(S) & INTERVIEW will not automatically confer any right of being selected for the said post.

Please note that candidates will not be permitted to appear for the online examination without thefollowing documents :

(1) Valid Call Letter for the respective date and session of Examination

(2) Photo-identity proof (as specified) in original bearing exactly the same name and other information asit appears on the call letter/application form and

(3) Photocopy of the above photo-identity proof (as given in the advertisement)

Administrative Officer (Generalists) Pre. Exam.Solved Model Paper

Model Paper–1

Reasoning AbilityDirections—(Q. 1 to 5) Study the following

information to answer the given questions.A, B, C, X, Y, Z are seated in a straight line facing

North. C is third to the right of Z and B sits second tothe right of C. X sits to the immediate right of A.1. Which of the following represents the pair of

persons sitting exactly in the middle of the line ?(A) XB (B) ZB(C) BX (D) XC(E) XY

2. What is X’s position with respect to Z ?(A) Immediate right of Z (B) Second to the left(C) Third to the right (D) Second to the right(E) None of the above

3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain waybased on their seating positions in the abovearrangement and so form a group. Which is the onethat does not belong to the group ?(A) ZA (B) XC(C) CY (D) YB(E) XA

4. How many persons are seated between A and C ?(A) One (B) Two(C) Three (D) Four(E) None of these

5. If A : X and Z : A, then Y ?(A) Y (B) B(C) A (D) X(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 6 to 10) Study the followingarrangement carefully and answer the questions givenbelow—H 9 3 P $ K E % 4 F R 1 U @ W G 2 M I 5 B Q Z 6 ©* N δ 8 V J6. If all the symbols and numbers are dropped from the

above arrangement, which of the following will bethe 14th from the right end ?(A) M (B) K(C) W (D) E(E) None of these

7. What should come in place of the question mark (?)in the following series based on the abovearrangement ?

PK%, RUW, M5Q, ?(A) ©N8 (B) ©Nδ(C) 6 * δ (D) 6 * 8(E) None of these

8. How many such numbers are there in the abovearrangement each of which is immediately precededby a letter and immediately followed by a symbol ?(A) None (B) One(C) Two (D) Three(E) More than three

9. Which of the following is the 7th to the left of the20th from the left end of the above arrangement ?(A) U (B) $(C) I (D) N(E) None of these

10. How many such consonants are there in the abovearrangement each of which is immediately followedby a number but not immediately preceded by anumber ?(A) None (B) One(C) Two (D) Three(E) More than three

Directions—(Q. 11 to 15) In the followingquestion, the symbols *, δ, %, @ and © are used withthe following meaning as illustrated below.

‘P%Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.‘P©Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equalto Q’.‘P*Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equalto Q’.‘PδQ’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.‘P@Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smallerthan Q’.Now, in each of the following questions assuming

the given statements to be true, find which of the threeconclusions I, II and III given below them is/aredefinitely true and give your answer accordingly.11. Statements : RδK, K*M, M@J

Conclusions :I. J©K II. M©RIII. R*J(A) Only I and II are true(B) Only II and III are true(C) Only I and III are true(D) All I, II and III are true(E) None of the above

2M | A.O. Pre. Exam. (Scale-I)

12. Statements : Z©M, M©K, K*F

Conclusions :I. F©Z II. K*ZIII. F©M(A) None is true (B) Only I is true(C) Only II is true (D) Only III is true(E) Only II and III are true

13. Statements : B*J, J%W, W©MConclusions :I. M*J II. W*BIII. B©M(A) None is true (B) Only I is true(C) Only II is true (D) Only III is true(E) Only I and III are true

14. Statements : V%H, H@F, FδEConclusions :I. F@V II. F*VIII. E%H(A) Only either I and II is true(B) Only III is true(C) Only I and II are true(D) All I, II and III are true(E) Only either I or II and III are true

15. Statements : W © T, T δ M, N % DConclusions :I. D * TII. W © MIII. D @ T(A) None is true (B) Only I is true(C) Only II is true (D) Only III is true(E) Only I and II are true

Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Following questions arebased on the five three-digit numbers given below.

528, 739, 846, 492, 37516. Which of the following represents the sum of the

first two digits of the highest number ?(A) 7 (B) 10(C) 12 (D) 13(E) None of these

17. If the positions of the first and the second digits ofeach number are interchanged, which of thefollowing will be the third digit of the secondhighest number ?(A) 8 (B) 9(C) 6 (D) 2(E) 5

18. If the positions of the first and the third digits ofeach number are interchanged, which of thefollowing will be the middle digit of the thirdhighest number ?(A) 2 (B) 3(C) 4 (D) 9(E) 7

19. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having differentweight. R is heavier than only P and S is lighterthan Q and heavier than T. Who among them is theheaviest ?(A) P(B) Q(C) S(D) Cannot be determined(E) None of the above

20. If blue is called green, green is called white, white iscalled black, black is called red, and red is calledyellow, then which of the following is the colour ofunripe banana ?(A) Black (B) Green(C) White (D) Yellow(E) Red

Directions—(Q. 21 to 25) Study the followinginformation carefully to answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine whengiven an input line of words and numbers rearrangesthem following a particular rule. The following aparticular rule. The following is an illustration of inputand rearrangement, steps—Input : why is 25 bigger than 14 but smaller than 32.Step I : than 14 why is 25 bigger but smaller than 32.Step II : than 14 is 25 why bigger but smaller than 32.Step III : than 14 is 25 than 32 why bigger but smaller.Step IV : than 14 is 25 than 32 why smaller bigger but.Step V : than 14 is 25 than 32 why smaller but bigger.

And step V is the last step of the rearrangement ofthe above input as the intended rearrangement isobtained.

As per the rules followed in the above steps,indicate the answer in each of the following questionswith respect to the appropriate step for the given input.

Input for the questions—any number less than 30 and more than 20 does not

equal 40.

21. Which step number would be the following output ?than 20 any number less than 30 and more does notequal 40.(A) III (B) IV(C) V (D) VI(E) None of these

22. How many steps would be needed to complete thearrangement ?(A) X (B) VIII(C) IX (D) VII(E) None of these

23. Which of the following would be step IV ?(A) than 20 than 30 equal 40 any number less and

more does not(B) than 20 any number less than 30 and more does

not equal 40

A.O. Pre. Exam. (Scale-I) | 3M

(C) 20, 30, 40 than equal number any less andmore does not

(D) 20 than 30 than 40 equal number any less andmore does not

(E) None of the above

24. Which of the following would be the step II ?(A) 20 than 30 than any number less and more does

not equal 40(B) than 20 than 30 equal 40 any number less and

more does not(C) than 20 than 30 any number less and more does

not equal 40(D) than 20 than 30 any number less and more does

not 40 equal(E) None of the above

25. Which word/number would be on 8th position fromleft side in step V ?(A) any (B) not(C) 40 (D) number(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) Study the followinginformation to answer the given questions—

In a certain code—‘share market doing well’ is written as ‘va jo ba

ma’.‘learn to share stuff’ is written as ‘si’ pa la va’.‘well known to market’ is written as ‘si nu ma jo’

and‘stuff the whole market’ is written as ‘fi ma pa do’.

26. What is the code for ‘whole’ ?(A) pa (B) fi(C) ma (D) do(E) Either ‘fi’ or ‘do’

27. What is the code for ‘market’ ?(A) va (B) jo(C) ba (D) ma(E) Cannot be determined

28. What does the code ‘ba’ stand for ?(A) well (B) share(C) doing (D) whole(E) Either ‘market’ or ‘doing’

29. Which of the following represents ‘well knownshare’ ?(A) jo nu pa (B) va nu fi(C) nu va jo (D) va jo qo(E) jo ma la

30. Which of the following may represent ‘learn toexcel’ ?(A) zi si la (B) la si pa(C) la zi qo (D) si fi qo(E) si la do

Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) In each question beloware two/three statements followed by two conclusionsnumbered I and II. You have to take the two/three givenstatements to be true even if they seem to be at variancefrom commonly known facts and then decide which ofthe given conclusions logically follows from the givenstatements disregarding commonly known facts. Giveanswer—

(A) If only conclusion I follows.(B) If only conclusion II follows.(C) If either I or II follows.(D) If neither I nor II follows.(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.

Directions—(Q. 31 and 32)Statements :Some colours are paints.All colours are varnishes.No varnish is dye.

31. Conclusions :I. No paint is dye.II. All paints being varnishes is a possibility.

32. Conclusions :I. Some varnishes are paints.II. No dye is colour.

Directions—(Q. 33 and 34)Statements :All squares are triangle.No triangle is circle.All circles are rectangles.

33. Conclusions :I. No rectangle is sequare.II. All rectangles being square is a possibility.

34. Conclusions :I. No square is circle.II. Atleast some circles are squares.

35. Statements :No paper is book.Some books are libraries.Conclusions :I. All libraries being books is a possibility.II. No library is paper.

Quantitative AptitudeDirections—(Q. 36-40) What value will come in

place of question mark (?) in the question given below ?

36.√⎯⎯⎯196

7 ×

√⎯⎯⎯576

√⎯⎯144 ×

√⎯⎯258

= ?

(A)52

(B)43

(C)72

(D)127

(E) None of these

4M | A.O. Pre. Exam. (Scale-I)

37. 19 × ? + 162 = 2,620(A) 105·25 (B) 124·42(C) 144·75 (D) 94·75(E) None of these

38. √⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯260 × √⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯0·0676 × √⎯⎯⎯100 = ?(A) 27 (B) 36(C) 26 (D) 30(E) None of these

39. (250 of 18% + 25% of 144) of ? = 54

(A)23

(B)32

(C)49

(D)13

(E) None of these

40. 777 + 391 = ? × 16(A) 71 (B) 73(C) 75 (D) 77(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 41-45) In each of these questionstwo equations are given. You have to solve theseequations and find out the value of x and y and giveAnswer.

(A) If x < y(B) If x > y(C) If x ≤ y(D) If x ≥ y(E) If x = y or the relation cannot established.

41. I. x = √⎯⎯⎯6·76II. y2 = 6·76

42. I. 12x2 = 6xII. y + x2 = 0·45

43. I. x2 + 7x + 12 = 0II. y2 + 5y + 6 = 0

44. I. 4x + 3y = 16II. 2x + 2y = 9

45. I. 10x2 – 29x + 21 = 0II. y2 + 91 = 20y

46. A commander of a regiment wishes to arrange hissoldiers in the rows either 12, 15, 18, 20 and alsowishes to see his regiment arranged in the form of asolid square. What is the least number of soldiers inhis regiment ?(A) 180 (B) 360(C) 900 (D) 1440(E) None of these

47. One third part of officers and one half part ofinspectors of an institution took part in aconference. If the total number of officers andinspectors who took part is 480. Then what is thetotal number of officers and inspectors in theinstitution ?

(A) 680 (B) 800(C) 1200 (D) Data inadequate(E) None of these

48. A man covers a distance of 1200 km in 70 daysresting 9 hours a day. If he rests 10 hours a day and

walks with speed 112 times of the previous in how

many days will be cover 750 km ?

(A) 30 (B) 3114

(C) 31 (D) 33(E) None of these

49. A shopkeeper allows a discount of 1212% and 10%

on the marked price of an item. If the price of theitem after allowing the discounts is 63, then whatis marked price of the item ?(A) 75 (B) 85(C) 92 (D) 80(E) None of these

50. Krishna covers a certain distance by train at 25km/hr. and the same distance on foot at 4 km/hr. Ifthe time taken by him for the whole journey be 5 hrsand 48 minutes, how much total distance did hecover ?(A) 30 km (B) 40 km(C) 25 km (D) 35 km(E) None of these

51. A can complete a work in 24 days while B can

complete 23

rd part of the same work in 12 days. If

they work together, in how many days will theycomplete the double work ?

(A) 517

(B) 1027

(C) 1727

(D) 2047

(E) None of these

52. Veeri sells a horse to Kanchan at a profit of 17%.Kanchan sells the horse to Radhey at a loss of 25%.If Radhey pays 1053 to Kanchan, what is the priceof the horse to Veeri ?(A) 1,200 (B) 1,400(C) 1,000 (D) 800(E) None of these

53. If the profit of 6,000 is divided between A, B andC in the ratio of 4 : 5 : 3, what is the differencebetween the shares of B and C ?(A) 500 (B) 1,200(C) 2,500 (D) 400(E) None of these

54. Jagmohan, Rooplal and Pandeji jointly hired a vediocassette for 350. If they use it for 6 hours, 10hours and 12 hours respectively, what is the share ofPandeji for rent ?

A.O. Pre. Exam. (Scale-I) | 5M

(A) 75 (B) 125(C) 35 (D) 150(E) None of these

55. Out of three numbers, first number is twice of thesecond number and half of the third number. If theaverage of all the three numbers is 56, what will bethe largest number ?(A) 90 (B) 80(C) 70 (D) 96(E) None of these

56. If the compound interest of a sum for 3 years at 5%per annum be 126·10, then what will be the simpleinterest of the same sum for the same period and atthe same rate ?(A) 140 (B) 160(C) 120 (D) 100(E) None of these

57. Kumud’s mark in Geography are 20 more than theaverage marks obtained by him in English, History,Geography and Mathematics. What is the differencebetween the marks obtained by him in History andMathematics ? To answer the above question, whichof the following information given in the statementsI and II is/are sufficient ?

I. Total marks obtained by him in Geography andHistory is 160.

II. The total marks obtained by him in History,Geography and Mathematics is 210.

(A) Both I and II together are not sufficient

(B) Both I and II together are needed

(C) Only I alone is sufficient

(D) Only II alone is sufficient

(E) Either I or II alone is sufficient

58. The total of the present ages of P, Q, R and S is 96years. To find out Q’s present age, which of thefollowing information given in the statements (I)and (II) is/are sufficient ?

I. The average age of P, Q and S is 20.

II. The average age of R and S is 25.

(A) Either (I) or (II) is sufficient

(B) Both (I) and (II) together are needed

(C) Only (II) is sufficient

(D) Both (I) and (II) together are not sufficient

(E) Only I is sufficient

Directions—(Q. 59-65) What value will come inplace of question mark (?) in the number series givenbelow ?

59. 50, 75, 150, ?, 1125

(A) 375 (B) 400

(C) 750 (D) 625

(E) None of these

60. 74, 144, 426, ?, 8470(A) 1500 (B) 1696(C) 1496 (D) 1600(E) None of these

61. 636, 316, 156, ?, 36, 16(A) 70 (B) 110(C) 96 (D) 76(E) None of these

62. 293, 172, 91, 42, ?, 8, 17(A) 17 (B) 15(C) 19 (D) 16(E) None of these

63. 15, 45, 90, 360, ?, 2160, 8640(A) 1020 (B) 1080(C) 1060 (D) 1050(E) None of these

64. The ratio in the present ages of Sumit and Nishith is8 : 9. If 7 years ago it was 9 : 11. What is thepresent age of Nishith ?(A) 15 years (B) 10 years(C) 18 years (D) 20 years(E) None of these

65. In what time a sum of money will double itself at arate of simple interest of 8% p.a. ?

(A) 1212 years (B) 7 years

(C) 12 years (D) 814 years

(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 66-70) Study the following graphcarefully and give Answer.

Group I

Water70%

Proteins16%

Other dry

products

14%

Group II

Muscles1/3

Skin1/10

Bones1/6

Humanenzyme,

antibody andother proteins

2/5

Distribution of Proteins inhuman body

6M | A.O. Pre. Exam. (Scale-I)

66. What is the ratio between the distribution of proteinin muscles and distribution of protein in bones ?(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1(C) 18 : 1 (D) 1 : 18(E) None of these

67. The skin is how many per cent of the entire bodyweight ?(A) 0·016%(B) 1·6%(C) 0·16%(D) Information is insufficient(E) None of these

68. How many degrees of the circular graph indicate thedistribution of proteins and other dry products ?(A) 126° (B) 54°(C) 108° (D) 252°(E) None of these

69. How much water is contained in a human bodyweighing 50 kg ?(A) 35 kg (B) 120 kg(C) 71·42 kg (D) 20 kg(E) None of these

70. What fraction of protein in the body is made fromneither muscles nor bones nor skin ?(A) 2/5 (B) 3/5(C) 1/40 (D) 3/80(E) None of these

General EnglishDirections—(Q. 71–75) Which of the phrases (A),

(B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence shouldrepalce the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentenceto make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence iscorrect as it is given and ‘No correction is required’,mark (E) as the answer.

71. The police have also managed to identity a thirdaccused and are hopeful of making an arrest soon—(A) managed the identity(B) managed to identify(C) managed identification(D) manage to identify(E) No correction required

72. The formalities are likely to be over by nextweek—(A) likely over (B) liked to be over(C) liked overtly (D) likely be(E) No correction required

73. Out of six thousand children who were to be givenspectacles, only two thousand been given spectaclesso far—(A) have been given (B) being given(C) are giving (D) gave(E) No correction required

74. The judge said that globalization has done harmthan good to Indians as only 25 per cent of thepopulation in India has been benefitted from it whilethe remaining 75 per cent belonging to lower andmiddle class has been hit hard—(A) more harm than good(B) No harm but good(C) harm(D) no harm and good(E) No correction required

75. Potato growers turn down the freight subsidy offersaying it would not bail them out of the crisis—(A) refused for (B) turned down(C) refusing (D) said no(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 76–80) Read each sentence to findout whether there is any grammatical error or idiomaticerror in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of thesentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is‘No error’, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors ofpunctuation, if any).

76. If there’s one thing that stands out / in sharp contrast(A) (B)

to performing at venues abroad, / it is the lack in(C)

facilities and poor acoustics / at several venues in the(D)

city. No error(E)

77. Catching the cops by surprise, / and agitated mob of(A) (B)

protestors / nearly landed up at the official / resident(C)

of the minister. No error(D) (E)

78. No much has been done/to break this vicious cycle,/(A) (B)

barring occasional talk of / regularising unauthorised(C) (D)

colonies. No error(E)

79. Despite reminders, municipal corporations in the(A)

State / continue to overlook the serious problem /(B)

of disposal off of / solid and bio-medical waste.(C) (D)

No error(E)

80. This is the largest tribal communities / and believes(A) (B)

staunchly / in the system of / worshipping the lords.(C) (D)

No error(E)

The New India Assurance Co. Ltd.Administrative Officers (Generalists)

Preliminary Exam. (Scale-I)

Publisher : Upkar Prakashan ISBN : 9789385888946 Author : Dr. Lal & Jain

Type the URL : http://www.kopykitab.com/product/11881

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