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8/9/2019 Spontaneous Intracerebral Hemorrhage_ Treatment and Prognosis
1/22
Official reprint from UpToDate
www.uptodate.com ©2014 UpToDate
Authors
Guy Rordorf, MD
Colin McDonald, MD
Section Editor
Scott E Kasner, MD
Deputy Editor
Janet L Wilterdink, MD
Spontaneous intracerebral hemorrhage: Treatment and prognosis
All topics are updated as new evidence becomes available and our peer review process is complete.
Literature review current through: Oct 2014. | This topic last updated: May 21, 2014.
INTRODUCTION — Intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) is the second most common cause of stroke, following ischemic
stroke. Mortality and morbidity is high. Initial goals of treatment include preventing hemorrhage extension, as well as the
prevention and management of elevated intracranial pressure along with other neurologic and medical complications.
The treatment and prognosis of spontaneous intracerebral hemorrhage will be reviewed here. Other aspects of ICH are
discussed separately. (See "Spontaneous intracerebral hemorrhage: Pathogenesis, clinical features, and diagnosis".)
INITIAL TREATMENT — Management of intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) includes both medical and surgical interventions
[1,2].
General management issues — Guidelines from the American Heart Association/American Stroke Association
(AHA/ASA) recommend that patients with ICH receive monitoring and management in an intensive care unit [1,3]. This
recommendation is based upon the frequent association of ICH with elevations in intracranial pressure and blood
pressure, the need for intubation and mechanical ventilation, and multiple medical issues and complications. Many
neurologic as well as medical complications that require urgent intervention occur subsequent to the initial evaluation [4].
Ideally, acute neurosurgical care should be available at the hospital in which patients are cared for [5]. In addition, there is
some evidence that intensive monitoring and stroke unit care is associated with improved outcomes in patients with acute
stroke [6,7].
Early DNR orders or limitations to care are not always inappropriate after ICH; the difficulty lies in deciding when suchlimitations are indeed the most appropriate approach [8]. Because prognostication for individual patients with acute ICH is
an uncertain science, current guidelines suggest careful consideration of aggressive, full care during the first 24 hours after
ICH onset and postponement of new DNR orders during that time [1,3]. This recommendation does not apply to patients
with preexisting DNR orders. (See 'Prognosis' below.)
Specific recommended interventions for patients with ICH include [1,9]:
Reversal of anticoagulation — For patients who develop an ICH, all anticoagulant and antiplatelet drugs should be
®
®
Sources of fever should be treated, and current guidelines suggest the use of antipyretic medications to lower body
temperature to normothermia in febrile patients with stroke [1,3]. (See "Initial assessment and management of acute
stroke", section on 'Fever'.)
●
Hyperglycemia in the first 24 hours after stroke is associated with adverse outcomes, and current guidelines suggestinsulin treatment to target serum glucose level between 140 to 180 mg/dL (>7.8 to 10 mmol/L) [1,3]. Hypoglycemia
should be avoided. (See "Initial assessment and management of acute stroke", section on 'Hyperglycemia' and
"Initial assessment and management of acute stroke", section on 'Hypoglycemia'.)
●
Intermittent pneumatic compression is the mainstay for prevention of venous thromboembolism in patients with acute
ICH. (See "The use of antithrombotic therapy in patients with an acute or prior intracerebral hemorrhage".)
●
Normal saline initially should be used for maintenance and replacement fluids; hypotonic fluids are contraindicated as
they may exacerbate cerebral edema and intracranial pressure. Hypervolemia should be avoided as it may worsen
cerebral edema [10]. (See 'Intracranial pressure' below.)
●
Dysphagia is common and is a major risk factor for developing aspiration pneumonia. Prevention of aspiration inpatients with acute stroke includes initial nulla per os (NPO) status until swallowing function is evaluated. Some
experts suggest that patients with a GCS
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nitroprusside, and nitroglycerin are useful intravenous agents for controlling blood pressure [1].
Seizure prophylaxis and treatment — The reported risk of seizures in patients with acute spontaneous ICH ranges from
4.2 to 29 percent [1,10]. Seizures are more common in lobar as compared to deep hemorrhage [24]. The frequency
depends in part on the extent of monitoring, as seizures associated with ICH are often nonconvulsive [1]. (See
"Spontaneous intracerebral hemorrhage: Pathogenesis, clinical features, and diagnosis", section on 'Clinical presentation'
and "Nonconvulsive status epilepticus".)
If a seizure occurs, appropriate intravenous antiepileptic drug (AED) treatment should be administered to prevent recurrent
seizures [3]. The choice of the initial antiepileptic agent depends upon individual circumstances and contraindications.
Current guidelines suggest the use of intravenous fosphenytoin or phenytoin in this setting [1]. (See "Initial treatment of epilepsy in adults" and "Convulsive status epilepticus in adults: Classification, clinical features, and diagnosis".)
While some experts suggest a brief period of AED prophylaxis soon after ICH onset as a potential means of reducing the
risk for early seizures in patients with lobar hemorrhages [1], 2010 guidelines recommend against prophylactic use of
AEDs [3] This strategy has not been tested prospectively in clinical trials. While two case series have found that
prophylactic treatment with AEDs was associated with poorer outcomes (a concern that has also been raised for
subarachnoid hemorrhage patients), these were nonrandomized, observational studies, and sample size did not allow for
examination of a differential effect from different AEDs [25,26].
Intracranial pressure — Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) due to ICH can result from the hematoma itself and from
surrounding edema, and may contribute to brain injury and neurologic deterioration. Current guidelines recommend agraded approach to the management of elevated ICP, beginning with simple measures that include the following [1]:
Glucocorticoids should NOT be used to lower the ICP in most patients with ICH. A randomized trial found that
dexamethasone did not improve outcome but did increase complication rates, primarily infection [27].
Invasive monitoring and treatment of ICP should be considered for patients with GCS
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Because of the questionable efficacy of surgery, it should only be considered as a life saving procedure to treat refractory
increases in ICP; even in these instances, decisions should be addressed on a per patient basis:
Intraventricular hemorrhage — Patients with intraventricular extension of the ICH are at risk for hydrocephalus,
especially if the third and fourth ventricles are involved. Such patients should be closely monitored. When neurologic
deterioration occurs, an emergent CT scan should be done to exclude the development of hydrocephalus. Patients with
neurologic deterioration in the setting of ventricular enlargement may be candidates for ventriculostomy and external
ventricular drainage.
The management of intraventricular hemorrhage is discussed in detail separately. (See "Intraventricular hemorrhage".)
Hemostatic therapy — While hemostatic therapy offers the potential to improve outcomes by stopping ongoing
hemorrhage and preventing hemorrhage enlargement, clinical trials have had mixed results. Current guidelines andsystematic reviews have concluded that recombinant factor VIIa treatment for acute ICH that is not associated with
warfarin use is investigational and should not be used for treatment of ICH outside the context of a clinical trial [1,3,48].
The use of factor VIIa for warfarin-associated ICH is discussed in detail separately. (See "Reversal of anticoagulation in
warfarin-associated intracerebral hemorrhage".)
The agent that has been most studied for use in ICH is activated recombinant factor VIIa (rFVIIa), which promotes
hemostasis at sites of vascular injury [49]. (See "Therapeutic uses of recombinant coagulation factor VIIa in
non-hemophiliacs", section on 'Mechanism of action'.)
While preliminary studies suggested that treatment with rFVIIa was safe and effective for ICH [50,51], results from the
multicenter double-blind phase 3 clinical trial showed no benefit for primary clinical outcomes [52]. The trial randomly
assigned 841 patients with spontaneous ICH to receive either rFVIIa (20 or 80 mcg/kg) or placebo within four hours of
symptom onset. Compared with placebo, treatment with rFVIIa was associated with a significant reduction in hematoma
growth but did not result in improvement in the primary outcome measures, death or severe disability at day 90. In
contrast, the earlier multicenter phase 2B study evaluated 399 patients with spontaneous ICH and found that treatment
significantly reduced the risk of severe disability or death compared with placebo at 90 days (absolute risk reduction of 16
percent) [51].
Recombinant factor VIIa has a potential risk of serious side effects from activation of the coagulation system or thrombosis
[49]:
SECONDARY TREATMENT ISSUES — Early mobilization and rehabilitation are suggested in patients with ICH who are
clinically stable [1,3].
Resumption of antiplatelet therapy — Our experience with the use of aspirin suggests that it is probably safe to resume
therapy after the acute phase of ICH provided that blood pressure is well controlled and that the indication for antiplatelet
treatment is sufficiently strong that the potential benefit outweighs the increase in risk of recurrent ICH. (See 'Timing and
dose' below.)
There are limited data that specifically address this issue. Therefore, most decisions must be made by extrapolating from
Surgery should not be considered for patients who are either fully alert or deeply comatose. Patients with
intermediate levels of arousal (obtundation-stupor) are more appropriate candidates.
●
Features that support performing surgery include a recent onset of hemorrhage, ongoing clinical deterioration,
involvement of the nondominant hemisphere, and location of the hematoma near the cortical surface.
●
Features in favor of less aggressive therapy include serious concomitant medical problems, advanced age, stable
clinical condition, remote onset of hemorrhage, involvement of the dominant hemisphere, and inaccessibility of thehemorrhage
●
In the phase 3 trial, the overall frequency of thromboembolic serious adverse events was similar among treatment
groups, but the rate of arterial thromboembolic serious adverse events (myocardial infarction or cerebral infarction)was significantly higher in the group assigned to 80 mcg/kg when compared with placebo (8 versus 4 percent) [52].
Similar findings were noted in an analysis of pooled data from three earlier randomized controlled trials of rFVIIa for
spontaneous ICH, in which the rate of arterial thromboembolic serious adverse events was significantly increased in
those assigned to high-dose rFVIIa (120 to 160 mcg/kg) compared with placebo (5.4 versus 1.7 percent) [53].
●
Small open-label studies suggest that rFVIIa treatment for ICH is associated with increased rates of troponin
elevation and myocardial infarction [54] and higher than expected rates of posthemorrhagic hydrocephalus [55]. (See
"Therapeutic uses of recombinant coagulation factor VIIa in non-hemophiliacs", section on 'Safety issues'.)
●
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the limited data regarding antiplatelet therapy and the risk of primary ICH. Meta-analyses of randomized controlled trials
suggest that aspirin use is associated with an approximately 40 percent relative increase in the risk of initial ICH, which
translates into a very small absolute increase in risk [56,57]. In the setting of cerebral amyloid angiopathy, aspirin use may
be associated with a greater risk of recurrent ICH [58]. (See "The use of antithrombotic therapy in patients with an acute or
prior intracerebral hemorrhage", section on 'Risk associated with antithrombotic therapy' and "Cerebral amyloid
angiopathy", section on 'Avoiding anticoagulants and antiplatelet agents'.)
Although aspirin reduces the risk of ischemic stroke by 25 percent, this benefit is largely negated by the associated
increased risk of recurrent ICH, which typically causes more disability than ischemic stroke. Therefore, we do not
recommend aspirin or antiplatelets for those patients with only an "average" risk of recurrent ischemic stroke. What exactly
constitutes "average" or "above average" risk is not certain, but we consider hypertension, diabetes, hypercholesterolemia,
and the absence of heart disease to be markers of average risk. Atrial fibrillation, cardiomyopathy, large vessel extracranial
and intracranial stenoses, and malignancy can be considered as markers for those with "above average" risk who may
benefit from long-term antiplatelet therapy after ICH.
We also suggest not resuming aspirin or antiplatelet therapy for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. In the few
existing primary prevention studies, patients with any prior ICH were excluded. Such patients should avoid aspirin unless a
compelling indication for aspirin use develops later on.
Timing and dose — The timing of antiplatelet use after ICH is largely empiric. There is risk of rebleeding and
hematoma expansion in the first several hours. At 10 days, rebleeding is unlikely. The AHA/ASA guidelines of 2006 state
that antiplatelets should be discontinued for at least one to two weeks [59].
Some experts have argued that aspirin can be used safely as soon as 48 hours after ICH in those who require prophylaxis
for venous thromboembolism. We agree, provided neuroimaging has demonstrated a stable ICH. (See "The use of
antithrombotic therapy in patients with an acute or prior intracerebral hemorrhage", section on 'Prevention'.)
If aspirin is used after ICH, we agree with others that a lower dose (30 to 160 mg daily) is both effective and safer than
higher doses. (See "The use of antithrombotic therapy in patients with an acute or prior intracerebral hemorrhage".)
Resumption of anticoagulation — The question of when to restart anticoagulation in patients at high risk for embolic
events who have suffered an ICH has not been definitively answered [60]. For patients who require anticoagulation soon
after a cerebral hemorrhage, the AHA/ASA guidelines conclude that intravenous heparin may be safer than oral
anticoagulation [60]. In addition, the guidelines suggest that oral anticoagulants may be resumed three to four weeks after
onset of the hemorrhage with rigorous monitoring and maintenance of INRs in the lower end of the therapeutic range. It is
reasonable to consider risk factors for recurrent ICH when making risk/benefit decisions regarding resumption of oral
anticoagulation. (See 'Recurrence' below.)
Resumption of anticoagulation is discussed in greater detail separately. (See "The use of antithrombotic therapy in patients
with an acute or prior intracerebral hemorrhage".)
Secondary prevention — Efforts to control blood pressure over the long term are likely to significantly reduce the risk of
recurrent ICH. Guidelines published in 2010 suggest a goal blood pressure of
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Preceding antithrombotic use — In the setting of an acute ICH, patients with preceding use of anticoagulants or
antiplatelet agents appear to have larger initial hematoma volumes or greater hemorrhage enlargement leading to worse
outcomes [117,118]. However, the available evidence associating antithrombotic use with poor outcomes is mainly
observational.
ICH score — A simple six-point clinical grading scale called the ICH score has been devised to predict mortality after
ICH [131]. This scale incorporates several clinical components that may be independent predictors of outcome.
The ICH score is determined by adding the score from each component as follows:
Thirty-day mortality rates increased steadily with ICH score; mortality rates for ICH scores of 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 were 13, 26,
72, 97, and 100 percent, respectively. No patient with an ICH score of 0 died, and none had a score of 6 in the cohort.
The ICH score has been validated by retrospective [132] and prospective [133,134] analysis. A modified ICH score [132]
using the National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS) score [135] (table 3) in place of the GCS score may be a
better predictor of good outcome than the original ICH score.
Other factors — Patient age and overall medical health and condition have an important role in the patient’s survival
and morbidity after ICH [136].
Accumulating data suggest that the early use of do not resuscitate (DNR) orders, along with decisions to limit aggressive
treatments and/or withdraw medical care may negatively influence outcome in patients with ICH, and may even invalidate
some prognostic models that do not control for this variable [8,137-140].
A number of reports have noted that elevated admission blood glucose after ICH is a poor prognostic indicator
[9,85,91,141-144]. However, it is unclear if elevated glucose directly contributes to poor outcome, or if it alternatively is
present secondarily as part of the stress response to severe ICH.
Low total and LDL cholesterol have been linked to a risk of ICH. (See "Spontaneous intracerebral hemorrhage:
Pathogenesis, clinical features, and diagnosis", section on 'Risk factors'.) In one study of 108 patients with ICH, lower
serum LDL-cholesterol predicted early hematoma growth, neurologic deterioration, and three-month mortality [145].
At least two studies have found that extensive white matter lesions on CT or MRI is associated with worse outcomes
deterioration occurred in 61 (23 percent) and was associated with an eight-fold increase in the probability of a
poor outcome (95% CI 2.7-25.5) [113]. Independent predictors of early neurologic deterioration on admission
included elevations in body temperature, neutrophil count, and serum fibrinogen level (odds ratios 24.5, 2.1,
and 5.6, respectively), all of which could be interpreted as markers of an inflammatory response. Factors
measured at 48 hours that were associated with early neurologic deterioration included ICH growth on repeat
head CT, intraventricular bleeding, and high systolic blood pressure.
In many [91,112,114,115] but not all [113] reports, the initial ICH volume on CT is an independent predictor of
early deterioration. The degree and subsequent expansion of perilesional edema is strongly related to the size
of the initial ICH volume, and at least in one study, did not appear have an independent effect in predicting
outcome [116].
•
Oral anticoagulants — Patients on oral anticoagulant therapy have a mortality rate of 52 to 73 percent after ICH
[94,117,119,120]. In nonrandomized comparisons, these rates appear to be higher than those not on anticoagulation
therapy with reported relative risks ranging from 3 to 4 [94,117]. This increased risk may be mitigated, but not
eliminated by rapid reversal of anticoagulation [121].
●
Antiplatelets — The evidence regarding preceding antiplatelet use with prognosis after ICH is not as clear, with
some [94,118,122-124] but not all [120,125-129] studies reporting worse prognosis or greater hematoma
enlargement with ICH. A systematic review of 25 cohort studies concluded that prior antiplatelet use was associated
with increased mortality (OR = 1.3), but not poor functional outcome after ICH [130].
●
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score 3 to 4 (= 2 points); GCS 5 to 12 (= 1 point) and GCS 13 to 15 (= 0 points) (table
1)
●
ICH volume ≥30 cm3 (= 1 point), ICH volume
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●
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●
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●
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●
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●
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8/9/2019 Spontaneous Intracerebral Hemorrhage_ Treatment and Prognosis
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GRAPHICS
Glasgow coma scale
Score
Eye opening
Spontaneous 4
Response to verbal command 3
Response to pain 2
No eye opening 1
Best verbal response
Oriented 5
Confused 4
Inappropriate words 3
Incomprehensible sounds 2
No verbal response 1
Best motor response
Obeys commands 6
Localizing response to pain 5
Withdrawal response to pain 4
Flexion to pain 3
Extension to pain 2
No motor response 1
Total
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst, and 15 the best. It is composed of three
parameters: best eye response (E), best verbal response (V), and best motor response (M). The
components of the GCS should be recorded individually; for example, E2V3M4 results in a GCS score of 9.
A score of 13 or higher correlates with mild brain injury; a score of 9 to 12 correlates with moderate
injury; and a score of 8 or less represents severe brain injury.
Graphic 81854 Version 2.0
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Modified Rankin scale
Score Description
0 No symptoms at all
1 No significant disability despite symptoms; able to carry out all usual duties and activities
2 Slight disability; unable to carry out all previous activities, but able to look after own affairs
without assistance
3 Moderate disability; requiring some help, but able to walk without assistance
4 Moderately severe disability; unable to walk without assistance and unable to attend to own
bodily needs without assistance
5 Severe disability; bedridden, incontinent and requiring constant nursing care and attention
6 Dead
Reproduced with permission from: Van Swieten JC, Koudstaa PJ, Visser MC, et al. Interobserver agreement for
the assessment of handicap in stroke patients. Stroke 1988; 19:604. Copyright © 1988 Lippincott Williams &
Wilkins.
Graphic 75411 Version 10.0
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National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS)
Administer stroke scale items in the order listed. Record performance in each category after each subscale
exam. Do not go back and change scores. Follow directions provided for each exam technique. Scores
should reflect what the patient does, not what the clinician thinks the patient can do. The clinician should
record answers while administering the exam and work quickly. Except where indicated, the patient should
not be coached (ie, repeated requests to patient to make a special effort).
Instructions Scale definition Score
1a. Level of consciousness: The investigator
must choose a response if a full evaluation is
prevented by such obstacles as an
endotracheal tube, language barrier,
orotracheal trauma/bandages. A 3 is scored
only if the patient makes no movement (other
than reflexive posturing) in response to
noxious stimulation.
0 = Alert; keenly responsive.
1 = Not alert; but arousable by minor
stimulation to obey, answer, or respond.
2 = Not alert; requires repeated stimulation
to attend, or is obtunded and requires strong
or painful stimulation to make movements (not
stereotyped).
3 = Responds only with reflex motor or
autonomic effects or totally unresponsive,
flaccid, and areflexic.
_____
1b. LOC questions: The patient is asked the
month and his/her age. The answer must be
correct - there is no partial credit for being
close. Aphasic and stuporous patients who do
not comprehend the questions will score 2.
Patients unable to speak because of
endotracheal intubation, orotracheal trauma,
severe dysarthria from any cause, language
barrier, or any other problem not secondary to
aphasia are given a 1. It is important that only
the initial answer be graded and that the
examiner not "help" the patient with verbal or
non-verbal cues.
0 = Answers both questions correctly.
1 = Answers one question correctly.
2 = Answers neither question correctly.
_____
1c. LOC commands: The patient is asked to
open and close the eyes and then to grip and
release the non-paretic hand. Substitute
another one step command if the hands cannot
be used. Credit is given if an unequivocal
attempt is made but not completed due to
weakness. If the patient does not respond to
command, the task should be demonstrated to
him or her (pantomime), and the result scored
(ie, follows none, one or two commands).
Patients with trauma, amputation, or other
physical impediments should be given suitable
one-step commands. Only the first attempt is
scored.
0 = Performs both tasks correctly.
1 = Performs one task correctly.
2 = Performs neither task correctly.
_____
2. Best gaze: Only horizontal eye movements
will be tested. Voluntary or reflexive
(oculocephalic) eye movements will be scored,
but caloric testing is not done. If the patient
has a conjugate deviation of the eyes that can
be overcome by voluntary or reflexive activity,
the score will be 1. If a patient has an isolated
peripheral nerve paresis (CN III, IV or VI),
0 = Normal.
1 = Partial gaze palsy; gaze is abnormal inone or both eyes, but forced deviation or total
gaze paresis is not present.
2 = Forced deviation, or total gaze paresis
not overcome by the oculocephalic maneuver.
_____
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score a 1. Gaze is testable in all aphasic
patients. Patients with ocular trauma,
bandages, pre-existing blindness, or other
disorder of visual acuity or fields should be
tested with reflexive movements, and a choice
made by the investigator. Establishing eye
contact and then moving about the patient
from side to side will occasionally clarify the
presence of a partial gaze palsy.
3. Visual: Visual fields (upper and lower
quadrants) are tested by confrontation, using
finger counting or visual threat, as
appropriate. Patients may be encouraged, but
if they look at the side of the moving fingers
appropriately, this can be scored as normal. If
there is unilateral blindness or enucleation,
visual fields in the remaining eye are scored.
Score 1 only if a clear-cut asymmetry,
including quadrantanopia, is found. If patient
is blind from any cause, score 3. Doublesimultaneous stimulation is performed at this
point. If there is extinction, patient receives a
1, and the results are used to respond to item
11.
0 = No visual loss.
1 = Partial hemianopia.
2 = Complete hemianopia.
3 = Bilateral hemianopia (blind including
cortical blindness).
_____
4. Facial palsy: Ask - or use pantomime to
encourage - the patient to show teeth or raise
eyebrows and close eyes. Score symmetry of
grimace in response to noxious stimuli in the
poorly responsive or non-comprehending
patient. If facial trauma/bandages, orotrachealtube, tape or other physical barriers obscure
the face, these should be removed to the
extent possible.
0 = Normal symmetrical movements.
1 = Minor paralysis (flattened nasolabial
fold, asymmetry on smiling).
2 = Partial paralysis (total or near-total
paralysis of lower face).
3 = Complete paralysis of one or both sides
(absence of facial movement in the upper and
lower face).
_____
5. Motor arm: The limb is placed in the
appropriate position: extend the arms (palms
down) 90 degrees (if sitting) or 45 degrees (if
supine). Drift is scored if the arm falls before
10 seconds. The aphasic patient is encouraged
using urgency in the voice and pantomime, but
not noxious stimulation. Each limb is tested in
turn, beginning with the non-paretic arm. Only
in the case of amputation or joint fusion at the
shoulder, the examiner should record the score
as untestable (UN), and clearly write the
explanation for this choice.
0 = No drift; limb holds 90 (or 45) degrees
for full 10 seconds.
1 = Drift; limb holds 90 (or 45) degrees, but
drifts down before full 10 seconds; does not hit
bed or other support.
2 = Some effort against gravity; limb
cannot get to or maintain (if cued) 90 (or 45)
degrees, drifts down to bed, but has some
effort against gravity.
3 = No effort against gravity; limb falls.
4 = No movement.
UN = Amputation or joint fusion,
explain:________________
5a. Left arm
5b. Right arm
_____
6. Motor leg: The limb is placed in the
appropriate position: hold the leg at 30
degrees (always tested supine). Drift is scored
0 = No drift; leg holds 30-degree position for
full 5 seconds. _____
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if the leg falls before 5 seconds. The aphasic
patient is encouraged using urgency in the
voice and pantomime, but not noxious
stimulation. Each limb is tested in turn,
beginning with the non-paretic leg. Only in the
case of amputation or joint fusion at the hip,
the examiner should record the score as
untestable (UN), and clearly write the
explanation for this choice.
1 = Drift; leg falls by the end of the 5-second
period but does not hit bed.
2 = Some effort against gravity; leg falls to
bed by 5 seconds, but has some effort against
gravity.
3 = No effort against gravity; leg falls to
bed immediately.
4 = No movement.
UN = Amputation or joint fusion,
explain:________________
6a. Left leg
6b. Right leg
7. Limb ataxia: This item is aimed at finding
evidence of a unilateral cerebellar lesion. Test
with eyes open. In case of visual defect,
ensure testing is done in intact visual field. The
finger-nose-finger and heel-shin tests are
performed on both sides, and ataxia is scored
only if present out of proportion to weakness.
Ataxia is absent in the patient who cannot
understand or is paralyzed. Only in the case of
amputation or joint fusion, the examiner
should record the score as untestable (UN),
and clearly write the explanation for this
choice. In case of blindness, test by having the
patient touch nose from extended arm
position.
0 = Absent.
1 = Present in one limb.
2 = Present in two limbs.
UN = Amputation or joint fusion,
explain:________________
_____
8. Sensory: Sensation or grimace to pinprick
when tested, or withdrawal from noxious
stimulus in the obtunded or aphasic patient.
Only sensory loss attributed to stroke is scored
as abnormal and the examiner should test as
many body areas (arms [not hands], legs,
trunk, face) as needed to accurately check for
hemisensory loss. A score of 2, "severe or total
sensory loss," should only be given when a
severe or total loss of sensation can be clearly
demonstrated. Stuporous and aphasic patients
will, therefore, probably score 1 or 0. The
patient with brainstem stroke who has bilateral
loss of sensation is scored 2. If the patient
does not respond and is quadriplegic, score 2.
Patients in a coma (item 1a=3) are
automatically given a 2 on this item.
0 = Normal; no sensory loss.
1 = Mild-to-moderate sensory loss; patient
feels pinprick is less sharp or is dull on the
affected side; or there is a loss of superficial
pain with pinprick, but patient is aware of
being touched.
2 = Severe to total sensory loss; patient is
not aware of being touched in the face, arm,
and leg.
_____
9. Best language: A great deal of information
about comprehension will be obtained during
the preceding sections of the examination. For
this scale item, the patient is asked to describe
what is happening in the attached picture, to
name the items on the attached naming sheet
and to read from the attached list of
sentences. Comprehension is judged from
responses here, as well as to all of the
commands in the recedin eneral
0 = No aphasia; normal.
1 = Mild-to-moderate aphasia; some
obvious loss of fluency or facility of comprehension, without significant limitation
on ideas expressed or form of expression.
Reduction of speech and/or comprehension,
however, makes conversation about provided
materials difficult or impossible. For example,
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neurological exam. If visual loss interferes with
the tests, ask the patient to identify objects
placed in the hand, repeat, and produce
speech. The intubated patient should be asked
to write. The patient in a coma (item 1a=3)
will automatically score 3 on this item. The
examiner must choose a score for the patient
with stupor or limited cooperation, but a score
of 3 should be used only if the patient is mute
and follows no one-step commands.
in conversation about provided materials,
examiner can identify picture or naming card
content from patient's response.
2 = Severe aphasia; all communication is
through fragmentary expression; great need
for inference, questioning, and guessing by the
listener. Range of information that can be
exchanged is limited; listener carries burden of
communication. Examiner cannot identify
materials provided from patient response.
3 = Mute, global aphasia; no usable speech
or auditory comprehension.
10. Dysarthria: If patient is thought to be
normal, an adequate sample of speech must
be obtained by asking patient to read or repeat
words from the attached list. If the patient has
severe aphasia, the clarity of articulation of
spontaneous speech can be rated. Only if the
patient is intubated or has other physicalbarriers to producing speech, the examiner
should record the score as untestable (UN),
and clearly write an explanation for this choice.
Do not tell the patient why he or she is being
tested.
0 = Normal.
1 = Mild-to-moderate dysarthria; patient
slurs at least some words and, at worst, can
be understood with some difficulty.
2 = Severe dysarthria; patient's speech is so
slurred as to be unintelligible in the absence of or out of proportion to any dysphasia, or is
mute/anarthric.
UN = Intubated or other physical barrier,
explain:________________
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11. Extinction and inattention (formerly
neglect): Sufficient information to identify
neglect may be obtained during the prior
testing. If the patient has a severe visual loss
preventing visual double simultaneousstimulation, and the cutaneous stimuli are
normal, the score is normal. If the patient has
aphasia but does appear to attend to both
sides, the score is normal. The presence of
visual spatial neglect or may also
be taken as evidence of abnormality. Since the
abnormality is scored only if present, the item
is never untestable.
0 = No abnormality.
1 = Visual, tactile, auditory, spatial, or
personal inattention or extinction to bilateral
simultaneous stimulation in one of the sensory
modalities.
2 = Profound hemi-inattention or
extinction to more than one modality;
does not recognize own hand or orients to only
one side of space.
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Adapted from: Goldstein LB, Samsa GP, Stroke 1997; 28:307.
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