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Team Motivation FMGE Coaching Academy

Mock Test – 1 Dec – 2018

Team Motivation FMGE Coaching Academy – 9999734551 Page 1

1. The SA node is situated at: a. Triangle of Koch b. Fossa ovalis c. Coronary sinus d. Crista terminalis

2. The superficial fatty layer of lower abdominal wall is:

a. Camper’s fascia b. Scarpa’s fascia c. Cremasteric fascia d. Thoraco-lumbar fascia

3. The clotting of blood in normal intact vascular segment is prevented by all of the following except

a. Smooth endothelium b. Absence of glycocalyx on endothelium c. Presence of thrombomodulin d. Continuous blood flow

4. What is Hering-Breuer inflation refllex a. A chemically mediated reflex for inspiration b. A stretch receptor mediated reflex for

stopping inspiration c. A chemically mediated reflex to stop

respiration d. None of the above

5. Type of amyloidosis seen in Rheumatoid arthritis is:

a. AL / Primary b. AA / Reactive systemic amyloidosis c. Aβ d. Aβ2m

6. All of the following genes are present on chromosome number 17 except:

a. p53 b. BRCA-1 c. Neurofibromatosis – 1 d. None of the above

7. All of the following tumour are associated with PTEN gene except:

a. Follicular carcinoma of thyroid b. Endometrial carcinoma c. Ovarian carcinoma d. Breast carcinoma

8. Thyroid hormone belong to which class of hormone

a. Steroids b. Proteins c. Polypeptides d. Amino acid derivatives

9. Most synapses in the nervous system are a. Chemical b. Electrical c. Mechanical d. Conjoint

10. The constituents of supermatic cord are all except:

a. Genital branch of genito-femoral nerve b. Ilio-inguinal nerve c. Pampiniform plexus of veins d. Remains of processusvaginalis

11. The foramen of Winslow connect: a. Greater sac with omental bursa b. Greater sac with pelvic cavity c. Thoracic cavity with abdominal cavity d. None

12. All of the following structures pass through foramen ovale except:

a. Maxillary nerve b. Mandibular nerve c. Accessory meningeal artery d. Lesser petrosal nerve

13. Which of the following agent(s) are associated with gingival hyperplasia?

a. Nifedipine b. Cyclosporin c. Phenytoin d. All of the above

14. Unfractionated heparin inactivates clotting factor(s).

a. Xa b. IIa c. Both A & B d. Antithrombin III

15. What is the main clinical use for agonists of the β2-adrenoceptor?

a. Treatment of angina b. Treatment of hypertension c. Treatment of arrhythmias d. None of the above

16. Preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers release ____, postganglionic parasympathetic fibers release ____ and postganglionic sympathetic fibers release ____ .

a. ACh; ACh; NE b. ACh; NE; ACh c. NE; ACh; NE d. NE; NE; Ach

17. Chordalchondrocranium include all except: a. Ethmoid b. Body of sphenoid c. Petrous part of temporal bone d. Basiocciput

18. Which of the following compounds is incorrectly matched with one of its therapeutic uses?

a. Letrazole: Advanced breast cancer b. Metformin: DM type2 c. Finasteride : Benign prostatic hyperplasia d. Propylthiouracil: Hyperparathyroidism

19. Which of the following steroid produces the maximum sodium retention?

a. Hydrocorticosone b. Prednisolone




c. Dexamethasone d. Fludrocortisone

20. Idiosyncrasy reaction of a drug is a. A type of hypersensitivity reaction b. A type of drug antagonism c. Unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively

abnormal reaction of a drug d. Quantitatively exaggerated response

21. The dorsal column tract is: a. Tract of Burdach b. Lateral spinothalamic tract c. Anterior spinothalamic tract d. Cortico-spinal tract

22. The cranial nerves attached at ponto-medullary junction are:

a. V, VI, VII b. VI, VII, VIII c. VII, VIII, IX d. IX, X, XI

23. The bipolar neurons are all except: a. Olfactory neuron b. Spiral ganglion c. Vestibular ganglion d. Gasserian ganglion

24. In a 55- year-old man, who has been diagnosed with cirrhosis of liver, Ammonia is not getting detoxified and can damage brain. Which of the following amino acids can covalently bind ammonia, transport and store in a non toxic form?

a. Aspartate b. Glutamate c. Serine d. Cysteine

25. A 3- month-old child is being evaluated for vomiting and an episode of convulsions, Laboratory results show hyperammonemia and Orotic aciduria. Which of the following enzyme defect is likely to be there?

a. Glutaminase b. Arginase c. Argino succinic acid synthase d. Ornithine Transcarbamoylase

26. All are true about filariasis caused by Brugiamalayi except

a. Sheathed microfilaria detection from peripheral blood

b. Genital involvement seen c. Vector is Mansonia d. Also causes tropical pulmonary syndrome

27. All of the following are true about Schistosoma except

a. Schistosoma also known as blood flukes b. Definitive host is man c. It is hermaphrodite d. X-ray of pelvis shows fetal head appearance

28. Drug of choice of quinine resistant malaria is

a. Artimisnin derivatives b. Chloroquine c. Tetracycline d. Primaquine

29. Identify the organism showing in picture

a. Malaraia parasite b. Leishmaniadonovani c. Round worm d. Entamoebahistolytica

30. Vancomycinresistrance in enterococci is due to a. Transposons b. Conjugation c. Transduction d. Lysogenic conversion

31. A patient diagnosed with Hart Nup disease, (due to deficiency of transporter required for the absorption of amino acid tryptophan), has been brought with skin rashes and suicidal tendencies. Tryptophan is a precursor for many compounds, the deficiencies of which can cause the said symptoms. Which out of the following compounds is not synthesized by tryptophan?

a. Serotonin b. Epinephrine c. Melatonin d. Niacin

32. Histamine, a chemical mediator of allergies and anaphylaxis, is synthesized from amino acid Histidine by which of the following processes?

a. Deamination b. Decarboxylation c. Transamination d. Dehydrogenation

33. The synthesis of all of the following compounds except one is deficient in a patient suffering from Phenylketonuria-

a. Melanin b. Melatonin c. Catecholamines




d. Thyroid hormone 34. The decreasing order of risk of transmission

following occupational exposure a. HIV > HBV > HCV b. HBV > HIV > HCV c. HBV > HCV > HIV d. HCV > HBV > HIV

35. Which culture medium is preffered for processing of urine specimen

a. TCBS agar b. CLED agar c. Chocolate agar d. XLD agar

36. Germ tube test is diagnostic for a. Candida galabrata b. Candida albicans c. Cryptococcus d. Coccidioidesimmitis

37. Beveling cut refers to a. Flap wound b. Overhang margins c. One margin under mined d. Irregular margins

38. Chadwick’s sign is a. Softening of cervix b. Increased vaginal mucous secretion c. Blue colouration of vagina

39. Haemoglobinuria occurs when burnt skin surface exceeds

a. 20 % b. 30 % c. 50 % d. 70 %

40. A 32 year-old farmer received abdominal trauma, after 2 hours the pulse reached 136/min, blood pressure 70/40. The cause is:

a. Shock b. Sympathetic shock c. Internal haemorrhage d. Air embolism

41. Adipocere of the whole body occurs in about: a. One month b. 2 months c. 6 months d. 12 months

42. Dose of pre-exposure vaccination of rabies is a. O, 7 , 28 days b. 0, 3, 7 days c. 0, 14, 21 days d. 0, 3, 7, 14, 28 days

43. Co-receptor for fast progressive HIV is a. CD4 b. CCR5 c. CxCR4 d. All of the above

44. All are true about blood agar except

a. Enriched media b. May be a differential media c. 5-10% sheep blood used d. Can be used as transport media

45. Which out of the following amino acids in not required for creatine synthesis?

a. Methionine b. Serine c. Glycine d. Arginine

46. The first line of defence in brain in conditions of hyperammonemia is-

a. Urea formation b. Glutamine synthesis c. Glutamate synthesis d. Asparagine formation

47. Which out of the followings is required as a coenzyme for the transamination reactions?

a. Coenzyme A b. Pyridoxal-P c. Folic acid d. Cobalamine

48. In a patient suffering from Cystinuria, which out of the following amino acids is not seen in urine of affected patients?

a. Arginine b. Methionine c. Lysine d. Ornithine

49. A child was brought to paediatric OPD with complaint of passage of black colored urine. A disorder of Phenylalanine metabolism was diagnosed. A low phenylalanine diet and a supplementation of vitamin C were recommended. Which enzyme defect is expected in this child?

a. Phenyl alanine hydroxylase b. Tyrosine transaminase c. Homogentisic acid oxidase d. Hydrolase

50. Which statement best describes the oxidation of odd chain fatty acids?

a. Additional specific enzymes are needed for the oxidative process

b. One carbon is removed in one cycle c. End product is propionyl co A d. Hydroxy fatty acids are produced

51. Whatis the molecular basis of the statement “fats burn in the flame of carbohydrates”-

a. Fats are hydrolyzed in the presence of carbohydrates

b. Fatty acids and glucose are simultaneously oxidized

c. Acetyl co A is the common product of fattyacid and glucose oxidation




d. Acetyl co A is oxidized completely in the presence of oxaloacetate in TCA cycle

52. NADPH required for the fatty acid synthesis can be generated from-

a. HMP pathway b. Glycolysis c. TCA cycle d. All of the above

53. Which of the following is a required substrate for purine biosynthesis

a. 5- methyl thymidine b. Ara –C c. Ribose phosphate d. PRPP

54. Insulin increases the activity of which of the following enzymes

a. Acetyl CoA carboxylase b. Glucose 6 phosphatase c. Glycogen synthase d. Pyruvate kinase

55. The following structures form the cervico-axillary canal except:

a. Clavicle b. Coracoid process c. Upper border of scapula d. Outer border of first rib

56. Which muscle locks the knee joint: a. Popliteus b. Gastrocnemius c. Quadrotusfemoris d. Quadriceps femoris

57. Which type of gait is seen in unilateral paralysis of gluteus medius muscle:

a. Lurching b. Wadding c. Scissors d. Propulsion

58. All of the following structures pass through thoracic inlet except:

a. Phrenic nerve b. Vagus nerve c. Superior vena cava d. Trachea

59. All are true about electron microscopy except a. In place of light, Electron beam is used b. Used for identification of dead organism c. Staining done by phosphotungstic acid d. Resolution power of this is 10 times of light

microscope 60. House fly acts as mechanical vector for

transmission of all the following infections, except a. Amoebiasis b. Typhoid and paratyphoid fever c. Malaria d. Cholera

61. The most likely complication of prolonged use of nasal decongestant drops is:

a. Anosmia b. Hypertrophy of nasal mucosa c. Naso-pharyngeal candidiasis d. Blockage of Eustachian tubes

62. While prescribing the conventional H1 antihistaminics the patient should be advised to avoid:

a. Driving motor vehicles b. Consuming processed cheese c. Strenuous physical exertion d. None of the above

63. Ketoconazole should not be given to patient being treated with terfenadine because

a. Ketoconazole induces the metabolism of terfenadine

b. Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur

c. Terfenadine inhibits metabolism of Ketoconazole

d. Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobial action of Ketoconazole

64. Which of the following drugs used for the treatment of angina via sublingual route has a very rapid onset and a brief duration of effect?

a. Amyl nitrite b. Nitroglycerine c. Isosorbide mononitrate d. Nifedipine

65. A 52- year old man presents to his doctor for a 6-month checkup following diuretic therapy and recommended diet changes for his essential hypertension. His blood pressure is 145/95 mmHg and serum aldosterone levels are increased. Aldosterone secretion is increased when there is a decrease in the plasma concentration of which of the following

a. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) b. Angiotensin II c. Potassium d. Sodium

66. Which of the following does not occur following adrenergic stimulation?

a. Dilation of the pulmonary bronchi b. Dilation of the pupils c. Increased heart rate d. Peristalsis of the GI tract

67. Lesion of the optic radiation causes a. Blindness in the same eye b. Blindness in the opposite eye c. Bitemporal hemianopia d. Homonymous hemianopia with macular

sparing




68. A patient experiences orthostatic hypotension after a sympathectomy. The explanation for this occurrence is

a. An exaggerated response of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

b. A suppressed response of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

c. An exaggerated response of the baroreceptor mechanism

d. A suppressed response of the baroreceptor mechanism

69. A person eats a large bag of very salty potato chips with no beverage. Which response is most likely to occur

a. Movement of aquaporins into the membranes of cortical collecting duct principal cells

b. Enhanced activity of Na-H antiporters in the proximal tubule

c. Enhanced activity of Na-K- ATPase pumps in collecting duct principal cells

d. Decreased levels of natriuretic peptides in the blood

70. After a potassium rich meal, the key action of insulin that prevents a large increase in plasma is to

a. Decrease absorption of potassium from the GI tract

b. Increase uptake of potassium by tissue cells c. Increase the filtered load of potassium d. Increase tubular secretion of potassium

71. The rate of conduction of action potentials along a nerve will be increased by

a. Stimulating the Na+-K+ pump b. Inhibiting the Na+-K+ pump c. Decreasing the diameter of the nerve d. Myelinating the nerve

72. During exercise, total peripheral resistance decreases because of the effect of

a. The sympathetic nervous system on splanchnic arterioles

b. The parasympathetic nervous system on skeletal muscle arterioles

c. Local metabolites on skeletal muscle arterioles

d. Local metabolites on cerebral arterioles 73. A man who has galactorrhea is found to have a

prolactinoma. His physician treats him with bromocriptine which eliminates the galactorrhea. The basis for the therapeutic action of bromocriptine is that it

a. Antagonizes the action of prolactin on the breast

b. Enhances the action of prolactin on the breast

c. Inhibits prolactin release from the anterior pituitary

d. Inhibits prolactin release from the hypothalamus

74. Second messengers a. Are substances that interact with first

messengers outside cells b. Are substances that bind to first messengers

in the cell membrane c. Are hormones secreted by cells in response

to stimulation by another hormone d. Mediate the intracellular responses to many

different hormones and neurotransmitters 75. Drugs and toxins that increase the cAMP content

of the intestinal mucosa cause diarrhea because they

a. Increase Na+-K+ cotransport in the small intestine

b. Increase K+ secretion into the colon c. Increase Na+ absorption in the small

intestine d. Increase Cl- secretion into the intestinal

lumen 76. The second meiotic division is completed in the

ovum a. At birth b. Fifth month of fetal life c. Puberty d. Fertilization

77. Filteration of proteins across filteration barrier in the nephron depends mainly upon

a. Sialoprotein b. Aquaporin c. Calmodulin d. Receptor proteins

78. A 52- year old man presents to his doctor for a 6-month checkup following diuretic therapy and recommended diet changes for his essential hypertension. His blood pressure is 145/95 mmHg and serum aldosterone levels are increased. Aldosterone secretion is increased when there is a decrease in the plasma concentration of which of the following

a. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) b. Angiotensin II c. Potassium d. Sodium

79. Which of the following does not occur following adrenergic stimulation?

a. Dilation of the pulmonary bronchi b. Dilation of the pupils c. Increased heart rate d. Peristalsis of the GI tract

80. Poroscopy is a. Counting pores of sweat glands only




b. Counting pores of both sweat and sebaceous glands

c. Counting number of ridges d. Counting number of ridges and sweat glands

81. Most fixed part of intestine is a. Duodenum b. Jejunum c. Colon d. Ileum

82. The articular cartilage is characterised by all except

a. It is avascular b. It lacks the capacity to regenerate c. It has rich nerve supply d. It is devoid of perichondrium

83. The longest phase of cell division is a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase

84. The Haversian system is found in a. Cancellous bone b. Epiphysis of long bone c. Diaphysis of long bone d. Spongy bone of children

85. The muscle which is supplied by median nerve in the arm:

a. Brachialis b. Coracobrachialis c. Pronator quadratus d. None of the above

86. Rectal temperature does not appreciably fall till what time after death

a. 15-30 mts b. 30-60 mts c. 60-90 mts d. none of the above

87. Combustible gas of autolysis is a. Nitrogen dioxide b. Hydrogen sulphide c. Methane d. Carbon dioxide

88. Prolonged prothrombin time occurs in cases of poisoning with:

a. Parathion b. Warfarin c. Paraquat d. Zinc sulphide

89. All are the stains used for lipid accumulations except:

a. Oil Red O b. Best carmine c. Sudan black d. Osmium tetroxide

90. Diapedesis (Transmigration) occurs by molecule: a. Selectins

b. Integrins c. Platelet – endothelial cell adhesion molecule d. Sialyl-Lewis Ligand

91. Hunter syndrome, hemophilia A & B and Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome all are example of interitance:

a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. X linked recessive d. X linked dominant

92. Most important HLA for organ transplantation and tissue typing is:

a. HLA – DP b. HLA – DQ c. HLA – DR d. HLA – B

93. Alpha granules in platelets contain: a. Platelet derived growth factor b. Calcium c. Serotonin d. Adenosine diphosphate

94. Most common site of involvement in syphilitic aneurysm is:

a. Ascending aorta b. Arch of aorta c. Abdominal aorta d. Femoral artery

95. All are the features of polyarteritis Nodosa except:

a. Glomerulonephritis b. Pulmonary capillaries are spared c. Associated with hepatitis B surface antigen d. Does not involve small vessel

96. Best predictor of future coronary artery disease is:

a. HSCRP (High Sensitive C Reactive Protein) b. Total cholesterol / HDL Ratio c. LDL d. HDL

97. Alcohol toxicity causes the cardiomyopathy type: a. Ischemic b. Dilated c. Restrictive d. Hypertrophic

98. Upper lobe bronchiectasis is seen in: a. Cystic fibrosis b. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis c. Atypical mycobacteria d. Aspiration

99. A 36-year old woman who is pregnant is diagnosed with hypertension. Which of the following agents would be the most suitable to treat her hypertension?

a. Atenolol b. Labetolol c. Magnesium sulphate




d. Indapamide 100. A 53-year-old woman is being treated for atrial

flutter subsequent to a myocardial infarction. After commencing treatment she experiences prolonged depression, bradycardia and wheezing. Which of the following agents was the patient prescribed?

a. Propranolol b. Verapamil c. Digoxin d. All of the above

101. The test likely to help in diagnosis of a patient who presents with an itchy annular plaque on the face is:

a. Gram’s stain b. Potassium hydroxide mount c. Tissue smear d. Wood’s lamp examination

102. Uses of woods light includes a. Urine examination in phorphyria b. Examination of hair in T. capitis c. Sclerema d. All of the above

103. A pinkish red fluorescence of urine with wood’s Lamp is seen in

a. Lead poisoning b. Porphyria cutanea tarda c. Erythromelagia d. Acrocyanosis

104. An elevation which of the following serum enzymes is the most sensitive indicator of myositis:

a. Aldolase b. Creatinine kinase c. Glutamic – oxaloacetic transaminase d. Glutamate pyruvate transaminase

105. A person with involvement of upper respiratory tract lungs and kidney shows evidence of granulomas on histo pathology. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Wegener’s granulomatosis b. Goodpasture syndrome c. Tuberculosis d. Sarcoidosis

106. The drug of choice in a 50 year old patient presenting with hyperglycaemia and ketoacidosis:

a. Oral hypoglycaemic drugs b. Lente insulin c. Oral drugs with intermediate acting insulin d. Regular insulin

107. Commonest site of Atopic dermatitis is Discuss a. Scalp b. Elbow c. Trunk d. Ante cubital fossa

108. Atopic dermatitis can be best diagnosed by

a. Clinical evaluation b. Patch test c. IgE level d. Skin Biopsy

109. Lowest blood gas coefficient in of which of the following agent:

a. Xenon b. Desflurane c. Sevoflurane d. Nitrous oxide

110. 20 year old has to undergo circumcision surgery. Penile bock planned which not to be used?

a. Lignocaine with adrenaline b. Lignocaine with Na+CO3 c. Lignocaine d. Bupivacaine

111. Signs of successful stellate ganglion block all except:

a. Miosis b. Guttmann sign c. Bradycardia d. Muller sign

112. Laudano sign is a metabolite of: a. Atracusium b. Veuronitum c. Pancursonium d. Gallamine

113. Perception of ordinary non noxious stimuli as pain is better known as:

a. Hyperalgesia b. Hyperesthesia c. Allodynia d. Radiculopathy

114. A 52 year old male suffering from over growth of skin and its appendages as per figure. What is the diagnosis

a. Basal cell Carcinoma b. Squamous cell Ca c. Rhinophyma d. Melanoma

115. Which is the best test to differentiate CSF rhinorrhea from allergic rhinitis

a. Reservoir sign b. Double target sign




c. Forward bending test d. Beta trace protein test

116. Most common site of fracture of mandible is a. Condylar process b. Angle c. Body d. Symphysis

117. Culture bound syndrome seen in India are the following:

a. Dhat, Jiryan b. Koro c. Possession syndrome d. All

118. A person drinking alcohol says that he is doing so to overcome family problems. The defense mechanism involved is:

a. Rationalization b. Denial c. Projection d. Displacement

119. Expanisle type osseous metastases are characteristic of primary malignancy of:

a. Kidney b. Bronchus c. Breast d. Prostate

120. A patient with nephroticsyndrome on longstanding corticosteroids therapy may develop all of the following except:

a. Hyperglycemia b. Hypertrophy of muscle c. Neuropsychiatric syndrome d. Suppression of pituitary adrenal axis

121. Positive Urinary Anion Gap helps to establish the diagnosis of:

a. Alcoholic ketoacidosis b. Diabetic ketoacidosis c. Renal tubular acidosis d. Acidosis in diarrhoea

122. All of the following are true about Osmotic Diarrhoea except:

a. Stool volume < 1L/day b. Diarrhoea stops after fasting c. Osmolar gap < 50 d. All of the following

123. Which is the objective sign of identifying pulmonary plethora in a chest radiograph?

a. Diameter of the main pulmonary/ artery> 16mm.

b. Diameter of the left pulmonary artery > 16mm

c. Diameter of the descending right pulmonary artery> 16mm

d. Diameter of the descending left pulmonary artery > 16 mm

124. The most common location of hypertensive intracranial haemorrhage is:

a. Subarachnoid space b. Basal ganglia c. Cerebellum d. Brainstem

125. Metabolic abnormality seen in multiple myeloma is:

a. Hyponatremia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypercalcemia d. Hyperphosphatemia

126. All of the following modalites can be used for in – situ ablation of liver secondaries, except:

a. Ultrasonic waves b. Cryotherapy c. Alcohol d. Radiofrequency

127. Which of the following is used in the treatment of differentiated thyroid cancer:

a. 131I b. 99mTc c. 32P d. 131I-MIBG

128. The active substance in hashish is: a. Morphine b. LSD c. Mescaline d. Tetrahydrocannabinol

129. False regarding Histrionic personality disorder a. Characterized by seductive and

overdramatic behaviour b. More frequently diagnosed in women than

men c. Lability of mood d. Introspective

130. MC used investigation to diagnose congenital malformations of uterus is

a. MRI b. Laparoscopy c. 3 D TVS d. HSG

131. All are causes of carcinoma cervix except a. HPV b. Multiple sexual partners c. Nulliparity d. Low socioeconomic status

132. Best test to diagnose tubal patency is a. X ray b. USG c. SSG d. Laparoscopic chromopertubation

133. Sexual infidelity is commonly associated with: a. Morbid jealousy b. Fear c. Manic depressive psychosis




d. Anxiety neurosis 134. Typically bilateral inferior lens subluxation of

the lens is seen in: a. Marfan’s syndrome b. Homocystinuria c. Hyperlysinaemia d. Ocular trauma

135. Spalding’s sign occurs after: a. Birth of live foetus b. Death of foetus in uterus c. Rigor mortis of infant d. Cadaveric spasm.

136. Which of the following conditions is least likely to present as an acentric osteolytic lesion:

a. Aneurysmal bone cyst b. Giant cell tumor c. Fibrous cortical defect d. Simple bone cyst

137. Which of the following malignant tumours is radioresistant?

a. Ewing’s sarcoma b. Retinoblastoma c. Osteosarcoma d. Neuroblastoma

138. Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential?

a. Electron b. Proton c. Helium ion d. Gamma (y)-Photon

139. Most common wall of Orbit involved in a Blowout Fracture is:

a. Medial b. Floor c. Lateral d. Roof

140. A female patient 18 years old, who Is contact lens wearer since two years, is complaining of redness. lacrimation and foreign body sensation of both eyes. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 with negative fluorescein test. The expected diagnosis can be:

a. Acute anterior, uveitis b. Giant papillary conjunctivitis c. Bacterial corneal ulcer d. Acute congestive glaucoma

141. Topical steroids are contraindicated in a case of viral corneal ulcer for fear of:

a. Secondary glaucoma b. Cortical cataract c. Corneal perforation d. Secondary viral infection.

142. The sure diagnostic sign of corneal ulcer is a. Ciliary injection b. Blepharospasm c. Miosis

d. Positive fluorescein test 143. The commonest cause of hypopyon corneal

ulcer Is: a. Moraxella b. Gonococcus c. Pneumococcus d. Staptylococcus

144. Disinfection of water by routine chlorination can be classified as

a. Sterilization b. Concurrent disinfection c. Terminal disinfection d. Pre current disinfection

145. The incubation period for measles is- a. 2-6 days b. 18-72 hours c. 1-3 weeks d. 10-14 days

146. The duration of quarantine is a. Longest incubation period b. Shortest incubation period c. Period of infectivity d. Twice the incubation period

147. Best way to study relationship between two variables is-

a. Bar chart b. Scatter diagram c. Histogram d. Pie chart

148. The PEFR of a group of 11-year-old girls follows a normal distribution with mean 300 l/min and standard deviation 20 l/min. Which is true –

a. About 95% of the girls have PEFR between 260 and 340 l/min

b. The girls have healthy lungs c. About 5% of girls have PEFR below 260

l/min d. All the PEFR must be less than 340 l/min

149. If the birth weight of each of the 10 babies in a hospital in a day is found to be 2.8 kg, then the SD of this sample will be-

a. 2.8 b. 0 c. 1 d. 0.28

150. Burtonian Lines on gums are seen in which occupational exposure?

a. Mercury b. Asbestos c. Lead d. Cadmium

151. The standard normal distribution is- a. Is skewed to the left b. Has mean=1 c. Has standard deviation=0 d. Has variance=1




152. In a 4*5 contingency table, the number of degrees of freedom equals to-

a. 1 b. 20 c. 12 d. 6

153. The highest point in spectrum of health is a. Positive health b. Better health c. Freedom from sickness d. death

154. Protein content in Human milk is (in gms/lit) a. 11 b. 1.1 c. 33 d. 3.3

155. A 8 months old baby is brought for third dose of pentavalent and OPV after 3 to 4 months of receving the second dose of pentavalent and OPV. The next course of immunization would be

a. To start the first dose of pentavalent and OPV and ignore the earlier doses

b. To ignore the long interval and give 3rd dose of pentavalent and OPV

c. To give only OPV third dose d. To give only Pentavalent vaccine

156. Screening for breast cancer using mammography is-

a. Primordial prevention b. Primary prevention c. Secondary prevention d. Tertiary prevention

157. People were separated into 5 sub-groups. People were selected randomly from these sub-groups. What type of sampling was done?

a. Simple random sampling b. Stratified sampling c. Cluster sampling d. Systematic sampling

158. Best way to plot the change of incidence of disease over time is-

a. Histogram b. Line chart c. Scatter diagram d. Ogive

159. Incineration is not done for – a. Waste sharps b. Cytotoxic drugs c. Human anatomical waste d. Animal waste

160. All of the following regarding health planning committees in India is true except:

a. Bhore committee proposed setting up of 1 PHC per 40,00 populations and to prepare social physicians

b. Mudaliar committee proposed the setting up of the All India Health Service

c. Shrivastava committee proposed the ROME scheme and the Village health guide scheme

d. Mukherji committee proposed the cadre of male and female health workers and to have supervisors to overlook them

161. Which of the following about Rickettsial diseases is true –

a. Epidemic typhus is flea borne b. Mite is the vector for Rickettsial Pox c. Orientiatsutsugamushi is the agent causing

Murine typhus d. Coxiellaburnetti causes Scrub typhus

162. Kala Azar is endemic in all states except? a. Uttar pradesh b. Bihar c. West Bengal d. Assam

163. Congenital Rubella syndrome is most commonly occurring if mother is infected during which period of gestation?

a. 1st trimester b. 2nd trimester c. 3rd trimester d. At time of delivery

164. The most common life threatening complication of measles is –

a. Persistent diarrhoea b. Encephalitis c. Severe respiratory infection d. Otitis media

165. Regarding influenza pandemics, the true statement is –

a. Antigenic drift involves point mutation b. The most recent avian influenza outbreak

was caused by H1N1 strain c. Most pandemics are caused by influenza B

strains d. Antigenic drift is responsible for pandemics

166. Chikungunya is transmitted by – a. Aedes b. Culex c. Mansonoides d. Anopheles

167. Reduction of premature mortality from Non Communicable diseases is part of which target under Sustainable Development Goals?

a. 3.2 b. 3.3 c. 3.4 d. 3.5

168. How many targets are there under Goal 3 of SDG?

a. 11 b. 12




c. 13 d. 14

169. National cancer awareness day is observed on a. 7th November b. 1st December c. 4th April d. 25th July

170. Under Daily regimen for TB the dose of streptomycin to be given to a 60 kg male patient is?

a. 0.5 gm b. 0.75 gm c. 1 gm d. 1.5 gm

171. BRCA 1 associated breast cancers: pick incorrect

a. Are usually invasive ductal b. Are poorly differentiated c. Are usually hormone receptor positive d. None

172. Pick correctly matched 1. Estrogen : Duct proliferation, 2. Progesterone : Glandular proliferation 3. Prolactin : Milk production

a. 1 and 2 b. 3 c. All d. None

173. Blood supply of breast is from : a. From internal mammary artery b. Lateral thoracic artery from axillary artery c. Intercoastal artery d. All of the above

174. Most common renal congenital anomay is a. Hypospadias b. Dupplication of ureters c. Vesico-ureteric reflux d. Super numary renal artery

175. Which of the following organisms does not produce urease

a. Staphylococci b. H pylori c. E coli d. Proteus

176. Most common type of trachea oesophageal fistula is

a. Both upper and lower segment blind b. Both upper and lower segment ofo

oesophagus communicating with trachea c. Upper segment is blind. Lower segment

communicates with trachea d. Lower segment is blind. upper segment

communicates with trachea 177. GERD management : gold standard surgical

procedure is a. Hill’s gastropexy

b. Nissen’s fundoplication c. Toupet partial fundoplication d. Belsey mark IV operation

178. Classical triad of achalasia does not include a. Weight loss b. Regurgitation c. Dysphagia d. Halitosis

179. Cystic hygroma : which of the following investigations is not useful in management

a. USG b. MRI c. Amniocentasis d. None

180. Intussuception: most common lead point in children > 1 year of age is

a. Polyp b. Meckel’s diverticulum c. Peyer’s patches d. Adhesive bands

181. Swenson operation is done for a. Valculous b. Intussuception c. Hirschpung’s disease d. Ogilive syndrome

182. Intestinal obstruction : most of the gas in abdomen of patient originates from

a. Bacterial fermentation of lipids b. Bacterial fermentation of carbohydrates c. Swallowed air d. Diffusion from blood vessels

183. Which of the following is not true regarding magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) for evaluation of breast abnormalities?

a. It is useful for finding the primary breast lesion in patients with positive axillary nodes but no mammographic evidence of a breast tumor.

b. It is more accurate than mammography in establishing the extent of disease in invasive lobular cancer.

c. It is more accurate than mammography in assessing the tumor extent in older women.

d. Its sensitivity in detecting invasive cancer is greater than 90%

184. With regard to breast carcinoma in men, which statement is true?

a. It is detected most commonly in men aged 60 to 70 years.

b. Gynecomastia is a risk factor. c. It is commonly associated with a mutation

in the BRCA1 gene. d. The prognosis is worse stage for stage than

for women. 185. Most common thyroid malignancy occurring in

a patient of thyroglossal cyst is




a. Papillary b. Follicular c. Medullary d. Anaplastic

186. Recurrent laryngeal nerve is found in a. Simon’s triangle b. Joll’s triangle c. Waldeyer triangle d. None of the above

187. Which of the thyroiditis never has hyperthyroidism as prominent clinical feature

a. Hashimoto b. De quervain thyroiditis c. Riedel thyroiditis d. None of the above

188. Treatment of choice for a symptomatic hemangioma of liver is

a. Enucleation b. Hepatic resection c. Liver transplant d. Mastrley inactivity

189. GHARBI classification useful in patients of hydatid cyst is based on

a. X ray b. USG c. CT scan d. MRI

190. Acute pancreatitis : causes include all except: a. Trauma b. ERCP c. Mumps d. None of the above

191. Liver is divided into functional right and left lobes by

a. Falsiform ligament b. Cantlie’s line c. Mid clavicular line d. Saggital plane

192. Earliest lesion of crohn disease is a. Apthous ulcer b. Caseating granuloma c. Non caseating granuloma d. Fat warping

193. Phyllodes tumour : does not involve a. Skin b. Nipple areola complex c. Lymph nodes d. Lungs

194. Single most important factor predicting burns mortality is

a. Age b. Hemoglobinuria c. Urine output d. Total body surface area burnt

195. Which of the followinh hernia is rarer in females

a. Indirect inguinal hernia b. Direct inguinal hernia c. Femoral hernia d. Incisional hernia

196. Most common type of diaphragmatic hernia is a. Hiatus hernia b. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia through

foramen of bochdalek c. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia through

foramen of morgagni d. Traumatic diaphragmatic hernia

197. Appendicitis diagnosis: CECT would be indicated if the alvorado score is

a. 9-10 b. 5-6 c. 1-2 d. None

198. Sutures made up of polygalactic acid is a. Absocrbable suture b. Monofilament suture c. Natural material suture d. Suitable for external use only

199. Stutures over face should preferable be removed by

a. 1-2 days b. 3-5 days c. 6-8 days d. 10-14 days

200. If a patient has complete bile duct obstruction, which of the following does not occur?

a. Triglyceride absorption b. Vitamin K absorption c. Cholesterol synthesis d. Bilirubin conjugation

201. In which of the following patients with symptomatic cholelithiasis would pigment gallstones be expected?

a. A 45-year-old (y/o) male with a body mass index (BMI) of 49

b. A 27-y/o female status post ileal resection c. A-38 y/o female with rapid weight loss after

a sleeve gastrectomy d. A 65-y/o female on estrogen therapy

202. All are true about cochlea except a. Main organ of hearing b. Having 2.75 turn around modiolus c. Is a part of bony labyrinth d. High frequency sound localized at Apex of

cochlea 203. Nerve supply to tympanic membrane by

a. Jacobson’s nerve b. Arnold’s nerve c. Vidian nerve d. All of the above

204. Vertigo or Dizziness due to disorders of a. Vestibular system




b. Visual system c. Somatosensory system d. All of the above

205. A 29 year old female from Tihar jail came to ENT OPD with complain of progressive hearing loss, her co-inmates says that she is not able to hear during normal conversation but she hears all the voices during quarrelling in the jail. The patients also gave similar history about her mother. What is the probable diagnosis?

a. Acostic neuroma b. Malingering c. Otosclerosis d. Wax

206. All of the following are true about Sensorineural hearing loss except

a. AC > BC b. Weber lateralized to disease ear c. Difficulty in hearing in presence of voice d. None

207. All are true about perichondritis except a. It is secondary to haematoma b. Most common organism is Staph. Aureus c. Treatment of choice is Incision & drainage d. Antibiotics can be given

208. A 8 years young boy suffering from hearing loss and also having delayed and defective speech. Tuning fork test shows bone conduction better than air conduction and on otoscopy, Tympanic membrane having retraction and there was separate air - fluid level in middle ear. Then what is the finding on Impedance audiometry

a. Type A curve b. Type B curve c. Type C curve d. Type Ad curve

209. All of the following are a traid of petrositis except

a. Sensorineural hearing loss b. Lateral (External) rectus palsy c. Retro-orbital pain d. Persistent ear discharge

210. Most common cause of facial nerve palsy is a. Viruses b. Trauma c. Idiopathic d. Neoplasm

211. All of the following are true about submucous fibrosis except

a. More in high socioeconomic status b. More commom in south-east Asia c. Multifactorial in nature d. Premalignant condition

212. All of the following are absolute indication of tonsillectomy except

a. Recurrent infection of tonsils

b. Quinsy c. Diphtheria d. Malignancy of tonsil

213. All of the following are true about laryngeal carcinoma except

a. Most common is squamous cell carcinoma b. Previous radiation is a risk factor for this c. Alcohol & smoking increases the risk by 15

fold d. Mostly seen in age group less than 40 years

of age 214. A 30 yrs old woman para 6 delivers vaginally

following normal labour with spontaneous delivery of an intact placenta. Excessive bleeding continues, despite manual exploration, bimanual massage, intravenous oxytocin and administration of 0.2mg methergin IV, which one of the following would be the next step in the management of this patient?

a. Packing of uterus b. Immediate hysterectomy c. Bilateral internal iliac ligation d. Injection of PGF 2α

215. Most common congenital anomaly associated with face presentation is:

a. Anencephaly b. Hydramnios c. Microcephaly d. Hydrocephalus

216. A 25 years old female reports in the casualty with history of amenorrhoea for two and half months and abdominal pain and bleeding per vaginum for one day. On examination, vital parameters and other systems are normal. On speculum examination, bleeding is found to come from Os. On bimanual examination, uterus is of 10 weeks size, soft and os admits on finger. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Threatened abortion b. Missed abortion c. Inevitable abortion d. Incomplete abortion

217. All of the following methods are used for MTP in 2nd trimester except:

a. Intra-amniotic saline b. Prostaglandins c. Hysterotomy d. Menstrual regulation

218. A diabetic pregnant woman have mild uterine contractions at 29 weeks of gestation you want to subside these uterine contractions DOC for tocolysis in this patient is:

a. Ritodrine b. MgSO4 c. Nifedipine d. Terbutaline




219. Immediately following delivery the height of the uterus corresponds to ______weeks:

a. 32 b. 20 c. 25 d. 12

220. The uterus becomes pelvic organ after delivery in:

a. 10 to 12 days b. 12 to 14 days c. 14 to 16 days d. 16 to 18 days

221. An elderly multiparous woman with intrauterine foetal death was admitted with strong labour pains. The patient suddenly goes in shock with cyanosis respiratory disturbances and pulmonary oedema. The most likely clinical diagnosis is:

a. Rupture of uterus b. Congestive heart failure c. Amniotic fluid embolism d. Concealed accidental haemorrhage

222. 30 years old female comes with obstructed labour and is febrile ad dehydrated with IUFD and cephalic presentation. Which is the best way to manage?

a. Craniotomy b. Decapitation c. Caesarean section d. Forceps extraction

223. Most common heart disease associated with pregnancy is:

a. Mitral stenosis b. Mitral regurgitation c. Patent ductusarteriosus d. Tetralogy of fallot’s

224. MC cause of hypomenorrhoea is a. PCOD b. Ashermann syndrome c. Fibroid d. DUB

225. IOC for adenomyosis is a. Laparoscopy b. USG c. Hysteroscopy d. X ray

226. Cervicopexy is done for a. Prolapse in nulliparous b. Fistula in nulliparous c. Ectopic pregnancy d. Ca cervix

227. Cut off level of endometrial thickness in postmenopausal female in mm is

a. 2 b. 4 c. 8

d. 7 228. Most common extranodal site for Non-

Hodgkins Lymphoma: a. Stomach b. Brain c. Intestine d. Tonsil

229. Largest hematopoetic cell found in a normal bone marrow aspirate is:

a. Osteoblast b. Myeloblast c. Pronormoblast d. Megakaryocyte

230. 25 years old female patient complains that she is always tired and cannot concentrate. On peripheral blood smear there is microcytic hypochromic picture. This is suggestive of:

a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Vitamin B12 deficiency c. Folic acid deficiency d. Any of the above

231. Live attenuated vaccine from Oka strain is used for protection against:

a. Varicella b. Mumps c. Measles d. Rubella

232. If Vagina is involved in endometrial carcinoma, stage is

a. I B b. II B c. III B d. IV B

233. Water hammer pulse is seen in: a. Aortic stenosis b. Aortic regurgitation c. Aortic stenosis and aortic regurgitation d. Mitral regurgitation

234. Which of the following murmurs increase with Valsalvamaneuver:

a. MR b. VSD c. AS d. HOCM

235. All of the following are the electrocardiographic features of hyperkalemia, except:

a. Prolonged PR interval b. Prolonged QRS interval c. Sine wave patterns d. Loss of P wave

236. Female external genitalia are formed due to a. Testosterone b. Dihydrotestosterone c. Absence of testosterone d. Absence of DHT

237. Rectovaginal fistula may be caused by




a. CS b. Simple hysterectomy c. Endometriosis of urinary bladder d. OP position

238. MC symptom of lateral wall cervical fibroid is a. Dysuria b. Retention of urine c. Edema and haemorrhoids d. Menorrhagia

239. Hysteroscopy can be useful for all except a. Detection of septate uterus b. Removal of submucous fibroid c. Treatment of ashermann syndrome d. Endometriosis

240. Progesterone can be used to treat all except a. LPD b. Shroeders disease c. Endometriosis d. Halban disease

241. A 15 yr old girl comes with cyclical pain and primary amenorrhoea. Which is most likely

a. Stein leventhal syndrome b. Ashermann syndrome c. Imperforate hymen d. Sheehan syndrome

242. A 63 yr old obese nulliparous lady comes with irregular bleeding P/V. What is most likely

a. Carcinoma cervix b. Adenomyosis c. Carcinoma endometrium d. Vesicovaginal fistula

243. 16 year old female patient was having decreased platelet count and prolonged prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time. This is suggestive of acute myeloid leukemia type:

a. M2 b. M3 c. M4 d. M7

244. True Statements regarding Direct Ophthalmoscopy are NE:

a. 2 disc diameter field of vision b. Image is virtual and erect c. Magnification is 5 times d. Self illuminated device

245. All of the following are predictive tests for PIH except:

a. Rolling over test b. Serum uric acid c. Gain in weight > 2 kg in one month d. Shake test

246. Synchondroses and symphysis are types of a. Cartilaginous joints b. Hinge c. Pivot joint

d. None of the above 247. Which of the following tumors arise from

epiphysis a. Ewing’s sarcoma b. Osteoclastoma (GCT) c. Chondromyxoid fibroma d. Osteosarcoma

248. Osteogenesis imperfecta: most common inheritance pattern is

a. Autosmoal dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. X linked dominant d. X linked recessive

249. Chalazion is a chronic inflammatory granuloma of:

a. Meibomian gland b. Zeis's gland c. Sweat gland d. Wolfring's gland

250. In vernal catarrh, the characteristic cells are: a. Macrophage b. Eosinophils c. Neutrophils d. Epitheloid cells

251. 3" nerve palsy in diabetes mellitus characteristically shows?

a. Absent light reflex, accommodation is present

b. Intact light reflex, accommodation is absent c. Both light and accommodation reflex is

absent d. Both are normal

252. 100 day glaucoma is seen in? a. Central retinal vein occlusion(CRVO) b. Central retinal artery occlusion(CRAO) c. Diabetic retinopathy d. After injury

253. What is the most serious cause of conjunctivitis that cause blindness in children:

a. N. gonococcus b. Streptococus c. Staphylococus d. Chlamydia

254. Commonest CNS tumour responsible for primary amenorrhea is:

a. Craniopharyngioma b. Medulloblastoma c. Astrocytoma d. Glioblastoma

255. Following symbol in pedigree chart represent:

a. Proband b. Consultand c. Stillbirth d. Miscarriage




256. Karyyotype of a male child with Edwards syndrome is:

a. 47XY + 18 b. 47 XY + 13 c. 47 XY +21 d. 47 XY (t14 : 21)

257. Oedema of hands & feets at birth is seen in genetic syndrome:

a. Turner’s syndrome b. Klinefelter’s syndrome c. Patau syndrome d. Edwards syndrome

258. In a Down syndrome child blood test to be done on periodic follow up is:

a. Blood urea nitrogen & complete blood count b. Complete blood count & thyroid function

test c. Complete blood count & serum uric acid d. Thyroid function test & blood sugar level

259. 3 year old infant presented with failure to thrive, recurrent diarrhea and pain abdomen. His tTG ELISA for both IgA and IgG was positive:

a. Celiac disease b. Abetalipoproteinemia c. Giardiosis d. Amoebiosis

260. Primigravida mother with history of fever with vesicopustular rash during second trimester of pregnancy gives birth to a IUGR baby having cicatricial skin lesions and hypoplasia of certain fingers and toes. Most likely diagnosis:

a. Congenital herpes b. Congenital rubella c. Congenital varicella d. Cytomegalic inclusion disease

261. Gower’s sign is positive in the following: a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy b. Limb girdle dystrophy c. Becker muscular dystrophy d. All of the above

262. True about juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is: a. Only occurs in boys b. Responds very well to carbomazepine c. Is not associated with generalized tonic /

clonic seizures d. EEG is characterized by poly spike & waves

263. All are characteristic features of tuberous sclerosis except:

a. Shagreen patch b. Ash-leaf patch c. Axillary freckling d. Tramline appearance on skull X-ray

264. 2 year old child was brought to the OPD by his parent with complaints of not eating anything. His weight is 11.5kg (50th percentile of normal) and height (75th percentile). Normal management is:

a. Advise multivitamin tonic b. Force to eat c. Investigate for infection d. Ask parents to stop worrying

265. One year old child can perform: a. Sits down from standing position b. Drinks from cup c. Speaks one or two words with meaning d. Rings bell purposefully

266. Following childhood disorder improves with increase in age:

a. Conduct disorder b. Emotional problems c. Temper tantrum d. Sleep disorder

267. All of the following neonatal reflexes are present at birth in a term child except:

a. Placing and stepping reflex b. Moro’s reflex c. Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex d. Symmetrical tonic neck reflex

268. Prerenal and Renal azotemia is differentiated on the basis of:

a. Creatinine clearance b. Serum creastinine level c. Sodium fraction excretion d. Urine bicarbonate level

269. Non Oliguric Acute Renal Failure is typically associated with:

a. Aminoglycoside toxicity b. Contrast induced nephrotoxity c. Haemolytic Uremic syndrome d. Glomerulonephritis

270. Which of the following pairs regarding Hepatitis B is not correctly matched:

a. Acute viral Hepatitis B – Supportive care b. Acute viral Hepatitis B – Antiviral Therapy c. Chronic Hepatitis B – Supportive care d. Chronic Hepatitis B – Antiviral Therapy

271. A 55 years old male patient was diagnosed to have chronic hepatitis C. he responded to treatment with interferon. However, after one year of follow-up he showed a relapse of disease. Which of the following would be the next most appropriate choice:

a. Ribavirin and interferon b. Lamivudine and interferon c. Nevirapine and Lamivudine d. Indinavir and ribavirin

272. Feature of Hepatorenal syndrome are: a. Urine sodium < 10 meq/l b. Normal renal histology c. Renal function abnormal even after liver

become normal d. Proteinuria < 500mg/day




273. Portal hypertension presenting with intractable ascitis and hepatomegaly is likely to be due to:

a. Portal vein thrombosis b. Budd-chiari syndrome c. Alcoholic cirrhosis d. Biliary cirrhosis

274. The association between exposure to television viewing and mental acuity in children was studied and the following information was recorded for each child in the study: Religion (Hindu or any other religion), age (in years), and amount of exposure to TV viewing (rated from 0 for no exposure to 3 for more than three years’ exposure to TV viewing). Which of the following choices lists these variables in the order of: dichotomous nominal, ordinal, and continuous?

a. Amount of exposure, religion, age b. Age, religion, amount of exposure c. Religion, age, amount of exposure d. Religion, amount of exposure, age

275. Which is not a measure of Dispersion – a. Range b. Mode c. Variance d. Interquartile range

276. The Hb level in healthy women has mean 13.5 g/dl and standard deviation 1.5 g/dl, what is the Z score for a woman with Hb level 15 g/dl –

a. 9 b. 10 c. 2 d. 1

277. Which of the following is the most common acid-base disturbance in patients with cirrhosis and portal hypertension?

a. Metabolic acidosis. b. Respiratory alkalosis. c. Metabolic alkalosis. d. Respiratory acidosis.

278. Assays of which of the following biomarkers is most commonly used in the diagnosis of heart failure:

a. Brain Natriuretic Peptide (BNP) b. Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) c. Endothelin – 1 (ET-1) d. Endothelin – 2 (ET-2)

279. Which of the following valvular heart diseases is most commonly associated with sudden death:

a. Aortic stenosis b. Mitral stenosis c. Mitral regurgitation d. Aortic regurgitation

280. Beck’s triad is: a. Increased heart sound, distended neck

veins, hypotension

b. Increased heart sound, distended neck veins, hypertension

c. Muffled heart sound, distended neck veins, hypotension

d. Muffled heart sound, distended neck veins, hypertension

281. A patient with a prosthetic heart valve develops endocarditis eight months after valve replacement. Most likely organism responsible is:

a. Staphylococcus Aureus b. Staphylococcus Epidermidis c. Streptococcus Viridans d. HACEK group

282. About systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) all are true except?

a. Leukopenia b. Hyperthermia c. Hypoxia d. Tachycardia

283. If FEV1 is 1.3 litres and FVC is 3.1 litres in an adult man, the pattern is suggestive of?

a. Normal lung function b. Restrictive lung disease c. Obstructive lung disease d. None of the above

284. The abnormal preoperative pulmonary function test in a patient with severe kyphoscoliosis includes:

a. Reduced RV/TLC b. Reduced FEV1/FVC c. Reduced FEV25-75 d. Increased FRC

285. All are the following are potential causes of hyperprolactimia except:

a. Cirrhosis b. Hirsutism c. Nipple stimulation d. Opiate abuse

286. Which of the following studies is the most sensitive for detecting diabetic nephropathy?

a. Creatinine clearance b. Glucose tolerance test c. Serum creatinine level d. Urine albumin

287. A 54 year old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of the abrupt onset of what she describes as the worst headache of her life. You are concerned about the possibility of subarachnoid haemorrhage. What is the most appropriate initial test for diagnosis?

a. Cerebral angiography b. CT of the head with IV contrast c. CT of the head without IV contrast d. Lumbar puncture

288. A 72 year old woman presents with recurrent episodes of incapacitating facial pain lasting from




second to minutes and then dissipating. The episodes occurs usually twice per day, usually without warning, but are also occasionally provoked by brushing of her teeth. On physical examination, she appears well with normal vital signs. Detailed cranial nerve examination reveals no sensory or motor abnormalities. The reminder of her neurologic examination is normal. What is the next step in her management?

a. Brain MRI b. Brain MRI plus carbamazepine therapy c. Carbamazepine therapy d. Glucocorticoid therapy

289. Lumbar puncture should be preceded by CT or MRI in all of the following subsets of patient suspected of having meningitis except those with:

a. Depressed consciousness b. Focal neurologic abnormality c. Positive Kerning’s sign d. Recent head trauma

290. Which of the following test is useful to distinguish between insulinoma and sulfonylurea related hypoglycaemia?

a. Antibody to insulin b. Plasma – C peptide level c. Plasma insulin level d. Insulin – Glucose ratio

291. Developmental dyplasia of hip is commonly associated with all of the following except:

a. Meningocoele b. 1st born male child c. Breach position d. Twin pregnancy

292. The Atlantoaxial joint is a type of: a. Ball and socket b. Hinge c. Pivot d. Ellipsoid joint

293. Maximum amount of AF occurs at: a. 32 weeks of gestation b. 38 weeks of gestation c. At term d. 34 weeks of gestation

294. A placenta, which has a depression in centre on chorionic plate, which is surrounded by a greyish white ring, is called as:

a. Extra chorial placenta b. Circumvallate placenta c. Marginate placenta d. Battledore placenta

295. In normal puerperium, all true regarding involution of uterus except:

a. At the end of the 6 weeks, becomes non pregnant state

b. The number of muscle fibres is not decreased but there is substantial reduction of the myometrial cell size

c. At the end of the 4th week uterus becomes a pelvic organ

d. Weight of uterus about 60 gram at end of six weeks

296. The cause of ‘postpartum blues’ is: a. Decreased estrogen b. Decreased progesterone c. Increased prolactin d. Decreased estrogen and progesterone

297. Ptosis in Homer's syndrome, is due to paralysis of:

a. Riolan's muscle b. Honer's muscle c. Muller’s muscle d. The levator palpebral muscle

298. All of the following organisms can invade an intact corneal epithelium except:

a. Neisseria meningitidis b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae c. Shigella d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

299. Bitemporal hemianopia is a characteristic feature of?

a. Glaucoma b. Optic neuritis c. Pituitary tumour d. Retinitis pigmentosa

300. Diplopia in superior oblique palsy is? a. Vertical diplopia on downward gaze b. Vertical diplopia on upward gaze c. Horizontal diplopia on inward gaze d. Horizontal diplopia on outward gaze

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1. D

2. A

3. B

4. B

5. B

6. D

7. C

8. D

9. A

10. B

11. A

12. A

13. D

14. C

15. D

16. A

17. A

18. D

19. D

20. C

21. A

22. B

23. D

24. B

25. D

26. B

27. C

28. A

29. D

30. A

31. B

32. B

33. B

34. D

35. B

36. B

37. C

38. C

39. B

40. C

41. C

42. A

43. C

44. D

45. B

46. B

47. B

48. B

49. C

50. C

51. D

52. A

53. D

54. C

55. B

56. D

57. A

58. C

59. D

60. C

61. A

62. A

63. B

64. B

65. D

66. D

67. D

68. D

69. A

70. B

71. D

72. C

73. C

74. D

75. D

76. D

77. A

78. D

79. D

80. A

81. A

82. C

83. A

84. C

85. D

86. B

87. B

88. B

89. B

90. C

91. C

92. C

93. A

94. A

95. A

96. A

97. B

98. A

99. B

100. A

101. B

102. D

103. B

104. B

105. A

106. D

107. D

108. A

109. A

110. A

111. C

112. A

113. C

114. C

115. D

116. A

117. D

118. A

119. A

120. B

121. C

122. C

123. C

124. B

125. C

126. C

127. A

128. D

129. D

130. C

131. C

132. D

133. A

134. B

135. B

136. D

137. C

138. C

139. B

140. B

141. C

142. D

143. C

144. D

145. D

146. A

147. B

148. A

149. B

150. C

151. D

152. C

153. A

154. A

155. B

156. C

157. B

158. B

159. A

160. D

161. B

162. D

163. A

164. C

165. A

166. A

167. C

168. C

169. C

170. C

171. C

172. C

173. D

174. C

175. C

176. C

177. B

178. D

179. D

180. B

181. C

182. C

183. C

184. A

185. A

186. A

187. C

188. A

189. B

190. D

191. B

192. A

193. C

194. D

195. B

196. A

197. B

198. A

199. B

200. B

201. B

202. D

203. A

204. D

205. C

206. B

207. B

208. B

209. A

210. C

211. A

212. C

213. D

214. D

215. A

216. C

217. D

218. B

219. B

220. A

221. C

222. D

223. A

224. B

225. C

226. A

227. B

228. A

229. D

230. A

231. A

232. C

233. B

234. D

235. B

236. D

237. D

238. C

239. D

240. D

241. C

242. C

243. B

244. C

245. D

246. B

247. B

248. A

249. A

250. B

251. D

252. A

253. A

254. A

255. D

256. A

257. A

258. B

259. A

260. C

261. D

262. D

263. D

264. D

265. C

266. C

267. D

268. C

269. A

270. B

271. A

272. C

273. B

274. D

275. B

276. D

277. B

278. A

279. A

280. C

281. B

282. C

283. C

284. D

285. B

286. D

287. C

288. C

289. C

290. B

291. C

292. C

293. B

294. B

295. C

296. D

297. C

298. D

299. C

300. A

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