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GROUP 10 Unit 1: Introduction To Nursing And History Of Nursing.
1. All the above is a nursing process except A. Nursing Assessment B. Nursing Diagnosis C. Nursing Objective D. Planning Nursing Care.
2. Who was founder of modern nursing? A. Florence Nightingale B. Rufaidah C. Virgina Henderson D. Hidergand Peplau
3. What is the best definition of nursing?
A. Is a person, usually a women trained to care for the sick
B. Direct, goal orientated and adaptasce to the needs of the individual, the family and community during health and illness.
C. The set of utilizing the environment of the patient to assist him in his recovery
D. The unique function of the nurse is to assist the individual, sick or well, in the performance of those activities contributing to health or its recovery
4. Who has founder of nursing in Islam A. Florence Nightingale B. Virgina Henderson C. Rufaidah binti Saat Al-Alamy D. Hidegand Peplau
5. Below are scope of nursing except
A. Preventing illness B. Restoring health C. Care of the dying D. Therapeutic interaction
6. ALL is the function of the law in nursing
except A. Provides a framework for establishing
which nursing actions in the care of client
B. Differentiates the nurse’s responsibilities from those of other health professionals.
C. Nurses practice in a wide range of setting from hospitals
D. Helps established the boundaries of independent nursing actions.
7. A nurse with 2 to 3 years of experience
who has the ability to coordinate multiple complex nursing care demands is at which stage of Benner’s states of nursing expertise? A. Advanced beginner B. Competent practitioner C. Proficient practitioner D. Expert practitioner
8. What are the nursing specialities for the
ecology nursing? A. Critically ill client B. Client with cancer problem C. Client with heart problem D. Nursing the elder client
9. What is caring concept?
A. Courage B. Hope C. Human traits D. Knowing
10. What is the meaning of caring?
A. Showing or feeling affection and concern for other people
B. Serious attention or thought in doing something properly or avoiding damage to something
C. To feel that somebody or something is important or interesting
D. Believe that possibilities of the other‘s growth.
MEQ
1) Definite the meaning of nursing (2 marks) 2) State the function of nurse (12 Marks) 3) State the function of Law in Nursing.
(4 marks) 4) List 6 nursing specialist (6 marks)
Nursing Models and Theories
1. Which of the following is true about met paradigm? A. Concepts that can be superimposed on
almost any work in nursing B. Building a common nursing
terminology
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C. Offer a systematic approach to identify question for study and validate nursing interventions
D. Application of the logical approach to the solution of a problem
2. Which of the following of purpose in practice are not true? A. Assist nurses to describe, explain and
predict everyday experience B. Help to establish criteria to measure
the quality of nursing care C. Assist in discovering knowledge gaps
in the specific field of study D. Provide a rationale for collecting
reliable and valid data
3. Florence Nightingale well-known as lady with the lamp. Her theory describes about A. The use of therapeutic relationship
between the nurse and client B. The act utilizing the environment of
the patient to assist him in his recovery
C. Nurse’s role as assisting sick or well individuals to gain independence
D. The process and outcome whereby the feeling person uses conscious awareness to create environmental integration
4. All of the following are activities of daily
living except A. Selecting suitable clothes B. Playing in various forms of recreation C. Keeping the body clean to protect the
integument D. Include individuals, families, group
and communities
5. According Hildegard Peplau, he discuss about Interpersonal Relations Model. Which of the following is/are true about relationship between nurse and client? A. Client seek help and the nurse assist
the client to understand the problem B. Identified to meet client’s needs
depending on their ability to maintain health
C. Optimal care to enhance healing process
D. All above
6. These above statements is related to
A. Hildegard Peplau B. Virgina Henderson C. Dorothea E. Orem D. Sister Callister Ray
7. Which of the following are not true about
Dorothea E. Orem? A. Caring and community B. Includes three related concept C. Nursing as part of a social care
paradigm D. Highlights the importance of client’s
decision
8. All of the following are Maslow Hierarchy of needs except A. Love and belonging need B. Security need C. Health need D. The need for self
9. Imogene King was highlight about
A. Nurse-client interaction B. Thinking and feeling person C. Self care, self-care deficit and nursing
system D. Important of nurse participation
10. Which of the following is nursing
concept? A. Human being B. Environment C. Heath D. All the above
Concept Of Caring
1. Which of the caring concept? A. Believing the possibilities of other
growth B. Caring as a human traits C. Enabling the others to grow in his
own way and time D. Allowing the other to grow on his
own way and own time
Conceptualized the nurse’s role as assisting sick or well individuals to gain independence in meeting 14 ADL
fundamental needs
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2. Below is component of caring, except A. Honesty B. Trust C. Lie D. Hope
3. Which is theory of human caring by
Warson? A. Base on nursing’s role in society
which includes 10 caring factor in nursing
B. Understanding culture as an essential parts of nursing care
C. Centre of all attributes used to describe nursing include 6 “c” of caring
D. Action oriented characterized by trust and empathy
4. Which of the following is not include in
caring 6 “c” by Roach ? A. Compartment B. Confidence C. Compassion D. Courage
5. Which is the following is caring behaviour
in nursing practice? A. Being sensitive to the existential B. knowing the client C. Promoting interpersonal teaching
learning D. Instilling faith and hope
6. Nurse employs necessary knowledge,
judgement, skill and motivation to respond adequately to the client’s need A. Compassion B. Competence C. Knowing the client D. Empowering the client
7. Below are human caring theories and its
explanation. Which part is incorrectly matched?
A. Promoting interpersonal teaching learning – persons that posses three sphere of being
B. Instilling faith and hopes – Feeling faith promote wellness by helping the client to adapt health seeking behaviour
C. Forming are humanistic altruistic system of values – this factors relates to the satisfaction through giving and extending of self
D. Expressing positive and negative feelings – The nurse must be prepared for negatives feelings
8. What is the best definition for caring in nursing? A. Understanding the meaning of the
illness for the clients and the importance understanding how illness interrupts client’s life
B. Nurse client relationship C. Help him to grow and actualize
himself D. Individualized person and has unique
interpretation of health and illness
9. Choose the best example for therapeutic interaction A. Ability to see, the client’s as a person
with feelings and beliefs rather than a dysfunctional body
B. A student nurse shows empathy as she knows that an incidence of wetting the bed will harm the client self esteem
C. Enable the client to cope and deal with what is stressful and to find meaning in a situation
D. Set up the possibility of giving and receiving help
10. A student nurse, who walks her elderly client frequently to the bathroom, does not want her client to lose bladder control on bed. This statement show the caring concepts as A. Human trait B. Effective interpersonal relationship C. Therapeutic interaction D. Culture care diversity
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GROUP 9 Unit 2: Nursing Process
Nursing Assessment
1. What is the meaning of nursing assessment? A. First phase in nursing process that
involve information regarding client (client’s data) followed by verifying, organizing, interpreting, documenting/communicating those data collected.
B. First phase in nursing process where nurse determine the meaning of the assessment data.
C. First phase in nursing process provides direction planning nursing interventions that will achieve the desired changes in client behaviour.
D. First phase in nursing process to determine when a problem has been resolved.
2. The following are the purpose of data of data collection in assessment except A. Screening assessment B. Focused assessment C. Comprehensive assessment D. Planning assessment
3. Which of the following are true about
types of data? A. Objective data & collecting data B. Objective data & subjective data C. Subjective data & formulae data D. Assessment data & validating data
4. A primary source of data is referring to
A. Client B. Family members C. Care giver D. Friends
5. Guides to collecting of data must followed
this steps, except A. Relevant to client’s needs. B. Collected from both subjective &
objective data. C. Primary & secondary sources. D. Discussions with other health
discipline.
6. What is the meaning of screening assessment? A. The data gathered is for determining
the status of a specific condition. B. Obtain complete detailed clinical
database. C. The data gathered is for determining
whether the person is in need of further evaluation, testing or other services.
D. To establish a database about a client’s response.
7. Below are the guides to collecting data except A. Ensure data collected must be
relevant to client’s need. B. Write legibly, neatly and in ink. C. Collect data systematically. D. Equip yourself with critical thinking
skills.
8. What is the guide to objective documentation of health assessment? A. Document ASAP after performing
assessment. B. Write using ball pen. C. Write using the nurses word from
nurses observation. D. Collect data systematically.
9. There are the main method used to collect
data except A. Review of records / chart. B. Physical examination. C. Assessment interview. D. Health examination.
10. ‘Patient sleeps well’. This statement
include in which one of the guide to objective document? A. Use concrete, specific info. B. Clarify with client when statements
are unclear. C. Compare related objective and
subjective data. D. Record only the relevant and most
important patient word.
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Nursing diagnosis
1. What is the definition of nursing diagnosis? A. A systematic, rational method of
planning and providing nursing care B. The first phase in nursing process that
involves gathering of information, verifying, organizing, interpreting and documenting data.
C. The second phase in nursing process which a nurse determine the meaning of the assessment data
D. Process of designing nursing strategies required to prevent, reduced or eliminate a client’s health problem.
2. Which of the following not the steps in
nursing diagnosis? A. Analyzing data B. Drawing conclusion about the health
status C. Formulating diagnostic statement D. Developing care plan
3. What is the purpose of planning process?
A. Ultimately to produce an individualized nursing care plan to meet the client’s needs.
B. To deliver quality care C. Provide holistic care individualized
care D. Provide directions for planning
nursing intervention that will achieve the desired changes in client behaviour.
4. The planned interventions should be
A. Related to only one problem per diagnosis
B. Safe and appropriate for individual condition.
C. Based on reliable and relevant assessment data
D. Client oriented
5. The following is the type of nursing diagnosis except A. Risk nursing diagnosis B. Wellness diagnosis C. Health diagnosis D. Syndrome diagnosis
6. Nursing diagnosis relate to the nurse’s A. Dependent B. Independent function C. Independent and dependent nursing
interventions D. Some independent actions but
primarily for monitoring and preventing
7. Madam Ariana was admitted with medical
diagnosis of chronic renal failure. Nursing diagnosis could be device from her is A. Sleep deprivation B. Degree of life threatening event and
well being C. Emotional responses to chronic renal
failure D. Impaired performance of Activity
Daily Living
8. There are five levels of human needs. One of them is self actualization. What is the meaning by self actualization? A. Opportunities for innovation and
creativity B. Ensuring continuity of care C. Various activities such as doing
nursing task, communicating, caring and advocating
D. To provide direction for individualized care
9. An elderly widow who lives alone is
admitted to the hospital. The nurse notices that she has no visitors and is pleased with attention and conversation from the nursing staff. This situation is the best example for A. Risk nursing diagnosis B. Wellness diagnosis C. Syndrome diagnosis D. Possible nursing diagnosis
10. The best orientation and responsibility for
diagnosing medical diagnose is A. Oriented to the individual, nurse
responsible for diagnosing B. Oriented to pathology, physician
responsible for diagnosis, diagnosis not within the scape of nursing practice
C. Oriented path physiology, nurses responsible for diagnosing
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D. Observe significant data and draw conclusion about the client.
Planning Nursing Care
1. What is the definition of planning phase? A. The second component/phase in
nursing process in which a nurse determine the meaning of the assessment data.
B. Planning is the process of designing nursing strategies required to prevent, reduced or eliminate a client’s health problem.
C. In nursing, critical thinking for clinical decision making is the ability of think in systematic.
D. Any act by a nurse that implements the nursing care plan or any specific objective of that plan.
2. Which one is the process of planning?
A. Identify problems comprehensively B. Ensuring continuity of care C. Selecting nursing strategies D. Illustrate in the form of pyramid
3. What is the purpose of nursing objective?
A. Provide time span for planned activities
B. Guide documentation of care C. Possible future effects of the
problems D. Establishing client’s goals
4. Purpose health care client plan
A. Making inference on the problems based on the assessment data
B. Provide direction for individualized care
C. Ultimately to produce an individualized nursing care plan to meet the client needs
5. How many process of nursing planning?
A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1
6. What is the purpose of planning phase? A. To produce an individualized nursing
care plan to meet the client’s needs B. To provide the basic for selecting
nursing interventions. C. To collect client’s data for analysis D. To determine when a problem has
been resolved
7. The planned interventions should be below except A. Safe and appropriate for individual
condition B. Motivates nurses and client when
objectives were meet C. Based on sound knowledge D. Achievable with the resources
available
8. Below is a guide how to write nursing objective except A. Focus on what the client will
accomplished B. Based on sound knowledge C. More than one outcome is allowed for
one nursing diagnosis D. Ensure outcome is within
measureable
9. How many level of human needs have? A. 4 level B. 3 level C. 6 level D. 5 level
10. Nursing care plan is
A. Ensuring continuity of care B. Plan that is based on a nursing
assessment and a nursing diagnosis, carried out by a nurse
C. To assign task to the staff who will care for the client
D. Guide documentation of care
Implementation of Nursing Care
1. Putting the planned, nursing interventions into action is A. Evaluation B. Implementation C. Planning D. Assessment
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2. All the thing is about implement nursing intervention under involves various activities except A. Cognitive B. Communicating C. Caring D. Advocating
3. Which of the following requires various
skill in implement nursing intervention A. Communicating B. Nursing task C. Nursing intervention D. Interpersonal and technical
4. What are nurse do during implementation
phase? A. Nursing care plan B. Planning C. Re-assessment D. Nursing intervention
5. What are the key characteristic in the
implementation that is carry out plan A. Interpersonal B. Systematic C. Goal directed D. Dynamic and cyclical
6. Which of the component of nursing
process is to carry out of plan A. Assessment B. Evaluation C. Implementation D. Planning
7. The components of nursing process have a
5 phase. What are the step of implementation A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 4
8. What is the best definition of
implementation? A. Purposeful systematic and ongoing
activity B. Putting the planned, nursing
intervention into action C. Requires various skill including
cognitive, interpersonal and technical
D. Putting the planned nursing diagnosis to solve the problem
9. What the implementing nursing
interventions are in involves various activities? A. Communicating B. Cognitive C. Technical D. Interpersonal
10. Encik Ahmad is admitted to the ward in
the morning. Nurses must take a weight to determine the Body Mass Index (BMI) him. The statement are important component in the implementation to take the weight except? A. Calibration B. Reading accurately C. Balancing the weighing scale D. How to stand
MEQ
Nursing Diagnosis
1. State the basic guide to formulating diagnostic statement.
2. List the 4 process of planning. 3. State the purpose of nursing objectives
Planning Nursing Care
1. What is the definition of planning? 2. List 4 process of planning 3. What is nursing care plan? 4. List 4 purpose health care client plan 5. When nursing care plan begin?
GROUP 8
Unit 3: Body Mechanics
Principles and Body Movements
1. Below are the purposes of body mechanics except A. Conserve time and energy B. Prevent physical injury C. Promote lung expansion D. Minimize client injury
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2. What is the factors involved in principles
of body mechanics A. Body alignment B. Physics law C. Balance D. Coordination of body movement
3. Which of the following is the third step of
applying body mechanics? A. Maintaining proper body alignment B. Using coordinated movement C. Assessing musculoskeletal
functioning D. Applying the basic law of physics
4. Below are the principle of body mechanics
except A. Assessing musculoskeletal
functioning B. Applying basic law of physics C. Using coordinated movement D. Demonstration and return
demonstration
5. The geometric arrangement or positioning of body parts in relation to each other is one of the definitions of elements of body mechanics which is A. Body alignment B. Coordination of body movement C. Balance or stability D. Joint mobility
6. All these statements below is true about
good sitting posture except A. Ensure polypteal area is not
compressed against a chair B. Pelvic is slightly tilted downwards C. Upper thigh and knees are bent D. Buttock and thigh on the chair
7. One of the elements that are used when
applying principles of body mechanics is balance or stability that prevent us from falling by depends on the A. Integrated functioning of
musculoskeletal and nervous system B. Range of motion ( ROM) of joints C. Complex mechanism that include
body reflexes
D. Inter relationship between centre of gravity , line of gravity, and base of support
8. Statement below is to identify the
achieving stability of balance except A. Line of gravity B. Location or height of centre of
gravity C. Base of support is smaller D. Direction of gravity force
9. What does it mean by gravity?
A. Direction of gravity force that usually directional towards ground and centre of earth
B. Line of gravity that when it falls on base of support, stability is achieved
C. Increasing force against gravity force D. Enable us to maintain balance,
equilibrium and stability when moving, lifting and standing
10. What is it mean by leverage in relation to
body? A. Muscle contraction provide as
fulcrum B. Bones act as levers C. Joints provides as the force need D. Fulcrum is between resistance and
effort
MEQ
1. Cik anis 25 years old, a nurse at PPUM complained back injury due to not performing body mechanics while doing procedures.
1. Define body mechanics 2. State purpose of body mechanics 3. State the factor of musculoskeletal and
nervous system in body mechanics 4. Describe elements of body mechanics 5. List factors involved in body mechanics 6. List good sitting posture 7. Explain the nursing intervention to prevent
risk of contracture related to prolonged immobility
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Unit 4: Turning and Positioning a Client Supine & Recumbent, Lateral, Fowler’s and Cardiac
1. What is the meaning of Fowler’s position?
A. Flex upper leg and support with pillow
B. Sitting position with head of bed/back rest and relevated
C. Upright sitting position with head of bed/backrest elevated at 90◦
D. Head on flat surface (or small pillow)
2. Which condition’s client is not suitable for Fowler’s position? A. Hypertension client B. Patient with difficulty breathing C. Head injury D. Patient with drainage tube at the
abdomen
3. Below are the position for the patient who have difficulty in breathing except A. 15◦<45◦ B. 45◦<60◦ C. 60◦-80◦ D. 0◦-90◦
4. Which position is suitable for client
having spinal injury? A. Recumbent B. Dorsal C. Knee-chest D. Fowler’s
5. What is the different between recumbent
and supine? A. Back lying position B. Hands are at the side C. Face facing forward D. Maintain alignment with pillow under
upper shoulders, neck and head
6. Below is the indications for recumbent and supine position except A. To compress the wound at the back in
order to prevent bleeding B. To relieve pressure areas in
preventing pressure sore C. Patients with any kind of breathing
difficulty D. Comfortable position for patient
undergone chest and abdomen surgery
7. How many pillows are needed in cardiac
position? A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. 1
8. These situation is indication of cardiac
position except A. Facilitating breathing & lung
expansion B. Promote drainage tube from chest and
abdomen C. Prevent long injury during insertion
of chest tube D. Hypotension client
9. Puan Lia has spinal injury of an accident.
What is the position that suitable in positioning Puan Lia? A. Recumbent B. Lateral C. Knee-chest D. Cardiac
10. Which describe the cardiac position?
A. Flex upper leg and support with pillow
B. Back rest elevated to 90° C. Head on flat surface D. Lying position
GROUP 7
Semi Prone/Prone, Dorsal and Knee Chest, Lithotomy & Trendelenburg
1. What is the meaning of lithotomy? A. Back-lying position, legs are apart
and flexed to allow feet sole on the bed surface.
B. Back-lying position with foot of bed elevated to 45°
C. Back-lying position with buttock at the edge of bed, both legs flexed and apart put on a stirrup and exposing the perineum area.
D. Patient is on knee, chest on the bed with head turned to the side and both hands at the side.
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2. Back lying position with foot of bed elevated to 45˚ is? A. Dorsal position B. Knee chest positon C. Trendelenberg D. Lithotomy
3. This patient is not suitable with
trendelenberg position? A. Varicose vein B. Head injury or surgery C. Insertion of retain enema D. Cord prolapsed during delivery
4. Which position is most suitable for
patients who undergone shock? A. Knee chest B. Dorsal C. Trendelenberg D. Lithotomy
5. The foot of bed for trendelenberg position
must be elevated to? A. 15˚ B. 30˚ C. 45˚ D. 60˚
6. Below are the contraindication of semi prone and prone position except A. Head injury B. Spinal injury C. Difficulty breathing D. Semiconscious patient
7. Indication of semi-prone and prone is A. Promote healing of wound located at
the back B. Patience with difficulty breathing C. patience with drainage tube at the
abdomen D. Post thoracic and abdominal surgery.
8. What is the contraindication of semi prone
and prone positioning? A. Hypotension client B. Painful knee joint arthritis C. Post tonsillectomy patients D. Patient with drainage tube at the
abdomen
9. What the position during urinary cauterization? A. Knee-chest B. Trendelenberg C. Lithotomy D. Dorsal
10. Below are indications of lithotomy
position except A. child delivery B. pap smear C. brain injury D. stitching of episiotomy
Lifting And Transferring A Client (Moving A Client & Australian Lift, Transferring From Bed To Wheel Chair/Chair To Wheel Chair/Chair To Bed, 3 Man’s Lift)
1. Which statement is correct definition about 3 man’s lift? A. A technique whereby two nurses lift
and transfer client up the bed or chair. B. A technique to lift a client from the
bed to the trolley to the bed by 3 nurses.
C. Lifting and transferring devices available in replace the use of Australian lift.
D. Lift and bring client lose to your chest, support client’s weight with your elbow
2. Which step should be taken during the
coordination of nurse’s movement during the lifting a client? A. Nurse 3 should pivot to direction of
movement B. Nurse 2 move 3 “big step” forward C. Nurse 1 should move 3 “small step”
behind D. Nurse 2 move 3 “small step” behind
3. Which parts of the body patient have support by 2 nurses? A. Hip and thigh B. Shoulder and chest C. Chest and waist D. Shoulder and neck
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4. What movement by nurse 3? A. Move 2 “ small step” behind B. Move 3 “big step” forward C. Move pivot direction D. Move 3 “big step” behind
5. There a few contraindication in changing
client using Australian lift method except A. Unconscious client B. Post anaesthesia C. Bone fracture D. Severe hypotension
6. What is the main purpose of lifting and
transferring client using Australian method except A. Promote blood circulation B. Prevent complication such as pressure
sore C. To perform some ADL such as
bathing, toileting D. Comfortable position for patients
undergone chest and abdomen surgery
7. What is the sub skill in Australian lift technique? A. Prepare your working level
appropriately B. Straighten client’s left arm and insert
her hand under hip C. Alone with client’s help D. Unlock the wheel
8. The first sub skill to transferring client from
bed to a wheel chair is dangling at the bedside. What is the next step after stand on client’s hip?
A. Flex your hip and knee back straight. Prepare internal girdle, muscle of legs and arms.
B. Instruct client to use her arm to assist by pushing during sitting up at count of three.
C. Place one arm under client’s shoulder and other arm under client’s thigh near knee.
D. Stand in front of client till client stable
9. To pivot client into right side, you must ask the client to? A. Place her left foot forward the other B. Place her right foot forward the other C. Place her left foot backward the other D. Place her right foot backward the other.
10. What is the sub-skills in transferring patient
from bed to a chair? A. Dangling at the bedside B. Flex hip and knee C. Prepare internal girdle D. Side turn client
GROUP 6 Unit 5: Safety
Environmental & Psychological Safety
1. What is factors affecting safety? A. Falls B. Poisoning C. Age D. Fire
2. Scalds and burns, fire and excessive noise are examples of possible accidents in hospital. Besides than that, what are the other factor possible accidents? A. Electrical shock B. Risky lifestyle C. Mobility impairment D. Emotional instability
3. All below, nursing interventions for client on suicidal precaution except A. Place ‘SP’ tag on clients B. Closely monitor clients movement C. Keep fire door close fire exit clear
from clutter D. Refer client to psychologist
4. All below are used to detect smoke and fire except A. Fire alarm B. Fire extinguisher C. Smoke detector D. Fire sprinkle
5. Which one is not type of safety? A. Environmental B. Psychological C. Physical D. Microbial
6. Which one is type of safety hazard? A. Physical injuries B. Sensory/perceptual impairment
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C. Emotional instability D. Environmental
7. What are the injuries could happen to unconscious client? A. Electrical shock B. Poisoning C. Fall D. Suffocation/choking
8. Mr.Ali have higher chances of risk for fall. As a student nurse, what is your nursing intervention? A. Place high risk client near nurse’s
station B. Provide privacy C. Give proper hygiene care D. Keep place quiet from noise
9. Pn.Angelina is in conscious state and confuse. What is your assessment for her physical and psychological risk of injury except A. Presence or absence of perceptual
deficite B. History of accident and injury C. Assess her state of consciousness D. Mobility status
10. As a student nurse, what is your best diagnose for patient who is having risk for fall? A. Risk for fall related to environment
factors B. Risk for physical injury related to
unconscious state C. Risk for fall related to poor vision
secondary to cataracts
Application of Restrainers
1. What is the BEST definition of restrainer? A. The ability to engage in activities, to
move freely, easily, rhythmically and purposefully in the environment which is essential in living.
B. A protective device used to limit the physical activity of client or parts of the body.
C. A materials or equipment applied to client’s body with main purpose is to restrict client’s movement.
D. The techniques used in maintaining a potential complication of restraint.
2. There are types of restrainers except A. Elbow restrainer B. Belt restrainer C. Mummy restrainer D. Shoulder restrainer
3. What is the PURPOSE of restrainer? A. Prevent fall B. To prevent muscles injury C. To give general comfort D. To prevent microorganisms and
bacteria on air.
4. These are physical complication of restraint used except A. Skin injury B. Strangulation C. Depression D. Contracture
5. Which one is not the implementation sub
skills required of restraint? A. Preparing padding for restraint B. Securing restraint C. Tidy and cover the restraint D. Checking restraint
6. Which types of patient are not to be restraint? A. Senile B. Psychiatric client C. Epilepsy D. Conscious
7. What is the main purpose to use belt restrainer? A. To prevent reaching their face but
allow movement of limb and ambulation.
B. To prevent client from fall and to confine client to bed or wheelchair or chair
C. To immobilize the limb D. To prevent client from scratching or
pulling therapeutic devices but allow ambulation
8. What the characteristic of suitable restrainer that can be used? A. Appropriate size B. Clean and faulty C. Maximum restrict for client’s
movement D. Obstructing therapy
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9. As a nurse, what should we assess from client before perform the restrainer to them? A. Determine type suited for client and
provide care. B. Determine indication of restraint,
restraint as a last resort and specific instruction from doctor.
C. Determine client to padding around the area under restraint.
D. Determine the amount and type of equipment needed
10. There are the documenting restraint that have to evaluate after doing the procedure?
1. - Time commencing restraint 2. - Evaluation of restrained limb 3. - Restrainer firm but not too tight 4. - Effect of restraint on client
A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 3, 4 C. 1, 2, 4 D. 2, 3, 4
Microbial Safety & Preparing And Maintaining Sterile Field
1. The nurse determines that a field remains sterile if which of the following conditions exist? A. Tips of wet forceps are held upward
when held in ungloved hands B. The field was set up 1 hour before the
procedure C. Sterile items are 2 inches from the
edge of the field D. The nurse reaches over the field rather
than around the edges
2. Invasion of body tissue by microorganism and their proliferation known as A. Infection B. Pathogen C. Host D. Normal flora
3. Standard precaution should be used when there is a possibility of coming with these contacts except A. Mucous membrane B. Breaks in the skin
C. Blood D. Sweat
4. How long the signs and symptoms of infection is manifested onward from hospitalization? A. 24 hours B. 48 hours C. 72 hours D. 84 hours
5. What is the last principle in microbial safety?
A. Protect the host B. Causative agent C. Portal of exit D. Reservoir
6. What is the definition of sterilization?
A. The presence of pathogenic organism in the blood or body tissues
B. An area free from any microorganism or life spore
C. Process of killing all microorganisms including virus and spores
D. Absence of microorganism which can cause disease
7. This all statement below are the principle of surgical asepsis accept A. Fluid flow by gravity can contaminate
sterile items B. The edges of sterile field are
considered non sterile C. All items use in sterile field must be
sterile. D. Able to resist chemical or physical
agents
8. How to maintaining the sterile items from contaminated in prolonged exposure at atmosphere? A. Keep hand in sight and up above
waist after surgical hand washing and donning of sterile glove
B. Do not prepare sterile field advance in time
C. Use non touch method when transferring swabs with forceps
D. Keep sterile field dry as much as possible.
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9. Why we need to preparing and maintaining sterile field? A. To maintain the sterility of supplies
and equipment B. It is considered one of the most
effective control measures. C. To reduce the risk of transmission of
microorganism to clients D. To reduce the risk of cross
contamination among clients
10. All below statement are procedure about opening a dressing set on a trolley except A. Open the package the containing the
drape B. Place the package in the centre of the
clean, or dry work area C. Remove the auto clave tape on the
dressing set D. Pinch the first flap on the outside of
the dressing set using the thumb and index finger of dominant hand
11. What is distance between our body and trolley when we want to do the procedure? A. 1.5 m B. 15 cm C. 15 mm D. 150 cm
12. All of the following are the way that use
sterile forceps to handle sterile supplies except A. Grasp forceps from the sterile field,
making sure only the handles of the forceps are touched.
B. Hold forceps above waist level on throughout the procedures
C. Keep forceps tips downwards when adding, arranging or removing items to the sterile field during the sterile procedure.
D. Keep forceps with wet items below its handle to prevent fluid flow to the hand and flow down to contaminate forceps tip.
13. How long lifespan of sterile items for plastic wrapper? A. 1 month B. 2 month C. 3 month D. 4 month
14. All the below are the method that used in
sterilization, except A. Boiling water B. Steam C. Distilled water D. Radiation
15. Why we cannot perform sterile procedure
under a fan or when housekeeping activity? A. Because moving air carry dust and
microbial B. Because to avoid from cross infection C. Because to plan nursing action and
save time D. Because to prevent contamination by
droplets from respiratory tract. Hand Washing
1. What is the best meaning for hand washing? A. Bed lying position with buttock at the
edge of bed, both legs flexed and apart, both legs were put on stirrup and exposing the perineum area
B. Specialized clothing or equipment worn by an employee for protection against infectious material.
C. Process of killing all microorganisms including virus and spores.
D. Vigorous, brief rubbing, together of all surface of all surface of lathered hands followed by rinsing under a steam of water.
2. This is correct purpose regarding hand
washing except A. To protect purpose health care
personal from exposure & transmit the pathogen to other clients.
B. To reduce the risk of transmission of microorganism to clients.
C. To reduce the risk of cross-contamination among clients
D. It is considered one of the most effective control measures.
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3. Puan Fatini should wash her hand immediately in this situation except A. Before and after coming into contact
with client. B. Before performing invasive
procedures. C. When they are contaminated with
blood and body fluids. D. Before and after touching wounds,
whether surgical, traumatic, or associated with an invasive microbial device.
4. In maintaining hand clean from microbial from contaminated, the nurse should apply while during absent of water A. Anti-microbial liquid-soap. B. Non-medicated liquid soap. C. Granule soap. D. Desmanol.
5. Which of the following are type of the
soap be used in hospital except A. Soap filled tissue. B. Antiseptic soap. C. Dettol. D. Granule soap.
6. Which are the difference between medical
hand washing and surgical hand washing are not true? Medical asepsis Surgical asepsis
A. Time taken 1 minute
Time taken 3 minute
B. Wash hand until wrist
Wash hand until elbow
C. To reduce microbes
To eliminate pathogen
D. For clean equipment
For sterile equipment
7. Which the right sequence for procure hand washing medical asepsis? A. Stand near the sink, turn on the pipe
with elbow, wet hand from wrist to finger, apply soap
B. Turn on the pipe with elbow, wet hand from wrist to finger, apply soap, and stand near the sink.
C. Stand near the sink, wet hand from wrist to finger, turn on the pipe with elbow, apply the soap
D. Turn on the pipe with elbow, stand near the sink, and apply soap, wet hand from wrist to finger.
8. Which are the last steps of surgical asepsis is true? A. Rinse thoroughly from wrist to
fingers B. Palm 2 finger C. Wash hands from tip of fingers 2
elbow. D. From elbow to palm.
9. What is the seconds’ stage in performing
hand washing? A. Right palm over left dorsum and left
palm over right dorsum B. Backs of fingers to opposing palms
with fingers interlocked C. Palm and palm D. Palm to palm fingers interlocked.
10. What is the time taken for performing
hand washing surgical asepsis? A. 6 min B. 1 min C. 2 min D. 3 min
Wearing Mask, Gowning And Gloving 1. Gown, mask, respirator and gloves are the best
personal protective equipment. What is the best definition for personal protective equipment? A. Specialized clothing or equipment worn
by an employee for protection against infectious materials.
B. Specialized the material used by the nurses from infection
C. Protect the equipment or clothing from contamination
D. Avoiding clothing or equipment that risk of infectious from contamination
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2. The first step for removing anal donning PPE is glove and goggles respectively. What is the last step to donning PPE? A. Glove B. Face shield C. Gown D. Mask
3. All these are the purpose for donning gown
except A. To provide barrier protection B. To reduce transmission of microorganism
from the client to the nurse or vice versa C. To reduce transmission of pathogens from
patients or items in their environment to other patient or environment
D. To maintain the sterile equipment and to protect a client wound
4. After using respirator we must remove it. What is the first step to remove respirator? A. Lift the bottom elastic over head B. Discard C. Lift off the top elastic D. Wash hand using clean method
5. The principle should be applied when the nurse are possibly donning personal protective equipment is A. Surgical asepsis B. Standard precaution C. Medical asepsis D. Isolation process
6. These are the needed of glove used, except
A. Work from clean to dirty B. Move from distal to proximal C. Never wash or reuse the disposable gloves D. Don’t touch your face with contaminated
gloves
7. Which one is not the specific function for personal protective equipment? A. Gown – protect the body from
contaminated B. Gloves – protect hands C. Goggles – protect eyes D. Mask – protect respiratory tract
8. Which sequence is true for removing PPE?
A. Glove, mask, goggles, gown B. Gown, gloves, goggles, mask C. Gloves, goggles, masks, gown
D. Gown, goggles, gloves, mask
9. Which is the right sequence for donning PPE? A. Glove, goggles, mask, gown B. Goggles, mask, gown, gloves C. Gown, gloves, goggles, mask D. Mask, goggles, gown, gloves
10. How many steps involve in donning gown?
A. 8 B. 9 C. 10 D. 7
GROUP 5 Unit 6: Patients’ Needs and Comfort
Clients Unit Bed Making- Basic Bed & Operation Bed
1. All the statement below about criteria of standard bed except A. Elevator key B. Cot side C. Over bed table D. Head board
2. By applying principle of basic bed
making, it conserve time and energy for smooth efficient procedure by A. Prepare appropriate working level B. Assess client risk for fall C. Bend hips ,flex knees when needed D. Gather all required linen before
starting making bed
3. During the procedure of basic bed making, the nurse doesn’t hold dirty linen away from uniform. What is the effect from the action? A. Cross infection B. Contamination of patient unit C. Contamination of uniform D. Avoid particles and microbes spread
in the air
4. Why mattress is made of foam? A. To firm for good back support B. To prevent from fall C. To support client body weight D. To minimise the quantity microbes
and protozoa
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5. Mr. Ali is complete rest in bed (CRIB). Why nurses should plan gathering of requirement after assessing client condition? A. To avoid patient die B. To avoid microbes contaminate ward C. For systematic work D. To prevent from fall
6. What is the sequence for nurses to make
the bed A. Mackintosh, Bed sheet, Blanket,
Pillow case. B. Bed sheet, Mackintosh, Blanket,
Pillow case. C. Mackintosh, Blanket, Bed sheet,
Pillow case. D. Pillow case, Blanket, Bed sheet,
Mackintosh.
7. All of these are requirement for bed making except A. Receiver B. Cotton wool C. Tissue paper D. Mackintosh
8. Another type of bed making other than
basic bed making is post operative bed. What is the rational of using basic linen layout for post operative bed? A. Left side of bed. B. Avoiding client from uncomfortable
on bed. C. Can also to lift the client. D. For tidier bed.
9. Madam Anita was undergoing cancer
removing operation. Where should the blanket place when Madam Anita was on the bed? A. Left side of bed. B. On client’s chest and stomach. C. Under client’s tight and legs. D. On client’s tight and legs.
10. What is the next step of making post
operative blanket after fold the side of the midline? A. Fold again into two.
B. Fold the blanket edge vertically (left and right) and fold together it to the centre.
C. Fold the edge together forming a triangle.
D. Tidying the upper blanket and tuck in under mattress
From Side to Side & From Top to Bottom
1. The are the guidelines to bed making of an occupied bed except A. applying principle of body mechanics B. promoting client safety C. promote client’s comfort and rest D. applying principles of medical asepsis
2. Promote client comfort and rest is one of the purpose changing bed linen. What is another purpose of changing bed linen? A. maintain skin integrity B. provide smooth and wrinkle free bed
linen C. preserve health D. prevent infection and illness
3. There a few of indication to changing linen side to side except A. spinal injury B. post anaesthesia C. quadriplegia D. spinal fracture
4. What is the equipment we needs during changing linen side to side? A. kidney dishes B. pillow case C. wheel chair D. blanket
5. We need to minimize the movement of client during changing bed linen except A. to save energy B. prevent client from tired C. prevent client against friction D. encourage blood circulation
6. What is the indication of changing bed
linen from top to bottom? A. spinal fracture B. respiration difficulties C. coma D. ill client
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7. Which of the following is not an important component? A. long mackintosh B. pillow case C. draw sheet D. bed sheet
8. What is sub-skill before we lower the head of bed to flat position? A. sit up client and move client towards
foot board B. tuck off the bed linen from the bed C. loosen soiled linen and mackintosh D. roll soiled linen one by one and insert
under client’s buttock
9. How to promote client safety during changing linen from top to bottom? A. using mitt hand restraint B. lock the wheel C. ensure client in supported at all time
through removing and applying linens D. rise up cot side rail
10. Which of the following is not the evaluation that can be making by changing bed linen from top to bottom? A. client is comfortable B. bed is clean and tidy C. client is not exhausted by procedure D. client is free from new pressure ulcer
Rest, Sleep and Diversional Therapy
1. Which is the best definition of rest? A. Unaware of the environment and responds
selectively to external stimuli. B. A cycling securing state of decreased
activity and a perception. C. A condition in which the body is inactive
or engaging in minimal activity after which the person feels refreshed.
D. A person is calm, at ease, relaxed, and free of anxiety or stress.
2. Diversion activity deficit is related to A. Confine to bed rest B. Recreation and leisure or hobby. C. Relaxion technique D. Progressive muscular relaxation.
3. Rest, sleep and diversion therapy enable us to A. Decrease consciousness in sleep. B. Screen the exterior stimulity that discrupt
sleep. C. Do activity that is enjoyable. D. Cope with and counter the physical
emotional, psychological and spiritual.
4. This is the stage of non rapid eye movement (NREM) mode
A. Light sleep, can be awaken. B. Not arousal to light stimuli C. Deeper sleep body process continue to
slow down D. Deep sleep about 30 minute.
5. Generally, one complete sleep cycle last for about
A. 70 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 7-8 hours.
6. Quality of sleep is A. Amount of time slept B. Objective and subjective components of
sleep C. How well the person slept related to cycles
of NREM,REM obtained D. Have deep and rest full sleep
7. Example of acid amino L-typtophan is A. Milk B. Coffee C. Nicotine D. Alcohol
8. The most conducive environment to sleep is A. Light room, quiet, cool, well ventilated B. Dark room ,quiet, cool, well ventilated C. Light room, noisy ,well ventilated D. Dark room, noisy, hot
9. Effect of adequate rest, sleep and leisure in mental and emotional is
A. Coping healthy social roles and relationship
B. Maintain healthy social roles and relationship
C. Restore energy to normal level D. Reduce emotional pressure and anxiety
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10. These are effects of rest and sleep and leisure deprivation in socially except
A. Inability to cope with life demands B. Self isolation C. Depression D. Personality changed
Group 4 Oral & Nail Care
1. Below is the purpose or benefits of oral care, except A. to prevent tooth loss and gum disease B. to maintain integrity of the mucous
membranes, teeth and gum including lips C. prevent halitosis that affect social
interaction D. promoting blood circulation
2. What is the criterion of mouth structure for teeth when it is an abnormal? A. Pale B. Redness C. yellowish colour D. swelling
3. What is the meaning for stomattis in common problem of oral care? A. cracking of lips B. inflammation of the oral mucosa C. inflammation of the oral mucosa D. inflammation of the gum
4. What is the suitable time to flossing of teeth? A. night or before sleep B. morning or before sleeping C. afternoon or after eating D. evening or before rest
5. What is the abnormality that may occurs at the structure of mouth cavity A. Dry B. Redness C. white patch D. halitosis
6. All the statement below are the purpose of nail care, except A. Maintain skin integrity of foot and hands. B. Clean client’s body from perspiration,
body odor and microorganism. C. prevent ingrown nail D. keep foot, hand and nail clean, healthy and
free from infection.
7. Below are the common problem of the nail care, except A. Onycholysis B. hang nail C. Cheilosis D. ingrown nail
8. Which of the following is not an implementation of nail care? A. preparation of client B. examine skin and nail of foot and hand C. cutting and trimming of nail D. soaking foot and hand
9. Which of the following is most comfortable position for procedure during nail care procedure? A. cardiac and the head of bed is prop up B. dorsal C. semi-fowlers D. Recumbent
10. Why we need cut nail straight by using nail clipper? A. to look beautiful B. to increase client esteem C. to prevent contamination D. to prevent ingrown nail
Perineal Care & Offering And Removing Bedpan/Urinal
1. What is the meaning of perineum? A. the area between scrotum and anus B. from labia majora to labia minora C. the external structure of the pelvic floor D. the area between vaginal and urinary tract
2. What is the purpose of perineal care? A. maintain skin integrity B. to eliminate any offensive odor C. promote appetite needed for adequate
nutritional intake D. enhance self image
3. The regime routine to provide perineal care as below, except A. morning during bed bath B. each time when client PU and BO C. after giving birth D. each time when changing soiled sanitary
pad and adult diapers
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4. What are the two types approaches of perineal care? A. non-sterile and sterile B. non-sterile and clean method C. non-sterile and washing D. washing and swabbing
5. Why we need to determine perineal hygiene practices? A. to avoid infection to urinary tract B. to collect urine specimen C. to provide comfort to patient D. to identify knowledge deficits on good
perineal hygiene
6. Below is the guideline in assisting clients in toileting, except A. ensure client’s comfort B. ensure client’s safety C. support client’s elimination habits D. ensure client’s face
7. What is the assessment before giving toilet utensil to client? A. identify the level of pain at client’s body B. identify level of self-care and assistant
needed C. measure the size of client D. determine client’s appearance
8. Mr.Khairul was admitted to the ward because of paralysis and with complaint of giddy. He called you and told that he want to pass urine. As a nurse, what is your action? A. Assist client to the toilet B. Give urinal to client C. Assist client to sit on commode D. Give bedpan and position client in dorsal
position
9. Bedpan is used when below procedure, except A. when doing perineal care B. when proceed sterile procedure to
take the urine C. to PU and BO D. when doing nail care
10. Miss Azura are advised by the doctor to CRIB
because of she has go through heart surgery past 6 days and on the healing process.the suitable toilet utensil for her when she want to PU and BO is
A. Commode
B. toilet chair C. urinal D. bedpan
Hair Wash & Pediculosis Treatment
1. Below is the assessment prior to determine hair care needs, except A. determine client’s usual hair care
practise B. determine the type of comb C. determine client’s level of self image D. examine condition of scalp and hair
2. During illness, nurses need to assist or providing appropriate types of hair care suited to clients preference. Choose the best types of hair care A. colouring patients hair B. iron the hair to give straight look C. remove dandruff from hair D. pediculosis treatment for lice infested
hair
3. What is the purpose of washing hair or shampooing hair? A. to prevent hair fall B. provide soothing or comfortable and
relaxing feeling C. to prevent from odor D. to stimuli the growth of hair
4. When to perform hair washing? A. mid-morning or mid afternoon B. night C. evening D. midnight
5. What type of equipment that can be used for the hair washing procedure for the client that completely bed ridden? A. anti-dandruff shampoo B. shampoo with anti-hair fall substance C. disposable shampoo cap D. anti lice shampoo
6. Lice can be define as A. small parasite B. prey C. symbiosis D. microorganism
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7. Below are the three common ones that infest human, except A. pediculus corposis B. pediculus biotic C. pediculus pubis D. pediculus capitis
8. The best symptomatic treatment for infected skin during excessive scratching is A. Antibiotic B. anti pruritic C. corticosteroid D. anti lice
9. Below are the propose of pediculosis
treatment, except A. to enhance self-image B. to kill eliminate pediculus C. to remove dead skin D. to relieve from discomfort of itch
10. What is the evaluation of pediculosis treatment process? A. hair shinning and no bad odor B. scalp did not occurred anymore C. hair will be not tangle D. itching ceased and less pediculus
observed
Bed Bath
1. The following statements are the guidelines when cleaning client’s body, except A. from clean to dirty area to prevent
contamination B. top to bottom(from head to toe) C. start with the nearer body part then to
the further body part D. start with the further body part then to
the nearer body part
2. The main propose of bed bath is A. relax tense muscle B. encourage blood circulation to scalp C. clean client’s body from perspiration,
body odor and microorganism D. remove client’s dead cells
3. The statement below are related to assessment of bed bath, except A. prepare client B. making bath mitt C. start cleansing from back and trunk to
limbs D. start cleansing from facial and head
4. The following statements are the principles when performing bed bath, except A. avoid using soap to non intact skin B. wipe limb longitudinally from distal
to proximal with firm Stroke C. dab dry client’s skin to avoid friction
to skin D. use mild body soap
5. Client’s limb should be wiped longitudinally from distal to proximal because A. enhance self image B. promote blood circulation C. prevent contamination D. relief pressure sore
6. Why should the nurse cover client’s body with bath towel during bed bath? A. promote client’s comfort B. preserve client’s privacy and dignity C. protects modesty and prevents
chilling D. promote relaxation, sleep and rest
7. What is the best position of client when performing bed bath? A. Dorsal B. fowler’s C. recumbent D. lithotomy
8. The following statement is the sib-skill of bed bath A. making bath mitt B. cleansing limbs C. cleansing facial and head D. applying anti pediculosis hair lotion
9. The sequence of wash in bed bath is A. eye-neck-upper limb-chest-abdomen B. abdomen-chest-eye-neck-perineum C. upper limb-eye-abdomen-back-neck D. neck-chest-eye-perineum-back
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10. Which of the following statements is not the step to wash eye?
A. use separate corner of the wash cloth for each eye
B. wash eye from outer conthus to inner
C. wash the further eye first than nearer eye
D. wash eye from inner to outer conthus
MEQ
Puan Mariam, 57 years old has admitted to the ward and she was paralysed. You have been told that she did not the bath for three days before admitted to the ward. As a nurse who takes charge to take care of the patient, you have observed that there was bad odour at her body. To overcome this problem, you want to do bed bath.
1. List 6 propose of bed bath 2. State the principle of bed bath 3. Explain the procedure while perform the
bed bath
Group 3 Unit 7: Observations
Principles of Observations
1. Which of the following is false about the principle of observation? A. General condition B. Vital sign C. Head to chest D. Head and weight
2. The tool of examination for eye examination is? A. Ophthalmoscope B. patella hammer C. otoscope D. stethoscope
3. The following are the technique used in observation except A. Inspection B. Palpation C. Percussion D. precaution
4. Which of the type of percussion? A. mediate percussion
B. deep percussion C. light percussion D. pain percussion
5. In technique used in observation, what is involved in auscultation technique? A. sense of sight and smell B. sense of touch C. sense of hearing D. sense of taste
6. Which of the following are the factors influencing vital sign? A. Age B. Sex C. blood pressure D. pain
7. When do you need to take vital signs? A. every 20 minutes B. before and after surgery or invasive
procedure C. every night D. 3 – 4 hourly
8. Standard tool to used in taking vital signs is A. wrong-baker face scale B. thermometer C. stethoscope D. spignomanometer
9. All of the following are the purpose of taking vital sign except A. evaluate client’s response to
treatments B. monitor client’s condition C. to read the heart rate D. as a baseline
10. Which of the following is the effect of pain A. Hyperpyrexia B. Anxious C. Location D. Diarrhoea
Taking Height And Weight
1. Below are the principles in measuring height except A. Ensure scale is functioning. B. Client need to stand straight follow
the body alignment.
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C. Position client straight, leg apart and face at down.
D. The scale always calibrates the machine.
2. What is the normal size for infant? A. 140 cm B. 68-69 cm C. 63.75 cm D. 50 cm
3. According to nursing responsibilities, a nurse should do, except A. Read the scale accurately. B. Ensure client has removed their shoes
or slippers. C. Construct client to bend their knee
when taking the height. D. Place a clean paper towel on platform
scale.
4. This procedure is perform when taking the height except A. In polyclinic. B. One or two weekly depending on
clients need. C. Every day. D. During admission to the ward.
5. Below are the correct positioning the
sliding height bar on the clients head except A. Inform client the reading. B. Read the height measurement with
eye level. C. Place L-shaped sliding height bar on
top of clients head slowly. D. Let client get down from height scale
by themselves.
6. What is the purpose for measuring weight except A. Provide more reliable data than a
subjective assessment of body size. B. Determine ability to stand for height
measurement. C. To determine nutritional status in
relaxion to body requirements. D. Detect early evidence of malnutrition
or abnormal fat distribution.
7. Below is the important component of implementation except
A. Select the appropriate measurement standing or sitting scale.
B. Calibration. C. Balancing the weighing scale. D. Read the reading accurate.
8. What is the element of balancing the weighing scale? A. Place a clean paper towel on platform
scale. B. Switch of the fan. C. Remove shoes. D. Move weight bar until get correct
level or balance.
9. During taking weight, why client must to stand erect with both hands put below and doesn’t move? A. Prevent client from fall. B. Make nurse easy to take the reading. C. To get accurate reading. D. Ensure clients’ safety at all times.
10. This is the way to measure client’s weight
except A. Ask client to remove unnecessary
clothes. B. Bring down the sliding height bar.
C. Move weight bar until get correct
level or balance. D. Place a clean paper towel on platform
scale.
Taking Temperature (Oral, Axilla & Rectal)
1. What is a normal body temperature for an adult? A. 35.7 – 36.6’c B. 36.1 – 37.0’c C. 36.7 – 37.8’c D. 36.8 – 37.1’c
2. What is the type of the body temperature? A. Environmental temperature B. Surface temperature C. Axillary temperature D. Rectal temperature
3. What is the best tool to measure the
temperature? A. Rectal thermometer B. Tympanic thermometer
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C. Axillary thermometer D. Clinical thermometer
4. Before use the thermometer, the first
principle that nurse should do is? A. Insert 2.5 – 3.5cm the bulb B. Swab the thermometer from the bulb
to a stem in a circular motion C. Point the thermometer upward D. Preparing client
5. Choose the best obtain reading the
thermometer? A. Oral temperature – 4 minutes B. Axillary temperature – 5-10 minutes C. Rectal temperature – 15-20 minutes D. Tympanic temperature – 2-4 minutes
6. All of the following is the best normal
body temperature for measurement except A. Rectum – 36.6-38’c B. Mouth – 35.5-37.5’c C. Armpit – 35.7-36.3’c D. Ear – 35.8-38’c
7. Which of the following is the best surface
temperature, except? A. Axillary temperature B. Rectal temperature C. Oral temperature D. Forehead temperature
8. What is the factor that influence body
temperature? A. Axilla B. Normal temperature C. Age D. Nutrient
9. The thermoregulation is controlled by the
‘sensors’ in the A. Hypothalamus B. Cerebellum C. Cerebrum D. Blood stream
10. What is the minimum temperature of digital thermometer? A. 35’c B. 34’c C. 0’c
D. 30’c MEQ Madam Azizah us 78th Years old. She is admitted
to the ward due to hyperthermia and pain at the
abdominal part. As a nurse, you are responsible to
take care of Madam Azizah.
1. State the techniques that use in observations
2. Why is the important of vital sign and list 5 signs of it?
3. State 6 factors that influencing vital signs 4. State the general guides to taking Vital
Signs 5. Explain the assessment prior to take
temperature
Group 2 Taking Pulse
MEQ
1. Define pulse 2. List sites commonly used to assess pulse 3. State 3 characteristic of pulse 4. State the factors affecting characteristics
of pulse 5. State the characteristics of respiration 6. State the factors influencing respiration 7. State the factors influencing blood
pressure 8. State the assessment nurses should do
before performing blood pressure to the client
Counting Respirations
1. Which one of this is the name for cough sputum with blood? A. Stridor B. Bubbling C. Hemoptysis D. Dsypnea
2. What is the definition for respiration?
A. Supply adequate oxygen and removes carbon dioxide as waste.
B. Responding to changes to concentration of carbon dioxide, oxygen and ion hydrogen in blood.
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C. Act of breathing comprising active inhalation and exhalation of air.
D. Controls the inhalation and exhalation of air.
3. What happen to the diaphragm during exhalation? A. Contracts B. Expands C. Relax D. Flatten
4. The respiratory centres in the brain and
chemoreceptor controls and regulates respiration by responding to the following, except? A. Changes concentration of oxygen B. Changes concentration of carbon
dioxide C. Changes of ion hydrogens in blood D. Changes of waste products in blood
5. Which one of this is NOT the work of breathing? A. Spontaneous and unlaboured B. Dyspnea C. Stridor D. Orthopnea
6. What is the meaning of tachypnea?
A. Quick and shallow B. Abnormally slow C. Stop breathing D. Shallow and slow breathing
7. Which one of this is NOT the factors that
influence the increased of respiration rate? A. Exercise B. Medication C. Fever D. Increased of environmental temperature
8. Why do we needs to flex client`s arm
during assessing respiration? A. Observe breathing obstructively B. Identify pulse characteristics C. Establish baseline for subsequent
evaluation D. To provide client`s comfort
9. All of these are under identifying sub-skills during planning , except A. Preparing client B. Assessing respiration C. Gather requirements D. Recording respiration
10. Which one of this is NOT important for
the nurses to record during assessing client`s respiration? A. Rate B. Pressure C. Rhythm D. Depth
Taking Blood Pressure
1. The following are contraction for taking blood pressure except A. The client has an intravenous infusion in
the limb B. Clients with conditions affect fluids
balance C. The shoulder , arm and hand is injured D. Client had surgical removal of hip lymph
nodes on that side
2. Below are the phases of korotkoff sound. Which of the following is correct pair?
A. Phase 1 : sounds become muffed B. Phase 2 : end of sound , ends at diastolic
blood pressure C. Phase 3 : crisp thud , a bit quitter that
phase 1 D. Phase 5 : sharp thuds , start at systolic
blood pressure
3. Which of the following is not assessment of patient need blood pressure monitoring? A. Repeat observation again if obtain reading
that deviates significantly from client baseline
B. Previous blood pressure reading as baseline reading
C. Purpose taking blood pressure D. Environment for suitable working areas
4. What are the factors that influencing blood
pressure? A. Age , daily variation , peripheral resistant B. Stress , age , medication C. Age , medication , position changes
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D. Daily variation , peripheral resistance , circadian rhythm
5. These are methods of how to measure a blood
pressure , except A. Locate and palpate brachial artery with
fingertips B. Close valve on artery sphygmomanometer
pump C. Locate radial artery pulsations on cuffed
arm D. Read pressure on manometer at eye level
6. What is the best meaning for blood pressure?
A. The lowest pressure excreted against the arterial walls at all time
B. The peak of maximum pressure when ejection occurs
C. Volume of blood pumped by the heart D. Measurement of the force applied to artery
walls
7. Which of the following is not the measurement for taking blood pressure ? A. Sphygmomanometer B. Blood pressure cuff C. Protoscope D. Stethoscope
8. Below are the cause of hypotension, except
A. Higher blood pressure B. Dehydration C. Severe burns D. Stethoscope
9. How to prevent mislead reading of blood
pressure especially if auscultatory gap presence ? A. Ensure sphygmomanometer and cuff is
intact and functioning B. Determine the estimated systolic blood
pressure by palpation C. Position client comfortably D. Ensure client is not physically active and
not smoking
10. These are the guide to evaluate condition of patient after taking blood pressure except A. Evaluate abnormality B. Validate or correlate findings with
previous readings
C. Compare current readings with previous readings
D. Evaluate blood presure findings for report if blood presure readings fall of normal range and variations
11. What is the technique used to detect the
presence of abnormal solidification or enlargement in different organ and the presence of fluid for example in the lungs A. Auscultation B. Observation C. Percussion D. Palpation
12. What is the best technique used for assessing
texture , shape , size , pulses , area of edema and tenderness ? A. Direct inspection B. Light palpation C. Indirect percussion D. Deep palpation
13. What is the technique used to discover the
presence of a fetus in the uterus? A. Palpation B. Indirect inspection C. Examination D. Percussion
14.
This statement refers to
A. technique used in observation B. principle of vital sign C. nursing assessment D. guideline to palpation
15. Which of the following pairs of tool
examination is correct? A. ophthalmoscope – vaginal examination B. vagina speculum – rectal examination C. vagina speculum – vaginal examination D. ortoscope – rectal examination
• ensure your hand are warm and clean • keep your fingernails short before
palpation • use different part of hand • observe clients response
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Group 1 Responsibilities of Nurses after Taking Vital Signs
1. This entire factor influencing vital sign except A. Age B. Gender C. Medication D. Hormone
2. How many frequent that we have to take vital sign for unstable client? A. 1/4 hourly B. 30 minutes C. Every hour D. 4-6 hourly
3. What is the purpose for taking vital signs? A. Evaluate client’s response to treatments B. For client safety C. To give comfort to client D. To relieve pain
4. All this are common times to assess vital sign except A. Before and after surgery or invasive
procedure B. Before and after administration of a
medication C. When a client has a change in health status
of reports symptoms D. When taking observation of TPR AND BP
5. A client complains of severe abdominal
pain.When assesing the vital signs, the nurse would not be surprised to find A. a decrease in body temperature B. an increase in the pulse rate C. a decrease in blood pressure D. an increase in body temperature
6. The normal surface body temperature via
orally is A. 35.6 ◦c – 36.7 ◦c B. 40.0 ◦c – 42.2 ◦c C. 36.1 ◦c – 37.0 ◦c D. 36.8 ◦c – 37.5 ◦c
7. What is the common standard tool that used to
an adult clients A. FLACC B. Wong – Baker Faces Scale C. Numeric rating scale
D. Visual Analogue Score
8. What type of tool that used for eye examination A. Otoscope B. Vagina speculum C. Opthalmoscope D. Photoscope
9. A technique that used a sense of hearing is?
A. Inspection B. Percussion C. Palpation D. Aucultation
10. Pain have more effect to our life.Below is the
effect of pain except A. Restrict movements B. Disturb sleep/rest C. Enables effective treatment D. Disturb activities
MEQ 1. State five of the advantages of pain according
to 5th vital sign. 2. Describe types of pain in term of etiology. 3. List three how often do you need to take the
common times to assess vital signs. 4. State four factors that influencing the vital
signs. 5. Explain three of the general guides on how to
taking vital signs. Tepid Sponging, Cold Compress and Warm Compress
1. What is the definitions of tepid sponging A. The range of body temperature depends on
several influencing factor B. A moist cold application procedures
performed when client’s body temperature is more than 38.5˚c.
C. Temperature may fluctuate slightly but is always above normal
D. Temperatures alternates at regular interval between periods of afebrile normal or abnormal temperature
2. There are many assessment of tepid sponging
before performing compression except A. Client’s body temperature B. Ability of client C. Clean clothes
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D. Suitable environment 3. What is the purpose of tepid sponging?
A. Bringing client’s body temperature to as normal as possible
B. It is the therapeutic treatment using cold compress to the body
C. To promotes patient’s comfort D. To reduce swollen by increasing fluid
absorption to blood vessels
4. There are several types of nurses responsibilities before procedures perform except A. Identify client’s who need tepid sponging B. Record temperature before the procedures
for comparison C. Switch off fan and close the window to
prevent from shivering D. Change water when it become warm to
maintain it coldness
5. Below are the correct answer for assessing client during tepid sponging except A. Reaction B. Heart rate C. Skin colour D. Pressure sore
6. What is the benefits of dry heat application?
A. Application remains of required temperature for a longer time
B. Relieves local pain C. Fasten up healing process D. Compress the body part
7. Which one is not about moist heat application?
A. Heat compress B. Soaking C. Dry heat D. Sitz bath
8. When doing hot compress, what is the duration
that suppose one patient to have A. 15-20 minutes B. 20-25 minutes C. 25-30 minutes D. 35-40 minutes
9. What is the purpose when doing soaking?
A. Encourage blood flow B. Relieve pain C. Maintain the water temperature
D. Warm up the body part 10. What is not assessment when performing warm
compress? A. Identify the purpose of compression B. Check the skin condition C. Identify method D. Identify subskill
11. What is the local effect of cold compress?
A. Reduce muscles cramp B. Impaired blood circulation C. Prolonged exposure D. Reduce aches and pains
12. There are contraindication of cold compress except? A. Open wounds B. Impaired blood circulation C. Loss of sensation D. Moist cold application
13. The main responsibilities on cold compress is
A. Stop the procedure B. Stop cold compress after 20 minutes C. For client having fever D. For pediatric client
14. What is the definiton of cold application
A. A therapeutic through heat application on the skin in a set duration
B. It is a therapeutic treatment using cold compress to the body
C. Procedure performed when client’s body temperature is more than 38.5◦c
D. Relieves local pain stiffness,aching particulary the muscles and joints.
15. This is all complication of cold compress except A. Cyanosis B. Dead tissues C. Pale skin D. Pain
MEQ Puan Amira 58 years old is admitted to the ward because of the swollen at the leg and ankle. The nurse need to warm compress to the patient to reduce the swollen.
a) State the responsibilities of nurse while performing sitz bath on patient
b) .State the assessment that nurses should do before performing warm compress
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c) Explain 5 purpose of warm compress. d) Explain benefits of dry heat application e) List sub skills or important components in
performing warm compress.
Nursing Care Of Client with Pyrexia
1. What type of fever that their temperature alternaters at regular intervals between periods of fever and periods of afebrile? A. Intermittent fever B. Remittent fever C. Relapsing fever D. Constant fever
2. This is a sign and symptoms in the ending
stage of fever except A. Clients feel hot B. Warm, flushes and diaphoresis C. Clients getting better D. Shivering
3. What types or pattern of fever that causes
malaria? A. Remittent fever B. Constant fever C. Intermittent fever D. Relapsing fever
4. What happen when fever occurs in phase 1 A. Usually chilly,uncomfortable, may shivers B. Body temperature reaches and remain
fairly constant at the new higher level of set point
C. client’s feel hot and dry D. Clients feel warm and flushed due to
vasodilation
5. As a nurse, what we need to do if the body temperature of clients between 37.5-38.5? A. Tepid sponge B. Cold compress C. Bed bath D. Report to doctor
6. Why we need ensure good air ventilation and
circulation in client’s unit or room? A. To prevent trapping of body heat B. Promote body heat loss by conduction and
evaporation C. To promote body heat loss by convection
and radiation D. For prompt action to prevent worsening of
complication
7. How are we prevent the clients from chilling?
A. Assist client in meeting personal hygiene needs
B. Provide mouth care every 4 hour or when needed
C. Ensure good air ventilation and circulation in client’s unit or room
D. Wipe client’s body and change clothing and linen that is wet due to sweat
8. How we prevent the spread of infection? A. Administered antibiotic as prescribed B. Place client in air-conditional room C. Perform cold compress D. Implement good asepsis practices
9. Which of these are the temperature for
hyperpyrexia A. 37.1 ◦c – <37.4 ◦c B. 39.5 ◦c and above C. 38.3 ◦c – 39.4 ◦c D. 37.5 ◦c – 38.2◦c
10. As a nurse, what we need to do if the body
temperature of clients between 37.5 ◦c – 38.5 ◦c? A. Tepid sponge B. Cold compress C. Bed bath D. Report to doctor
MEQ
Madam Zihateha, 60 years old was admitted to the ward by the doctor. Her temperature is 38.7˚c. a) States type of fever (4 marks) b) Explain signs and symptoms of fever (6
marks) c) Explain phases of fever (7 marks) d) Explain nursing interventions for fever (8
marks)
