ALCO LOCOMOTIVE QUESTION BANK - South Central Railway

ALCO LOCOMOTIVE QUESTION BANK

AIR BRAKE SYSTEM OF ALCO LOCO

1. Which pressure is adjusted by limiting valve

A. F-1 pressure B. BP pressure C. FP pressure D. Synchronization pressure

2. When emergency brake application is done through A- 9 in flasher light modified loco the

condition of loco will be

A. Loco comes to idle and nothing else happens B. Loco comes to idle, flasher light is on C. Loco comes to idle, flasher light is on & buzzer blows D. Loco does not come to idle, flasher light is on & buzzer blows

3. PATB buzzer blows when

A. AFI needle is above 60 B. AFI needle is below 60 C. AFI needle is above 80 D. AFI needle is above 70

4. Unit of Air Flow Indicator (AFI) is

A. Kg/cm2 B. Pound / inch C. Wagon reading D. Km/h

5. Function of Air vacuum proportionate valve is in Diesel locos for

A. Acceleration B. Loco comes to idle C. For starting of loco D. For synchronization of brake

6. How many position setting of C3 W distributor valve has

A. Two position setting B. One position setting C. Three position setting D. No different setting

7. On operating D-1 emergency which pressure drops

A. MR B. BP C. HS-4 D. No air supply

8. How many braking position of A-9 valve have..

A. 05 breaking position B. 04 breaking position C. 03 breaking position D. 01 breaking position

9. How many braking position of SA-9 valve have..

A. 03 position B. 02 position C. 05 position D. 01 position

10. Air supply for horn is from.

A. MR-1 tank B. MR-2 tank C. „J‟ filter D. HS-4

11. Permissible leakage of vacuum in train pipe is

A. 0 cm B. Up to 10 cm C. Up to 20 cm D. Up to 30 cm

12. Overcharging (In air brake system) feature is applied by which air brake valve

A. C3 W distributor valve B. VA-1B control valve C. C2-W relay valve D. VA-1 release valve

13. HB-5 relay valve is fitted in which type of brake system

A. Air Brake loco B. Duel Brake loco C. In any type of loco D. None

14. In 28 VB control valve the vacuum of train pipe comes at

A. Above big diaphragm B. Below big diaphragm C. Above small diaphragm D. Below small diaphragm

15. Above C2- relay diaphragm air pressure comes from

A. A-9 valve B. SA-9 valve C. MR pressure D. Synchronization on pressure

16. Duplex check valve operates when MR pressure reaches at pressure (kg/cm2)

A. 5 kg/cm2 B. 6kg/cm2 C. Always open D. 10 kg/cm2

17. Max. Permissible time for loco brake release in seconds is. The loco fitted with chock in C2 relay valve.

A. 50 sec B. 40 sec C. 24 sec D. 30 sec

18. H-5 valves operates when BP pressure drops upto (kg/cm2)

A. 1.8 kg/cm2 B. 2.0kg/cm2 C. Kg/cm2 D. Kg/cm2

19. When H5 or HB-5 valve operates which air supply goes to PCS

A. MR pressure B. HS-4 pressure C. FP pressure D. BP pressure

20. When big diaphragm of VA-1B control valve gets punctured, what action will happen?

A. Vacuum will drop to zero B. Vacuum will not drop down C. Vacuum will drop partially D. None

21. R-6 relay valve is fitted in loco for

A. Quick MR charging B. Quick working of AFMV valve C. Quick vacuum building D. By passing AFMV

22. In automatic switching on flasher light modification of locos the TDR (time delay relay) is set

at...

A. 40 sec B. 15 sec C. 60 sec D. 120 sec

23. The standard Colour of humidity indicator in air dryer is

A. Orange B. Purple C. Blue D. White

24. Air dryer starts functioning, when MR pressure reaches to (PSI)

A. 100 PSI B. 200 PSI C. 150 PSI D. Immediately as loco start

25. Thread diameter of BP & FP angle cocks (in inch) is...

A. 1” B. 3” C. 2” D. 1¼ “

26. MR safety valve is set at pressure (in kg/cm2)

A. 10.0 kg/cm2

B. 6.0 kg/cm2

C. Above 10.5 kg/cm2

D. Below 6.0 kg/cm2

27. When 7.5-mm dia hole palm end is fitted in BP pipe, the change in BP pressure is

A. Should remain same in one minute

B. Should fall below 4.0 kg/cm2 in one minute

C. Should not fall below 4.0 kg/cm2 in one minute

D. Should come down to 3 cm in one minute

28. In duel brake loco, if combined strainer cock is kept in close position, action will be noticed

A. Vacuum will not be shown in gauge B. MR pressure will drop C. Synchronization in loco will be cut off D. BP will drop

29. By increasing HS-4 pressure (vacuum/air) action will happen

A. Vacuum will drop B. Vacuum will increase C. BP will drop D. BP will increase

30. Auto drain valve blows during

A. Loading of compressor B. Unloading of compressor C. When „MR safety valve blow D. MR pressure is above 10.5 kg/cm2

31. Feed valve is charged from

A. MR-1 tank B. MR-2 tank C. ”J‟ filter D. BP pipe

32. When vacuum is dropping by applying A-9 valve, air enters in train pipe by which valve/filter

A. From SA-9 valve B. From SA-9 valve C. From GD-80D filter D. From GD –80 E filter

33. GD-80 E filter is fitted between

A. VA-1B control valve and VA –1 release valve B. Train pipe and VA-1 release valve C. VA-1B control valve and other end open to atmosphere D. A-9 valve and SA-9 valve

34. In case of pure air brake loco with load at the time of train parting, which safety valve is

operates and brings the loco to idle

A. H-5 relay valve B. HB-5 relay valve C. Airflow measuring valve D. F1 selector valve

35. When driver is working from right control stand and A-9 is applied from left control stand in

emergency position, what will happen?

A. Loco will come to idle B. Loco will not come to idle C. Loco will shutdown D. Only BP will drop and nothing else will happen

36. 28 LV brake system is functional in.............

A. Air brake loco B. Duel brake loco C. Vacuum brake loco D. None

37. 28 LAV1 brake system is functional in............

A. Air brake loco B. Duel brake loco C. Vacuum brake loco D. None

38. In minimum reduction position of A-9 brake valve BP should drop upto (PSI)...

A. 0 to3 PSI B. 4 to 7 PSI C. 8 to 11 PSI D. 12 to 15 PSI

39. Additional C-2 relay valve is used in air brake system for

A. MR pipe charging B. BP pipe charging C. Vacuum train pipe charging D. Feed pipe charging

40. How many numbers of positions MU2B valve have

A. One position B. Two positions C. Three positions D. Four positions

41. How many „O‟ rings are fitted in spool valve of VA-1B control valve

A. 02 Nos B. 03 Nos C. 04 Nos D. 05 Nos

42. Conjunction brakes in IRAB System is applied by

A. Ad C2 Relay valve B. C2 Relay valve C. N1 Reducing valve D. C3W Relay valve

43. During emergency braking the maximum air pressure in brake cylinder is _______

A. 4 Kg/cm2 B. 5 Kg/cm2 C. 2 Kg/cm2 D. 3 Kg/cm2

44. Calibration of Air Flow measuring valve is adjusted at which at reading

A. 80 wagon reading B. 90 wagon reading C. 100 wagon reading D. 110 wagon reading

45. Vacuum test plate hole dia is (in mm)

A. 6.5 mm B. 7.0 mm C. 9.5 mm D. 8.0 mm

46. When does auto drain check valve operates

A. At the time of loading of compressor B. At the time of loading of compressor C. In above both cases D. When loading/unloading of compressor is defective

47. Palm gauges (Orifice test gauge) has the hole size of (in mm)

A. 9.0 mm B. 7.5 mm C. 8.0 mm D. 8.5 mm

48. MR pressure outlet pipe of air flow measuring valve goes to..

A. C-2 relay valve B. Add. C-2 relay valve C. A-9 brake valve D. SA-9 brake valve

49. In case BP pressure is fluctuating the possible defect is in which valve

A. C-2 relay valve defective B. Add C2 relay valve is defective C. SA-9 is defective D. C3W distributor valve is defective

50. Exhaust choke size of C-2 relay valve is (in mm)....

A. 5.0 mm B. 6.0 mm C. 7.0 mm D. 8.0 mm

51. Exhaust choke size of additional C-2 relay valve is (in mm).....

A. 5.0 mm B. 5.5 mm C. 6.0 mm D. 6.5 mm

52. In full service position of A-9 auto brake valve pressure reduction is between (PSI)......

A. 18 to 21 psi B. 23 to 26 psi C. 30 to 33 psi D. 35 to 38 psi

53. In over reduction position of A-9 auto brake valve pressure reduction is between (PSI)......

A. 27 to 30 psi B. 34 to 46 psi C. 50 to 62 psi D. 65 to 77 psi

54. When drying capacity of air dryer is reduced the colour of humidity indicator changes to

A. Pink B. White C. Green D. Black

55. While keeping lead/trial switch in trail ER pressure is

A. ER Pressure is less than 1 kg/cm2 B. ER Pressure is zero C. ER Pressure is 3.5 kg/cm2 D. ER Pressure is 5 kg/cm2

56. Air supply to power contractor is from

A. MR-1 B. MR-2 C. BP pressure D. HS-4 valve

57. Wiper gets the air supply from......

A. MR-1 B. MR-2 C. BP pressure D. HS-4 valve

58. BP pressure remains on which port of VA-1B control valve

A. Port No.1 B. Port No.2 C. Port No.3 D. Port No.6

59. In 28- LAV, system at the time of quick release by SA-9 valve which ports of SA-9 valve get

connected.

A. No.1& 7 B. No.2 & 13 C. No.3 & 20 D. No.2 & 10

60. In lead position of MU2B valve which ports dose not connect with each other

A. 3&13 B. 2&20 C. 53&63 D. 13&30

61. On applying brake through A-9 valve, which port of F-1 selector valve connect with each

other in synchronization braking

A. 4&16 B. 12&14 C. 30&15 D. 15& 20

62. In which position of A-9 brake valve its vent valve operates

A. Minimum reduction position B. Full service position C. Over reduction position D. Emergency position

63. In multiple unit locos to open VA-1 release valve, air pressure comes from which valve

A. From A-9 valve B. From F-1 selector valve C. From A-1 differential pilot valve D. From SA-9 valve

64. In creation of vacuum which valve comes into function

A. SA-9 brake valve B. H-5 relay valve C. C-3 W distributor valve D. VA-1B control valve

65. The governor of air compressor get supply from.......

A. MR-1 pressure B. MR-2 pressure C. BP pressure D. B.C. pressure

66. To operate sander valve the air supply is received from

A. MR-1 pressure B. MR-2 pressure C. BP pressure D. Brake cylinder pressure

Air Brake System Answer Sheet

Q. No. ANSWER Q. No. ANSWER Q.No. ANSWER

1. D 23. C 45. D

2. A 24. A 46. B

3. C 25. D 47. B

4. C 26. C 48. B

5. D 27. C 49. B

6. A 28. C 50. A

7. B 29. A 51. C

8. B 30. B 52. B

9. A 31. A 53. B

10. A 32. C 54. B

11. B 33. B 55. B

12. C 34. A 56. A

13. B 35. A 57. A

14. A 36. C 58. C

15. A 37. B 59. A

16. A 38. B 60. D

17. C 39. B 61. A

18. A 40. B 62. D

19. A 41. C 63. C

20. B 42. D 64. D

21. B 43. B 65. A

22. C 44. C 66. A

ENGINE (POWER PACK) OF ALCO LOCO

1. During which stroke inlets valves opens

A. Suction B. Compression C. Power D. Exhaust

2. During which stroke both valves closed

A. Suction B. Compression C. Power D. Exhaust

3. In WDM3D Locos, how many Main Bearing journals are in one crankshaft?

A. 7 Nos. B. 6 Nos. C. 8 Nos. D. 9 Nos.

4. In WDM3D Locomotive, how many crank pins are on crankshaft?


5. In WDM3D Loco, how many thrust bearing are used

A. 2 Nos B. 1 Nos C. 3 Nos D. None

6. In WDG3A Locos, how many thrust bearing are used?

A. 1 Nos. B. 2 Nos. C. None D. 3 Nos.

7. The size of Engine Crank Pin is (in inch)

A. 5” B. 8.5” C. 6.0” D. 7.5”

8. Clearance between crankshaft journal & bearing is (in inch)......

A. .001” to .005” B. .005” to .010” C. .002” to .006” D. .004” to .008”

9. How many cam segments are fitted in WDM3A loco


10. Size of Main Bearing journals is (in inch).................

A. 6” B. 8.5” C. 10.0” D. 9.0”

11. How many cam shaft bushes are fitted in one 16 cylinder block

A. 14 B. 16 C. 18 D. 20

12. What is minimum dia clearance between cam shaft & cam bush

A. .002” B. .004” C. .005” D. .010”

13. How many teeth are in split gear

A. 28 B. 30 C. 34 D. 36

14. During setting of cam gear timing which piston is kept at TDC

A. R-1 B. L-1 C. R-8 D. L-8

15. How many cam segments are fitted in WDM3D Loco

A. 15 B. 16 C. 7 D. 8

16. In WDM-2c loco, how many counter weights are on one crankshaft?


17. In WDM3D loco, which type of lubrication system is used?

A. Splash Type B. Forced feed C. Self lubricated D. None of these

18. Main crankshaft vibration damper is fitted near which main bearings in WDM3A locos

A. No-5 B. No-7 C. No-9 D. No-1

19. In WDM3A loco split gear is mounted on crankshaft near main bearing

A. No-1 B. No-5 C. No-7 D. No-9

20. Crankshaft vibration damper is fitted with crankshaft with the help of ................

A. Key B. Dowel C. Nuts & Bolts D. None of these

21. How many cam lobs are in one cam segment

A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 9

22. What is the condemning size of liner?

A. 228.68 mm B. 220.70 mm` C. 230.72 mm D. 231.74 mm

23. In Alco loco, single exhaust manifolds have following no. of pieces

A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 5

24. In WDM3D Loco, one exhaust manifold connects with how many cylinder Heads

A. One B. Four C. Two D. Three

25. What should be minimum run out of extension shaft?

A. .005” B. .003” C. .001” D. .0000”

26. Water pump is driven from............................

A. Split gear B. Cam gear C. Extension shaft gear D. Main generator gear

27. Lube oil pump is driven from............................

A. Split gear B. Cam gear C. Extension shaft D. Main generator gear

28. In WDM3D Locos, main bearing elongation is ....................

A. .010” B. .015” C. .040” D. .050”

29. What is the BHP of WDM3D loco?

A. 3600 B. 3300 C. 2600 D. 3100

30. What is the BHP of WDM3F Loco?

A. 3000 B. 3600 C. 4000 D. 3800

31. What is the BHP of WDG3A loco?

A. 4000 B. 3600 C. 3000 D. 2800

32. What is the BHP of WDM3A Loco?

A. 3100 B. 3500 C. 3600 D. 4000

33. In WDM3A loco thrust bearing is fitted at location

A. No.1 Upper B. No.4 Upper C. No.5 Lower D. No.9 Upper

34. Honey combing is related with ……………..

A. Cylinder Head B. Piston C. Liner D. Connecting rod

35. What is the maximum allowed deflection of main generator

A. ± .0005” B. ± .001” C. ± .015” D. ± .0008”

36. In ALCO TSC, Rotor side, what is the material of oil seal

A. Aluminum B. Rubber Seal C. Brass Seal D. Carbon Seal

37. Universal shaft is used to drive radiator fan because

A. It is rigid B. It is strong C. It is self align D. It is weak

38. GE Governor is operated……………….

A. Mechanically B. Hydraulically C. Pneumatically D. None of these

39. TSC surging on higher notches is due to …………..

A. Excess fuel rack B. Chocked air maize C. Less area of nozzle ring D. Any of the above

40. Hammering sound is coming from engine is due to……………

A. Exhaust valve bend B. Fuel cam worn out C. X-head roller worn out D. Any of the above

41. Smoke is coming from „SMOKE‟ hole of cylinder Head indicates…………….

A. Injector seal is not proper B. Over torquing C. Injector crack D. Injector not fitted

42. Engine air inlet elbow bolt torquing is done at ……………

A. 150 ft. lbs B. 40 ft. lbs C. 30 ft. lbs D. 75 ft. lbs

43. Expresser foundation bolts is torqued at value (ft. lbs.)


44. TSP treatment is done for………………..

A. To remove scaling B. To decrease the cooling efficiency C. To avoid any chemical reaction D. To improve chloride value

45. When hot engine alarm is operated, the condition of loco comes to

A. Idle B. Run on same speed C. Shut down D. None of above

46. What is the unit of S.F.C. (Specific Fuel consumption)

A. gm/hp/hr. B. Liters/Kwhr/minutes C. Kg/Newton/hr D. None

47. In yearly loco, pre priming break in filters are used………

A. To arrest the foreign material B. To increase the pressure C. To maintain the pressure D. To avoid water contamination

48. The temperature difference between the two consecutive main bearings should not exceed

by

A. 5°C

B. 2°C

C. 10°C

D. 20°C

49. CCE motor giving thick black smoke is due to

A. Increase liner wear B. Valve guide clearance more C. TSC rotor defective D. Fuel motor defective

50. Fuel test cock pressure is used for checking …………..

A. Lube oil pressure dropping B. Booster pressure dropping C. Fuel pressure dropping D. Air pressure dropping

51. Exhaust gas temperature at ABB TSC inlet is …………

A. 700°C

B. 600°C

C. 450°C

D. 750°C

52. Exhaust gas temperature at ALCO TSC inlet is …………

A. 300°C

B. 590°C

C. 400°C

D. 800°C

53. Which item is increases the copper content in lube oil

A. Piston wear B. Liner wear C. X-head floating bush wear D. Silicon

54. In WDM3F, how many nos. of cam bushes are fitted in a block

A. 26 nos. B. 18 nos. C. 32 nos. D. 16 nos.

55. In WDM3D the angle of firing order from L to R is

A. 60°

B. 45 °

C. 30°

D. 75°

56. Split gear bolt torquing is done at ……………..

A. 500 ft. lbs. B. 400 ft. lbs C. 200 ft. lbs D. 300 ft. lbs

57. Engine crank case vacuum is not building up due to

A. Linear chrome plating worn out B. Fuel motor not working C. Dust blower not working D. Engine RPM less

58. Which of the following is the reason of hot engine

A. ETS setting defective B. Radiator fan not working C. Radiator fins chocked D. Any of above

59. Engine giving blueish smoke indicates…………….

A. Water mix in fuel oil B. Injector hole chocked partially C. Cylinder head valve guide clearance more D. FIP delivery less

60. White smoke given by engine is due to ……..

A. FIP not responding B. Tappet phasing disturbs C. Cylinder head crack internally D. X-head having abnormal sound

61. For the same HP and bore size, which engine will be heavier

A. Petrol engine B. Diesel engine C. Jet engine D. None of the above

62. What is compression ratio of WDG3A

A. 12.0:1 B. 11.5: 1 C. 12.5:1 D. 13.0: 1

63. Minimum RPM of engine with low idle feature is

A. 390 B. 410 C. 350 D. 370

64. Which of the following is not the safety item of locomotive

A. OST B. LWS C. Governor D. ACP

65. BAP is not building up due to ……….

A. TSC rotor jam B. Gov. defective C. Air Intel gasket burst D. Any one of above

66. Which of the following is not the reason of low BAP

A. Unmodified FIP B. Unmodified after cooler C. Radiators fins chocked D. None of these

67. Which of the following is not item of fuel efficient loco

A. Steel cap piston B. Modified FIP C. ALCO TSC D. Large After Cooler

68. Which of the following statement is not true

A. Comp. Ratio in diesel engine is more then Petrol engine. B. For high HP diesel engine are used. C. Ignition in diesel engines takes place by comp. of air. D. For the same HP diesel Engine are lighter as compare to Petrol engine.

69. What are the possible causes of injector not responding

A. Injector nozzle hole chocked B. Phasing on up position C. Fuel cam lob damage D. Any of the above

70. What is the delivery of unmodified FIP on test bench at full rack position

A. 400 CC B. 350 CC C. 425CC D. 500 CC

71. What is the delivery of modified FIP on test bench at full rack position

A. 400 CC B. 350 CC C. 425CC D. 450 CC

72. Which of the following is prime mover

A. Engine B. Traction Generator C. Traction Motor D. None of the above

73. High viscosity indicates

A. Mixing of water in lube oil B. Mixing of fuel in lube oil C. Mixing of carbon contents D. None of these

74. What is the cause of increase silicon in lube oil

(A) Linear wear (B) X-head wear (C) Dust (D) Water leakage

75. Cylinder Head hydraulic testing is done at

A. 5.0 kg/cm2 B. 10.0 kg/cm2 C. Kg/cm2 D. 2.5

76. Extension shaft clearance limit is

A. .006” B. .020” C. .015” D. .060”

77. In scavenging period burnt gases are pushed out by

A. Fresh air B. By burnt gases C. By TSC D. Nothing of these

78. During over lapping period inlet and exhaust valve remain in

A. Closed position B. Open position C. Open & close position D. Nothing of these

79. Engine hunting is due to

A. Rake movement not free B. Excess fuel pressure C. Low fuel pressure D. Nothing of these

80. Low phasing means

A. After burning of fuel B. Correct burning of fuel C. Without burning of fuel D. Nothing of these

81. Engine given thick black smoke due to

A. Low BAP B. Less fuel oil level C. Defective CCE motor D. Defective manifold

82. Crank pin condemning limit is

A. 152.40 mm B. 152.60 mm C. 152.30 mm D. 152.34 mm

83. Main bearing general surface finish is

A. 25 RMS B. 40 RMS C. 50RMS D. 60 RMS

84. Crank shaft is supported at journal nos.

A. 2 &7 B. 9 &1 C. 4 & 8 D. 3 & 6

85. Crankshaft is lifted from crank pin nos. (In WDM3A)

A. 8 & 4 B. 2 & 7 C. 9 & 1 D. 3 & 7

86. Bucklnsh of cum gear is

A. .006” to .012” B. .030” to .040” C. .034” to .045” D. .020” to .039”

87. The torquing value of foundation bolt of engine block is

A. 1400 ft. labs. B. 1000 ft. labs. C. 850 ft.lbs D. 950 ft. lbs.

88. Cam shaft thrust is

A. .006” to .012” B. .030” to .040” C. .050” to .060” D. .025” to .045”

89. Crank shaft thrust is

A. .010” to .017” B. .040” to .050” C. .035” to .040” D. .060” to .070”

90. In fuel injection pump (FIP) meaning of “No Fuel Position “ is

A. Helix of plunger is to be in front of spill port B. Helix of plunger is to be separated from split port C. Either or above D. None of these

91. Torquing of injector is done at

A. 50 ft. lbs. B. 80 ft. lbs. C. 30 ft.lbs D. 60 ft. lbs.

92. At what degree the spray hole in injector nozzle is made

A. 60°

B. 40°

C. 50°

D. 30°

93. Out of which safety device, engine comes to idle

A. OST B. LWS C. ACP D. Low lube oil indication

94. Which item increases the sodium (Na) contains in lube oil

A. Mixing of fuel oil in lube oil B. Mixing of Water in lube oil C. Mixing of Lube oil in fuel oil D. None of these

Engine (Power Pack) Answer Sheet

Q. No. ANSWER Q. No. ANSWER Q. No. ANSWER

1. A 26. C 51. C

2. B 27. C 52. B

3. D 28. C 53. C

4. D 29. B 54. B

5. B 30. B 55. B

6. A 31. B 56. D

7. C 32. A 57. A

8. B 33. D 58. D

9. C 34. C 59. C

10. B 35. D 60. C

11. C 36. C 61. B

12. C 37. C 62. C

13. D 38. B 63. C

14. A 39. D 64. C

15. B 40. D 65. D

16. C 41. A 66. D

17. B 42. D 67. C

18. D 43. B 68. D

19. D 44. A 69. D

20. C 45. B 70. B

21. C 46. A 71. A

22. B 47. A 72. A

23. B 48. C 73. C

24. C 49. A 74. C

25. D 50. C 75. A


76. A 83. A 90. A

77. A 84. A 91. A

78. B 85. B 92. B

79. A 86. A 93. C

80. A 87. A 94. B

81. A 88. A

82. C 89. A

UNDER TRUCK OF ALCO LOCO

1. Which type of bogie is used in WDM3A loco

A. Bi-mount B. Tri mount C. Uni mount D. None of above

2. Centre pivot of bogie of WDM3A is located between

A. Leading axles and middle axles B. Trailing axles and middle axles C. On the middle axle D. On the trailing axle

3. How much percentage of load does center pivot of WDM3A bogie carries

A. 40% B. 50% C. 60% D. 70%

4. Which type of suspension in WDM3A loco bogie has

A. Single stage B. Double stage C. Multi stage D. None of the above

5. The main advantage of single stage suspension is

A. To raise the center of gravity B. To lower the center of gravity C. To improve bogie speed D. To reduce bogie maintenance

6. The device used to transmit loco speed from wheels to the speedometer is called

A. Techogenerator B. Auxiliary generator C. Axle generator D. Main Generator

7. Traction motor load of is transferred on bogie frame through

A. Main journal B. Suspension nose C. Axle box D. Helical coil spring

8. Height of side buffer should be maintained between

A. 1105 mm to 1030 mm B. 1150 mm to 1000 mm C. 1150 mm to 900 mm D. 1105 mm to 800 mm

9. Buffer height can be adjusted by

A. Adding shims to load pads & side bearers B. Adding shims to spring seat C. Both A & B‟ D. None of the above

10. Amount of shims that could be added to centre pivot & side bearers to adjust side buffer

height

A. 50 mm B. 21 mm C. 12 mm D. 35 mm

11. Amount of shims that could be added to spring seat to adjust side buffer height

A. 6 mm B. 12 mm C. 30 mm D. 35 mm

12. Minimum distance between brake block & wheel in release position should be

A. 5 mm B. 10 mm C. 15 mm D. 20 mm

13. Brake piston travel adjustment in WDM3A is recommended between

A. 20mm to 30mm B. 10mm to15 mm C. 67 to 100 mm D. 50mm to200 mm

14. Gear case bolts of WDM3A bogies is torque at

A. 600-700 ft. labs. B. 1000-1200 ft. labs. C. 1400-1600 ft.lbs D. 350-500 ft. lbs.

15. The wheel dia variation of WDM3A loco on same bogie is permitted upto

A. 2 mm B. 4 mm C. 6 mm D. 8 mm

16. The wheel dia variation of WDM3A on same axle is permitted upto

A. 2 mm B. 3 mm C. 4 mm D. 0.5 mm

17. The wheel dia variation of WDM3A on some loco is permitted upto

A. 10 mm B. 15 mm C. 20 mm D. 25 mm

18. Service limit of wheel dia. of diesel locomotive (In goods service) is

A. 1010 mm B. 1040 mm C. 1030 mm D. 1020 mm

19. Torquing of axle cap bolt is done at

A. 40 m-kg B. 50 m-kg C. 60 m-kg D. 75 m-kg

20. Gauge width of broad gauge loco should be

A. 1596+- 0.5 mm B. 1596+- 0.7 mm C. 1596+- 0.8 mm D. 1596+- 0.9 mm

21. The diameter of new axle of WDM3A bogie at the location of suspension bearing should be

A. 7.250”+- 0.002” B. 9.000”+- 0.002” C. 9.005”+- 0.002” D. 9.050”+- 0.002”

22. In Co- Co bogie, traction motor cap bolts is torque at

A. 700-800 ft. lbs. B. 750-800 ft. lbs. C. 759-810 ft. lbs. D. 775-825 ft. lbs.

23. While inspecting the nose suspension wear plate of a Co-Co bogie maximum clearance

permitted on motor lugs is

A. 5 mm B. 10 mm C. 15 mm D. 20 mm

24. Cranks in the axle are detected by

A. Magna flux test B. Ultrasonic test C. Zyglo test D. Chemical test

25. Nos. of pinion teeth in GE- 752 TM is

A. 15 B. 16 C. 17 D. 18

26. Nos. of teeth of bull gear of WDM3A bogie is

A. 62 B. 65 C. 68 D. 70

27. Free height of outer coil spring of WDM3A loco is

A. 450+-8 mm B. 451+- 8 mm C. 452 +- 8 mm D. 455+- 8 mm

28. Free height of inner coil spring with nominal coil dia 130 mm of the bogie of WDM3A loco is

A. 423 mm B. 423+- 6mm C. 423+- 8mm D. 423+- 2mm

29. Axle load of WDM3D loco is

A. 17.5 Tones B. 18.5 Tones C. 19.5 Tones D. 20.5 Tones

30. Weight of complete bogie of WDG3A loco is

A. 24.00 Tones B. 21.00 Tones C. 25.00 Tones D. 22.50 Tones

31. Length of WDM3D loco over buffer is

A. 19250 mm B. 20128 mm C. 21260 mm D. 22300 mm

32. No. of outer coil springs per bogie in WDG3A loco is

A. 6 B. 8 C. 12 D. 16

33. No. of outer coil springs in WDG3A loco is

A. 16 B. 24 C. 32 D. 12

34. No. of outer coil springs per bogie in WDM3D loco is

A. 6 B. 12 C. 10 D. 08

35. No. of outer coil springs in WDM3D loco is

A. 10 B. 12 C. 14 D. 24

36. Free height of outer coil springs of WDG3A loco is

A. 480 mm B. 450 mm C. 500 mm D. 520 mm

37. Free height of outer coil springs of WDM3D loco is A. 490 mm B. 500 mm C. 560 mm D. 540 mm

38. No. of primary vertical dampers per bogie in WDM3D loco is

A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 8

39. No. of primary vertical dampers per loco in WDG3A loco

A. 6 B. 4 C. 8 D. 12

40. No. of horizontal damper per bogie in WDM3D loco is

A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 6

41. No. of horizontal damper per loco in WDG3A loco bogie is A. 8 B. 6 C. 2 D. 10

42. No. of secondary lateral damper per bogie in WDG3A loco is

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

43. No. of secondary lateral damper per loco in WDG3A loco is

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

44. Total axle box lateral clearance for front and back wheel of WDG3A Loco is

A. 12 mm B. 10 mm C. 8 mm D. 6 mm

45. Total axle box lateral clearance for intermediate wheel of WDG3A Loco is

A. 20 mm B. 25 mm C. 15 mm D. 10 mm

46. Total axle box side clearance for wheel of WDG3A Loco is

A. 3.5 mm B. 2.5 mm C. 1.5 mm D. 0.5 mm

47. Height of the cattle guard from rail is

A. 8 ½ inches B. 5 ½ inches C. 6 ½ inches D. 4 ½ inches

48. No. of secondary suspension load pads in WDG3A Loco is

A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

49. Bogie of WDG3A loco is designated as

A. HTSC B. Fabricate C. Flexi-coil Mk-7 D. Flexi-coil Mk-10

50. Total no. of Brake blocks per bogie in WDM3D loco is

A. 12 B. 10 C. 16 D. 14

51. Total no. of brake blocks in WDM3D loco is

A. 16 B. 24 C. 18 D. 20

52. No. of traction motors per bogie in WDM3D loco is

A. 2 B. 3 C. 1 D. 4

53. No. of traction motors in WDM3D loco is

A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6

54. To transfer traction & breaking forces between bogie frame bolster and WDM3D loco bogie

is provided with

A. Guide link B. Axle boxes C. Damper D. Traction rod

55. Height of the Rail guard from Rail is

A. 6 ½ Inches B. 5 ½ Inches C. 4 ½ Inches D. 3 ½ Inches

56. Suspension of flexi coil MK-5 bogie is

A. Double stage B. Single stage C. Three stage D. Multi stage

57. For testing of bogie spring, the magnitude of load is

A. 3050 kg B. 3562 kg C. 3864kg D. 3965 kg

58. The shape of Bo- Bo bogie frame resembles to English alphabet

A. A B. C C. E D. H

59. Expanded from of TBU is

A. Truck brake unit B. Tread brake unit C. Terminal brake unit D. Thread brake unit

60. Minimum CBC height from the Rail for Loco is

A. 1050 mm B. 1030 mm C. 1000 mm D. 1100 mm

61. In WDG3A loco bogie the torquing value of M-36 bolts that connects the suspension tube

with Traction motor

A. 1100 ft. lbs. B. 990 ft. lbs. C. 1320 ft.lbs D. 1423 ft. lbs.

62. No. of bolts used to fix traction motor with MSU in WDG3A Loco


63. Torque value of WDM3D Locomotive gear case fixing bolts


64. The thickness of centre pivot liner of WDM3A loco in bogie is

A. 6 mm B. 8 mm C. 10 mm D. 12 mm

65. The tri- mount bogie consists of

A. A single piece carbon steel frame B. A single piece cast steel frame C. A double piece carbon steel frame D. A double piece cast steel frame

66. In WDM3A, the cylindrical pivot liner which transmits _______

A. Traction forces. B. Braking forces C. Traction and braking forces D. None of the above.

67. Silent block flexible bearings are used in

A. Traction bar B. Guide link C. Traction motor D. Suspension tube

68. Pinion and bull gear ratio of WDM3A Loco.

A. 17:90 B. 18:65 C. 17:77 D. 35:90

69. Traction and braking forces are transmitted from wheel-set to bogie frame through _____

A. Hydraulic dampers. B. Rubber pads. C. Happy pads D. Horn guide.

70. Buffer height can be adjusted by

A. Adding shims to load pads & side bearers B. Adding shims to spring seat C. Both A & B D. None of the above

71. Slack adjuster is initially set to provide a safe release of

A. 6 mm B. 8 mm C. 10 mm D. 12 mm

72. With new wheels & brake shoes the initial setting of safe release is 10 mm. At this position

the piston travel will be

A. 50 mm B. 57 mm C. 67 mm D. 77 mm

73. The limit of flat spot on wheel is

A. 30 mm B. 40 mm C. 50 mm D. 60 mm

74. If flat spot on wheel is exceeds 50 mm, then

A. Wheel set to be sent for re disking B. Wheel set should be connected C. Dressing is done before turning D. None of the above

Under Truck Answer Sheet


1. B 26. B 51. B

2. A 27. B 52. B

3. C 28. B 53. D

4. A 29. C 54. B

5. B 30. B 55. C

6. C 31. C 56. A

7. B 32. B 57. C

8. A 33. A 58. D

9. C 34. B 59. B

10. C 35. D 60. B

11. B 36. A 61. B

12. B 37. C 62. B

13. C 38. A 63. C

14. B 39. B 64. C

15. A 40. A 65. B

16. D 41. C 66. C

17. D 42. A 67. B

18. A 43. C 68. B

19. B 44. D 69. D

20. A 45. B 70. C

21. B 46. C 71. C

22. C 47. C 72. C

23. B 48. D 73. C

24. B 49. B 74. C

25. D 50. A

HHP LOCO QUESTION BANK

GM LOCOMOTIVE

1. What is the hours power of WDP4 & WDG4 locomotive

A. 3000 HP B. 3500 HP C. 4000 HP D. 4500 HP

2. What is the model designation of WDG4 locomotive

A. GT46 MAC B. GT46 C. GT46PAK D. ALCO 251

3. What is the model designation of WDP4 locomotive

A. GT46 MAC B. GT46 C. GT46PAK D. ALCO 251

4. Which type of diesel engine model is fitted in GM locomotive

A. ALCO-251 B. GT46 C. 710 G3B D. GT 46MAC

5. Which type of diesel engine is fitted in GM locomotive

A. Four stroke B. Three stroke C. One stroke D. Two stroke

6. What is the compression ratio of the GM locomotive

A. 16:1 B. 14:1 C. 13:1 D. 15:1

7. What is the full speed RPM of the GM locomotive engine

A. 1000 RPM B. 904 RPM C. 900 RPM D. 950 RPM

8. How much the minimum speed of the GM locomotive engine without LIR (low idle relay)


9. How much the minimum speed of the GM locomotive engine with LIR


10. What is the lube oil capacity in system of GM loco?

A. 1000 Liters B. 1100 Liters C. 950 Liters D. 910 Liters

11. What is the fuel tank capacity in the GM locomotive


12. What is the coolent water capacity in the GM locomotive


13. Capacity of sand box in the WDP 4 & WDG 4 locomotive

A. 12 Ft3/ box B. 15 Ft3/ box C. 14 Ft3/ box D. 18 Ft3/ box

14. What is the minimum continues speed of the WDG 4 locomotive

A. 21.5 Kmph B. 22.5 Kmph C. 20.5 Kmph D. 23.5 Kmph

15. What is the maximum speed of the WDG 4 locomotive

A. 150 Kmph B. 140 Kmph C. 120 Kmph D. 110 Kmph

16. Which type of bogie fitted in the GM locomotive

A. Single suspension B. Double suspension C. Triple suspension D. None of these

17. In the fuel oil system which type of injectors provided in the GM locomotive

A. Unit injectors B. Injectors with HP line C. Injector with cam D. None of these

18. In the two stroke engine the cylinder head of the engine equipped with

A. Inlet & Exhaust valves B. Only Inlet valves C. Only Exhaust valves D. None of these

19. In the GM locomotive the Turbo charger is driven by

A. Exhaust Gas B. Gear Train C. Gear Train & Exhaust gas D. None of these

20. In the WDP4 & WDG4 locomotive engine how much lube oil pumps used

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

21. In the GM locomotive the air compressor is ........

A. Air cooled B. Water cooled C. Oil cooled D. None of these

22. In the WDP4 & WDG4 locomotive the coolant used in compressor is

A. Engine coolant B. Compressor coolant C. Raw water D. None of these

23. Air compressor the lube oil sump capacity is


24. Air compressor in the GM locomotive is

A. Single stage B. Two stage C. Three stage D. Four stage

25. How many brake cylinders are used per bogie


26. Which type of bogie is used in GM locomotive

A. Fabricated bogie B. Cast steel C. High tensile cast steel D. None of these

27. In GM locomotive Air brake is controlled by

A. Mechanically B. Electrically C. Computer D. None of these

28. Air brake system in WDP4 &WDG4 loco is

A. 28LAV-1 B. 28LV-1 C. CCB-KNORR D. None of these

29. In GM locomotive the first schedule carried out after

A. One month B. Three month C. Four month D. 15 Days

30. Maximum speed of WDP4 locomotive is

A. 120 Kmph B. 160 Kmph C. 150 Kmph D. 180 Kmph

31. TM pinion and bull gear ratio in WDG4 loco is

A. 17:90 B. 17:77 C. 65:18 D. 90:35

32. TM pinion and bull gear ratio in WDP4 loco is

A. 17:90 B. 17:77 C. 18:65 D. 35:90

33. Total weight of WDG4 loco is

A. 140 Tones B. 129 Tones C. 160 Tones D. None of these

34. Total weight of WDP4 loco is

A. 115.8 Tones B. 119.8 Tones C. 121.8 Tones D. None of these

GM LOCOMOTIVE


1. C 13. B 25. B

2. A 14. B 26. C

3. C 15. C 27. C

4. C 16. B 28. C

5. D 17. A 29. B

6. A 18. C 30. B

7. B 19. C 31. A

8. C 20. D 32. B

9. A 21. B 33. B

10. C 22. A 34. A

11. B 23. A

12. C 24. B

HHP LOCO GENERAL DATA

SLNO QUESTION ANSWER

01. WHAT IS THE HEIGHT OF WDP4 LOCO OVER HORN 4.22M

02. WHAT IS THE WIDTH OF WDP4 LOCO OVER CAB 2.7M

03. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM WIDTH OF WDP4 3.07 M

04. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM CONTINUOUS SPEED OF WDP4 22.5 KMPH

05. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM SPEED OF WDP4 160 KMPH

06. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM STALL TRACTIVE EFFORT 270KN

07. WHAT IS THE CONTINUOUS TRACTIVE EFFORT OF WDP4 200KN

08. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM CURVE NEGOTIATION CAPABILITY OF WDP4 10 DEG CURVE

09. WHAT IS THE LUBE OIL CAPACITY OF WDP4 950 LITRE

10. WHAT IS THE COOLING SYSTEM CAPACITY OF WDP4 1045 LITRE

11. WHAT IS THE SAND CAPACITY OF WDP4 8 CUB FEET

12. WHAT IS THE FUEL CAPACITY OF WDP4 6000 LITRE

13. WHAT IS THE LUBE OIL CAPACITY OF COMPRESSOR IN WDP4 9.98 LITRE

14. WHAT IS THE DISCHARGE CAPACITY OF COMPRESSOR IN WDP4 7.19M3/MIN

15. WHAT IS THE MODEL OF COMPRESSOR IN WDP4 WLNA9BB

16. HOW MANY BRAKE CYLINDERS ARE IN WDP4 4

17. WHAT IS THE MODEL OF TRUCK USED IN WDP4 HTSC

18. WHAT IS THE GRADE OF LUBE OIL USED IN HHP LOCO RR520

19. WHAT IS THE GRADE OF GOVERNOR OIL USED IN HHP LOCO RR 520

20. WHAT IS THE GRADE OF TM GEAR CASE USED IN HHP LOCO RR 100

21. WHAT IS THE GRADE OF COMPRESSOR OIL USED IN HHP LOCO RR 460 SYNTHETIC OIL

22. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM WHEEL DIA PERMISSIBLE FOR PASSENGER SERVICE 1016

23. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM WHEEL DIA PERMISSIBLE FOR GOODS SERVICE 1006

24. WHAT IS PERMISSIBLE DIFFERENCE IN WHEEL DIAMETER ON THE SAME AXLE 0.5 TO 2.5 MM

25. WHAT IS PERMISSIBLE DIFFERENCE IN WHEEL DIAMETER ON THE SAME BOGIE 2-8MM

26. WHAT IS PERMISSIBLE DIFFERENCE IN WHEEL DIAMETER ON THE SAME LOCOMOTIVE 15-25 MM

27. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM PERMISSIBLE ROOT WEAR IN A WHEEL 6 MM

28. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM PERMISSIBLE FLANGE WEAR IN A WHEEL 3 MM

29. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM PERMISSIBLE THREAD WEAR IN A WHEEL 4 MM

30. WHAT IS THE PERMISSIBLE GAUGE WIDTH IN AN AXLE SET 1596 ± 0.5MM NEW ASSEMBLY 1596 ± 1.5/0.5MM SERVICE LIMIT

31. WHAT IS THE RAIL GUARD HEIGHT FROM RAIL LEVEL. 100MM --130 MM

32. WHAT IS THE CENTER BUFFER COUPLER HEIGHT RANGE FROM RAIL LEVEL 1105 - 1060 MM.

33. WHAT IS THE SIDE BUFFER HEIGHT RANGE FROM RAIL LEVEL 1105 - 1030 MM

34. WHAT IS THE UNIT OF TORQUE IN ENGLISH SYSTEM FT-LBS

35. WHAT IS THE AXLE LOAD OF WDP4 19.5T

ENGINE

SL NO QUESTION ANSWER

01. WHAT IS THE MODEL NUMBER OF ENGINE USED IN WDP4 710G3B

02. WHAT IS THE BORE OF POWER ASSEMBLY 230.19MM/9-1/16ÏNCH

03. WHAT IS THE STROKE OF POWER ASSEMBLY IN EMD ENGINE 279.4 MM/ 11 INCH

04. WHAT IS THE ANGLE BETWEEN LEFT AND RIGHT BANK OF EMD ENGINE 45 DEG

05. WHAT IS THE COMPRESSION RATIO OF EMD ENGINE 16:1

06. WHAT IS THE DISPLACEMENT PER CYLINDER IN EMD ENGINE 11635 CM3/ 710 CU.IN

07. WHAT IS THE FIRING ORDER OF EMD ENGINE 1,8,9,16,3,6,11,13,4,5,12,13,2,7,10,11

08. HOW MANY EXHAUST VALVES PER CYLINDER IN EMD ENGINE 04

09. HOW MANY MAIN BEARINGS ARE IN EMD ENGINE 10

10. WHAT TYPE OF COOLING WATER SYSTEM IN EMD ENGINE PRESSURISED

11. WHAT TYPE OF WATER PUMPS ARE THERE IN EMD ENGINE CENTRIFUGAL

12. WHAT TYPE OF LUBE OIL PUMPS ARE THERE IN EMD ENGINES HELICAL GEARS TYPE

13. WHAT TYPE OF FUEL INJECTION IS USED IN EMD ENGINE UNIT INJECTOR WITH NEEDLE VALVE

14. WHAT IS THE TYPE OF FUEL PUMP IN EMD ENGINE POSITIVE DISPLACEMENT

15. WHAT TYPE OF ENGINE STARTING IS USED IN EMD ENGINE DUAL ELECTRIC MOTORS

16. WHAT IS THE LOW IDLE RPM OF EMD ENGINE 200

17. WHAT IS THE IDLE RPM OF EMD ENGINE 260

18. WHAT IS THE 8TH

NOTCH RPM OF EMD ENGINE 904

19. WHAT IS THE DRY WEIGHT OF EMD ENGINE 17962 KG

20. WHAT IS THE WEIGHT OF PISTON OF EMD ENGINE 27 KG

21. WHAT IS THE SIZE OF CRAB BOLT USED IN CYLINDER HEAD OF EMD ENGINE 1-3/4 INCH-12 UNR

22. WHAT IS THE SIZE OF MAIN BEARING STUD BOLT USED IN EMD ENGINE 1-1/4 INCH-12 UNR

23. WHAT IS THE FINAL TORQUE VALUE OF MAIN BEARING CAP NUT 1017NM/ 750 FT-LBS

24. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM DIAMETER OF MAIN BEARING BORE OF EMD ENGINE

234.886 MM/9.2475 IN

25. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM CLEARANCE BETWEEN BEARING SHELL TO 0.038 MM/0.0015 IN

26. CRANKSHAFT IN EMD ENGINE

27. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM ROUGHNESS OF VALVE STEM IN EMD ENGINE 0.635 MICRO INCH

28. WHAT IS THE PERMISSIBLE DIFFERENCE OF HEIGHT IN VALVE STEM 1.59 MM/ 1/16 IN

29. WHAT IS THE VALVE SEAT ANGLE OF EMD ENGINE 30 DEG

30. WHAT IS THE VALVE SEAT WIDTH OF EMD ENGINE 2.36-3.18 MM

31. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM VALVE SPRING FREE LENGTH 100.79 MM/3.968 MM

32. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM TORQUE VALUE OF CYLINDER LINER STUD IN EMD ENGINE

67.79NM

33. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM COOLING WATER TEMPERATURE NEEDED FOR 49 DEG C/120 DEG F

34. FULL LOAD IN EMD ENGINE

35. WHAT IS THE WATER PUMP DRIVE GEAR BACKLASH IN EMD ENGINES 0.20- 0.64 MM

36. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM ALLOWABLE PRESSURE DIFFERENCE ACROSS AFTER COOLER IN EMD ENGINES

635MM OF WATER

37. WHAT IS THE FUEL RELIEF VALVE SETTING OF EMD ENGINES 690KPA/ 100PSI

38. WHAT IS THE FINAL PRESSURE OF ATOMISED FUEL INJECTED TO CYLINDER 16000-18000PSI.

39. WHAT IS THE TYPE OF GOVERNOR USED IN EMD ENGINES WOODWARD

40. WHAT IS THE RESISTANCE VALUE OF LCR RHEOSTAT IN WW GOV 1500 OHM

41. WHAT IS THE RESISTANCE VALUE OF LCR PACK 6500 OHM

42. WHAT IS THE LOW WATER PRESSURE TRIP PRESSURE OF EMD LOCO 762MM/30INCH

43. WHAT IS THE TRIPPING PRESSURE OF CRANKCASE PRESSURE DETECT IN EMD LOCO

20-76MM

44. WHAT IS THE OST SETTING LIMIT IN EMD ENGINES 990-1045 RPM.

45. WHAT IS THE BACKLASH BETWEEN RING GEAR AND STARTER MOTOR 0.38-1.02 MM

46. WHAT TYPE OF MOTOR USED FOR EMD MAKE ENGINE CRANKING DC SERIES MOTOR

47. WAHT IS THE BRUSH SPRING PRESSURE TENSION OF STARTER MOTOR 2.04- 2.27 KG

48. WHAT IS THE RELIEF VALVE SETTING OF SOAK BACK PUMP 221KPA/32 PSI

49. WHAT IS THE BYPASS VALVE SETTING OF SOAK BACK PUMP 483 KPA/70 PSI

50. WHAT IS THE DELIVERY RATE OF SOAK PUMP IN EMD ENGINE 15GPM/57LPM

51. WHAT IS THE CRANK CASE SUCTION PRESSURE IN EMD ENGINE 50.8 – 203 MM

52. WHAT IS THE LUBE OIL RELIEF VALVE SETTING IN EMD LOCOS 862 KPA/ 125 PSI

53. WHAT ARE THE FOUR STOKES IN A DIESEL ENGINE INLET, COMPRESSION, POWER, EXHAUST

54. ON WHAT DEGREE ROTATION OF CRANKSHAFT ONE PULSE OF POWER IS PRODUCED IN EMD ENGINES

22.5 DEG

55. WHAT IS THE MEANING OF 710 IN EMD ENGINE MODEL CUBIC INCH DISPLACEMENT PER CYLINDER

56. WHAT IS THE TEMPERATURE APPLIED TO ENGINE BLOCK TO RELIEVE 1200 DEG F

57. WHAT IS THE TYPE OF MAIN BEARING OF EMD ENGINE TRIMETAL BEARING

58. WHAT ARE THE MATERIALS USED TO MANUFACTURE MAIN BEARING IN EMD ENGINE

STEEL,BRONZE,LEAD/TIN


59. WHICH ARE THE LOCATIONS THRUST COLLARS ARE FITTED IN EMD ENGINE 5AND6

60. WHAT TYPE OF CAM SHAFT IS USED IN EMD ENGINES DURACAM

61. HOW MANY GEARS ARE IN ACCESSORY GEAR DRIVE TRAIN IN EMD ENGINE 5

62. WHAT IS THE LUBE OIL PUMP DELIVERY CAPACITY AT 8TH NOTCH IN EMD ENGINE

405 GPM

63. WHAT IS THE RELIEF VALVE SETTING OF SOAK BACK SYSTEM IN EMD ENGINES

55PSI

64. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM LUBE OIL PRESSURE REQUIRED IN EMD ENGINES 8-12 PSI

65. AT WHAT LUBE OIL TEMPERATURE THE ENGINE SHUT DOWN IN EMD ENGINES

124 DEG C

66. AT WHAT EXHAUST GAS TEMPERATURE THE TURBO SUPERCHARGER WORKS AS GAS DRIVEN TURBO

1000DEG F /538 DEG C

67. HOW MANY TURBINES BLADES ARE IN EMD TURBO 53

68. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM TRD OF EMD TURBO 27 SEC

69. HOW MUCH TIME THE SOAK BACK PUMP WORKS AFTER SHUTTING DOWN THE ENGINE

30—35 MINUTES

70. HOW MANY ELECTRICAL SOLENOIDS ARE IN WOOD WARD GOVERNOR 5

71. WHICH ARE THE SPEED SETTING SOLENOIDS IN WOODWARD GOVERNOR A,B,C,D

72. WHICH SOLENOID IS USED TO SHUTDOWN EMD ENGINE D

73. WHICH ARE THE PROTECTION DEVICES ARE TERMED EPD LOW WATER AND CRANKCASE PRESSURE

74. WHAT IS THE WATER PRESSURE DIFFERENCE WITH AIR PRESSURE FOR TRIPPING EPD

½ PSI

75. AT WHAT TEMPERATURE THE HOT OIL DETECT OPEN FULLY 135 PSI

76. WHAT IS THE SET SPEED OF OST W R T ENGINE SPEED PLUS 10 %

77. WHAT IS THE SET TIME DELAY FOR LOW LUBE OIL PRESSURE SHUTTING DOWN IN IDLE SPEED

50-60 SEC

78. WHICH SOLENOID WORKS DURING LR SELF TEST ORS

79. WHAT IS THE LR INDICATOR POSITION IN GOVERNOR DURING NORMAL LOCO WORKING

MAXIMUM

AIR BRAKE SYSTEM –CCB 1.5

SL NO QUESTIONS ANSWER

01. WHICH IS THE CIRCUIT BREAKER USED FOR AIR BRAKE SYSTEM MICRO AIRBRAKE

02. WHAT IS THE RATING OF MAB BREAKER 15 A

03. WHAT IS THE OPERATING VOLTAGE OF AB SYSTEM 24V

04. WHICH IS THE POWER SUPPLY MODULE FOR CCB VCU

05. WHAT IS THE VALUE OF MELCHER VOLTAGE 24

06. WHAT IS THE PERMISSIBLE GROUNDING VOLTAGE IN CCB 3 V

07. WHICH IS THE HANDLE USED FOR LOCO BRAKE DIRECT HANDLE

08. WHICH IS THE HANDLE USED FOR TRAIN BRAKE AUTO HANDLE

09. NAME OF THE BRAKE CONTROLLER SELECTION SWITCH LT SWITCH

10. HOW MANY POSITIONS ARE IN LT SWITCH 4

11. WHICH ARE THE POSITIONS OF LT SWITCH LEAD, TRAIL, TEST, HLPR

12. NAME THE CONNECTOR USED FOR COMMUNICATION WITH EM2000 CRJ 10

13. HOW MANY CARDS ARE THERE IN CCB 12

14. NAME THE PROCESSOR CARD CPZ

15. NAME THE CARD CONVERT ANALOG TO DIGITAL SIGNALS ADZ

16. NAME THE CARD WHICH CONNECTED TO PRESSURE SENSORS ADZ

17. NAME THE CARD WHICH CONTROLS THE ANALOG CONVERTER EPA CARD

18. WHAT IS THE BP PRESSURE OF HHP LOCO 5.2 KG/CM

19. WHAT TYPE OF CABLE IS CONNECTING BCV AND CCB OFC CABLE

20. TO WHICH CARD THE MICRO SWITCHES INSIDE BCV ARE CONNECTED TO SS9 CARD

21. WHAT IS THE BC PRESSURE UNDER A9 EMERGENCY 4.4KG/CM

22. WHICH MAGNET VALVE WORKS DURING PENALTY BY POWER LOSS MVER

23. WHAT IS THE MAIN RESERVOIR PRESSURE 8 - 10 KG/CM2.

24. WHAT IS THE BP PRESSURE DURING RELEASE POSITION 5.7 KG/ CM2 MAXIMUM

25. WHAT IS THE ER AND BRAKE PIPE PRESSURE DURING RUNNING POSITION 5.2 KG/CM2, BC = 0

26. WHAT IS THE BC PRESSURE AT MINIMUM SERVICE 1.1 KG/CM2.

27. WHAT IS THE BC PRESSURE AT FULL SERVICE - ER/BP - 3.4 KG/CM2 4.35 KG/CM2.

28. WHAT IS THE .BCEP PRESSURE UNDER EMERGENCY 3.57 KG/CM2

29.

WHAT IS THE BC PRESSURE AT MAXIMUM BRAKE POSITION BY INDEPENDENT HANDLE 5.2 KG/CM2. BCEP = 3.7 KG/ CM2.

30. WHICH CARD GIVES SUPPLY TO MAGNET VALVES DB1 CARD

31. WHICH ANALOG CONVERTER CONTROL BP AW4-ER

32. WHICH ANALOG CONVERTER CONTROL BC AW4-16

SL NO QUESTIONS ANSWER

33. WHICH ANALOG CONVERTER CONTROL BCEQ AW4-20

34. WHICH CARD GIVE SUPPLY TO AW4 –ER EPA1

35. WHICH CARD GIVES SUPPLY TO AW4-16 EPA2.

36. WHICH CARD GIVE SUPPLY TO AW4-20 EPA3

37. WHICH PRESSURE TRANSDUCER MEASURE BP BPT

38. WHICH TRANSDUCER MEASURE MR PRESSURE MRET

39. WHICH TRANSDUCER MEASURE BC BCT

40. WHICH TRANSDUCER MEASURE BCEQ 20T

41. WHICH CARD CONVERT OPTICAL FREQUENCY TO DIGITAL SIGNAL FOR CARD

42. WHICH MAGNET VALVE OPERATE DURING EMERGENCY APPLICATION MVEM

43. NAME THE MAGNET VALVE -BRAKE PIPE CUT-OFF MAGNET VALVE MV53

44. WHI9CH RELAY IN CCB DROPS DURING PENALTY COR

45. NAME THE COMPUTER POWER SUPPLY CARDS SVJ AND SV2

46. NAME THE DISPLAY CARD DIZ

47. WHICH ARE THE COUPLERS PROVIDED IN BCV BVJ1 AND BVJ2

48. AEII SWITCH IS CONNECTED TO WHICH COUPLER IN BCV BVJ2

49. LT SWITCH IS CONNECTED TO WHICH CARD SS9A/B

50. FAULT CODE START WITH 50 IS RELATED TO MR TRANSDUCER.

51. FAULT CODE STARTING WITH 90 RELATED TO DEFECTIVE ADZ CARD.

52. WHAT IS THE BP PRESSURE WHEN A9 HANDLE IS IN MINIMUM REDUCTION 4.7

53. WHAT IS THE BP PRESSURE WHEN A9 HANDLE IS IN FULL SERVICE 3.4

54. WHAT IS THE BC PRESSURE WHEN DEAD ENGINE COC IS CLOSED 1.76

55. WHAT IS THE BC PRESSURE UNDER POWER OF PENALTY 3.75

AIRBRAKE SYSTEM – CCB2

SL NO QUESTIONS ANSWERS

01. WHAT IS THE SPECIALITY OF EBV IN CCB2 SYSTEM PROVIDED WITH DISPLAY

02. NAME THE EMERGENCY VALVE PROVIDED IN EBV OF CCB2 NB11

03. WHAT IS THE FULL FORM OF LRU LINE REPLACEABLE UNIT

04. IN WHICH EQUIPMENT LRUS ARE MOUNTED EPCU

05. WHAT IS EPCI ELECTRO PNEUMATIC CONTROL UNIT

06. HOW MANY LRU ARE IN EPCP 06

07. WHICH ARE THE ELECTRONICALLY CONTROLLED LRU 16CP,20 CP,ERCP,BPCP

08. WHICH ARE THE PNEUMATICALLY CONTROLLED LRU BCCP AND KE VALVE

09. WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF ER CP CONTROL EQUALIZING CONTROL PRESSSURE

10. WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF BPCP CONTROL TRAINLINE BRAKE PIPE PRESSURE

11. WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF 16CP CONTROL BC CONTROL PILOT AIR PRESSURE

12. WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF 20 CP CONTROL THE BRAKE CYLINDER EQUALIZING PIPE

13. WHAT IS THE FULL FORM OF BCCP BRAKE CYLINDER CONTROL PORTION

14. WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF BCCP CONTROL BRAKE CYLINDER PRESSURE IN LOCO

15. WHAT IS RCP RELAY CONTROL PORTION

16. HOW MANY RELAYS ARE IN RCP 7, 2 HIGH CURRENT AND 5 LOW CURRENT

17. WHICH MODULE GIVE POWER SUPPLY TO CCB2 PSJB

18. WHAT IS THE OPERATING VOLTAGE FOR CCB2 24VDC

19. WHICH MODULE IN CCB2 COMMUNICATE WITH LCC LON TO RS485 CONVERTER ASSEMBLY

20. WHAT IS PER COS IN CCB2 PNEUMATIC EQUALIZING RESERVOIR CUT OUT SWITCH

21. WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OR PER COS MANUAL BRAKING

22. WHAT IS THE MANUAL BRAKE CONTROL IN CCB2 857. BU-DBV (DRIVER BACK UP BRAKE VALVE

23. HOW MANY POSITIONS DBV HAVE 3

24. WHAT IS THE BP PRESSURE WHEN EBV IN RELEASE POSITION IN HHP LOCOS 5.7

25. WHAT IS THE BP PRESSURE WHEN EBV IN RUN POSITION IN HHP LOCOS 5.2

26. WHAT IS THE BC PRESSURE WHEN SA9 HANDLE IS IN FULL SERVICE IN HHP LOCOS 5.2

27. WHAT IS THE BC PRESSURE WHEN A9 HANDLE IN EMERGENCY 1.8

28. WHAT IS THE FULL FORM OF LON LOCAL OPERATING NETWORK

29. WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF MV53 MAGNET VALVE WHEN ENERGISED CUTOUT BP PIPE CHARGING

30. WHAT IS THE FEED PIPE PRESSURE VALUE 6 KG/CM2

31. WHICH AIR PRESSURE IS USED AS REFERENCE FOR TRAIL LOCO BRAKING BCEQ

BOGIE

S.No. Question Answer

01. WHAT IS THE FULL FORM OF HTSC HIGH TENSILE STEEL CAST

02. WHAT IS THE VERTICAL STOP CLEARANCE OF BOGIE AND UNDERFRAME IN HTSC BOGIE 16MM +/- 3.2MM

03. WHAT IS THE TYPE OF JOURNAL BEARING IN HTSC BOGIE CARTRIDGE TYPE GREASE LUBRICATED

04. WHAT IS THE NORMAL WORKING TEMPERATURE OF JOURNAL BEARING 56 DEG C

05. WHAT IS THE PERMISSIBLE THRUST CLEARANCE OF JOURNAL BEARING IN MIDDLE AXLE 0.31 MM

06. WHAT IS THE PERMISSIBLE THRUST CLEARANCE OF JOURNAL BEARING IN END AXLE 0.187MM

07. WHAT IS THE PERMISSIBLE CLEARANCE BETWEEN DEFLECTION PADS AND NYLON WEAR PLATE

25.4MM

08. WHAT IS THE PERMISSIBLE INSTALLED SPRING HEIGHT 434.8MM

09. WHAT IS THE PERMISSIBLE CLEARANCE BETWEEN BRAKE SHOE AND WHEEL WITH SINGLE SLACK ADJUSTER

15.9MM

10. WHAT IS THE PERMISSIBLE CLEARANCE BETWEEN BRAKE SHOE AND WHEEL WITH DOUBLE SLACK ADJUSTER

19.1MM

11. WHAT IS THE BRAKE CYLINDER PISTON TRAVEL RANGE 50.8- 165.1 MM

12. WHAT IS THE TOQUE VALUE OF GEAR CASE PARTING BOLTS 47.45 NM

13. WHAT IS THE TORQUE VALUE OF GEAR CASE 1-1/8 BOLTS 1342.24 NM

14. WHICH PART CONNECT TRACTION MOTOR TO BOGIE NOSE LINK/DOGBONE

15. WHICH EQUIPMENT TRANSFER THE LOCO WEIGHT TO BOGIE FRAME 4 RUBBER COMPRESSION SPRING

COMPRESSOR SYSTEM


01. MODEL OF COMPRESSOR USED IN HHP LOCOS WLN9BB

02. WHAT TYPE OF COOLING SYSTEM USED IN COMPRESSOR WATER COOLED

03. WHAT IS THE COMPRESSOR OIL PRESSURE AT IDLE 18-25 PSI

04. HOW MANY CYLINDERS ARE IN A COMPRESSOR 3,2LPAND1HP

05. WHICH IS THE PRIME MOVER OF THE COMPRESSOR DIESEL ENGINE

06. WHICH MAGNET VALVE CONTROL COMPRESSOR LOADING MVCC

07. WHICH SENSOR MEASURE THE COMPRESSED AIR FROM COMPRESSOR MRPT

08. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM MR PRESSURE IN LEAD LOCO 9.84 KG/CM2

09. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM MR PRESSURE IN TRAILING LOCO 10.19KG/CM2

10. WHICH RELAY SYNCHRONIZE COMPRESSOR OPERATION IN MU UNITS CMPSYN RELAY

11. WHICH MU WIRE CARRY COMPRESSOR SYNCHRONIZATION SIGNAL IN MU Locos WIRE NO 25

12. WHICH ARE THE RESERVOIRS IN COMPRESSOR SYSTEM MR1,MR2

13. WHAT IS THE CAPACITY OF MR TANK 492 LITRE

14. WHAT IS THE MR SAFETY VALVE SETTING 10.6 KG/CM2

15. WHICH MAGNET VALVE WILL BLOW DOWN WATER FROM MR TANK EBT (Electronic Blow down timer)

16. WHICH RELAY CONTROL THE AIR DRYER TOWER CHANGE DCR (DRYER CONTROL RELAY)

17. WHICH EQUIPMENT REMOVE WATER FROM MR AIR GOING TO AIR BRAKE SYSTEM

AIR DRYER

18. AT WHAT SPEED THE DCR RELAY IS ENERGISED 430

19. THE MINIMUM MR PRESSURE REQUIRED TO OPERATE AIR DRYER 7.03KG/CM2

20. AT WHAT SPEED MANUAL SANDING IS CUT OFF IN HHP LOCO 19.4 KMPH

21. WHAT IS THE QUANTITY OF SAND FALLING PER MINUTE 425- 567 GM

22. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM OPERATING SPEED OF WIPER 60-80 CYCLES

23. WHAT IS THE FREQUENCY OF RADAR BLOW DOWN TAKE PLACE 25 SEC

24. WHAT IS THE DURATION OF RADAR BLOW DOWN 2.6 SEC

FORCED AIR SYSTEM


01. WHICH FILTERS ARE FITTED IN CLEAN ROOM WALLS INERTIAL AIR FILTERS

02. WHICH MOTOR REMOVE THE DIRT FROM INERTIAL FILTER INERTIAL FILTER BLOWER MOTOR

03. TO WHICH MACHINE THE TRACTION MOTOR BLOWERS ARE COUPLED AUX GEN

04. WHICH BLOWER COOLS TA RECTIFIERS TA BLOWER

05. WHICH BLOWER GIVES AIR TO COMPRESSOR TM BLOWER

06. WHICH BLOWER GIVES AIR TO PRESSURISE ECC TM BLOWER

07. WHICH BLOWER GIVES AIR TO TA ROOM ASPIRATOR TM BLOWER

08. FROM WHERE TURBO TAKES AIR CLEAN ROOM

09. WHAT IS THE ANOTHER NAME OF TA ROOM CLEAN ROOM

10. WHICH BLOWER COOLS CROW BAR MODULES IN TCC TCC ELECTRONIC BLOWER

11. FROM WHICH TCC ELECTRONIC BLOWER IS TAKING AIR CLEAN ROOM

12. WHICH MACHINE GIVE POWER SUPPLY TO TCC ELECTRONIC BLOWER MOTOR CA

13. WHICH COOLS GTOS IN TCC TCC BLOWER

14. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM STATIC PRESSURE OF ECC1 13 MM WATER

15. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM STATIC PRESSURE OF ECC3 CABINET 2.6 MM WATER

COOLING SYSTEM


01. HOW MANY WATER PUMPS ARE IN HHP LOCO 2

02. HOW MANY WATER TEMPERATURE SENSORS ARE IN HHP LOCO 2

03. IN WHICH WATER PIPE LINE ETP SENSORS ARE FITTED LUBE OIL COOLER TO WATER PUMP

04. WHAT IS THE FULL FORM OF ETP ENGINE TEMPERATURE PROBE

05. IF BOTH ETP FAILS WHAT IS THE EFFECT IN LOCO NO LOAD

06. HOW MANY RADIATORS ARE IN HHP LOCO 2

07. HOW MANY RADIATOR CORES ARE IN ONE RADIATOR 2

08. HOW MANY RADIATOR FANS ARE IN HHP LOCO 2

09. HOW MANY BLADES IN A FAN 8

10. WHAT IS THE DIAMETER OF COOLING FAN IN WDP4 LOCO 52 INCH

11. WHAT IS THE WORKING TEMPERATURE RANGE OF COOLING WATER SYSTEM 79-85 DEG C

12. HOW MANY FAN CONTACTORS ARE IN COOLING WATER SYSTEM IN HHP LOCO 6

13. WHAT IS THE OPENING PRESSURE OF PRESSURE CAP IN COOLING WATER system 20PSI 14. WHICH EQUIPMENT SENSE THE WATER LEVEL IN COOLING WATER SYSTEM ELWS

15. WHICH ARE THE TWO SPEED IN WHICH RADIATOR FANS RUNS HALF ,FULL

16. WHICH CONTACTOR PICKS UP FOR SLOW SPEED FCS

17. WHICH CONTACTORS ARE PICKED UP IN FULL SPEED FCFXA. FCFX B

FUEL OIL SYSTEM


01. WHAT TYPE OF FUEL PUMP USED IN FUEL OIL SYSTEM POSITIVE DISPLACEMENT GEAR TYPE

02. WHAT IS THE TYPE OF FUEL PUMP MOTOR USED VERTICAL PUMP WITH 3 PHASE AC MOTOR

03. WHEN WILL FUEL PUMP MOTOR START ROTATE PRIME /START SWITCH IN PRIME POSITION

04. WHICH RELAY GIVE SUPPLY TO FUEL PUMP MOTOR FPR

05. WHAT IS THE SETTING OF FUEL BYPASS VALVE 30 PSI

06. AT WHAT PRESSURE THE FUEL BYPASS GAUGE NEEDLE TOUCHES YELLOW ZONE 20 PSI

07. HOW MANY FUEL SIGHT GLASSES IN FUEL OIL SYSTEM 2

08. WHAT IS THE FUEL TANK CAPACITY IN HHP LOCO 6000 LITRE

LUBE OIL SYSTEM


01. WHAT IS THE TYPE OF LUBE OIL PUMP POSITIVE DISPLACEMENT GEAR TYPE

02. WHICH ARE THE PUMPS WORKS IN LUBE OIL SYSTEM LUBE OIL AND SCAVENGING PUMP

03. WHICH GEAR DRIVE LUBE OIL PUMPS ACCESSORY DRIVE GEAR TRAIN.

04. AT WHAT TEMPERATURE, THE LUBE OIL PRESSURE TO BE CHECKED ABOVE 66 DEG C

05. WHAT IS THE FILTER TANK PRESSURE AT IDLE FOR FILTER REPLACEMENT IN LUBE OIL SYSTEM. 7 PSI

06. AT WHAT LUBE OIL TEMPERATURE, THE HOT OIL DETECTOR VALVE OPEN TO SHUT DOWN ENGINE 124 DEG C

07. WHICH MOTOR LUBRICATE TURBO BEFORE ENGINE CRANKING TLPM

08. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM COOLING DOWN TIME OF TURBO AFTER ENGINE SHUT DOWN 35 MIN

09. WHAT IS THE OIL PAN CAPACITY OF HHP ENGINE 950 LITRE

HHP LOCOMOTIVES

1. What is the Horse power of WDP4D Locomotives.A. 3000 HPB. 3500 HPC. 4000 HPD. 4500 HP

2. What is the compression ratio of WDP4D LocomotivesA. 16:1B. 14:1C. 13:1D. 15:1

3. Which type of diesel engine is fitted in HHP LocomotiveA. Four strokeB. Three strokeC. One strokeD. Two stroke

4. TM pinion and bull gear ratio in WDP4 D Loco isA. 17:90B. 17:77C. 65:18D. 90:35

5. Maximum speed of WDP4 D locomotive is A. 130 KmphB. 160 KmphC. 150 KmphD. 180 Kmph

6. What is the fuel tank capacity in WDP4 D locomotiveA. 5000 LitterB. 6000 LitterC. 4000 LitterD. None of these

7. Transmission in WDP4 D locomotive isA. AC-DCB. AC-ACC. DC-DCD. DC-AC

8. Total weight of WDP4 D loco isA. 115.8 TonesB. 119.8 TonesC. 121.8 TonesD. 123.0 Tones

9. Total weight of WDG4 loco isA. 115 TonesB. 119 TonesC. 126 TonesD. 123 Tones

10. What is the maximum speed of the WDG 4 locomotiveA. 150 KmphB. 140 KmphC. 120 KmphD. 100 Kmph

11. What is the fuel tank capacity of WDG4 LocomotiveA. 5000 LitersB. 6000 LitersC. 4000 LitersD. 7000 Liters

12. Length of WDG4 loco over buffer isA. 19964 mmB. 23000 mmC. 20000 mmD. 21000 mm

13. Length of WDP4D loco over buffer isA. 19964 mmB. 23000 mmC. 20000 mmD. 21000 mm

14. Maximum Tractive effort of WDG4 loco isA. 41 TonesB. 53TonesC. 50 TonesD.123.0 Tones

15. MaximumTractive effort of WDP4D loco isA. 41 TonesB. 53TonesC. 50 TonesD. 123.0 Tones

16. Which type of diesel engine model is fitted in HHP locomotiveA. ALCO-251B. GT46C. 710 G3BD. GT 46MAC

17. How many cylinders are used in HHP Loco EngineA. 16 NosB. 08 NosC. 12 NosD. 14 Nos

18. Which type of Traction Motors fitted in HHP LOCO?A. 3-Phase AC MotorsB. DC Séries MotorsC. Both A & BD. None of these

19. Which type of Main Generator fitted in HHP LOCO?A. DC GeneratorB. 3 phase AlternatorC. Both A & BD. None of these

20. Main role of Traction Inverters in HHP LOCO?A. To control 3-Phase AC Induction MotorsB. To control 3 phase AlternatorC. Both A & BD. None of these

21. Traction Inverters converts in HHP Loco?A. DC power into 3 phase AC power for variable frequencyB. AC power into 3 phase AC powerC. Both A & BD. None of these

22. How much Traction Inverters in HHP LOCO (In Medha make Traction System)A. 6B. 5C. 4D. 3

23. How much Traction Inverters in HHP LOCO (In EMD make Traction System)A. 6B. 2C. 4D. 3

24. How much Traction Inverters in HHP LOCO (In SIEMENS make Traction System)A. 6B. 2C. 4D. 3

25. In HHP Loco LCC, Traction Computer, DCL in house of (In EMD make Traction System:).A. ECC1B. ECC2C. TCCD. ECC3

26. In HHP Loco LCC, Traction Computer, DCL in house of ( In SIEMENS make Traction System)A. ECC1B. ECC2C. TCCD. ECC3

27. In HHP Loco , Traction Computer, DCL in house of (In Medha make Traction System:).A.ECC1B. ECC2C. TCCD. ECC3

28. In HHP Loco, LCC in house of ( In Medha make Traction System:).A.ECC1B. ECC2C. TCCD. ECC3

29. How much phase module in HHP Loco (In Medha make Traction System)A. 18B. 6C.12D. None of these

30. How much phase module in HHP Loco (In EMD make Traction System)A. 18B. 6C. 12D. None of these

31. How much phase module in HHP Loco (In Siemens make Traction System)A. 18B. 6C. 12D. None of these

32. Which type of IGBT Device used in HHP loco (In Medha make Traction System)A. ABB make,V =6.5 KV, I=600Amps. 2 devices/phase moduleB. Siemens make, V =6.5 KV, I=600Amps. 6 devices/phase moduleC. Mitsubishi make, V =4.5 KV, I=1200Amps, 4 devices /phase moduleD. None of these

33. Which type of IGBT Device used in HHP loco (In SIEMENS make Traction System)A. ABB make,V =6.5 KV, I=600Amps. 2 devices/phase moduleB. Siemens make, V =6.5 KV, I=600Amps. 6 devices/phase module-C. Mitsubishi make, V =4.5 KV, I=1200Amps, 4 devices /phase moduleD. None of these

34. Which type of IGBT Device used in HHP loco (In EMD make Traction System)A. ABB make,V =6.5 KV, I=600Amps. 2 devices/phase moduleB. Siemens make, V =6.5 KV, I=600Amps. 6 devices/phase moduleC. Mitsubishi make, V =4.5 KV, I=1200Amps, 4 devices/phase moduleD. None of these

35. Input voltage & current of TCC is.A. 620 -2600 V DC, max 1200 A DCB. 0 V AC--- 2000 V, max 1100 A ACC. 520 -2600 V DC, max 1100 A DCD. None of these

36. Output voltage & current of TCC is.A. 620 -2600 V DC, max 1200 A DCB. 0 V AC- 2000 V, max 1100 A ACC. 520 -2600 V DC, max 1100 A DCD. None of these

37. Weight of TCC is.A. 2400KgB. 2000KgC. 1500KgD. None of these

38. Outer Dimension (lxbxh) of TCC is.A. 1833x2140x1450mmB. 1530x2140x1450mmC. 2133x2140x1450mmD. None of these

39. Current rating of COMPUTER CONTROL, AC CONTROL, AIR DRYER, Circuit breaker in HHP loco isA. 10 AmpB. 15 AmpC. 20 AmpD. 25 Amp

40. Current rating of FUEL PUMP, TURBO, LIGHT, GOV. BOOSTER PUMP, LOCAL CONTROL, TCC BLOWER, FILTER BLOWER circuit breaker in HHP loco isA. 30 AmpB. 15 AmpC. 20 AmpD. 25 Amp

41. Current rating of Head Light circuit breaker in HHP loco isA. 10 AmpB. 15 AmpC. 20 AmpD. 35 Amp

42. Current rating of CONTROL circuit breaker in HHP loco isA. 40 AmpB. 50 AmpC. 90 AmpD. 35 Amp

43. Current rating of GEN FIELD circuit breaker in HHP loco isA. 40 AmpB. 50 AmpC. 90 AmpD. 35 Amp

44. Current rating of TCC1 Computer, TCC2 Computer, AUX.GEN FEEDBACK, AUX.GEN FIELD circuit breaker in HHP loco isA. 10 AmpB. 20 AmpC. 30 AmpD. 35 Amp

45. Current rating of TCC1-TCC2 BLOWER circuit breaker in HHP loco isA. 10 AmpB. 50 AmpC. 30 AmpD. 35 Amp

46. Current rating of DCL Control, EVENT RECORDER circuit breaker in HHP loco isA. 03 AmpB. 5 AmpC. 10 AmpD. 15 Amp

47. How much DC LINK switch gears in HHP LOCO?A. 6B. 5C. 4D. 3

48. Traction Control Cabinet (TCC) consists ofA. Six Traction Computers, 6 DCL switch gearsB. 6 IGBT based Inverters, DC link Capacitors and Crow bar circuitC. Both A & BD. None of these

49. TCC converts during dynamic brake. In HHP Loco?A. DC power into 3 phase AC powerB. 3 phase AC power into DC powerC. Both A & BD. None of these

50. In HHP Locos ECC-2 are located inA. Driver cabinB. Under TruckC. Near Radiator roomD. None of these

51. In HHP Locos STA & ST Contactors are located inA. ECC-1B. ECC-2C. ECC-3D. ECC-4

52. In HHP Locos AGAI &AGAV Sensors are located inA. ECC-1B. ECC-2C. ECC-3D. ECC-4

53. In HHP Locos Battery charger & Aux Gen CB are located inA. ECC-1B. ECC-2C. ECC-3D. ECC-4

54. WDP4D Locos, ECC2 same asA. WDP4B. WDG4C. WDP4BD. All of above

55. In WDP4/WDP4B Locos ECC-1 are located inA. Driver cabinB. Near Radiator roomC. Under TruckD. None of these

56. In WDP4/WDP4B Locos ECC-3 are located inA. Driver cabinB. Near Radiator roomC. Under TruckD. None of thèse

57. ………………..type of speedometer is available onWDG4.A. MechanicalB. ElectricalC. radar sensorD. Electronic

58. How many Power Contactors are available in WDG4 Locomotive?A.8B.9C.0D.6

59. In WDG4 loco compressor is cooled byA. NatureB. AirC. OilD. Water

60. In WDG4 turbo is cooled byA. NatureB. AirC. OilD. Water

61. In WDG4 power contactors are replaced withA. FS contactorB. only relaysC. BKT/REVD. DC Link

62. In WDG4 when driver fails to acknowledge the alerter it gives audio warning for ….sec.A. 10B. 17C. 25D. 8

63. For quick charging of BP in WDG4 …………..is used.A. Foot pedalB. A9 releaseC. SP1/SP2D .None of these

64. In WDG4 hot oil detector is set at….degrees centigradeA.126B. 100C.150D .200

65. Blended brake is mixture ofA. Vacuum +AirB. Dynamic +LocoC. Formation +Dynamic+ locoD. Formation +Loco

66. In WDP4 when the loco is moving in opposite direction to the reverser position……….willhappen soon the speed increases to 5 kmphA. Dynamic brake come into actionB. alerter will come into functionC. power ground will take placeD. Loco will shutdown

67. The only loco provided with two dipstick gauges to measure lube oil isA. WDM2B. WDP4C. WDG4D .WDG3A

68. WDG4 engine cylinders are cooled byA. WaterB. oil and waterC. super charged air and waterD. air conditioning

69. What is the lube oil SUMP capacity of WDP4 loco?A. 1073 LitersB. 1100 LitersC. 950 LitersD. 910 Liters

70. What is the full speed RPM of the HHP locomotive engineA. 1000 RPMB. 904 RPMC. 900 RPMD. 950 RPM

71. What is the IDLE speed RPM of the HHP locomotive engineA. 300 RPMB. 200 RPMC. 269 RPMD. 904 RPM

72. What is the low IDLE speed RPM of the HHP locomotive engineA. 300 RPMB. 200 RPMC. 269 RPMD 904 RPM

73. What is the lube oil SUMP capacity of WDG4 loco?A. 1000 LitersB. 1100 LitersC. 1457 LitersD. 910 Liters

74. What is the coolent water capacity in the HHP locomotiveA. 1200 LitersB. 1100 LitersC. 1045 LitersD. 1145 Liters

75. Capacity of sand box in the WDG 4 locomotiveA.1 Ft3/ boxB. 2 Ft3/ boxC. 1.5 Ft3/ boxD. 3 Ft3/ box

76. Capacity of sand box in the WDP 4 locomotiveA. 1.5 Ft3/ boxB. 02 Ft3/ boxC. 01 Ft3/ boxD. 3 Ft3/ box

77. What is the minimum continues speed of the WDG4 locomotiveA. 21.5 KmphB. 22.5 KmphC. 20.5 KmphD. 23.5 Kmph

78. Which type of bogie fitted in the HHP locomotiveA. Single suspensionB. Double suspensionC. Triple suspensionD. None of these

79. In the fuel oil system which type of injectors provided in HHP locomotiveA. Unit injectorsB. Injectors with HP lineC. Injector with camD. None of these

80. In the two stroke engine the cylinder head of the engine equipped withA. Inlet & Exhaust valvesB. Only Inlet valvesC. Only Exhaust valvesD. None of these

81. In the HHP locomotive the Turbo charger is driven byA. Exhaust GasB. Gear TrainC. Gear Train & Exhaust gasD. None of these

82. In the WDP 4 & WDG4 locomotive engine how many lube oil pumps usedA. OneB. TwoC. ThreeD. Four

83. In the HHP locomotive, the air compressor is........A. Air cooledB. Water cooledC. Oil cooledD. None of these

84. In the WDP 4 & WDG 4 locomotive the coolant used in compressor isA. Engine coolantB. Compressor coolantC. Raw waterD. None of these

85. Air compressor lube oil sump capacity isA.10 LitersB.12 LitersC.15 LitersD.23 Liters

86. Air compressor in the HHP locomotive isA. Single stageB. Two stageC. Three stageD. Four stage

87. How many brake cylinders are used per bogieA. 06 NosB. 04 NosC. 02 NosD. 05 Nos

88. Which type of bogie is used in HHP locomotiveA. Fabricated bogieB. Cast steelC. High tensile cast steelD. None of these

89. In HHP locomotive Air brake is controlled byA. MechanicallyB. ElectricallyC. ComputerD. None of these

90. Brake system in WDP4 &WDG4 loco isA. 28LAV-1B. 28LV-1C. CCB-KNORRD. None of these

91. In HHP locomotive the first schedule carried out afterA. One monthB. Three monthC. Four monthD. 15 Days

92. In WDP4/WDG4 when continuous wheel slip is experienced due to locked axleA. Isolate the defective TMB. Isolate the defective speed sensorC. Fail the loco immediatelyD. Isolate the defective truck

93. In WDP4/WDG4 loco if water pressure is lessA. LLOB tripsB. Low water pressure button will tripC. Crank case pressure button will tripD. Both A and B

94. In WDP4/WDG4 loco while conducting air brake self test on working control stand.A. A9 handle should be kept in run positionB. SA handle should be kept in release positionC. LT switch in trail positionD. Both A and B

95. In WDP4/WDG4 loco while conducting air brake self test in working control standA. A9 handle should be kept in FSB. SA9 should be kept in releaseC. Both a and bD. LT switch in Trail

96. In WDP4/WDG4 loco while conducting BP leakage test L/T switch should be kept inA. Lead positionB. Trail positionC. TEST positionD. Helper

97. In WDP4/WDG4 loco Loadmeter will not respond ifA. GFB tripsB. AGFB tripsC. Both A & BD. MAB trips

98. In WDP4/WDG4 loco when PCS is knocked outA. MAB breaker should be recycledB. TCC breaker should be recycledC. Air drier breakerD. Both A and B

99. In WDP4/WDG4 loco while conducting BP leakage test. L/T switch should be kept inA. LeadB. TrailC. HelperD. Test

100. In WDP4/WDG4 loco speed sensor should be isolated whenA. False locked axle indicationB.Traction motor is burnt experiencedC. Axle locked conditionD. Both A and B

101. In WDP4/WDG4 loco if LLOB is in tripped position during cranking engine willA. CrankB. Not FireC. Not holdD. Not crank

102. In WDP4 /WDG4 loco before conducting air brake self testA. Recycle MABB. Recycle TCC1 and TCC2C. Recycle Air drier breaker.D. Both A & B

103. Location of EST in WDG4 loco is inA. Control standB. control panelC. Generator roomD. Accessories room

104. In WDG4 loco LLOB is located inA. Accessories roomB. Compressor roomC. Engine power take off endD. ECC3

105. In WDP4/WDG4 loco during false locked axle indicationA. Isolate the defective truckB. Isolate the defective speed sensorC. Isolate the defective TMD. Fail the loco

106. In WDP4/WDG4 dead loco for quick release of loco brakes open one sideA. MR equalising cockB. BC equalising cockC. BP equalising pipeD. Both A & B

107. Location of BS in WDG4 Loco isA. On foot plateB. In Accessories roomC. In LP's cabD. In ECC 3

108. In WDP4/WDG4 Loco when lube oil temperature exceeds 124 degree centigrade.A. Hot oil detector operatesB. LLOB operatesC. OSTA tripsD. Both A and B

109. In WDP4/WDG4 banker loco working control stand A9 should be kept inA. FS positionB. Run positionC. Release positionD. Emergency position

110. In WDP4/WDG4 loco engine should not be cranked whenA. Low water button is trippedB. crank case pressure button is trippedC. LLOB is in trippedD. OSTA is tripped

111. In WDP4/WDG4 banker loco working CS, L/T switch should be kept inA. LeadB. TrailC. HLPRD. Test

112. In WDP4/WDG4 loco defective speed sensor should be isolated ifA. False locked axle indicationB. GR trips more than 3 times within experienced 10 minutesC. Any one TM is defectiveD. Crow bar fires

113. Oil visibilty in bye pass sight glass indicates thatA. Primary filter is choked.B. Spin on filter choked.C. Lube oil filter choked.D. Lube oil strainer choked.

114. In WDP4/WDG4 loco choking of fuel oil primary filter is indicated byA. Filter condition guage.B. Oil visibility in bye pass sight glass.C. Both A & BD. Oil visibility in sight glass near to engine block

115. WDP4/WDG4 MU trailing loco L/T switches in both control stand should be kept inA. LeadB. TrailC. testD. Helper

116. Oil lubricated TM gear case is provided inA. WDM 2B. WDM 3DC. WDG 3AD. WDP4

117. If AGFB tripped in WDP4/WDG4 locosA. Battery will dischargeB. Load meter will not respondC. Both A and BD Engine will shut down

118. Firing order of HHP LocoA.1,8,9,16,3,6,11,14,4,5,12,13,2,7,10,15B. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15,16C. 1,3,5,7,9,11,13,15,16,2,4,6,8,10,12,14D. None of these

119. Model of Main Generator assembly in WDG4 LocoA.TA17-CA6BB. 5A-8147C. Both A & BD None of these

120. Model of AC AUX. Generator in WDG4 LocoA.TA17-CA6BB. 5A-8147C. Both A & BD. None of these

121. Model of Traction Motor in WDG4 LocoA.TA17-CA6BB. 5A-8147C. TB26221D None of these

122. Speed of Traction Motor in WDG4 LocoA. 3220 RPMB. 2000 RPMC. 904 RPMD None of these

123. Horse Power of Traction Motor in WDG4 LocoA. 500KWB. 600KWC. 1430KWD None of these

124. In WDG4 Loco Traction Motor is……A. Force air ventilated cooledB. Oil cooledC. Water cooledD. None of these

125. Nominal AC Aux. Generator Voltage in WDG4 LocoA. 64VDCB. 55V ACC. 74VDCD. None of these

126. Rectified Voltage of AC Aux. Generator in WDG4 LocoA. 64VDCB. 55V ACC. 74VDCD. None of these

127. Max Power output of AC Aux. Generator in WDG4 LocoA. 18KWB. 25KWC. 20KWD. None of these

128. Total nos. of Batteries in WDG4 Loco Lead acid typeA. 10B. 02C. 08D. None of these

129. Total nos of cell of Batteries in WDG4 Loco (Lead acid type)A. 32B. 50C. 64D. None of these

130. Total nos of cell of Batteries in WDP4 Loco (Ni-Cadmium type)A. 32B. 50C. 64D. None of these

131. Voltage of Battery Cell in WDP4 Loco (Ni-Cadmium type)A. 1.5VB. 2.1VC. 2.5VD. None of these

132. Voltage of Battery Cell in WDG4 Loco (Lead acid type)A. 1.5VB. 2.1VC. 2.5VD. None of these

133. Total Voltage of Batteries in WDG4 Loco (Lead acid type)A. 68VB. 75VC. 72VD. None of these

134. Total Voltage of Batteries in WDP4 Loco (Ni-Cadmium type)A. 68VB. 75VC. 72VD. None of these

135. Total nos of Batteries in WDP4 Loco (Ni-Cadmium type)A. 10B. 02C. 08D. None of these

136. Total nos of Cylinder of Air Compressor in WDG4 LocoA. 06B. 03C. 04D. None of these

137. Capacity of lube oil of Air Compressor in WDG4 LocoA. 9.98LitterB.12 LitterC.06 LitterD. None of these

138. Model of WDG4. LocoA. GT46MACB. GT46PACC. Both A & BD. None of these

139. Model of WDP4. LocoA. GT46MACB. GT46PACC. Both A & BD. None of these

140. Nos of Axles in WDP4 &WDG4 LocosA.06B.04C.08D. None of these

141. How many Traction Motors in WDP4 LocosA.06B.04C.08D. None of these

142. In WDP4 Locos Traction Motor fitted onA. Axles no.1, 2 & 5, 6B. All AxlesC. Axles no.1, 2 & 3, 4D. None of these

143. In WDP4 Locos Engine starting switch is locatedA. ECPB. Engine roomC. Control standD. None of these

144. In WDG4 Locos Engine starting switch is locatedA. ECPB. Engine roomC. Control standD. None of these

145. In WDG4 Locos RADAR is locatedA. Between Rear bogie & Fuel tankB. Engine roomC. Between Front bogie & Fuel tank-D. None of these

146. In WDP4 Locos RADAR is locatedA. Between Rear bogie & Fuel tankB. Engine roomC. Between Front bogie & Fuel tankD. None of these

147. Blended brake, Low water level switch, Temperature gauge & color code are provided inA. WDP4B. WDG4C. Both A & BD. None of these

148. Starting Tractive effort of WDG4 Loco isA. 540KNB. 270KNC. 400KND. 200KN

149. Starting Tractive effort of WDP4 Loco isA. 540KNB. 270KNC. 400KND. 200KN

150. Max. Continuous Tractive effort of WDP4 Loco isA. 540KNB. 270KNC. 400KND. 200KN

151. Max. Continuous Tractive effort of WDG4 Loco isA. 540KNB. 270KNC. 400KND. 200KN

152. Max. Dynamic Tractive effort (Speed 40 KMPH to 0) of WDG4 Loco isA. 540KNB. 270KNC. 400KND. 200KN

153. Max. Dynamic Tractive effort (Speed 68 KMPH to 1) of WDP4 Loco isA. 540KNB. 270KNC. 160KND. 200KN

154. Dead engine cut-off cock & C3W Distributor valve in WDP4/WDG4 Locos are located inA. Nose compartmentB. Driver CabinC. Engine compartmentD. Radiator compartment

155. Lead/Trail Air Brake Set-up Switch mounts onA. the lower right corner of the air brake controllerB. Nose compartmentC. Engine compartmentD Radiator compartment

156. How many braking position of A-9 valve have.A. 05 breaking positionB. 04 breaking positionC. 03 breaking positionD. 01 breaking position

157. How many braking position of SA-9 valve have..A. 03 positionB. 02 positionC. 05 positionD. 01 position

158. In minimum reduction position of A-9 brake valve BP should drop up to (PSI)...A. 0 to3 PSIB. 4 to 7 PSIC. 8 to 11 PSID. 12 to 15 PSI

159. In WDG 4 if false locked wheel indication is experiencedA. Isolate defective sensorB. Isolate defective truckC. Isolate defective TMD. Fail the loco

160. In WDP4/WDG4 if GR (power) trips continuously three times within 10 minutesA. Truck isolation is to be doneB. Defective TM is to be isolatedC. Defective speed sensor is to be isolatedD. Fail the Loco

161. In WDP4/WDG4 engine cranking but not starting due toA. EPD TrippedB. Governor not advancing fuel racksC. No fuel reaching in the cylindersD. Any one of above

162. In WDP4/WDG4 thick black smoke and poor hauling due toA. Low fuel oil pressure & Low booster air pressureB. Faulty turboC. Faulty injectors.D. Any one of above

163. Temperatures of Engine exhaust gas reach up toA. 538°CB. 438°CC. 338°CD. None of these

164. Main parts of KNORR/NYAB CCB 1.5 Brake system areA. VCU & CRUB. PCU & KE ValveC. BVCD. All of above

165. Total no. of Keys on EM2000 Display Panel areA. 8B. 16C.10D.12

166. No. of Radiator fan in WDP4 &WDG4 LocosA. 02B. 01C. 03D. None of these

167. No. of Grid Blower Motors in WDP4 &WDG4 LocosA. 04B. 02C. 03D. None of these

168. No. of Brake blocks in HHP LocosA. 24B. 12C. 08D. None of these

169. When Computer controlled Breaker is recycled the disabled speed sensor.A. Remain DisabledB. Gets enabled but not to be disabled againC. Remain disabled but to be enabledD. Get enabled automatically & has to be disabled

170. Brake warning IndicationA. Excessive Main AlternatorB. Excessive Breaking current in DBC. Excessive Air BreakingD. Excessive Main Generator Current

171. When Reversor is thrown in forward direction, Sanders ofA. No (3) & (6) only workB. All sanders workC. sanders works irrespective of ReversorD. No (1) & (4) wheels only work

172. Battery charger rectifies AC to DC ofA. Aux gen outputB. Companion Alternator outputC. Main Alternator outputD. None of the above

173. B.P continuity not getting to train from a working WDG4 Loco due toA. Additional BP COC closed in train endB. BP angle cock defectiveC. In train end no BP pressure in locoD. All of the above

174. On run GR Trip then the engineA. Will shut - downB. Comes to idleC. No effect on engineD. No effect on loco

175. What is the type of lubrication system being used in diesel locoA. Gravity lubricationB. Force Feed lubricationC. Force Feed & splash lubricationD. Capillary lubrication

176. To check engine sump level, engine should be in conditionA. Shout – downB. 4th NotchC. IdleD. 2nd Notch

177. Each Traction Motor provided withA. One speed sensorB. One speed sensor & one temp sensorC. One temp sensorD. Two speed sensor

178. Diameter of new wheels in WDP4 locos isA. 1090mmB. 1092mmC. 1100mmD. 1080mm

179. When there is communication link failure and micro air breaker is active, the loco will workA. As lead inB. Only in trail modeC. In both modesD. In helper mode

180. To recover PCS, it is compulsory to keepA. Both throttle handle in idleB. Any one throttle handles in idleC. Leading control stand throttle handle in idleD. Leading throttle handle in idle & reversor in neutral

181. The companion alternator runs at the same speed asA. Engine rpmB. Aux gen rpmC. Turbo rpmD. Locomotive rpm

182. MR Pressure dropping on run due toA. Air dryer defectiveB. Auto drain valve malfunctioningC. Break cylinder pipe damagedD. All of above

183. WDP4/WDG4 Hand break applies on wheelsA. R4, R5B. R4, L4C. R4, R6D. L4, L5

184. Break cylinder pressure in WDP4/WDG4A. 5.2 kg /sq.cmB. 4.8 kg /sq.cmC. 3.8 kg /sq.cmD. 3.5 kg /sq.cm

185. MR pressure not building up due toA. MR EQ COC in open conditionB. Pipe link chocked in MRPT systemC. Defective MVCCD. All of above

186. What is the effect of auto flasher operationA. Engine comes to idleB. auto flasher indicationC. BuzzerD. All of above

187. ER/BP not creatingA. LT switch defectiveB. Air break failureC. Penalty not resetD. All of above

188. Lube oil pumps provided In HHPA. Scavenging pumpB. Piston cooling pump & main lube oil pumpC. Turbo lube pumpD. All of above

189. Radiator fan controlled byA. EM2000B. TCCC. EM2000 & TCCD. None of these

190. Load demand of the traction motor is met byA. EM2000B. TCCC. EM2000 & TCCD. None of these

191. Total No. of After coolers inWDP4/WDG4A.4B.3C.2D.5

192. Total no. of Water expansion tanks inWDP4/WDG4A.1B.2C.3D.4

193. In WDP4/WDG4 BA consists of two zonesA. Green zone & red zoneB. Green zone & yellow zoneC. yellow zone & red zoneD. None of these

194. In WDP4/WDG4 slipped pinion will be indicates clearly byA. Loco not movingB. Train not hauling loadsC. High motor rpm in computer feedbackD. None of these

195. Head light rating in WDP4/WDG4 loco isA. 100W 32VB. 200W 30VC. 250W 32VD.250W 34V

196. Governor is used in HHP LocoA. GE GovernorB. WW GovernorC. Both (A) & (B)D. None of these

197. Type of cooling water pump used in WDP4/WDG4 LocomotivesA. CentrifugalB. ReciprocatingC. Positive displacementD. None of these

198. OSTA in WDP4/WDG4 trip at minimumA.960RPMB. 1000RPMC. 1020D. None of these

199. Flasher light working voltageA. 72VB. 12VC. 24VD. None of these

200. Nos of Main bearings available in WDP4 LocomotivesA. 12B. 14C. 10D. None of these

Answer Sheet

Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer

1 D 51 B 101 D 151 C

2 A 52 B 102 A 152 B

3 D 53 B 103 D 153 C

4 B 54 D 104 A 154 A

5 A 55 A 105 B 155 A

6 A 56 B 106 C 156 A

7 B 57 C 107 A 157 A

8 D 58 C 108 D 158 B

9 C 59 D 109 A 159 A

10 C 60 C 110 B 160 A

11 B 61 D 111 C 161 D

12 A 62 B 112 A 162 D

13 B 63 B 113 B 163 A

14 B 64 A 114 D 164 D

15 A 65 C 115 B 165 B

16 C 66 A 116 D 166 A

17 A 67 B 117 C 167 B

18 A 68 C 118 A 168 B

19 B 69 C 119 A 169 D

20 A 70 B 120 B 170 B

21 A 71 C 121 C 171 D

22 A 72 B 122 A 172 A

23 B 73 C 123 A 173 D

24 B 74 C 124 A 174 B

25 A 75 C 125 B 175 D

26 C 76 C 126 C 176 C

27 C 77 B 127 A 177 B

28 A 78 B 128 B 178 B

29 A 79 A 129 A 179 B

30 C 80 C 130 B 180 D

31 C 81 C 131 A 181 A

32 A 82 D 132 B 182 D

33 A 83 B 133 A 183 A

34 C 84 A 134 B 184 A

35 A 85 A 135 A 185 D

36 B 86 B 136 B 186 D

37 A 87 B 137 A 187 D

38 A 88 C 138 A 188 D

39 B 89 C 139 B 189 A

40 A 90 C 140 A 190 B

41 D 91 B 141 B 191 C

42 A 92 C 142 A 192 A

43 C 93 D 143 A 193 A

44 A 94 D 144 B 194 C

45 C 95 B 145 C 195 C

46 A 96 C 146 A 196 B

47 A 97 C 147 A 197 A

48 C 98 A 148 A 198 A

49 B 99 D 149 B 199 B

50 B 100 A 150 D 200 C

Diesel Loco Bits

AIR BRAKE SYSTEM

1) Which pressure is adjusted by limiting valve _______(Synchronization pressure)2) PATB buzzer blows when _______ (AFI needle is above 80)3) Unit of Air Flow Indicator (AFI) is _______( Wagon reading)4) How many position setting of C3 W distributor valve has _________( Two position setting)5) How many braking position of A-9 valve have.._______( . 04 breaking position)6) How many braking position of SA-9 valve have. ______(02 position)7) Air supply for horn is from.. _______( MR-1 tank)8) Overcharging (In air brake system) feature is applied by which air brake valve _______( C2-W

relay valve)9) Duplex check valve operates when MR pressure reaches at pressure_____ kg/cm2(5)10) R-6 relay valve is fitted in loco for __________( Quick working of AFMV valve) 11) In automatic switching on flasher light modification of locos the TDR (time delay relay) is set

at..._____( 60 sec)12) The standard Colour of humidity indicator in air dryer is ______( Blue)13) Air dryer starts functioning, when MR pressure reaches to _______( 100 PSI)14) Thread diameter of BP & FP angle cocks (in inch) is..._______( 1¼ “)15) MR safety valve is set at pressure (in kg/cm2) ________( Above 10.5 kg/cm2) 16) When 7.5-mm dia hole palm end is fitted in BP pipe, the change in BP pressure should not fall

below ________ in one minute. (4.0 kg/cm2)17) Auto drain valve blows during _______( Unloading of compressor) 18) Feed valve is charged from _______( MR-1 tank) 19) In case of pure air brake loco with load at the time of train parting, which safety valve is

operates and brings the loco to idle ___________( H-5 relay valve)20) When driver is working from right control stand and A-9 is applied from left control stand in

emergency position, what will happen?_______( Loco will come to idle)21) In minimum reduction position of A-9 brake valve BP should drop upto (PSI).__( 4 to 7 PSI)22) Additional C-2 relay valve is used in air brake system for ______(. BP pipe charging)23) How many numbers of positions MU2B valve have _______( Two positions) 24) In WDM2 locos, how many horns are fitted? _______(04 nos.)25) Calibration of Air Flow measuring valve is adjusted at which reading___(100 wagon reading)26) Palm gauges (Orifice test gauge) has the hole size of (in mm)______(7.5 mm)27) In case BP pressure is fluctuating the possible defect is in which valve_______(. Add C2 relay

valve is defective)28) Exhaust choke size of C-2 relay valve is (in mm)....----( 5.0 mm)29) Exhaust choke size of additional C-2 relay valve is (in mm).....____( 6.0 mm)30) When drying capacity of air dryer is reduced the colour of humidity indicator changes to-

________(White)31) Air supply to power contractor is from_____( MR-1)32) Wiper gets the air supply from......( . MR-1)33) In lead position of MU2B valve which ports dose not connect with each other____(13 & 30)34) On applying brake through A-9 valve, which port of F-1selector valve connect with each other

in synchronization braking________(4 & 16)35) In which position of A-9 brake valve its vent valve operates________( Emergency position)36) The governor of air compressor get supply from.____( . MR-1 pressure)37) To operate sander valve the air supply is received from_______( MR-1 pressure)

Mechanical Bits -ENGINE (POWER PACK)

1. During which stroke inlets valves opens_______(Suction)2. During which stroke both valves closed_____( Compression)3. In WDP-1 locos, how many thrust bearing are used?______( 1 Nos)4. The size of Engine Crank Pin is (in inch)______( 6.0”)5. Clearance between crankshaft journal & bearing is (in inch)......____( . .005” to .010”)6. Size of Main Bearing journals is (in inch).................( . 8.5”)7. How many cam shaft bushes are fitted in one 16 cylinder Block______(18)8. What is minimum dia clearance between cam shaft & cam Bush______(.005”)9. How many teeth are in split gear_______(36)10. During setting of cam gear timing which piston is kept at TDC______( R-1)11. How many cam segments are fitted in WDP-1 loco______(6)12. Main crankshaft vibration damper is fitted near which main bearings (in WDM-2)

locos______( No-1)13. Water pump is driven from________________(Extension shaft gear)14. Lube oil pump is driven from_________________( Extension shaft)15. In WDP-1 locos, main bearing elongation is________________( 040”)16. Honey combing is related with _________( Liner.)17. What is the maximum allowed deflection of main generator_____(± .0008”)18. Universal shaft is used to drive radiator fan because______(It is self align)19. GE Governor is operated___________( Hydraulically)20. TSC surging on higher notches is due to _____( Excess fuel rack,. Chocked air maize,

Less area of nozzle ring, Any of the above)21. Hammering sound is coming from engine is due to__________( Exhaust valve bend,

Fuel cam worn out, X-head roller worn out, Any of the above)22. Smoke is coming from SMOKE hole of cylinder Head indicates________( Injector seal

is not proper)23. Engine air inlet elbow bolt torque is done at_________(75 ft. lbs)24. Expresser foundation bolts is torque at value (ft. lbs.)_____( 450 ft. lbs)25. TSP treatment is done for__________( To remove scaling)26. When hot engine alarm is operated, the condition of loco comes to________( Run on

same speed)27. What is the unit of S.F.C. (Specific Fuel consumption)____( gm/hp/hr.)28. In yearly loco, pre priming break in filters are used_______( To arrest the foreign

material)29. The temperature difference between the two consecutive main bearings should not

exceed by____(10C)30. CCE motor giving thick black smoke is due to_____( Increase liner wear)31. Fuel test cock pressure is used for checking __________( Fuel pressure dropping)32. Exhaust gas temperature at ABB TSC inlet is __________(450C)33. Exhaust gas temperature at ALCO TSC inlet is _________( 590C)34. Which item wear is increases the copper content in lube oil______( X-head floating

bush wear)35. Split gear bolt torque is done at ……………..(300 ft. lbs)36. Engine crank case vacuum is not building up due to______( Linear chrome plating

worn out)37. Engine giving bluish smoke indicates________( Cylinder head valve guide clearance

more)38. White smoke given by engine is due to________( Cylinder head crack internally)39. Minimum RPM of ALCO engine with low idle feature is ______(350)40. What is the delivery of unmodified FIP on test bench at full______(350 CC)41. Lube oil high viscosity indicates_________( Mixing of carbon contents) 42. What is the cause of increase silicon in lube oil____________( Dust)

43. Cyl. Head hydraulic testing is done at____(5.0 kg/cm2)44. Extension shaft clearance limit is_______(.006”)45. In scavenging period burnt gases are pushed out by__________( Fresh air)46. During over lapping period inlet and exhaust valve remain in_____ position ( Open)47. Engine given thick black smoke due to____________( Low BAP)48. Crank pin condemning limit is_________(152.30 mm)49. M ain bearing general surface finish is_________________(25 RMS)50. C am shaft thrust is_______(.006” to .012”)51. Which item increases the sodium (Na) contains in lube oil___________( Mixing of

Water in lube oil)

Mechanical Bits-UNDER TRUCK

52. The main advantage of single stage suspension is_________( To lower the center of gravity)

53. The device used to transmit loco speed from wheels to the speedometer is called______________( Axle generator)

54. Traction motor load of is transferred on bogie frame through_____( Suspension nose pad)

55. Height of side buffer should be maintained between_______(1105 mm to 1030 mm)56. Buffer height can be adjusted by__________( Adding shims to load pads & side

bearers, Adding shims to spring seat)57. Amount of shims that could be added to centre pivot & side bearers to adjust side

buffer height______(12 mm)58. Amount of shims that could be added to spring seat to adjust side buffer height____(12

mm)59. Minimum distance between brake block & wheel in release position should be_____(10

mm)60. Service limit of wheel dia. of diesel locomotive (In goods service) is________ (1008

mm)61. For new set Gauge width of broad gauge loco should be______________(1596+- 0.5

mm)62. Cranks in the axle are detected by__________( Ultrasonic test)63. Nos. of pinion teeth in GE- 752 TM is_______________(18)64. Expanded from of TBU is__________( Tread brake unit)65. The limit of flat spot on wheel is___________(50 mm)66. If flat spot on wheel is exceeds 50 mm, then__________( Dressing is done before

turning)

Mechanical Bits -GM LOCOMOTIVE

1) Which type of diesel engine model is fitted in GM Locomotive _______ (710 G3B)2) W hat is the hours power of WDG4 locomotive ______ (4000 HP)3) What is the model designation of WDG4 locomotive ______ (GT46 MAC)4) Which type of diesel engine is fitted in GM locomotive _____ (Modified Two stroke)5) What is the compression ratio of the GM locomotive _______ (16:1)6) What is the full speed RPM of the GM locomotive Engine ______ (904 RPM)7) How much the minimum speed of the GM locomotive engine without LIR (low idle relay)

______ (269 RPM)8) How much the minimum speed of the GM locomotive engine with LIR ______ (200 RPM)9) What is the lube oil capacity in system of GM loco? ______ (950 Liters)10) What is the fuel tank capacity in the GM locomotive ______ ( 6000 Liters)11) What is the coolent water capacity in the GM Locomotive _____ (1045 Liters)12) Capacity of sand box in the WDG4 Locomotive _____ (15 Ft3/ box)

13) What is the minimum continues speed of the WDG4 Locomotive ______ (22.5 Kmph)14) What is the maximum speed of the WDG4 locomotive ______ (120 Kmph)15) Which type suspension of bogie fitted in the GM locomotive ______ (Double suspension)16) In the fuel oil system which type of injectors provided in the GM locomotive _______ (Unit

injectors)17) In the two stroke engine the cylinder head of the engine equipped with ______ (Only Exhaust

valves)18) In the GM locomotive the Turbo charger is driven by _______ (Gear Train & Exhaust gas)19) In the WDG4 locomotive engine how much lube oil pumps used ______ (Four)20) In the GM locomotive the air compressor is ______ (Water cooled )21) In the WDG 4 locomotive the coolant used in compressor is _____ (Engine coolant )22) Air compressor the lube oil sump capacity is _________(10 Liters )23) Air compressor in the GM locomotive is _____ (Two stage)24) How many brake cylinders are used per bogie _____ (04 Nos )25) Which type of bogie is used in GM locomotive _____ (High tensile cast steel )26) In GM locomotive Air brake is controlled by _______ (Computer)27) Air brake system in WDG4 loco is ______ (CCB-KNORR)28) In GM locomotive the first schedule carried out after _____ (Three month)29) TM pinion and bull gear ratio in WDG4 loco is _____ (17:90 )30) Total weight of WDG4 loco is _____ ( 129 Tones )

Precision Instruments, Tools and Gauges

01. The least count of a vernier outside micrometer is

a) 0.10mm

b) 0.01mm

c) 0.001mm

d) 0.0001mm [ c ]

02. On which part of the vernier height gauge, are the main scale division graduated

a) Vernier plate

b) Beam

c) Fine adjusting unit

d) Base [ b ]

03. While measuring with vernier bevel protractor, which part is used normally as reference surface

a) Stock

b) Blade

c) Dial

d) Disc [ a ]

04. On which part of the vernier bevel protractor, are the main scale division graduated

a) Stock

b) Blade

c) Dial

d) Disc [ d ]

05. The value of each vernier scale division of vernier bevel protractor is

a) 1°

b) 5′

c) 1°-55′

d) 2° [ c ]

06. The value of each main scale division of vernier bevel protractor is

a) 1°

b) 5′

c) 1°-55′

d) 2° [ a ]

07. The least count of a universal bevel protractor is

a) 0.5′

b) 5′

c) 5”

d) 5° [ b ]

08. The least count of a vernier depth gauge is

a) 0.10mm

b) 0.01mm

c) 0.20mm

d) 0.02mm [ d ]

09. Vernier depth gauge is used for measuring

a) External dimension

b) Internal dimensions

c) Step, depth of blind hole

d) Pitch diameter [ c ]

10. The least count of vernier height gauge is

a) 0.01mm

b) 0.02mm

c) 0.05mm

d) 0.10mm [ b ]

11. Which laying out, the vernier height gauge must be used on the

a) Machine bed

b) Any flat surface

c) Surface plate

d) Vee block [ c ]

12. The size of a vernier height gauge is specified by

a) Width of the beam

b) Height of the beam

c) Weight of the height gauge

d) Size of the scriber [ b ]

13. While marking with a vernier height gauge, the work piece is generally

a) Supported by an angle plate

b) Supported by another workpiece

c) Held by one hand

d) Held without support [ a ]

14. The smallest inside micrometer has the graduation marked on the sleeve to a range of

a) 10mm

b) 12mm

c) 13mm

d) 25mm [ c ]

15. The least count of vernier bevel protractor is

a) 1′

b) 5′

c) 10′

d) 25′ [ b ]

16. The least count of metric micrometer is

a) 0.01mm

b) 0.05mm

c) 0.10mm

d) 0.50mm [ a ]

17. In which of the following micrometer, the graduation on thimble and sleeve are in reverse

direction to that of outside micrometer

a) Inside micrometer

b) Depth micrometer

c) Tube micrometer

d) Flange micrometer [ b ]

18. The value of the smallest division on sleeve of a metric outside micrometer is

a) 0.50mm

b) 1.00mm

c) 1.50mm

d) 2.00mm [ a ]

19. The least count of a vernier caliper is

a) 0.10mm

b) 0.01mm

c) 0.05mm

d) 0.02mm [ d ]

20. Micrometer work on the principal of

a) Screw

b) Bolt

c) Stud

d) Nut & bolt [ d ]

21. Metric outside micrometer has a threaded spindle with a pitch of

a) 0.5mm

b) 0.25mm

c) 1.00mm

d) 1.50mm [ a ]

22. Which one of the following instruments is used for checking large internal diameter

a) Small hole gauge

b) Telescopic gauge

c) Pluge gauge

d) Snap gauge [ b ]

23. A taper ring gauge is used for checking

a) External taper

b) Internal taper

c) External threads

d) Internal threads [ a ]

24. Thread ring gauge is used for checking

a) External threads

b) Internal threads

c) External diameter of cylindrical job

d) Internal diameter of jobs [ a ]

25. Gauges are made of

a) Mild steel

b) Alloy steel

c) Cast steel

d) Cast iron [ c ]

26. Taper plug gauge is used for checking

a) Taper holes

b) External diameter of cylindrical parts

c) Internal diameter of cylindrical parts

d) Diameter of straight holes [ a ]

27. A plain ring gauge is used for checking

a) Taper holes

b) External diameter of cylindrical parts

c) Internal diameter of cylindrical parts

d) Major diameter of external threads [ b ]

28. A plug gauge which has its “Go” and “No Go” sizes on the same end is known as

a) Single ended plug gauge

b) Double ended plug gauge

c) Progressive plug gauge

d) Continues plug gauge [ c ]

29. Which one of the following gauges is used to align the lathe tool with the work

a) Try square

b) Centre gauge

c) Thread gauge

d) Straight edge [ b ]

30. Which one of the following gauges is used to check the threading tool of lathe for accuracy on

the 60° angle

a) Screw pitch gauge

b) Thread plug gauge

c) Centre gauge

d) Thread ring gauge [ c ]

31. Centre gauge is used for

a) Chec the profile of thread

b) Checking the fit of thread

c) Checking the pitch of the thread

d) Set lathe tool at correct centre height [ d ]

32. A feeler gauge is used for

a) Adjusting the parts for play

b) Checking gap between matting part

c) Checking radii of jobs

d) Cheking accuracy of holes [ b ]

33. Clearance between matting part is measured by

a) Caliper gauge

b) Feeler gauge

c) “Go” gauge

d) Dial gauge [ b ]

34. In an adjustable snap gauge, two adjustable jaws are provided on

a) Both sides

b) One side

c) One in each side

d) None of the above [ b ]

35. Which one of the following grade of gauge is used for checking the parts made by an operator

in the workshop

a) Workshop gauge

b) Inspection gauge

c) Reference gauge

d) None of the above [ a ]

36. Which one of the following gauge is used for checking cylinder, which are not kept in vertical

or horizontal position

a) Pilot gauge

b) Snap gauge

c) Ring gauge

d) Plug gauge [ a ]

37. In a taper plug gauge the “Go” and “No Go” size are denoted by a step on

a) The same side

b) The either side

c) The both sides

d) Separately [ a ]

38. Fixed type snap gauge have “Go” and “No Go” ends

a) The same side

b) The either side

c) The both sides

d) Separately [ a ]

39. At what standards temperature are the gauge kept in the section

a) 10°C

b) 20°C

c) 10°F

d) 20°F [ b ]

40. 20. “Go” side of the plug gauge will have the diameter equal to

a) Actual size of the job

b) Basic size of the job

c) Minimum size of the job

d) Maximum size of the job [ c ]

41. For general use in workshop slip gauge of which grade are used

a) Grade – 0

b) Grade – 1

c) Grade – 2

d) None of the above [ c ]

42. The accuracy of reference gauge is

a) 0.05mm

b) 0.01mm

c) 0.001mm

d) 0.0001mm [ c ]

43. As per Indian standards a special set of slip gauge is used consisting of

a) 81 pieces

b) 112 pieces

c) 120 pieces

d) 130 pieces [ b ]

44. Grade-1 slip gauges are used in

a) Workshop by operator

b) Inspection room

c) Either ‘a’ or ‘b’

d) Neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’ [ b ]

45. Hardness of slip gauges should be

a) More than 63 HRC

b) 58 HRC

c) 55 HRC

d) 50 HRC [ a ]

Work place safety

01. What is the purpose of environmental legislation?

a) To regulate the production of hazardous substances.

b) To specify the methods that must be used for storing hazardous substances.

c) To protect humans and the environment against hazardous substances.

d) All the above. [ c ]

02. What can the government’s Health and Safety Inspection Service do when they see an offence?

a) Impose a requirement and/or make a report of the offence.

b) Give the management a reprimand, suspend the work and withdraw the VCA (SCC)

certificate.

c) Appoint an official to coordinate the work, give a warning and impose a requirement.

d) All the above. [ a ]

03. Which factor has a direct impact on the risks associated with work?

a) The supervision exercised by the client.

b) The Health and Safety Plan (H&S Plan).

c) The workplace.


04. What is the objective of a task risk analysis?

a) To control the risks associated with the work.

b) To prepare for the proper execution of the work.

c) To eliminate all risks.


05. Who should you notify right away about an accident?

a) The immediate supervisor.

b) The government’s Health and Safety Inspection Service.

c) The medical department.


06. What is an example of safe behaviour at the workplace?

a) Speaking to others about unsafe actions.

b) Never using hazardous substances.

c) Always wearing hearing protection.


07. What is the best way to avoid tripping at the workplace?

a) Make sure the floor is uneven.

b) Have the floor cleaned extra often.

c) Make sure the workplace is tidy.


08. What is one of the employee’s obligations?

a) Do not change protective devices and use them in the correct way.

b) Supervise high-risk activities.

c) Maintain an accident register.

d) None of the above. [ a ]

09. What colours are used on signs for firefighting equipment?

a) Black pictogram on a yellow background.

b) White pictogram on a green background.

c) White pictogram on a red background.

d) All the above.

10. What are blanking flanges used for?

a) For shutting valves or pressure valves in storage tanks.

b) For moving pipework when working on storage tanks.

c) To shut off supply lines to storage tanks.

d) All the above.

11. What is one purpose of a work permit?

a) It allows the Arbodienst (Occupational Health and Safety Service) to determine whether the

employees involved need to undergo an examina

b) All those involved in the work must consult about the safe execution of the work.

c) The government’s Health and Safety Inspection Service can check which activities

performed.

d) All the above.

12. What does this sign mean?

(white symbol on a blue background)

a) The use of fall protection equipment is mandatory.

b) Watch out for falling objects.

c) Keep fall protection equipment ready for use.

d) All the above.

13. What must be included in a company emergency

a) The substances and processes on the site that can cause emergency situations.

b) When evacuation drills are to be held.

c) The phases of dealing with emergency situations.

d) All the above.

14. Hazardous substances are classified by

a) Flammable - corrosive - harmless.

b) Harmful - carcinogenic -

c) Explosive - highly/extremely flammable

d) None of the above.

What colours are used on signs for firefighting equipment?

Black pictogram on a yellow background.

pictogram on a green background.

White pictogram on a red background.

What are blanking flanges used for?

For shutting valves or pressure valves in storage tanks.

For moving pipework when working on storage tanks.

To shut off supply lines to storage tanks.

What is one purpose of a work permit?

It allows the Arbodienst (Occupational Health and Safety Service) to determine whether the

employees involved need to undergo an examination.

All those involved in the work must consult about the safe execution of the work.

The government’s Health and Safety Inspection Service can check which activities

(white symbol on a blue background)

The use of fall protection equipment is mandatory.

Watch out for falling objects.

Keep fall protection equipment ready for use.

What must be included in a company emergency plan?

The substances and processes on the site that can cause emergency situations.

When evacuation drills are to be held.

The phases of dealing with emergency situations.

Hazardous substances are classified by category. What are some of these categories?

harmless.

suffocating.

highly/extremely flammable - harmful.

[ c ]

[ c ]

It allows the Arbodienst (Occupational Health and Safety Service) to determine whether the

All those involved in the work must consult about the safe execution of the work.

The government’s Health and Safety Inspection Service can check which activities are

[ b ]

[ a ]

The substances and processes on the site that can cause emergency situations.

[ c ]

category. What are some of these categories?

[ c ]

15. What is the best way of limiting exposure

a) By always having the same person work with the toxic substance.

b) By using another, non-toxic substance.

c) By training employees in working with toxic substances.

d) All the above.

16. One of the following pictograms

characteristic of this substance?

(black symbol on orange background)

a) Highly flammable.

b) Oxidising.

c) Corrosive.

d) All the above.

17. Which substance is an organic solvent?

a) Water.

b) Mercury.

c) White spirit.

d) All the above.

18. What is the LEL (Lower Explosion Limit) (onderste explosiegrens) of a gas?

a) The highest concentration of the gas

b) The lowest concentration of the gas at which an explosion can occur.

c) The lowest measurable concentration of the gas.

d) All the above.

19. What is the first thing you should do if you discover a fire?

a) Ensure your own safety.

b) Alert the police.

c) Alert the fire department.

d) All the above.

20. What is an explosion-hazardous environment?

a) An environment with too much gas and too little air.

b) An environment where many explosions happen.

c) An environment in which an explosive mixture can arise.

d) All the above.

What is the best way of limiting exposure to toxic substances?

By always having the same person work with the toxic substance.

toxic substance.

By training employees in working with toxic substances.

One of the following pictograms is displayed on the packaging of a substance. What is one

characteristic of this substance?

(black symbol on orange background) (black symbol on white background with red border)

Which substance is an organic solvent?

What is the LEL (Lower Explosion Limit) (onderste explosiegrens) of a gas?

The highest concentration of the gas at which an explosion can occur.

The lowest concentration of the gas at which an explosion can occur.

The lowest measurable concentration of the gas.

What is the first thing you should do if you discover a fire?

Alert the fire department.

hazardous environment?

An environment with too much gas and too little air.

An environment where many explosions happen.

An environment in which an explosive mixture can arise.

[ b ]

is displayed on the packaging of a substance. What is one

black symbol on white background with red border)

[ b ]

[ c ]

What is the LEL (Lower Explosion Limit) (onderste explosiegrens) of a gas?

[ b ]

[ a ]

[ c ]

21. Which of the following is a risk associated with permanently installed grinders?

a) The grinding stone can bite into the material.

b) Due to the low rpm, the grinding stone can come off its shaft.

c) The grinding stone can disintegrate.


22. Is the earthing of double insulated electric hand tools permitted?

a) This only permitted with the employer’s approval.

b) No, this is not permitted.

c) Yes, this is permitted.

d) None of the above. [ b ]

23. Which rule, among others, applies to a crane?

a) A crane must carry a CE marking.

b) A crane must carry a VCA (SCC) quality mark.

c) A crane must not be higher than 23 metres.


24. What is one of the rules that applies to the use of chains?

a) Always work in pairs.

b) Completely screw in the shackle pins.

c) Grease the chain before hoisting.


25. Which rule applies to the use of a manual hoist?

a) You must always load the hook on its point.

b) A manual hoist must never be overloaded.

c) A manual hoist may only be loaded in a vertical position.

d) All the above. [ b ]

26. Are you allowed to increase the counterweight on a forklift?

a) No, this is never permitted.

b) Yes, this is permitted at any time.

c) Yes, this is permitted by at most 10% of the counterweight.


27. How should an acetylene bottle be positioned during welding?

a) The bottle must be positioned at an angle of at least 30° with the floor.

b) The bottle must always be in an upright position.

c) The bottle may be laid down on the floor.


28. How can you prevent falling hazards at the edge of a workfloor?

a) By placing warning signs at the edge of the workfloor.

b) By putting proper barriers at the edge of the workfloor.

c) By giving the workers proper instruction at the start of the work.


29. What is the best safety provision for a floor opening?

a) The floor opening must be properly lit.

b) Sufficient warning signs must be placed around the floor opening.

c) The floor opening must be covered with materials capable of carrying heavy loads.

d) None of the above. [ c ]

30. Hazards can arise during excavations due to the fact that there are many cables and pipelines

buried in the ground. This is why ‘rules for careful excavation’ have been established. What is

one of these rules?

a) Never dig in areas where cables or pipelines are known to be buried in the ground.

b) When using an excavator always use a toothed excavator bucket.

c) First manually dig trial trenches close to the specified location of the cables or pipelines.


31. Which of the following is mandatory when working from a safety cage at height?

a) The safety cage must be suspended from a chain or a steel cable.

b) Everyone in the safety cage must have a walkie-talkie.

c) Everyone in the safety cage must wear a safety harness attached to the safety cage.


32. You are spray painting in a confined space. Why do you have to ventilate this space?

a) In order to remain below 10% of the LEL (Lower Explosion Limit) (onderste explosiegrens).

b) In order to remain below the LEL (Lower Explosion Limit) (onderste explosiegrens).

c) In order to remain below 50% of the LEL (Lower Explosion Limit) (onderste explosiegrens).


33. What affects the size of an electric current passing through the human body?

a) The body temperature.

b) The resistance of the ground or floor.

c) The length of the exposure.


34. Why is insulation used for electrical conductors?

a) To limit the consequences of a short circuit.

b) To prevent contact with live parts.

c) To prevent damage.


35. What is a risk associated with static electricity?

a) Static electricity can cause non-conductive materials to catch fire.

b) Static electricity can result in a spark which could cause an explosion.

c) Static electricity carries virtually no risk.


36. What is important for manually lifting an object standing on the ground?

a) That your feet are spread out as far as possible.

b) That you lift with a straight back and bent knees.

c) That after you have lifted the object you can turn it sideways.


37. What must you do with your PBM’s (personal protective equipment)?

a) Have your name put on it.

b) Have an expert inspect it after every use.

c) Take proper care of it.


38. What hazard do safety goggles protect against?

a) Heat.

b) Dust.

c) Strong light.


39. What is impossible for gloves to protect against?

a) Hazardous substances.

b) Cold or heat.

c) Rotating parts.


40. What rule applies to the use of protective clothing?

a) Replace your clothing once a year.

b) Immediately repair or replace torn/worn clothing.

c) Immediately replace torn/worn clothing at your own cost.


Fire prevention Measures and Fire Fighting

01. If a cream coloured band is located over the fire extinguisher, it indicates that the fire

extinguisher is which of the following? a. Water

b. Dry Powder

c. Foam

d. Carbon Dioxide [ c ]

02. Which type of fire extinguish do you use to fight an electrical fire if a carbon dioxide

extinguisher is unavailable? a. Water

b. Wet Chemical

c. Foam

d. Dry Powder [ d ]

03. A water fire should be on fires started by which of the following materials?

a. Materials such as gasoline that are highly flammable

b. Materials made up of combustible metals

c. Fires caused by electricity

d. Materials such as paper, textiles, wood and other solid materials. [ d ]

04. __________ fire extinguishers are specifically designed in order to tackle a class F fire. 1. Carbon Dioxide

2. Wet Chemical

3. Foam

4. Water [ b ]

05. If there is a black coloured band above the fire extinguisher; what does the colour of the

band tell you? a. That this extinguisher is a wet chemical fire extinguisher

b. That this extinguisher is a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher

c. That this extinguisher is broken and should not be used

d. That this extinguisher contains flammable materials [ b ]

06. Titanium and aluminium materials can be classified under which of the following

categories? a. Category A

b. Category C

c. Category D

d. Category B [ c ]

07. Which of the following colours allows you to identify a foam fire extinguisher? a. Blue

b. Red

c. Yellow

d. Cream [ d ]

08. Which of the following colours can be found in a band above a wet chemical fire

extinguisher? a. Yellow

b. Cream

c. Blue

d. Red [ a ]

09. You should avoid using _________________ fire extinguishers when extinguishing a fire

in a confined space. a. Dry Powder Fire Extinguishers

b. Water Fire Extinguishers

c. Foam Fire Extinguishers

d. Wet Chemical Fire Extinguishers [ a ]

10. Which of the following fire extinguishers would you use in order to extinguish an

electrical fire? a. Water Fire Extinguisher

b. Foam Fire Extinguisher

c. Wet Chemical Fire Extinguisher

d. Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguisher [ d ]

11. While you are using a fire extinguisher containing to carbon dioxide; what happens to the

nozzle? a. It becomes extremely hot

b. It becomes warm

c. It becomes slightly cold

d. It becomes extremely cold [ d ]

12. A dry powder fire extinguisher can be found with a _______________ band above it. a. Yellow

b. Blue

c. Black

d. Cream [ b ]

13. Which of the following types of fire extinguishers have a yellow band above it? a. Foam

b. Water

c. Wet Chemical

d. Carbon Dioxide [ c ]

14. Class A materials do not include which of the following? a. Wood Materials

b. Propane Materials

c. Plastic Materials

d. Paper Materials [ b ]

15. A dry powder fire extinguisher has a ________ band located above it. a. Cream

b. Blue

c. Yellow

d. Red [ b ]

16. The fire assembly point can be best described as: a. Where the fire extinguishers are stored

b. An area that has a high risk for fires to occur

c. An area where you are required to assemble in the event of a fire

d. An area you are required to avoid in the event of a fire [ c ]

17. When you see a fire on the worksite, what is the first thing you should do a. Sound the fire alarm

b. Tell you, manager

c. Try and put the fire out

d. Grab your tools and quickly exit the area [ a ]

18. Which of the following types of materials is responsible for fueling a Class A fire? a. Oils that you typically cook with

b. Flammable liquids

c. Electrical Equipment

d. Wood, plastic, paper, and other kinds of solid materials [ d ]

19. Where should you go if you hear the fire alarm going off? a. To the supervisor’s office in order to inform him what is happening

b. To the fire assembly point

c. To the break room to make sure everyone got out

d. Home, the work day is over [ b ]

20. Fires that are fueled by _________ require you to use water fire extinguishers in order to

fight them. a. Live electricity

b. Gasoline, kerosene, and other flammable liquids

c. Solid materials; such as wood, paper, and textile

d. Propane, butane, and other flammable gases [ c ]

21. A band of ____________ is displayed above a fire extinguisher that contains carbon

dioxide. a. Yellow

b. Red

c. Black

d. Cream [ c ]

22. Fire extinguishers that contain _____ have a red band located above them. a. Carbon Dioxide

b. Water

c. Foam

d. Wet Chemicals [ b ]

23. Which of the following is correct when it comes to the type of fire extinguishers you

should avoid while fighting a fire in a confined space? a. Carbon Dioxide and Dry Powder Fire extinguishers should not be used

b. Carbon Dioxide and Water Fire Extinguishers should not be used

c. Water and Dry Powder Fire extinguishers should not be used

d. Only a Dry powder fire extinguisher should not be used. [ a ]

24. Why is it important that you tend the nozzle when you have finished using a fire

extinguisher containing carbon dioxide? a. Because the nozzle gets extremely hot making it impossible to use

b. This is not a requirement

c. Because the nozzle gets warm, making it impossible to use

d. Because the nozzle gets extremely cold, making it impossible to use. [ d ]

25. When do you go to the fire assembly point? a. When discussion about fire safety is taking place

b. When the fire alarm goes off

c. If you are the first one to see the fire

d. When practicing using the different types of fire extinguishers [ b ]

26. At what point do you sound the fire alarm? a. After you try to extinguish it

b. As soon as you see it

c. After talking with your supervisor

d. After you grab all tools from the site [ b ]

27. The area you must assemble in the event of the fire is called: a. The Fire Safety Meeting Spot

b. There is no specific name

c. The Fire Assembly Point

d. The supervisor’s office [ c ]

28. Water fire extinguishers have a _________ located above them? a. Red coloured band

b. Blue coloured band

c. Black coloured band

d. Green Colored band [ a ]

29. When fighting and electrical fire, which of the following should not be used? a. Water Fire Extinguisher


c. Dry Powder Fire Extinguisher

d. Neither A nor B should be used [ d ]

30. A hot permit allows you to: a. Carry out work that can potentially cause a fire

b. To work on a worksite containing extreme temperatures

c. Gives you the authority to start a fire on the worksite

d. Allows you to practice fire drills on the worksite [ a ]

31. What class of fire was a wet chemical fire extinguisher specifically designed to fight? a. Class A fires

b. Class D Fires

c. Class F Fires

d. Class B Fires [ c ]

32. Who has the authority to pull the fire alarm after discovering a fire on the worksite? a. Only the manager can activate the fire alarm

b. Anyone who has seen a fire can activate the fire alarm

c. Only the health and safety rep can activate the fire alarm

d. Only the owner can activate the fire alarm [ b ]

33. You should use a Dry Powder fire extinguisher in order to fight in an electrical fire, only

in the event of ________. a. A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is unavailable

b. A foam fire extinguisher is unavailable

c. You should never use a dry powder fire extinguisher on an electrical fire

d. A water fire extinguisher is unavailable [ a ]

34. Wet Chemical fire extinguishers were specifically designed in order to tackle ______ a. A class A fire

b. A class B Fire

c. A Class D Fire

d. A Class F Fire [ d ]

35. Which of the following materials can be classified under Category D? a. Titanium

b. Aluminum

c. Propane

d. Both A & B [ d ]

36. Which of the following is true about dry powder fire extinguishers? a. You should avoid using them in confined spaces

b. They are the best choice for electrical fires

c. You should only use them in confined spaces

d. There is a black band above them [ a ]

37. Wood, plastic, and paper are which of the following: a. Class B Materials

b. Class C Materials

c. Class A Materials

d. Class F Materials [ c ]

38. Wood, plastic, paper and other solid materials are typically the culprits for ___________. a. A Class F fire

b. A Class B fire

c. A Class A fire

d. A Class C fire [ c ]

39. What type of fire extinguisher should you use in order to extinguish a fire caused by solid

materials, such as wood, paper or textile? a. Carbon Dioxide

b. Water

c. Foam

d. Wet Chemical [ b ]

40. After using a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher, the nozzle gets extremely cold. This is a

sign that: a. You should not use it

b. It is safe to continue

c. The materials inside are running low

d. None of the above [ a ]

41. What type of permit is needed in order to carry out work that could potentially result in a

fire breaking out on the work site? a. A fire permit

b. A hot permit

c. A work permit

d. No permit is needed [ b ]

42. In the event of a fire, everyone is responsible for: a. Informing the supervisor of what is happening

b. Pulling the fire alarm if they see a fire

c. Making sure everyone gets to the fire assembly point safely

d. None of the above [ b ]

43. The following image shows which type of fire extinguisher? a. Foam Fire Extinguisher

b. Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguisher


d. Wet Chemical Fire Extinguisher [ a ]

44. The following image shows which type of fire extinguisher? a. Water Fire Extinguisher



d. Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguisher [ c ]

45. The following image shows which type of fire extinguisher? a. Dry Powder Fire Extinguisher

b. Water Fire Extinguisher

c. Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguisher

d. Foam Fire Extinguisher [ d ]

46. The following image shows which type of fire extinguisher? a. Dry Powder Fire Extinguisher


c. Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguisher

d. Foam Fire Extinguisher [ c ]

47. The following image shows which type of fire extinguisher? a. Foam Fire Extinguisher

b. Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguisher


d. Wet Chemical Fire Extinguisher [ d ]

48. What type of fire extinguisher would you use on a fire that is categorised as a Class F

Fire? a. Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguishers



d. Dry Powder Fire Extinguisher [ c ]

49. What does the following health and safety sign indicate? a. The location of the fire alarm

b. The location of the fire extinguisher

c. Which way to exit

d. Do not press the button [ a ]

50. What does the following health and safety sign indicate? a. Indicates the item is flammable

b. Indicates the item could cause an explosion

c. Indicates the item is toxic

d. Indicates that the item contains irritants [ a ]

51. Which of the following activities are considered “hot work”?

a. Welding

b. Cutting

c. Grinding Ferrous Metals

d. All of the Above [ d ]

52. It is needed for a fire:

a. Fuel

b. Oxygen

c. Heat

d. All of the Above [ d ]

53. The acronym for proper use of a fire extinguisher is:

a. PAST

b. PASS

c. PALS

d. None of the Above [ b ]

54. Which THREE of the following are key elements of a fire safety management system?

i) Maintenance Plan

ii) Staff Training Plan

iii) Fire Action Plan

iv) Fire Access Plan

a) i, ii, iii

b) i, ii, iv

c) i, iii, iv

d) ii, iii, iv [ a ]

55. When should you use a fire extinguisher?

a. When the fire is between you and the phone

b. When the fire is between you and an exit door

c. When the fire is confined to a small area

d. When the room is filled with smoke [ c ]

56. It is easy to remember how to use a fire extinguisher if you can remember the acronym PASS,

which stands for _______________ [Pull, Aim, Squeeze, and Sweep]

57. How often should fire alarms be tested?

a) Once a week.

b) Once a year.

c) Once every 12 hours.

d) Once a month. [ a ]

Working of Stores

Stocked Items, Non-stocked Items, Non-moving Items, Impressed Items, Self Life Items

01. Stock which provide for an emergency in case of default by the suppliers and also to take care

of fluctuations in consumptions, is known as

a. Emergency stock

b. Buffer stock

c. Ordinary stores

d. Custody stock [ b ]

02. Outstanding quantities against all live purchase orders are termed as

a. Covered dues

b. Uncovered dues

c. In process dues

d. Dead dues [ a ]

03. Convener of the tender committee in stores purchases is the

a. Technical member

b. Accounts member

c. Mechanical member

d. Stores member [ d ]

04. GM’s power of purchase of imported stores is

a. Rs. 25 crores

b. Rs. 50 crores

c. Rs. 75 crores

d. Rs. 40 crores [ b ]

05. For safety items PO vetting is required for value more than ________ [Rs. 8 lakhs.]

06. The powers of COS for direct purchase of stores is limited to Rs_____ [Rs. 15 crores.]

07. Powers of COS to approve limited tender is case of emergency is restricted to

Rs_______________ [Rs. 2 crores.]

08. Money allotted for purchase of stock items is called

a) Purchase money

b) Purchase balance

c) Purchase suspense

d) Purchase grant [ d ]

09. The register maintained by store accounts for stores budget control is called [Liability register]

10. The detailed distribution of budget allotment made to railway administrations is contained in

a) Yellow book

b) Green book

c) Pink Book

d) White Paper [ c ]

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS IN ESTABLISHMENT MATTERS

1. Conversion of one kind of leave into another shall be considered, if received within _______days.A.10 days B. 20 days C. 30 days D. 40 days

2. Leave ordinarily begins on the day on which transfer of charge is effected and ends on the daypreceding that in which _________.A) Resumed B) Returning C) Reported D) None of the above.

3. CL shall not be combined with any other kind of leave since it is not a _____.A) Recognized leave B) On Duty C) Absent from duty D) None

4. No Railway Servant shall be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period exceeding_________.A) 5 years B) 4 years C) 3 years D) 2 years

5. Railway Servant is entitled for credit of _________ days of LAP in a year A) 15 B) 30 C) 25 D) 60

6. Leave on average pay is credited in advance in 2 installments of 15 days each on the first dayof ____ and _______ every calendar year.A) 1st Jan/1st July B) 1st June / 1st Dec C) 2ndJan/3rdJune D) 1stJuly/5th July

7. Ordinarily the maximum leave on average pay (LAP) that may be granted at a time to a railwayservant shall be _______ days.A) 50 B) 70 C) 120 D) 180

8. In the year of appointment, LAP shall be credited to the leave account of an employee at therate of ____ days for each completed calendar month of service.A) 0 B) 5 C) 2 ½ D) 4

9. A permanent/temporary Railway Servant shall be entitled to leave on half average pay(LHAP)of _______ days in respect of each completed year of service.A) 20 days B) 30 days C) 80 days D) 10 days

10. The amount of leave on half average pay that can be availed of in one spell shall be limited to________.A) 20 months B) 24 months C) 36 months D) 90 days

11. In the year of appointment, LHAP shall be credited to the leave account of an employee at therate of ____ days for each completed calendar month of service.A) 4/3 B) 2/5 C) 5/3 D) 5/5

12. Leave not due is debited against the ________ leave he is likely to earn subsequently afterresuming to duty.A) LAP B) Hospital leave C) LHAP D) LWPD

13. Encashment of LAP upto _____________ days shall not exceed in entire careerA) 30 days B) 60 C) 20 D) 10

14. A railway servant while in service can encash LAP upto ______ days at a time in 2 years blockperiod.A) 40 B) 10 C) 45 D) 15

15. A female Government servant with less than 02 children may be granted maternity leave for .A) 100 B) 135 C) 180 D) 160

16. CCL for 730 days shall be granted to female railway/single male employee for _________A) First 2 minor children B) Any number of children C) Only one child D) None

17. Maximum of the paternity leave is _____days and shall be availed within_____ months. A) 15 days/6months B) 1day/3months C) 2days/5months D) 11days/ 12months

18. Not less than _____days of CCL can be availed at a time.A) 3 B) 10 C) 5 D) 11

19. _________ leave is granted to a Railway servant who is disabled by injury inflicted or causedin or in consequence of due performance of his official duty or in consequence of his officialposition.A) Work related illness and injury leave(WRILL) B) LAP C) LHAP D) Hospital

20. Railway servant who is under WRILL is not entitled to earn __________.A) SP.CL B) CL C) LAP/LHAP D) None of above.

21. Full pay and allowances shall be granted on account of WRILLis for _____ .A) 24 months B) Entire period of Hospitalization and Six months Beyond hospitalizationC) 32 months D) 40 months

22. Period of Study Leave for technical course shall be granted to Railway servants is A) 24 months B 12 months C 36 months D 21 months

23. Period of Study Leave for medical PG/PHD course shall be granted to Railway servants is A) 24 months B) 12 months C) 36 months D) 21 months

24. In a year ______ days of CL is entitled to an employee appointed in an open line staff.A) 10 days B) 11 days C) 15 days D) None.

25. As per Hours of Employment Rule employees are classified into ________ number of categories.A) Four B) Three C) Two D) Six

26. What is the statutory limit of hours of employment of Intensive Category employee in a week?A) 60 Hrs B) 45 Hours. C) 75 Hrs D) 54 Hrs.

27. What is the statutory limit of hours of employment of Continuous Category employee in a week?A) 60 Hrs B) 45 Hours. C) 75 Hrs D) 54 Hrs.

28. What is the statutory limit of hours of employment of EI Category employee?A) 60 Hrs in a week B) 45 Hours in a week. C) 75 Hrs in a week D) 54 Hrs. in a week

29. Standard Hours of duty of Continuous category of employees is _____ hrs in a week.A) 48 Hrs B) 45 Hours. C) 75 Hrs D) 42 Hrs.

30. Waiting Room Bearer comes under ________________ ClassificationA) Intensive category B) Essentially Intermittent C) Continuous D) Excluded

31. Weekly Hours of duty including P&C of continuous category of employees is------ Hrs.A) 60 Hrs B) 45 Hours. C) 72 Hrs D) 54 Hrs.

32. In the case of Continuous category of employees more than _________ hrs of duty is Long on.A) 6 Hrs B) 12/14 Hours. C) 10 Hrs D) 8 Hrs

33. ___________ is empowered to classify the employment of Railway ServantA) DRM B) Head of the Railways (GM) C) UPSC D) Rly Board

34. Weekly rest for Essentially Intermittent workers is ____________ hrs including a full night in bed.A) 22 consecutive hrs B) Not less than 30 consecutive hrs C) 24 consecutive hrs D) Equal to 30 consecutive hrs

35. Weekly rest of Intensive category of employees is ___________ hrs.A) 22 consecutive hrs B) Not less than 30 consecutive hrsC) 24 consecutive hrs D) Equal to 30 consecutive hrs

36. In which category Railway employees employed in confidential related work areClassified?A) Essentially Intermittent B) Intensive category C) Continuous D) Excluded

37. Maximum how many breaks can be there in a split shift?A) Two. B) Three C) Four D) Single

38. After how many hours of rest an EI category employee can again be called for duty in a day?A) 6 Hrs B) 12/14 Hours. C) 10 Hrs D) 8 Hrs.

39. After how many hours of rest an Intensive category employee can again be called for duty in a day?A) 6 Hrs B) 12/14 Hours. C) 10 Hrs D) 8 Hrs.

40. Within how many days Compensatory Off can be sanctioned?A) 30 days B) 60 days C) 45 days D) No limit

41. Rough Assessment Job Analysis is conducted for ----------hrs?A) 6 Hrs B) 24 Hours. C) 10 Hrs D) 8 Hrs.

42. For the Railway servants performing split duty, the number of spells of duty shall not exceed ____and the number of breaks shall be limited to ____;A) Three and Two B) Three and four C) Two and four D) None of the above.

43. Appeal against classification of employment can be made to________A) General Manager B) DRM C) Regional Labour CommissionerD) Branch Officer.

44. The document which shows employee’s daily hours of duty, weekly rest and break between spells of duty besides other necessary particulars is calledA) Duty Chart B) Roster C) Attendance register D) Overtime Allowance Register

45. Appointment of Regional Labour Commissioner is made through:A) Railway Board B) Human Resource Ministry C) Labour Ministry D) Collector

46. The category of employment in which the employee does not get any rest or very little rest in his duty hours is called:A) Intensive B) Continuous C) Essentially Intermittent D) Excluded

47. Allowance that is given to Railway servant for performing duty beyond prescribed hours of employment:(A) Travelling Allowance (B) Dearness Allowance (C) Overtime Allowance (D) None among these.

48. Number periods of rest given to running staff in a month if one period of rest is 30 hrs:(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

49. Number periods of rest given to running staff in a month if one period of rest is 22 hrs:(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 4

50. Appeal against the orders of Regional Labour Commissioner can be made to Secretary to theGovt of India Ministry of Labour within ______ days.(A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) 180

51. What is theweekly hours of duty of the Railway servants other than Gateman ‘C’Caretaker of Rest Houses, Chowkidar, Saloon Attendant, who have not been givenRailway accommodation and their residence is 1.0 Km away from the place of work?

A. 60 Hrs B. 45 Hours. C. 72 Hrs D. 54 Hrs.

52. Duty period between 22.00hrs to 06.00hrs is treated as Night duty and paid Night duty allowance (NDA) at hourly rate equal to_______ A) (Basic pay+ DA)/200 B) (Basic pay+ DA)/100. C) (Basic pay)/200 D. None.

53. Which method of Job Analysis is adopted generally for correct classification of employment?A) Factual Job Analysis B) Rough assessment C) Issuance of certificate D) None

54. CTG is granted to the railway servant who is transferred on administrative grounds if transfer between stations is ------KmsA) 20 kms . B) 30 kms C) 50 Kms D) 8 Kms

55. CTG shall be granted at the rate of ___________ of last months basic payA) 100% B) 80% C) 75% C) 180%

56. The Railway servants (Discipline & Appeal) Rules came into force on ________.A) 1968 B) 1972. C) 1966 D) 1978.

57. ________form is used for placing a Railway employee under suspension.A) SF-5 B) SF-11 C) SF-1 D) SF-2

58. Suspension is a ------------under D&A Rules, 1968. A) Penalty B) Not a penalty C) Major penalty D) Minor penalty

59. Rule No.____of the Railway servants (Discipline & Appeal) Rules deals withSuspension.A) 6 B) 7 C) 5 D) 1

60. ________form is used for Deemed SuspensionA. SF-5 B. SF-4 C SF-1 D. SF-2

61. Rule No. ------of The Railway servants (Discipline & Appeal) Rules deals with Penalty.A) 6 B) 7 C) 5 D) 1

62. ________ form is used for imposition of Minor Penalty.A) SF-5 B) SF-4 C) SF-1 D) SF-11

63. Compulsory Retirement/Removal/ Dismissal is a ------------under D&A Rules, 1968. A) Penalty B) Not a penalty C) Major penalty D) Minor penalty

64. ________ form is used for imposition of Major Penalty.A) SF-5 B) SF-4 C) SF-1 D) SF-2

65. Major Penalty shall not be imposed on Railway Servant without conducting _______A) Meeting B) Inquiry. C) Election D) Selection.

66 Rule No. 9 of The Railway servants (Discipline& Appeal) Rules deals with Procedure forimposing ___________ penalty.A) Major B) Minor C) Suspension D) Revoke of Suspension.

67. ________ form is used for nomination of Inquiry Officer.A) SF-5 B) SF-7 C) SF-1 D) SF-2

68. ________ form is used to appoint a Presenting Officer.A) SF-8 B) SF-4 C) SF-1 D) SF-2

69. __________________ equal to leave on half salary, will be drawn in case the employee isunder suspension. A) Dearness Allowance B) Subsistence Allowance C) Suspension Allowance

70. As per rule 17 of DAR rules No appeal lies against any order of an _____________ natureor of the nature of step in aid of the final disposal of a disciplinary proceedings. A) Minor Penalty B) Major Penalty C) Interlocutory D. None

71. The appeal against an order of the Disciplinary Authority can be preferred by the Appellantin his __________ A) Own name. B) Disciplinary Authority. C) Appellate Authority D) GM

72. The appeal shall be preferred to any higher authority other than the -----------.A) Disciplinary Authority. B) DRM C) Appellate Authority D) GM

73. Rule 25 of the RS(D&A) Rules deal with _____________.A) Review B) Appeal C) Revision D) Witness

74. Rule 25.A of the RS(D&A) Rules deal with _____________.A) Review. B) Appeal C) Explanation. D) Witness

75. An authority not lower than ___________________ shall impose the penalties ofDismissal/Removal/Compulsory retirement.A) Disciplinary Authority. B) GM C) Appellant Authority D) Appointing Authority

76. The disciplinary proceedings should be ------------------on the death of the chargedemployee.A) Closed immediately B) Continued C) Temporarily closed D) None

77. What is the time limit for submission of written statement of defence by the delinquentRailway Servant? A. 6 B. 7 C. 5 D. 10

78. If the charge is unauthorized absence, _________ can be one of the witnesses.A) Attendance Register B) Medical Certificate C) Co- employee. D) None

79. Appeal shall be entertained unless preferred within _________ days.A) 100 B) 10 C) 30 D) 45

80. Dispute between workmen and workmen which is connected with the employment or non-employment is called---------. A) Industrial Dispute B) Personal Dispute C) Trade Union dispute D) All

81. Labour Courts are established under the ------------------------A) ID Act, 1947 B) PD Act C) Trade Union Act, 1926 D) All

82. As per ID Act 1947, "--------------" means the termination by the employer of the service of aworkman for any reason whatsoever, otherwise than as a punishment inflicted by way ofdisciplinary action. A. Retrenchment B. closure C. layoff D. lock out

83. Which among the following is/are true regarding Industrial Disputes? [Sec 2(k)] An "Industrial dispute" means any dispute or difference. 1) Between employers and workmen

2) Between employers and employers 3) Between workmen and workmen A. 1, 2 B.1, 2 &3 C. 2, 3 D. None

84. In the case of any industrial establishment in which 100 or more workmen are employed on anyday in the preceding 12 months, the appropriate Government, may by general or special orderrequire the employer to constitute a ___________. A. Works Committee B. Labour court C. Tribunal D. Arbitrators

85. As per ID Act, no person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike, in breach ofcontract without giving to the employer notice of strike, within before striking or within----------- of giving such notice. A.6 weeks/ 14 Days B. 5 weeks/ 12 Day C. 8 weeks/ 10 days D. 3 weeks/ 3days

86. As per the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 no wage-period shall exceed --------daysA. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D.30 days

87. Staff Benefit Fund (SBF) works for the benefit of ----------- Railway Employees. A. Gazetted. B. Non Gazetted C. Trade unions D. All the above

88. Permanent Negotiating Machinery functions in __________ tier system in Indian Railways.A. Three B Four C. Five D. Six

89. ____ number of meetings held at Divisional PNM level with periodicity of 2 months. A. Three B Four C. Five D. Six

90. ____ number of meetings held at Zonal PNM level with periodicity of 3 monthsA. Three B Four C. Five D. Six

91. ____ number of meetings two with each Federations will be held at Board PNM level per year. A. Three B Four C. Five D. Six

92. Issues not settled in Railway Board PNM shall be referred to ___________A. Adhoc Tribunal B. Labour Court C. High Court D. Parliament

93. JCM Refers to --------------A. Joint Consultative Machinery B. Joint Common Machinery C. Joint Collective Machinery. D. Joint Constructive Machinery.

94. In Railways, JCM function in --------- levels. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D.7

95. In N-JCM __________ will act as Chairman A. Speaker of LokSabha B. Cabinet Secretary C. PMO D. Governor

96. Chairman of D-JCM is ____________ A. Member Staff B. CRB C. Member Traffic D. Member Infrastructure

97. Participation in illegal strike amounts to__________ A. Dies-non B. LWP C. LHAP D. Break in service

98. PREM refers to _____________ A. Participation of Railway Employees in Management B. Participation of Railway Employees in Manufacturing C. Participation of Railway Employees in Maintenance D. Participation of Railway Employees in Modernization

99. PREM functions in __________ levels. A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

100. PREM meetings at Railway Board level is chaired by __________A. CRB B. Member Staff C. Member Rolling Stock D. Member Traction

101. Workman Compensation Act re-named as________A. Employee Compensation Act B. Employer Compensation ActC. Employment Compensation Act D. None

102. EC Act provide __________ for injury/Death by accident on duty A. Treatment B. Compensation C. Conviction D. none

103. As per EC Act there are _____&___ types of disablements A. Small/Big B. Partial/Total C. Simple/Major D. none

104. Employer is not liable for compensation if injury is due to _____A. Influence of drinks/drugs B. Willful disobedience of rulesC. Willful removal of safety gadgets D. All the above

105. The compensation amount shall be deposited with _________ A. Bank B. Employees account C. Labour Commissioner D. None

106. Exgratialumpsum compensation is paid to the families of railway employees _A. Who die in harness in performance of bonafide official dutiesB. Who die in harness in performance of non-official dutiesC. Who die in serviceD. None

107. Exgratia Lumpsum amount paid for death occurring due to accident in course of performance ofduties is ______________

A. 25 lakhs B. 30 lakhs C. 20 lakhs D. 35 lakhs

108. Pension is paid to ________ Railway Servants on retirement from service A. Pre 1-1-2004 appointed employees B. Post 1-1-2004 employees C. Appointed on or after 1-1-2004 D. None

109. Pension is subject to _________A. Future good conduct B. Future bad conduct C. both A&B D. none.

110. Superannuation Pension is paid who retires with minimum _____ qualifying service A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 32

111. Amount of Pension shall not be paid less than____ of last month’s pay at the time ofRetirement with effect from 1-1-2006

A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 50%

112. ____ days of both LAP & LHAP are entitled for encashment of leave at the time ofRetirement

A. 50 B. 300 C. 250 D. 125

113. Maximum amount of gratuity shall not be more than ____A. 20 lakhs B. 30 lakhs C. 40 lakhs D. 60 lakhs

114. Compassionate allowance shall be sanctioned to ________ by competent authorityA. Railway Servant who is removed/dismissed B. Railway servant on voluntary retirementC. Superannuation D. None

115. Minimum pension as per 7th PC is _________ A. 7000 B. 4500 C. 9000 D 3500

116. Deposit linked Insurance Scheme is linked with ---------- and paid to his ____ subject tomaximum of 60,000A. Balance of PF of deceased Employee / family \B. Service of deceased Employee / family C. Nil balance of PF of deceased Employee / family D. None

117. The maximum amount of Pension that can be commuted is ___. A.30% of pension B. 40% of pension C. 20% of pension D. 50% of pension

118. The family pension shall not be less than _________% of the minimum of the scale held by theemployee at the time of retirement/death.A. 50% B.30% C 35% D. 60%

119. The enhanced family pension shall not be less than _________% of the minimum of the Scaleheld by the employee at the time of retirement/death. A. 50% B.30% C 35% D. 60%

120. Pensioner would be entitled restore his commuted pension after expiry of ___ years A.20 B. 12 C 15 D 16

121. PRCP are admissible to Railway Servant retired after putting in __ years of service. A.20 B. 12 C 15 D 16

122. Railway Servant with minimum of -----of qualifying service are entitled for Voluntary Retirement, by giving three months advance notice.

A. 30 years B. 10 years C. 33 years D. 20 years

123. ----- amount of Fixed Medical Allowance is paid to the opted pensioner/ Family Pensioner permonth w.e.f. 01.07.2017A. Rs.1000 B. Rs.3000. C. Rs.2500 D. Nil

124. Gratuity is paid @ ¼ months pay per each completed half year of the service subject to amaximum of ------- months’ pay or Rs.20 lacs, whichever is lessA. 15 times B. 12 times C. 20 times D. 16 ½ times.

125. Period of Retention of Railway Quarters on account of missing of Railway Servant is upto___ Months.A. 24 B 36 C. 12 D. None.

126. The rate of contribution to join RELHS for Level 7 to Level 11 employees as per the 7th PayCommission shall be last month's basic pay drawn or _______amount whichever is lower.A.Rs.78, 000 B. Rs.30, 000. C. Rs.1, 20,000 D. 54,000

Establishment Matters (DAR, Conduct, Pass and HOER)

1. कार्य�नि�र्योज�घंटेकेनि�र्यमा�ुसारकम�चारिरर्योंके ---------शे्रणीमेंवर्गी�कृतनिकर्यार्गीर्याह.ै As per Hours of Employment Rule employees are classified into ________ number of categories.A. Four चार B. Three ती� C. Two दो D. Six छह

2. इन्टेंसिसवश्रेणीकेकम�चारिरर्योंकेलि%एसप्ताहमें,नि�र्योज�केघंटोंकीसवंधैानि�कसीमा -------ह.ैWhat is the statutory limit of hours of employment of Intensive Category employee in a week?A. 60 Hrs घंटे B. 45 Hours.घंटे C. 75 Hrs घंटे D. 54 घंटे

3. प्रतीक्षा%र्यकाबेर्यरर ------------- शे्रणीकेअंतर्गी�तआताह.ैWaiting Room Bearer comes under ________________ ClassificationA. इटेंसिसवशे्रणी Intensive category B. Essentially Intermittent अनि�वार्य�तसनिवरामी C.

Continuous अनिवरामी D. Excluded छूटप्राप्त

4. पीऔरसीसनिहतअनिवरामीश्रेणीकेकम�चारिरर्योंकेलि%ए ---------- घंटेसाप्तानिहककार्य�घंटेहोतेहैं.Weekly Hours of duty including P&C of continuous category of employees is------ Hrs.A. 60 Hrs घंटे B. 45 Hours.घंटे C. 72 Hrs घंटे D. 54 Hrs.घंटे

5. अनिवरामीशे्रणीकेकम�चारिरर्योंकेमाम%ेमें ------------ सेअधिधककीड्यूटी%ारं्गी-आ�कह%ातीह.ैIn the case of Continuous category of employees more than ____________ hrs of duty is Long on.A. 6 Hrs घंटे B. 12/14 Hours.घंटे C. 10 Hrs घंटे D. 8 Hrs घंटे

6. र%ेसेवककेनि�र्योज�कोवर्गी�कृतकर�ेकाप्राधिधकार-------------- कोह.ै ___________ is empowered to classifythe employment of Railway ServantA. DRM मंरपे्र B. Head of the Railways (GM)महाप्रबधंकC. UPSC र्यपूीएससी D. Rly Board र%ेवेबोर्ड�

7. अनि�वार्य�तसनिवरामीकर्मिमर्योंकेलि%एनिबस्तरमेंपूरीरातसनिहत -----------घंटोंकासाप्तानिहकनिवश्रामहोताह.ै Weekly rest for Essentially Intermittent workers is ____________ hrs including a full night in bed.A. 22 consecutive hrs 22 नि�रतंरघंटेB. Not less than 30 consecutive hrs. 30 नि�रतंरघंटोंसेकम�हीं C. 24 consecutive hrs नि�रतंरघंटेD. Equal to 30 consecutive hrs30 नि�रतंरघंटोंकेबराबर

8. प्रधितपूरकछुट्टीनिकत�ेनिद�केअंदर%े%े�ीचानिहए. Within how many days Compensatory Off can be sanctioned?

A. 30 days निद� B. 60 days निद� C. 45 days निद� D. no limit कोईसीमा�हीं

9. जाँबनिवश्लेषणकारफमूल्र्यांक� ------- घंटेकेलि%एनिकर्याजाताह.ै Rough Assessment Job Analysis is conducted for ----------hrs?

A. 6 Hrs घंटे B. 24 Hours.घंटे C. 10 Hrs घंटे D. 8 Hrs घंटे.

10. Appeal against classification of employment can be made to________-कम�चारिरर्योंकेवर्गी�करणसेसंबधंिधतअपी% -------- सेकीजासकतीहै.A. General Manager महाप्रबधंक B. DRM मंरपे्र C. Regional Labour Commissioner के्षत्रीर्यश्रमआर्यकु्त D. Branch Officer.शाखाअधिधकारी

11. The document which shows employee’s daily hours of duty, weekly rest and break between spells of duty besides other necessary particulars is calledप्र%ेखसिजसमेंकम�चारिरर्योंकेदनैि�ककार्य�घंटे,साप्तानिहकअवकाशऔरकार्य�घंटोंकेबीचअतंरा%औरअन्र्यआवश्र्यकनिववरणहोताहकैह%ाताहैA. Duty Chart र्डरू्यटीचाट� B. Roster रोस्टर C. Attendance register उपस्थिस्Gधितरसिजस्टर. D. Overtime Allowance Register समर्योपरिरभत्तारसिजस्टर

12. नि�र्योज�केसहीवर्गी�करणकेलि%ए�ौकरीनिवश्लषेणकीकौ�सीपद्धधितसामान्र्यतअप�ार्यीजातीह.ै Which method of Job Analysis is adopted generally for correct classification of employment?A. �ौकरीकावास्तनिवकनिवश्लषेण Factual Job Analysis B.रफमूल्र्यांक� Rough assessment

C. प्रमाणपत्रजारीकर�ाIssuance of certificate D. None कोई�हीं

13. र्यनिदकोईकम�चारीवधैानि�कसीमाकेबादकार्य�करताहतैोउसेनिकसदरपरसमर्योपरिरभत्तानिदर्या जाताह.ै At what rate OTA will be given if any employee works beyond Statutory Limits? A.वेत�कादोरु्गी�ाAt 2 times the pay. B.वेत�काती�र्गीु�ा At 3 times the pay.

C.वेत�कारे्डढर्गीु�ा At 1½ times the pay. D.वेत�कापांचर्गीु�ा At 5 times the pay.

14. र%ेसेवक (अ�ुशासनि�कऔरअपी%) नि�र्यमवष� -------- में%ारू्गीहुए. The Railway servants (Discipline & Appeal) Rules came into force on ________.

A. 1968 B. 1972. C 1966 D. 1978.

15. कम�चारीकोनि�%बं�ाधी�रख�ेकेलि%ए -------------फाम�प्रर्योर्गीमें%ार्याजाताह.ै ________form is used for placing a Railway employee under suspension.

A. एसएफ-5 SF-5 B.एसएफ-11 SF-11 C. एसएफ -1 SF-1 D. एसएफ-2 SF-2

16. र%ेसेवक (अ�ुशासनि�कऔरअपी%) नि�र्यमकानि�र्यम------- शास्थिस्तसेसबंंधिधतह.ै Rule No.------of The Railway servants (D & A) Rules deals with Penalties.

A. 6 B. 7 C. 5 D. 1

17. अ�ुशासनि�कऔरअपी%नि�र्यम,1968 केअ�ुसारअनि�वार्य�सेवानि�वृत्त/सेवासेहटा�ा/नि�%ंनिबतकर�ा -- ह.ैCompulsory Retirement/Removal/ Dismissal is a ------------under D&A Rules, 1968. A. शास्थिस्तPenalty B. शास्थिस्त�हींह.ै Not a penalty C. बर्डीशास्थिस्त Major penalty D. छोटीशास्थिस्तMinor penalty

18. र%ेसेवक (अ�ुशासनि�कऔरअपी%) नि�र्यमकीनि�र्यमसं. 9 --------- शास्थिस्तअधिधरोनिपतकर�ेसेसबंंधिधतह.ै RuleNo. 9 of The Railway servants (Discipline & Appeal) Rules deals with Procedure forimposing ___________ penalty.A. बर्डीMajor B. छोटी Minor C. Suspension नि�%बं�D. Revoke of Suspension.नि�%बं�वापस%े�ा

19. र्यनिदकम�चारीनि�%बं�ाधी�होताह,ैतबअध�वेत�परछुट्टीकेबराबर --------आहरिरतनिकर्याजाएर्गीा__________________ equal to leave on half salary, will be drawn in casethe employee is under suspension. A. महरं्गीाईभत्ताDearness Allowance B. नि�वा�हभत्ता Subsistence Allowance C. नि�%ंब�भत्ताSuspension Allowance

20. अ�ुअनि�नि�र्यमकेनि�र्यम 17 केअ�ुसार --------- स्वरूपके निकसी आदशेर्याअ�ुशासनि�क कार्य�वाहीके अंधितम नि�पटार ेकेनिकसी चरणकेसमG��में अपी%�हींकरसकता ह.ै As per rule 17 of DAR rules No appeal lies against any order of an _____________ nature or of the nature of step in aid of the final disposal of a disciplinary proceedings.

A. छोटीशास्थिस्तMinor Penalty B. बर्डीशास्थिस्त Major Penalty C. इटंरल्र्यूकोटरीInterlocutory D. कोई�हींNone

21. अ�ुशासनि�कप्राधिधकारीकेनिकसीआदशेकेनिवरुद्धअपी%अपे%ेंटद्वाराउसके -------- मेंदीजातीह.ैThe appeal against an order of the Disciplinary Authority can be preferred by the Appellant inhis __________ A. स्वर्यकें�ामपर Own name. B. अ�ुशासनि�कप्राधिधकारी Disciplinary Authority. C. अपी%ीर्यप्राधिधकारी Appellate Authority D. महाप्रबंधक GM

22. ---------- केअ%ावानिकसीउच्चतरप्राधिधकारीकोअपी%कीजासकतीह.ैThe appeal shall be preferred to anyhigher authority other than the -----------. A. अ�ुशासनि�कप्राधिधकारीDisciplinary Authority. B. मंर्ड%र%ेप्रबंधक DRM C. अपी%ीर्यप्राधिधकारी Appellate Authority D. महाप्रबधंक GM

23. र%ेसेवक (अ�ुअनि�) नि�र्यमकानि�र्यम 25 ----- सेसंबधंिधतह.ै Rule 25 of the RS (D&A) Rules deal with_____________.A. समीक्षाReview. B. अपी% Appeal C. पु�रीक्षाRevision. D. र्गीवाही Witness

24. र%ेसेवक (अ�ुअनि�) नि�र्यमकेनि�र्यम 25 ए ---- सेसंबधंिधतह.ै Rule 25.A of the RS (D&A) Rules deal with _____________.A. समीक्षाReview. B. अपी% Appeal C. स्पष्टीकरण Explanation. D. र्गीवाही Witness

25. आरोनिपतकम�चारीकीमुत्र्यकेुबादअ�ुशासनि�ककार्ऱ�वाईको -------------- निकर्याजा�ाचानिहए.The disciplinaryproceedings should be ------------------on the death of the charged employee.A. तुरतंबंद Closed immediately B.जारीरखा Continued C. अस्Gाईरुपसेबंद Temporarily

closed D. None इ�मेंसेकोई�हीं26. जांच-पर्डता%अधिधकारीको�ानिमतकर�ेकेलि%ए ---------- फाम�प्रक्तनिकर्याजाताह.ै ________ form is used for

nomination of Inquiry Officer.A. एसएफ—5 SF-5 B. एसएफ—7 SF-7 C. एसएफ--1 SF-1 D. एसएफ---2 SF-2

27. र्यनिदआरोपअप्राधिधकृतरुपसेअ�ुपस्थिस्Gतरह�ेका%र्गीाहोतो -------- एकसाक्ष्र्यहोसकताहै. If the charge isunauthorized absence, _________ can be one of the witnesses.A. उपस्थिस्Gधितरसिजस्टर Attendance Register B. धिचनिकत्साप्रमाणपत्र Medical Certificate

C. सहकम�Co- employee. D. कोई�हींNone

28. अपी%को ------------ निद�केअंदरदीजा�ीचानिहए. Appeal shall be entertained unless preferred within_________ days.A. 100 B. 10 C. 30 D. 45

29. र%ेकम�चारीजो ------- वष�कीसेवापूरीकरतेहैंउन्हें -------- कीअ�ुमधितह.ै Post Retirement Complimentary Pass are admissible to Railway Servant retired after putting in __ years of service.

A.20 B. 12 C 15 D 16

30. What is Pass as per Railway Servants Pass Rules 1986.?(A) Pass is a Privilege. (B) To travel in Railway(C) An authority given by Railway to a Railway employee or to a Person authorizing him to travel in a train gratuitously. (D) None of these.

31. Family means.(A)Wife, Husband, Son/Step sons under the age of 21 years and wholly dependent.Bonafide student of any recognized University. Unmarred daughter of any age whether earning or not, dependent widow daughter. Railway Doctor’s certified invalid son daughter of any age.(B)Wife, Husband, son/Step son/Son-in-law/mother-in-law/daughter of any age.(C)Husband, Wife/Widow mother/son/Step son of any age/Daughter of any age.(D)Husband/Wife/Sons/Daughters of any age/Mother-in-law, if father is not alive.

32. How many sets of P.T.O. are issued to the Railway employees?(A) 6 sets both for Gazetted and Non-Gazetted every year from the date of appointment.(B) 4 sets both for Gazetted and Non-Gazetted every year from the date of appointment.(C) 3 sets both for Gazetted and Non-Gazetted every year from the date of appointment.(D) 6 sets for Gazetted and 4 sets for Non-Gazetted.

33. How many sets of School Pass issued to Railway employee?(A) 6 sets or 3 half sets per year. (B) 4 sets or 6 half sets per year. (C) 3 sets or 6 half sets. per year. (D) 5 sets per year.

34. Oflate validity for a Privilege Pass/PTO is ?(a) 3 months (b) 4 months (c) 2 months (d) 5 months

35. Attendants of Pass Holder is:-(A)Part time servant. (B)Servant (C)Full time paid servant. (D)Any person.

36. Irregularity for use of Passes may be condoned by(A) CPO (B) GM (C) CME (D) COM

37. The colour of the First Class A Pass is _________ in colour.

A. White B. Pink C. Green. D. Yellow.

38. When dependents are included in a Pass/PTO number persons entitled to be include in Pass/ PTO shall be.A. All Family members + 2 dependents. B. 5 member’s only C. 6 members only. D. Any number of Family members + 3dependents

39. How many sets of PTOs is/ are a license Holder coolie is entitled in a calendar year?A. One (IInd/Sleeper) B. Two(IInd/Sleeper) C. Three(IInd/Sleeper) D. Nil

40. Which rule of Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966 states that every railway servant shall at all times” Maintain absolute integrity,Maintain devotion to duty and Do nothing which is unbecoming of a railway servantA. Rule 3 (i) (ii) and (iii) B. Rule 3-B C. Rule 3-C D. Rule 3-D

41. Prohibition of sexual harassment of working women defined in ____of Railway servants (Conduct) Rules, 1966.A. Rule 3-A B. Rule 3-B C. Rule 3-C D. Rule 3-D

42. Demonstration and Strikes defined in _____of Railway servants(Conduct) RulesA. Rule 7 B. Rule 4 C. Rule 5 D. Rule 6

43. As per Railway servants(Conduct) Rules, 1966 a Railway servant holding Group C post can accept gift worth Rs ___ on occassions such as weddings anniversaries funerals or other religiousfunctions:A. Rs 25000/- B. Rs 7500/- C. Rs 15000/- D. Rs 500/-

44. Rule 13-A of Railway servants (Conduct) Rules deals with ___A. Subscription B. Dowry C. Indebtedness D. Gifts

45. Rule_of Railway servants(Conduct) Rules, 1966 speaks about a Railway servant subletting of Railway accommodationA. 15(A) B. 15(B) C. 15(C) D. 15(D)

46. Rule____ of Railway servants (Conduct) Rules, 1966 speaks about a Railway servant possessingmovable, immovable and valuable propertyA.15 B.16 C.17 D.18

47. An employee can be taken up for bringing outside political influence in service matters in terms of __________ of Rly. Service conduct Rules.A. Rule 17 B. Rule 14 C. Rule 20 D. Rule 6

48. Rule____ of Railway servants(Conduct) Rules, speaks about Consumption of intoxicating Drinks& DrugsA. Rule 17 B. Rule 14 C. Rule 20 D. Rule 22.

49. In case of loss of IInd class Privilege Pass ------ amount has to be levied as fine.A.Rs. 5 B.Rs.10 C.Rs. 15 D. Rs. 25

50. When a Railway servant has availed all passes due to him in a current calendar year, _____ number of set of passes/PTO may be issued for journeys commencing in the next year only by debiting to the next year’s pass account.A. One B. Two C. Three D Four

Key for Estt MCQs 1 to 50

Q.No.

Answer

Q.No.

Answer

Q.No.

Answer

Q.No.

Answer

Q.No.

Answer

1 A 11 B 21 A 31 A 41 C2 B 12 A 22 A 32 B 42 A3 B 13 A 23 C 33 C 43 B4 D 14 A 24 A 34 D 44 B5 C 15 C 25 A 35 C 45 A6 B 16 A 26 B 36 B 46 D7 C 17 C 27 A 37 A 47 C8 A 18 A 28 D 38 B 48 D9 B 19 B 29 A 39 B 49 A10 C 20 C 30 A 40 A 50 A

HOER

1. As per Hours of Employment Rule employees are classified into ________ number ofcategories.A. Four B. Three C. Two D. Six

2. What is the statutory limit of hours of employment of Intensive Category employee in a week?A. 60 Hrs B. 45 Hours. C. 75 Hrs D. 54 Hrs.

3. What is the statutory limit of hours of employment of Continuous Category employee in aweek?A. 60 Hrs B. 45 Hours. C. 75 Hrs. D. 54 Hrs.

4. What is the statutory limit of hours of employment of EI Category employee?A. 60 Hrs in a week B. 45 Hours in a week. C. 75 Hrs in a week D. 54 Hrs. in a week

5. Standard Hours of duty of Continuous category of employees is _____ hrs in a week.

A. 48 Hrs B. 45 Hours. C. 75 Hrs D. 42 Hrs.

6. Waiting Room Bearer comes under ________________ ClassificationA. Intensive category B. Essentially Intermittent C. Continuous D. Excluded

7. Weekly Hours of duty including P&C of continuous category of employees is------ Hrs.A. 60 Hrs B. 45 Hours. C. 72 Hrs D. 54 Hrs.

8. In the case of Continuous category of employees more than ________ hrs of duty is Long on. A. 6 Hrs B. 12/14 Hours. C. 10 Hrs D. 8 Hrs

9. ___________ is empowered to classify the employment of Railway ServantA. DRM B. PCPO if delegated by GM C. UPSC D. Rly Board

10. Weekly rest for Essentially Intermittent workers is ________ hrs including a full night in bed.A. 22 consecutive hrs. B. Not less than 30 consecutive hrs.C. 24 consecutive hrs. D. Equal to 30 consecutive hrs.

11. Weekly rest of Intensive category of employees is ___________ hrs.A. 22 consecutive hrs B. Not less than 30 consecutive hrsC. 24 consecutive hrs D. Equal to 30 consecutive hrs

12. In which category Railway employees employed in confidential related work are Classified?A. Essentially Intermittent B. Intensive category C. Continuous D. Exclude

13. Maximum how many breaks can be there in a split shift?A. Two. B. Three C. Four D. Single

14. After how many hours of rest an EI category employee can again be called for duty in a day?A. 6 Hrs B. 12/14 Hours. C. 10 Hrs D. 8 Hrs.

15. After how many hours of rest an Intensive category employee can again be called for duty in aday?A. 6 Hrs B. 12/14 Hours. C. 10 Hrs D. 8 Hrs.

16. Within how many days Compensatory Off can be sanctioned?A. 30 days B. 60 days C. 45 days D. No limit

17. Rough Assessment Job Analysis is conducted for ---------- hrs?A. 6 Hrs B. 24Hours. C. 10 Hrs D. 8 Hrs.

18. What is the period of Handing over &Taking over time allowed to TTE at the originating anddestination station of a train?A. 45 minutes before the departure of the train and 15 minutes after reaching the

destination station.B. 30 minutes before the departure of the train and 15 minutes after reaching the destination

station.C. 15 minutes before the departure of the train and 15 minutes after reaching the destination

station.D. None of the above.

19. Appeal against classification of employment can be made to________-A. General Manager B. DRM C. Regional Labour CommissionerD. Branch Officer.

20. The document which shows employee’s daily hours of duty, weekly rest and break between spells of duty besides other necessary particulars is calledA. Duty Chart B. Roster C. Attendance registerD. Overtime Allowance Register

21. Appointment of Regional Labour Commissioner is made through:A. Railway Board B. Human Resource Ministry C. Labour Ministry D. Collector

22. The category of employment in which the employee does not get any rest or very little rest inhis duty hours is called:A. Intensive (B) Continuous (C) Essentially Intermittent (D) Excluded

23. Allowance that is given to Railway servant for performing duty beyond prescribed hours ofemployment:(A) Travelling Allowance (B) Dearness Allowance (C) Overtime Allowance (D) None among these.

24. Appeal against the orders of Regional Labour Commissioner can be made to CentralLabour Commissioner within ______ days.A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) 180

25. What is the weekly hours of duty of the Railway servants other than Gateman ‘C’Caretaker of Rest Houses, Chowkidar, Saloon Attendant, who have not been givenRailway accommodation and their residence is 1 .0 Km away from the place of work?A. 60 Hrs B. 45 Hours. C. 72 Hrs D. 54 Hrs.

26. Duty period between 22.00hrs to 06.00hrs is treated as Night duty and paid Night dutyallowance (NDA) at hourly rate equal to_______ A. (Basic pay+ DA)/200 B. (Basic pay+ DA)/100. C. (Basic pay)/200 D. None.

27. Which method of Job Analysis is adopted generally for correct classification of employment?A. Factual Job Analysis B. Rough assessment C. Issuance of certificate D. None

28. HOER provisions are dealt in which chapter of Indian Railway Act 1989A. Chapter V B. Chapter IX C. Chapter IV D. Chapter XIV

29. Loco Inspector is classified as ___________ under HOER. A. Continuous B. Excluded C. Essentialli Intermittent D. Intensive

30. Credit given for Engine attendance before departure and after arrival at engine shed isA. 30 & 45 minutes B. 25 & 30 minutes C. 45 & 15 minutes D. None

31. Credit for Train attendance for goods trains before departure and after arrival are.

A. 30 & 30 minutes. B. 45& 15 minutes C. 30 & 15 minutes D 45 & 30

32. Credit for accompanying engine on trail______ of time spent is given A. Full credit B. ½ credit C. 1/4th credit D. 3/4th credit

33. Credit for accompanying dead engines ______ of time spent is givenA. Full credit B. ½ credit C. 1/4th credit D. 2/3rd credit

Leave and Pass rules

1. A railway employee can avail maximum -------------- period of days at a stretch in the form of leave.

A) 2 years B) 3 years C) 4 years D) 5 years

2. Railways servants liberalized leave rules are came into force from-------

A) 01.02.1949 B) 01.10.1950 C) 01.09.2008 D) 31.08.2000

3. For workshop employees, how many Casual Leaves are eligible in a calendar year?

A) 11 B) 08 C) 10 D) 12

4. Maximum No. of Leave on Average Pays can be accumulated by a railway employee in entire service?

A) 150 B) 200 C)300 D) 250

5. A railway employee can avail maximum -------------- LAPs at a stretch

A) 100 B) 120 C) 150 D)180

6. A railway employee can encash Maximum ---------- no. of LAPs while in service.

A) 180 B) 60 C) 100 D) 120

7. In every calendar year how many LHAPs will be credited in regular employee account?

A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D)15

8. A railway employee can avail maximum -------------- period of days at a stretch in the form of LHAPs.

A) 12 months B) 18 months C) 24 months D) 36 months

9. A railway employee who completed minimum 1 year regular service can avail Maximum ------------------

No. days as Leave Not Due at a stretch.

A) 50 days B) 90 days C) 60 days D) 120 days

10. Regarding Extraordinary Leave which is applicable in the following?

A) Not counted for Service B) Employee would not get salary C) Leaves will not be credited D)

All of these

11. To avail Study Leave minimum regular service required is ---------


12. Study leave can be availed maximum at a stretch ----------- .

A) 2 years B) 1 year C) 3 years D) 6 months

13. A male railway employee can avail ------------ no. of days as Paternity Leave up to two surviving

children.


14. A female railway employee can avail ------------ no. of days as Maternity Leave up to two surviving

children.


15. Female railway employee can extend Maternity leave in medical reasons up to -------------- period by

combining other type of leaves.

A) 1 year B) 2 years C) 6 months D) 1 year 6 months

16. A female railway employee can avail maximum ---------- days in entire service in case of miscarriage.


17. A railway employee can avail ---------------- no. of days in a calendar year to participate in NCC & NSS

programmes.


18. In which of the following is not comes under Special casual Leave.

A) Natural calamity days B) Blood donation day C) Civil obstruction days D) Urgent personnel

work

19. A male employee can avail ------------- No. of working days when he himself under gone for sterilization

operation.

A) 7 B) 9 C) 5 D) 10

20. A female employee can avail ------------- No. of working days when she herself under gone for

sterilization operation.

B) 7 B) 9 C) 5 D) 10

21. Child Care Leave facility is extended for ------------------ in 7th pay commission.

A) Female employee B) single Male employee C) Group D employee D) Group A Officer

22. A single male employee can avail maximum -------- spells of child care leave in a year.

A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 2

23. A single female employee can avail maximum -------- spells of child care leave in a year.

A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 6

24. Minimum ------------ no. days has to apply in one spell of Child care leave.

A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 6

25. In Child care leave, out of 730 days in entire service, second 365 days employee will get ---------------- %

of salary for month.

A) 75 B) 60 C) 80 D) 50

26. Which portal is used for railway employees for online application of passes?

A) CRIS B) UMID C) RESS D) HRMS

27. Minimum regular service is required for railway employees to get eligibility for post retirement

complimentary passes.


28. Group C employee is eligible for ---------- sets of Post retirement complimentary passes after

completion of 20 years regular service.

A) 3 B) 2 C) 1 D) Nil

29. ____________ pass has been issued for children of employee who are studying outstation in hostel.

A) School cheque B) school card C) special D) Privilege

30. ____________ Pass has been issued for children of employee who are making daily service from

residential place to school place.

B) School cheque B) school card C) special D) Privilege

31. ____________ Single journey passes per year per child has been issued for children of employee who

are studying out station in hostel.

A) 5 B) 3 C) 6 D) 8

32. Widow pass facility was introduced from -----------------

A) 12.03.1987 B) 10.12.1986 C) 01.02.1990 D) 31.08.1980

33. -------------- No. of dependants are allowed in privilege pass of a railway employee.

A) 03 B) 05 C) 02 D) 04

34. If railway employee added any dependant in his pass application --------------- No. of persons are

allowed in pass.

A) 06 B) 04 C) 05 D) 03

35. The privilege pass, issued to Level 6 employee is called as -------- pass.

A) First class B) First Class A C) Second class D) Second Class A

36. In AILTC ----------- of passes/year to be surrendered once in four years in case of Group C & D

employees.

A) 3 sets B) 2 sets C) 6 sets D) 1 set

37. Attendant facility can be utilized from ---------------- and above employees.

A) Level 4 B) level 5 c) level 6 D) level 8

38. With On duty pass, in Mail/Express trains, how many persons can travel in case of level 6 and above

non-gazetted employees

A) One B) two C) one + attendant D) Three

39. With privilege pass in Mail/Express trains how many persons can travel in case of level 6 and above

non-gazetted employees

A) All eligible members B) 5 only C) 6 only D) No limit

40. In case of Group C & D employees how many sets of privilege passes have been issued up to 5 years of

service?

A) Self only B) 1 set C) 3 sets D) 4 sets

41. With privilege pass in Rajadhani /Duranto type special trains, level 6 and above non gazetted employee

in 2AC how many persons are entitled?

A) Not eligible B) 2 only C) One only D) All eligible members

42. In HRMS portal, the employee user ID contains ----

A) 6 English alphabets B) 6 numerical digits C) 8 English alphabets D) 8 numerical digits

43. Group A & B officers are eligible for ------------- no. of sets of privilege passes per calendar year.

A) 3 sets B) 5 sets C) 6 sets D) 4 sets

44. Group A & B officers are eligible for ------------- no. of sets of post retirement complimentary passes per

calendar year.

A) 3 sets B) 5 sets C) 6 sets D) 4 sets

45. Half set of P.T.O validity period is -------

A) 5 months B) 3 months C) 4 months D) 2 and half month

46. Year ending passes validity period is up to ---------

A) 31st December B) 30th September C) 30th May D) 30th April

47. Advance pass can be availed on or after -------------

A) 1st August B) 1st July C) 1st October D) 1st September

48. The privilege pass eligibility for step son of railway employee is --------

A) Not eligible B) up to 33 yrs C) up to 21 yrs D) up to 18 yrs

49. The privilege pass eligibility for daughter of railway employee is --------

A) Not eligible B) up to 33 yrs C) up to 21 yrs D) up to marriage

50. The income limit for dependent to get eligibility in pass is ------------

A) 9,000/month B) 10,000/month C) 15% basic pay of employee D) both A & C but whichever is

more

Answer Sheet

Q.No. Answer

Q.No. Answer

1 D 26 D

2 A 27 C

3 B 28 B

4 C 29 A

5 D 30 B

6 B 31 C

7 B 32 A

8 C 33 C

9 B 34 C

10 D 35 A

11 C 36 A

12 B 37 C

13 B 38 A

14 C 39 A

15 B 40 B

16 C 41 C

17 D 42 A

18 D 43 C

19 C 44 A

20 D 45 A

21 B 46 C

22 A 47 D

23 D 48 C

24 B 49 D

25 C 50 D

GENERAL BIT BANK

1. Indian railway institute of electrical engineering is situated at ………………. (Nasik).

2. Indian railway institute of transport management is situated at ………………. (Lucknow).

3. Indian railway institute of civil engineering is situated at ………………. (Pune).

4. Indian Railway institute of mechanical and electrical engineering is situated at ------- (Jamalpur)

5. Apprentices are also eligible for paternity/maternity leaves. True or false (True).

6. Leave is not a ………………. (Right).

7. ………………. Is not a penalty (Suspension).

8. As for official language rule – 1976, India is divided into three regions………………. (A, B, C).

9. Total number of railway stations on Indian railway is ………………. (7092).

10. In case of transfer, admissible joining time is ………………. If actual distance between old and new HQ is more than

………………. (12 days, 1000 km).

11. In case of transfer, admissible joining time is ………………. If actual distance between old and new HQ is 1000 km or

less. (10 days).

12. In case of transfer, admissible joining time is ………………. If actual distance between old and new HQ is more than

………………. (15 days, 2000 km).

13. ………………. Is to be issued for revocation of suspension order (SF-4).

14. ………………. Is to be issued for imposition of major penalty. (SF-5).

15. DAR shall not apply to any member of ………………. .(All India service/R.P.F)

16. There are ………………. Rules under DAR 1968.(31)

17. ………………. Is to be issued for imposition of minor penalty. (SF-11)

18. A railway servant placed under suspension, is eligible for ……………. Allowance. (Subsistence)

19. Plan head- 17 is covers ………………. . (Computerization)

20. Plan head -33 covers ………………. . ( Signal and tele-communication works)

21. DRF stands for ………………. . (Depreciation Reserve Fund)

22. At division level the ………………. Is the officer in-charge of the building.(DRM)

23. If an employee works more than maximum number of hours fixed, he would be entitled for over time at

………………. the ordinary rates of wages. (Double)

24. No pension is paid for service less than ……………….(10 years)

25. When the employment is terminated, wages shall be paid before the expiry of the ………………. after termination.

(2nd day)

26. The employee is not permitted to take up ………………. During the period of leave.(Any employment)

27. An employee shall be deemed to have been suspended, if he remains in police custody for exceeding -----------

hours.(48 hours)

28. Within ………………. daysthe employee should submit his explanation in the case of minor penalty.(10 days)

29. Supervisory staff comes under ………………. Category.(Excluded)

30. Capital budget is used for ……………….(Assets/infrastructure development)

31. Railway board expenditure comes under demand no ……………….(01)

32. Plan head-21 is for……………….(Rolling stock)

33. Amenities for staff come under plan head………………..(52)

34. Indian railway institute of signal engineering & telecommunication (IRISET) is situated at ……………….

(Secunderabad)

35. Children below the age of ………………. Should not be employed in a factory or workshop.(15)

36. “Occupational disease” comes under ………………. Of WCA.(Schedule III)

37. The workshop staff will be entitled for ……………….in a year including ………………. National holidays.(15 holidays,03)

38. The no.of restricted holidays permittedfor employees working in administrative office is ------(02)

39. ……………….types of pass are there in Indian railways.(07)

40. During suspension period ………………. Will not be sanctioned.(Leave)

41. During suspension period resignation will be………………. Normally.(Accepted)

42. Withholding of passes or PTO or both is a ………………. (Minor penalty)

43. Withholding of promotion for a specific period is a ………………. (Minor penalty)

44. Wages shall be paid on a ………………. (Working day)

45. ISO is a ………………. Non government body.(Independent)

46. The staff is entitled for ………… % of pay and allowance during suspension.(50% of pay)

47. ………………. Is used for appointment of an enquiry officer. (SF-7)

48. ………………. Is used when using a charge sheet in case of common proceedings.(SF-10)

49. Common proceeding charge sheets are issued in case where ………………. employeesare involved for the same

offence.(two or more )

50. ………………. May be allowed with free luggage allowance admissible on privilege pass.(Motor cycle, cycle, scooter)

51. LAP can be ………………. Or ……………….to holidays.(Prefixed, Suffixed)

52. LAP has to availed after ………………..(Prior sanction)

53. ……………….can be granted for half day.(CL)

54. CL cannot be combined with anyother leave except ……………. . (Compensatory CL/ SCL)

55. Total no. Of CL can be availed at a time is ……………. (No limit)

56. The family pension is calculated ……………. Of last basic pay drawn by the employee. (30%)

57. Minimum service required for post-retirement complementary passes is ---------- (20 years)

58. Group – C employee with service of 20 years and above gets …………… complementary passes per year.(02)

59. Gazetted officer with service of 20 years and above gets …………… complementary passes per year.(03)

60. Group – D employee with service of 20 years and above gets …………… complementary passes per year.(02)

61. Leave not due can be granted during entire service to a permanent employee is maximum ……………. (360 days)

62. Railway servant, who takes CL, while on tour, is not entitled to draw daily allowances for the ……………. (Availed

leave period)

63. Total no of Child Care Leave that can be availed in entire service is ……………. (730 days)

64. Travelling allowance is admissible to railway servants, when they travelled on tour beyond a radius of ………. (8 km)

65. If absence from HQ does not exceed 6 hours the …………… “TA” is admissible. (30%)

66. If absence from HQ is between 6-12 hours the …………… “TA” is admissible.(70%)

67. If absence from HQ is above 12 hours the …………… “TA” is admissible. (100%)

68. …………… will have the powers to sanction of daily allowance at the rates beyond the first 60 days.(HOD)

69. Rate of daily allowances for railway servants, from level 9 to 11 is ……………. (Rs.900)

70. Rate of daily allowances for railway servants, from level 6 to 8 is ……………. (Rs.800)

71. Rate of daily allowances for railway servants,from level 1 to 5 is……………. (Rs. 500)

72. The daily allowance shall automatically increase by …………… when DA on the revised pay structure goes up by

…………… . (25%,50%)

73. National Holiday allowance for level 6 to 8 non-gazetted staff is --------- (Rs.630)

74. Children education allowance and hostel subsidy at the revised monthly rates are Rs. …………… to Rs. ……………

respectively per child.(Rs.2250,Rs.6750)

75. TA for Level 1 to 8 in 7th CPC in A1/A cities/towns is ……………. (Rs. 3600+DA)

76. TA for Level 1 to 8 in 7th CPC in other places is ……………..( Rs. 1800 +DA)

77. Night duty allowance for Level-6 (GP 4200) in 7th CPC is -------- (Rs.141.65)

78. Night duty allowance for Level-7 (GP 4600) in 7th CPC is -------- (Rs.143.80)

79. For participation in sports events …………… leave will be granted.(Special casual leave)

80. …………… is granted to railway servant transferred in public interest to enable him a new post either at same

station or at a new station.(Joining time)

81. Decode ENIAC …………… . (Electronic Numeric Integrator and Calculator)

82. 1 kb is equivalent to …………… bytes.(1024)

83. Deleted files are stored in the …………… , until it is emptied. ( Recycle bin)

84. The default page margins can be changed by going to …………… from the file menu. (Page set up)

85. To input a special symbol not present in the keyboard, you will go to the symbol option from the …………… menu.

( Input)

86. To enter a text in a power point slide you should be in the …………… view. (Design)

87. Readymade slide design in power point are called…………… . (Templates)

88. In excel, …………… are labeled as A,B,C . (Columns)

89. The intersection of a row and a column in a spread sheet is called …………… . (Cell)

90. A spread sheet with levels and formulas field in for a specific application is called a …………… . (Template)

91. Moving from one site to another on the internet is called …………… . (Surfing)

92. Links from one page to another on the WWW are called …………… . (Hyperlinks)

93. You need a software called a…………… to access website.(Browser)

94. To unscramble a message in the process of …………… . (Decryption )

95. A …………… is a program that replicated itself and spread from one computer to another. (Worm)

96. When any web page is saved, it is automatically give the extension …………… . (HTML)

97. If a system has the capability of organizing, processing and retrieving data, it can be called a …………… management

system.(Database)

98. …………… view helps to enter and display data and insert, delete, rename or move a field in an existing table.

(Datasheet)

99. You can search records in a data base by using the …………… records option. (Filtering)

100. …………… key in a table uniquely identifies each record in a table. (Primary)

101. Full form of HTML …………… . (Hyper text markup language)

102. An HTML document should begin with a …………… tag. (Opening)

103. The process of opening multiple windows at same time is called …………… . (Multi tasking)

104. The process of breaking and tampering with computer system is called …………… . (Hacking)

105. The process of scrambling messages to make it unreadable is called …………… . (Encryption)

106. Copying another person’s work and presenting it as one’s own work is known as …………… . (Plagiarism)

107. Decode JPEG ……………. (Joint photographic experts group)

108. Small picture elements on a computer screen are called ……………. (Pixels)

109. The head of mechanical department at Zonal level is …………… . (PCME)

110. The head of mechanical department at Railway Board is …………… . (Member Rolling Stock)

111. The first train was introduced between …………… . (Thane to Boribunder)

112. The first train was introduced on Indian soil on …………… . (16thapril 1853)

113. The present RKM is around …………… .(68000 approx)

114. South central railway consists of …………… divisions. (6)

115. The longest train Himsagar express travels between …………… . (Jammu to kanyakumari)

116. RITES stands for…………… . (Rail india technical economic services limited)

117. CFI stands for -------- (Consolidated Fund of India)

118. RRSK stands for ------ (Rashtriya Rail SanrakshaKosh)

119. South Central Railway spread over …………… states. (6)

120. Indian railways divided into …………… zones.(17)

121. National Academy of Indian Railways (NAIR) is situated at …………… . (Vadodara)

122. IRIMEE is situated at …………… . (Jamalpur)

123. IRPSM stands for ____ (Indian Railways Projects Sanctions and Management)

124. ICMS stands for ____ (Integrated Coaching Management System)

125. Son, up to the age of …………… is included in a pass. (21)

126. Maximum leave that can be granted at a stretch is…………… . (5 years)

127. During leave period employee should not take up any …………… . (Employment)

128. Present leave rules are governed by …………… . (Liberalized leave rules 1949)

129. Liberalized leave rules come into effect from …………… . (01.02.1949)

130. Maximum LAP that can be availed at a time is …………… . (180 days)

131. No. Of direct workers required is calculated by dividing total hours by …………… . (267)

132. …………… % of leave reserve is added to the DW, in man power planning. (12.5%)

133. List of the occupational disease are given in the ---------- schedule of ECA (Schedule-III)

134. In case of injury to cover under WCA, it must cause a temporary disablement for a period of atleast …………… days.

(03)

135. Minimum compensation for death under ECA---------------(Rs.120000)

136. Minimum compensation for permanent total disablement under ECA-------(Rs. 140000)

137. Wage limit for the purpose of calculation of compensation under ECA is …………… .(Rs.8000)

138. Relevant factor of ECA depends on …………… . (Age of employee)

139. % loss of earning capacity of a work man for various types of injuries is indicated in the ------------ schedule of WCA

(01)

140. --------- schedule of WCA indicates the list of persons included in the category of the workman and entitled for the

payment of compensation (Schedule -2)

141. Employer’s pleas are not applied in case of …………… of the workman. (Death)

142. Paternity leave period is …………… . (15 days)

143. ½ day LAP is sanctioned to workshop staff for …………… and …………… staff. (Artisan,Group-D)

144. After completing his studies under study leave an employee should serve for atleast …………… years.(03)

145. School staff is eligible for …………… LHAP in a year.(20 days)

146. …………… is issued incase of minor penalties. (SF-XI)

147. …………… is issued in case of major penalties. (SF-V)

148. LHAP is sanctioned on the grounds of …………… . (Medical certificate)

149. Option of 4 sets of PTO’s are came into effect from …………… . (12-03-1987)

150. Employees appointed after 1987 are eligible for …………… sets of PTO’s. (4 sets)

151. Employees working in shifts are not eligible for …………… CL. ( Half day)

152. Leave not due can be sanctioned -------- days in one’s entire carrier (360)

153. Censure is …………… penalty. (Minor)

154. SF-V is issued along with …………… of charges. (Article)

155. Statutory hours for intensive category are …………… hours per week. (45)

156. Statutory hours for essential intermittent category are …………… hours per week. (75)

157. Statutory hours for continuous category are …………… hours per week.(54)

158. Rest hours of an employee under intensive category are …………… hours per week. (30)

159. Rest period of an employee under essential intermittent is …………… hours per week. (24)

160. Enquiry officer is appointed by …………… authority. (Disciplinary)

161. …………… counselor argues on behalf of delinquent employee. (Defense)

162. TTE, Guards comes under …………… category. (Continuous)

163. Expansion of HOER is …………… . (Hours of employment regulation)

164. …………… is responsible for payment of wages. (Employer)

165. For how many workers a first-aid box is to be maintained …………… . (More than 150)

166. For how many workers an ambulance is to be maintained …………… . (More than 500)

167. When canteen facility should be provided …………… . (More than 250 are employed)

168. Shelter, rest room and lunch room are provided when more than …………… are employed. (150)

169. The maximum number of hours an adult workers should work in a week is …………… . (48)

170. What is the minimum spread over time included rest ? …………… . (10.5)

171. Women worker should not be employed to work between …………… to …………… hours. (7PM,6AM)

172. Crèche is provided when more than …………… women workers are employed. (30 women)

173. A welfare officer is appointed when more than …………… workers are employed.(500)

174. The maximum wage period is …………… . (1 month)

175. By what time wages are to be paid, in case of less the 1000 are employed?…………… . (7 th day)

176. By what time wages are to be paid in case of 1000 or more are employed? …………… . (10 thday)

177. Minimum family pension is …………… . (Rs.9000)

178. The minimum service required for sanction of pension is …………… . (10 years)

179. The maximum amount of pension that can be commuted is …………… . (40%)

180. Pensioner would be entitled to have commuted portion of pension restored to them on expiry of …………… from

the date of requirement. (15 years)

181. The qualifying service required for pensionable staff to accept voluntary retirement is …………… years. (20)

182. The dearness relief is payable on …………… pension. (Full)

183. Maximum amount of gratuity payable to retired railway employee is Rs. …………… . (10 lakh)

184. The number of clauses in ISO 9001:2015 is …………… . (10)

185. The HQ’s of ISO are at …………… . (Geneva)

186. Full form of ISO …………… . (International organization for standardization)

187. ISO speaks about …………… improvement. (Continual)

188. The full form of QMS …………… . (Quality management system)

189. ISO 9001:2015, clause – 1 tells about …………… . (Scope)

190. Plan head – 41 covers …………… . (M&P)

191. SRSF stands for …………… . (Special railway safety fund)

192. …………… is the sanctioning authority for work more than 1 crore. (Railway board)

193. The validity of M&P item sanctioned by the railway board is …………… years. (5)

194. A amount of replacement of over aged equipment is taken from …………… . (DRF)

195. When a project of works program is likely to increase then …………… estimate is submitted. (Revised)

196. All the works costing less than…………… of various departments is included in law book. (2.5 crores)

197. DRM’s power for sanction of work of value upto ……………. (30 lakh)

198. Plan head – 53 covers ……………. (Passenger amenities)

199. Demand no. – 16 related to …………… category. (Works demand)

200. Green book contains information about …………… . (SRSF)

201. At zonal level, works program is delivered in the form of …………… .(LSWP)

202. List of approved works book is delivered at …………… level. (Zonal)

203. Plan head – 42 is for …………… . (Workshops and production units)

204. All preliminary and final works program are sanctioned by the parliament in the form of …………… . (Pink book)

205. Rolling stock program for 3 years is known as …………… . (Bulk RSP)

206. Bulk RSP has to be approved by …………… . (Railway Board)

207. SRSF is published in …………… book. (Green)

208. Bulk RSP is listed in …………… book. (Pink)

209. Plan head no. For rolling stock program is …………… . (2100)

210. GM’s power for sanction of works program of value upto …………… . (1 crore)

211. All the works costing above …………… crores of various departments are included in pink book. (2.5 crore)

212. Nodal officer for works program is …………… . (Chief engineer)

213. Nodal officer for M&P program is …………… . (CME)

214. SF-I is issued for …………… . (Suspension)

215. SF-II is issued for …………… . (Deemed Suspension)

216. PIO for RTI Act at Divisional level is ---------- (Sr.DPO)217. Maximum period to get information under RTI Act is -------- (Within 30 days)218. For whom the RTI is not applicable ______ (Foreigners)219. PIO for RTI Act in Zonal Level is --------- (PCPO)220. ----- is the largest Zone in Indian Railways(Eastern Railway)221. EMD stands for ---------------(Earnest Money Deposit)222. EMD is----- % of estimated tender value up to Rs.1 Crore. (2%)223. Estimated tender value is more than One crore, EMD will be --- ( Rs.2 Lakhs +1/2% of Balance above Rs. One Crore

subject to maximum of Rs.1 Crore)224. GCC stands for ---( General Conditions of Contract)225. In Tenders and Contracts, PVC stands for --- (Price Variation Clause)226. In Tenders and Contracts, SD stands for ---(Security Deposit)227. Security Deposit for each work should be ----- % of the contract value (5 ). 228. The successful bidder should give a performance guarantee amounting ---- of Contract Value. (5%)229. In Tenders and Contracts, SVC stands for ------- (Statutory Variation Clause)230. ISO 14000 tells about --------System requirement.( Environment Management)231. ----------is a psychological act which attracts the workers to do more(Motivation)232. Upward communication is from -------- to ----------(Workers , Management)233. Downward communication is from --------- to ---------(Management, Workers)234. Annual report of the industry is a ----------channel of communication (Downward)235. Grievance / complaint procedure is a ---------channel of communication (Upward)236. Giving punishment is --------type of motivation (Negative)237. Giving more responsible job is ----------type of motivation(Positive)238. Internal motivation and freedom are -------------of the employee(Internal motives)239. Internal motivation starts from the------ needs of the individual (Ego)240. Leader should have ------ and ---------(Faith and Respect)241. In fixed delivery contract ---------------is fixed (Rate, Quantity & delivery period).242. Late tenders are those tenders which are received after ---------time (Opening).243. Delayed tenders are those tenders received between ----------time (Closing & Opening).244. In-active items are those items which have no issues for ---- months (12)245. Railway servant holding Group’C’ post shall not accept the gifts exceeding the value of Rs------ (7,500)246. Stores budget is a part of demand no --------- (16)247. The plan head for stores suspense is _____(PH-71)248. In case of rate contract ______ is stipulated (Only Rate)249. IREPS stands for ____ (Indian Railways Electronic Procurement system)250. Head of the department at zonal level is ---------- (SDGM)251. S1313 form is used for -------- (To draw the stores other than imprest stores)252. --------- Form is used for drawing stock items other than imprest stores(S1313)253. --------- Form is used to draw the imprest stores (S1830)254. ‘SEIRI’ means _________ (Sort)255. ‘SEITON’ means _______ (Set in order/Simplify)256. ‘SEISO’ means __________ (Shine/sweeping/cleaning)257. ‘SEIKETSU’ means __________ (Standardise)258. ‘SHITSUKE’ means ____________ (Sustain)259. ‘KAIZEN’ means ___________ (Continuous improvement)260. MMIS stands _______ (Material Management Information System)261. “iMMIS” stands for___________ (Integrated materials management information system)262. GeM stands for________(Government e-Market place)263. GeM is meant for________ (facilitate online procurement of common use Goods & Services required by

various GovernmentDepartments / Organizations / PSUs.)

264. GeM aims at_______ (to enhance transparency, efficiency and speed in public procurement)265. Expand WRIL ______ ( Work Related Illness and Injury Leave)266. Expand AIMS in the context of railway accounts --------- (Accounts Information Management System)267. Expand IPAS in the context of railway accounts --------- (Integrated Payroll & Accounting System)268. Expand IRPSM _______(Indian Railways Projects Sanctions and Management)269. Expand CMS _______(Crew Management System)270. Expand IRIS _______(International Railway Industry Standard)271. Expand AEBAS ______ (Aadhar Enabled Bio-Metric Attendance System)

Questions and Answers on Rajbhasha for Departmental Examinations

1) On which date, Part XVII of the Constitution was passed in Parliament?

A) 14.09.1949. B) 14.09.1950

C) 14.09.1963 D) 14.09.1976

2) When was the Official Languages Act 1963 passed?

A) 10.05.1949 B) 10.05.1963

C) 10.05.1952 D) 10.05.1969

3) When was the Official Languages Act 1963 amended? A) 1976 B) 1963 C) 1964 D) 1967 4) When is ‘Hindi Day’ celebrated every year? A) September 14 B) January 26

C) September 24 D) February 14

5) What is the Official Language of Arunachal Pradesh? A) Hindi B) Urdu C) English D) Kashmiri

6) From when did the Section 3(3) of Official Languages Act take effect?

A) 26 February 1966 B) 26 January 1965

C) 26 January 1972 D) 26 January 1959

7) In which state, Sections 6 & 7 of Official Languages Act 1963 do not apply? A) Tamilnadu B) Telangana C) Delhi D) Jammu & Kashmir

8) In which states, Urdu has been declared as Official Language? A) Tamilnadu & Kerala B) Andhra Pradesh & Bihar

C) Uttar Pradesh &Haryana D) Jammu Kashmir & Delhi.

9) Please mention the states coming under ‘B’ Region.

A) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Punjab, Chandigarh, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and

Daman & Diu

B) Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamilnadu

C) Madhya Pradesh, Kerala, Odisha

D) Jammu Kashmir, Delhi, Rajasthan

10) When was the Official Language Rules passed? A) 1981 B) 1963 C) 1976 D) 1952

11) Which Article comes under Part-VI? A) Article 209 B) Article 370 C) Article 375 D) Article

210

12) In which year, Hindi (Parliament) Section was established in Railway Board? A) In/ the year 1960 B) In/ the year 1956

C) In/ the year 1976 D) In/ the year 1977

13) How many Hindi courses are prescribed for Central Govt. employees?

A) 4 B) 3 C) 5 D) 6 14) Who is the Chairman of Central Hindi Committee? A) Prime Minister B) Chief Minister

C) Education Minister D)Finance Minister 15) When was the present Parliamentary Committee on Official Language constituted?

A)January 1956 B) January 1976

C) January 1977 D) January 1982

16) How many members are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language?

A)70 B) 40 C) 50 D)30

17) At present, how many Sub-Committees are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language?

A) 3 Sub-Committees B) 2 Sub-Committees

C) 01 Sub-Committees D) None of the above

18) What is the periodicity of the meeting of Town Official Language Implementation Committee?

A) Once/ in 2 months B) Once/ in 3 months C) Once/ in 5 months D) Once/ in 8 months

19) How many times is the Regular Hindi examination conducted in a year? A) 1 Times B) 3 Times C) 4 Times D) 2 Times

20) In which months, Regular Hindi examinations are conducted? A) August &September B) June &July C) May & November D) December & April

21) Who are all the employees classified under Category ‘A’? A) Those employees whose mother tongue is Hindi or Hindustani or its

dialect.

B) Those employees whose mother tongue is Bengali

C) Those employees whose mother tongue is Guajarati

D) Those employees whose mother tongue is Tamil

22) Who are all the employees classified under Category ‘C’?

A) Those employees whose mother tongue is Marathi, Gujarati,

Bengali, Oriya or Assamese.

B) Those employees whose mother tongue is Telugu

C) Those employees whose mother tongue is kannada

D) Those employees whose mother tongue is Bengali

23) What is the lumpsum award for passing Pragya? A) Rs 2800/- B) Rs 2400/- C) Rs 3200/- D)Rs 4600/- 24) What is the Cash Award amount for the first prize under Collective Cash award

Scheme A) Rs 1500/- B) Rs 2000/- C) Rs 1000/- D) Rs 5000/-

25) What is the Cash Award amount for the second prize under Collective Cash award Scheme

A) Rs.1000/- B) Rs.1500/- C) Rs 1200 /- D) Rs.1600 र/-

26) What is the language of Indian union?

A) Hindi in devinagiri script

27) Which group of official language comes under Andaman and nicobar islands? A) Region B B)Region A C) Region D) A and B are correct

28) Who was the First Chairman of the Committee which was formed on the recommendation of

the Official Language Commission?

A) Shri.B.G.Keira B) Shri.D.Ambedkar C) Shri. G.B.Pant. D) Smt.Sarojini Naidu

29) As per the Constitution, who is translating the statutory rules, regulations and orders?

A) Law Ministry B)Home Ministry C)Ministry of Defence D) Ministry of Human resource

30) Which Article comes under Part-VI?

A) Article 210 B)Article 370 C) Article 375 D)Article 290

31) Who chaired the First Railway Hindi Salahkaar Samiti constituted in 1973 ?

A) Shri.Lalit Narayan Mishra B) Shri.Rajender Kumar C)Shri.R.K.Narayan D) Shri.Abdul Kalam

32) In which year, Hindi (Parliament) Section was established in Railway Board ?

A) In/ the year 1960 B) In/ the year 1980 C) In/ the year 1970 D) In/ the year 1962

33) What are the states that come under Region ‘A’

Bihar, Jharkhand, Delhi, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Rajasthan, Uttar

Pradesh, Uttaranchal and Andaman & Nicobar Island group.

34) What are all the states that come under Region ‘C’ ?

Region ‘C’ means the States and Union Territories other than those referred to in Region ‘A’ and ‘B’.

Tamilnadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal, Goa, Jammu & Kashmir, Assam,

Nagaland, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur, Union Territory of

Pondicherry and Lakshadweep

35) What is the scheme implemented by Railway Board for doing work in Hindi ?

A) Rajbhasha Individual Cash Award Scheme

B) Rajiv Gandhi Award

C)Rajbhasha Shield

D)Home ministry individual medal

36) Who is the Chairman of Central Hindi Committee?

A)Chief Minister B)Prime Minister C) Home minister D) President

37) Which Committee reviews the progress made in the propagation of Hindi in a particular

Ministry/Department ?

A) Hindi Salahkaar Samiti

B)Hindi Rules Committee

C)Home ministry Committee

D) Rajbhasha Committee

38) When was the present Parliamentary Committee on Official Language constituted ?

A) January 1956 B)January 1976 C) January 1986 D) January 1977

39) At present, how many Sub-Committees are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official

Language?

A)3 Sub-Committee B)2 Sub-Committee C)1 Sub-Committee D)None of the above 40) What is the periodicity of the meeting of Town Official Language Implementation Committee?

A) Once in 3/months B) Once in 2/months C)Once in 4/Months D) Once in 6 months

41) Who prepares the Annual Programme on Official Language?

A) Ministry of Home Affairs

B) Ministry of Railways

C) Parliamentary Committee

D) City official Language Committee

42) What are the Hindi courses prescribed for Central Govt.employees ?

Prabodh, Praveen & Pragya

43) What are the training facilities available to a Central Govt. employee to get trained in the Hindi

courses?

A) Regular, Intensive, Correspondence and Private

B) Intensive course

C)Correspondence

D)Regular

44) How many times are the Regular Hindi examination conducted in a year?

A) 4 B)2 C)3 D)5

45) In which months, Regular Hindi examinations are conducted?

A) May & November B) June &July C) August & September D) December & April

46) What is the Cash Award amount for the third prize under Collective Cash award Scheme?

A) 800 B)1000 C)1200 D)None of the above

47) How many second prizes are given in a year for writing more than 10,000 words in one unit?

A)4 B)3 C)5 D)10

48) What is the lumpsum award for passing Hindi Typewriting Examination by private study?

A)1600 B) 1400 C)1300 D)1100

49) What is the Foreign Language included in the Eight Schedule?

A)Hindi B) Bengali C)Bhojpuri D)Nepali

50) Who all are eligible for Personal Pay?

passing Pragya Examination organized by the HTS of the Central Government or on passing the

prescribed exam. Duly securing the specified % of marks for certain categories by the Central

Government.

��

Questions and Answers Bank on Rajbhasha

I. CONSTITUTIONAL PROVISIONS OF OFFICIAL LANGUAGE

1. What is the Official Language of Union of India? Hindi in Devanagari Script

2. Which form of numerals are to be used for official purposes of the Union? International form of Indian numerals

3. Which part of the Constitution contains provisions regarding Official Language? Part XVII

4. On which date Part XVII of the Constitution was passed in Parliament?

14.09.1949

5. How many chapters are there in Part XVII of the Constitution? 4 Chapters

6. How many articles are there in the Part XVII of the Constitution? 9 Articles

7. What are all the nine Articles covered under Part XVII of the Constitution? Article 343 to 351

8. In which part and in which article of the constitution provision regarding the language to be used

for Transaction of business in Parliament exists? Article 120 of Part V

9. In which part and in which article of the constitution provision regarding the language to be used for

transaction of business in State Legislatures exists? Article 210 of Part VI

10. Which article of the constitution contain provision regarding the language to be used in courts etc.?

Article 348 & 349

11. Which article of the constitution contain provision regarding the official language of Union of India?

Article 343 & 344

12. Which article of the constitution contain provision regarding the official language of States? Article 345

13. As per Article 343(1) of the constitution when Hindi became the official language of the Union of

India? 26.01.1965

14. Name the articles of the constitution which in their provisions contain reference to Eighth Schedule

of the constitution? Article 344(1) & 351

1

15. In which part of the constitution are the articles 343-351, that gives information about

Official Language available? Part XVII (In the Seventeenth Part)

16. At present how many languages are enlisted in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution? Twenty-two

17. When the Constitution was adopted, how many languages were included in the Eighth Schedule

initially? Fourteen

18. In which year Maithili, Bodo, Dogri and Santhali were added to the Eighth Schedule later? 2003

19. In which year Sindhi was added to the Eighth Schedule? 1963

20. In which year Nepali, Konkani & Manipuri were added to the 8th

Schedule?

1992

21. Which one is the foreign language included in the 8th

Schedule?

Nepali

22. Which is the Official Language of Arunachal Pradesh? English

23. When was Official Language Act 1963 passed? 10.05.1963

24. when did the section 3(3) of the Official Language Act take effect? 26 January 1965

25. When was the official Language Act, 1963 was amended? 1967

26. How many sections are there in the Official Language Act 1963, as amended in the year 1967? 9 Sections

27. Name the sections of Official Languages Act 1963(as amended in 1967) which are not applicable to

Jammu & Kashmir? Section 6 & 7

28. With which section 7 of Official Language Act,1963 is concerned? It is concerned with optional use of Hindi or other Official Language in Judgements in High Courts.

29. Why was the Official Languages Act 1963 passed? For making provision regarding continued use of English along with Hindi even after 1965

30. When was Resolution on Official Language passed by Parliament? 18.01.1968

31. When was Official Languages Rules passed? 1976

2

32. When was Official Languages Rules amended? 1987

33. Into how many Regions Indian states have been classified, according to Official Languages Rules?

Three Regions

34. What are all the 3 Regions as classified under Official Languages Rules?

A, B & C Region

35. How many States and Union Territories are there in Region ‘A’? 9 States & 1 NCT Delhi, 1 Union Territory.

36. How many States and Union Territories are there in Region ‘B’? States & 2 Union Territory

37. When is “Hindi Day” celebrated every year?

14th

September

38. Which are the states that come under Region ‘A’?

States: (i) Uttar Pradesh (ii) Uttaranchal (iii) Bihar (iv)Jharkhand (v) Haryana (vi)Himachal Pradesh (vii)Madhya Pradesh (viii)Chhattisgarh

(ix) Rajasthan

Union Territory: (i) Andaman & Nicobar Island group

NCT:

(i) Delhi

39. Which are the states that come under Region ‘B’?

States: (i) Maharashtra (ii) Gujarat (iii) Punjab

Union Territory: (i) Chandigarh (ii) Daman and Diu and (iii) Dadar and Nagar Haveli

40. Which are the states that come under Region ‘C’?

States: (i) Karnataka (ii) Tamilnadu (iii) Kerala (iv) Andhra Pradesh (v)

Telangana (vi) Odisha (vii)West Bengal (viii)Goa (ix)Jammu and

Kashmir (x) Assam (xi) Nagaland (xii) Meghalaya (xiii) Arunachal

Pradesh (xiv) Sikkim (xv) Tripura (xvi)Mizoram (xvii) Manipur

Union Territory: (i) Puducherry (ii) Lakshadweep

41. Who is responsible for the compliance of provisions of Official Languages Act and rules?

Administrative Head of each Central Government Office

42. Which Ministry takes important decisions pertaining to Official Language? Ministry of Home Affairs

43. According to Official Languages Rules, Tamilnadu falls under which region? Region ‘C’

44. According to Official Languages Rules, Andaman & Nicobar Islands fall under which region?

Region ‘A’

45. Which are the Union Territories classified under Region "B”? Chandigarh, Daman & Diu, Dadar and Nagar Haveli

3

46. States in which Urdu has been declared as one of the Official Language? Telangana, Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh and Delhi.

47. Who was the Charmian of the First Official Language Commission? Shri Bal Gangadhar Kher

48. Who was the First Chairman of the Committee Which was formed on the recommendation of the

Official Language Commission? Shri Govind Ballabh Pant

49. Who was the First Chairman of the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language constituted in the

year 1976? The then Home Minister Shri Om Mehta

50. Who chaired the First Railway Hindi Salahakaar Samiti constituted in 1973? Shri Lalit Narayan Mishra

51. As per the Constitution, who is translating the Statutory Rules, Regulations and Orders? Law Ministry

52. Which was the Main Language and Co-Official Language used for the Official Purpose of the Union

of India up to 1965? English was the Main Language and Hindi was the Co-Official Language.

53. Which Committee of the Committee on Parliament on Official Language prepared the Draft? Drafting & Evidence Sub-Committee of the Committee of Parliament on Official Language.

40. In which year the post of Hindi Assistant was created in Railway Board in compliance of President’s

order? In the General Branch of Railway Board in the year 1952.

41. In which year, Hindi (Parliament) Section was established in Railway Board? In the year 1960.

42. In which year, the Hindi Translation of Railway Budget was prepared and who was the Railway

Minister? In the year 1956, Late Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri.

II. COMMITTEES ON OFFICIAL LANGUAGE

1. Who is the Chairman of Central Hindi Samiti (Committee)? Prime Minister

2. The Central Hindi Samiti (Committee) comes under which Ministry? The Ministry of Home Affairs

3. After Independence, initially which Ministry was entrusted the duty of training Central Government

Staff in Hindi? Education Ministry.

4. Which committee review the progress made in the propagation of Hindi in a particular

4

5. When was the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language constituted? January 1975

6. How many members are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language? 30 Members

7. How many Lok Sabha members are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language? 20 Members

8. How many Rajya Sabha members are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language?

10 Members 9. At present, how many Sub-Committees are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official

Language? 3 Sub-Committees

10. Which Sub-Committee of Parliamentary Committee on Official Language, inspects the offices

of Railway Ministry?

2nd

Sub-Committee

11. What is the expansion for OLIC used by Dept. of Official Language? Official Language Implementation Committee

12. What is the main duty of Official Language Implementation Committee? To review the progressive use of Hindi

13. Who is the Chairman of the Divisional Official Language Implementation Committee? Divisional Railway Manager (DRM)

14. Who is the Chairman of the Zonal Official Language Implementation Committee? General Manager/SWR/UBL

15. Who is made as the Chairman of the Town Official Language Implementation Committee

Constituted? in major cities? Senior most Central Govt. Officer of the City

16. Who is the Chairman of the Town Official Language Implementation Committee functioning in

Hubballi City? General Manager of South Western Railway

17. What is the periodicity of the meetings Official Language Implementation Committee? Once in 3 months

18. What is the periodicity of the meetings of Town Official Language Implementation Committee?

Once in 6 months

19. What is the periodicity of the meetings Hindi Salahkar Samiti? Twice in a year.

20. Who prepares Annual Programme on Official Language? Ministry of Home Affairs

5

21. What is the periodicity for the reconstitution of Official Language Implementation Committees

constituted at Stations/Offices? Once in Three years

22. What is the honorarium given to the OLIC part-time Clerk for looking after the work relating to

Official Language Implementation Committees constituted at Stations/Offices? Rs.300/-per month

23. How much amount can be spent for the supply of coffee, biscuits to the members present in the

Official Language Implementation Committees meetings conducted at Stations/Offices? Rs.30/- per member

24. Who is responsible for the violation of Section 3(3) of Official Language Rules, 1963? The Officer signing such Documents.

25. The Question Papers of departmental examination must be provided in which languages? Hindi and English, bilingual form.

26. The Annual Programme on Official Language is prepared by whom? The Ministry of Home Affairs, Department of Official Language.

27. Why are the Central Government staff given Hindi Training? In order to facilitate them to do their Official Work in Hindi.

28. Who are eligible for training in Hindi Workshop? All staff and Officers who possess working knowledge/proficiency in Hindi.

III. HINDI TRAINING

1. How many Hindi courses are prescribed for Central Govt. employees? Four

2. What are all the four Hindi courses, prescribed for Central Govt. employees? Prabodh, Praveen, Pragya and Parangat

3. Which is the elementary Hindi course prescribed for Central Govt. employees? Prabodh

4. Which is the final Hindi course prescribed for Central Govt. employees? Pragya

5. What are all the training facilities available to a Central Govt. Employee to get trained in these Hindi

courses? Regular, Intensive, Correspondence & Private

6. What is the duration of each Hindi course? (Except Intensive Training) Six months

6

7. How many times Hindi examinations (except Intensive Training) are conducted in a year? Two Times.

8. What are all the months in which Hindi examinations are usually conducted? May & November

9. How long is the Prabodh course conducted under Intensive Training? 25 Working Days

10. How long is the Praveen course conducted under Intensive Training? 20 Working Days

11. How long is the Pragya course conducted under Intensive Training? 15 Working Days

12. Who are eligible to be trained in the above Hindi courses? All the Central Govt. employees in Group ‘C’ & above Service

13. What is the minimum qualification required to be eligible to attend Hindi Typewriting examination?

A pass in Praveen Course of Hindi Teaching Scheme, or its equivalent standard

14. Who conducts the Hindi examinations for Central Govt. employees?

Hindi Teaching Scheme under Department of Official Language

15. In accordance with the Hindi Teaching Scheme, into how many categories the Central Govt.

employees have been classified? What are they? Four. They are A, B, C & D

16. Who are all the employees classified under Category "A”? Whose mother tongue is Hindi or Hindustani or its dialect.

17. Who are all the employees classified under Category "B”? Whose mother tongue is Urdu, Punjabi, Kashmiri, Pushto, Sindhi or other allied language.

18. Who are all the employees classified under Category "C"? Whose mother tongue is Marathi, Guajarati, Bengali, Oriya, or Assamese

19. Who are all the employees classified under Category "D"? Whose Mother Tongue is South Indian Language or English.

20. Name the Category of employee for whom Hindi training is not required?

Category "A" 21. In which course a Category "B" employee, defined under Hindi Teaching Scheme required to be

trained?

Pragya course

22. From which course a Category "C" employee, defined under Hindi Teaching Scheme required to be

trained?

Praveen course

23. From which course a Category "D" employee, defined under Hindi Teaching Scheme required to be

trained?

Prabodh course

7

IV. INCENTIVES GIVEN FOR PASSING HINDI EXAMINATIONS

1. What are all the incentives given for passing Hindi Examinations?

Cash Award, Lumsum Award & Personal Pay

2. When will an employee become eligible for Cash Award for passing Hindi Examinations?

On obtaining 55% or above marks in written examination

3. When will an employee become eligible for Cash Award for passing Hindi Typewriting

Examination?

On obtaining 90% or above marks

4. When will an employee become eligible for Cash Award for passing Hindi Stenography

Examination?

On obtaining 88% or above marks

5. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Prabodh with 55% or more but less than 60% of

marks?

Rs.400

6. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Prabodh with 60% or more but less than 70% of

marks?

Rs.800

7. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Prabodh with 70% or more marks?

Rs.1600

8. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Praveen with 55% or more but less than 60% of

marks?

Rs.800

9. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Praveen with 60% or more but less than 70% of

marks?

Rs.1200

10. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Praveen with 70% or more marks?

Rs.1800

11. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Pragya with 55% or more but less than 60% of

marks?

Rs.800

8

12. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Pragya with 60% or more but less than 70% of

marks?

Rs.1600

13. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Pragya with 70% or more marks?

Rs.2400

14. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Hindi Typing with 90% or more but less than 95%

of marks?

Rs.800

15. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Hindi Typing with 95% or more but less than 97%

of marks?

Rs.1600

16. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Hindi Typing with 97% or more marks? Rs.2400

17. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Hindi Stenography with 88% or more but less than

92% of marks?

Rs.800

18. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Hindi Stenography with 92% or more but less than

95% of marks?

Rs.1600

19. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Hindi Stenography with 95% or more marks? Rs.2400

20. Who are all eligible for Lumpsum Award? Operational & Open line staff who pass Hindi examination through private

efforts 21. What is the amount of Lumpsum Award for passing Prabodh course?

Rs.1600

22. What is the amount of Lumpsum Award for passing Praveen course? Rs.1500

23. What is the amount of Lumpsum Award for passing Pragya course? Rs.2400

24. What is the amount of Lumpsum Award for passing Hindi Typewriting exam? Rs.1600

25. What is the amount of Lumpsum Award for passing Hindi Stenography Exam? Rs.3000

26. Who are all eligible for Personal Pay? Employees who pass the Hindi course prescribed for their Designation

9

27. What is the minimum percentage of mark to be obtained by an employee to become eligible for

Personal Pay, for whom the prescribed course is Prabodh or Praveen? 55% marks in written examination

28. What is the minimum percentage of mark to be obtained by a Gazetted Officer, in Pragya course to

become eligible for Personal Pay? 60% marks in written examination

29. What is the amount of Personal Pay given for passing prescribed Hindi course? Personal Pay equivalent to one increment for a period of 12 months

30. What is the Personal Pay given for passing Hindi Stenography, to a Stenographer whose mother

tongue is not Hindi? Personal Pay equivalent to two increments for a period of 12 months

31. Why training in Hindi is imparted to Central Government Officers/Employees? By which they can do their day-to-day official work in Hindi

32. Is there any special training facility available to make the Hindi knowing officer/staff to do their day-

to-day work in Hindi? This is being imparted in the Hindi Workshops

33. Who are eligible to undergo training in Hindi Workshops? All Class III & Gazetted staff who has working knowledge/proficiency in Hindi.

V. AWARDS GIVEN FOR DOING OFFICIAL WORK IN HINDI

1. What is the name of the scheme introduced by Railway Board for doing official work in Hindi?

Rajbhasha Individual Cash Award Scheme

2. How many employees/officers are awarded under Railway Board's Rajbhasha Individual Cash

Award Scheme from South Western Railway every year?

Five

3. What is the amount of prize money given under Rajbhasha Individual Cash Award Scheme? Rs.1500

4. How many prizes are given under Collective Cash Award Scheme for doing official work in Hindi?

Three

5. To whom Collective Cash Award is given?

The department, which do progressive use of Hindi in the Official work

6. What is the amount of First prize, given under Collective Cash Award Scheme?

Rs.9000 (6xRs.1500)

7. What is the amount of Second prize, given under Collective Cash Award Scheme? Rs.6000 (5xRs.1200)

10

8. What is the amount of Third prize, given under Collective Cash Award Scheme? Rs.4000 (5xRs.800)

9. How many First prizes are given for writing more than 10,000 words in Hindi, in a year? Two

10. How many Second prizes are given for writing more than 10,000 words in Hindi, in a year?

Three

11. How many Third prizes are given for writing more than 10,000 words in Hindi, in a year? Five

12. What is the amount of prize money for First prize, given for writing more than 10,000 words in

Hindi in a year?

Rs.5000

13. What is the amount of prize money for Second prize, given for writing more than 10,000 words in

Hindi in a year?

Rs.3000

14. What is the amount of prize money for Third prize, given for writing more than 10,000 words in

Hindi in a year?

Rs.2000

15. What is the additional weightage given to a Non-Hindi speaking employee for assessing awards

under 10,000 words Award Scheme? Weightage up to 20%

16. In which region of the Non-Hindi speaking participants be given ‘Grace Marks’ for participating in

Hindi Essay/Elocution/Noting & Drafting competitions.? ‘C’ Region

17. What is the percentage of Grace Marks given to a Non-Hindi speaking employee who is participating

in Hindi Essay, Elocution and Noting & Drafting Competitions? 10% of the Total Marks obtained.

18. What is percentage of questions relating to Official Language policy and Rules should be asked in

departmental examinations? 10% marks out of the total prescribed marks.

19. Is it mandatory to answer the questions relating to Official Language policy (Hindi) In Departmental

Examinations? No./It is Optional.

20. Is it mandatory to prepare Departmental Examination Question Papers in Hindi along with English?

Yes.

21. Are candidates allowed to opt Hindi Medium in oral test or viva-voce conducted for departmental

selection. Yes.

22. What is the quantum of Hindi Typing work to be done by a Typist/Steno to become eligible for

Hindi Incentive Allowance? 5 notes in Hindi in a day or 300 notes in Hindi in a quarter

11

23. What is the amount of Incentive Allowance given to a Stenographer? Rs.240/- per month

24. What is the amount of Incentive Allowance given to a Typist? Rs.160 per month

25. What is the name of the award given for writing original books in Hindi on technical Railway

Subjects? Lal Bahadur Shastri Technical Puraskar

26. What is the name of the award given for writing Hindi poetry books? Mythili Sharan Gupta Puraskar

27. What is the name of the award given for writing Hindi Novel & Story books?

Cash Awards for above Questions 25, 26 & 27 Prizes:

Ist

IInd

IIIrd

Premchand Puraskar

Prize: 15,000/-

Prize: 7000/-

Prize: 3300/-

28. Which Award is given to a Zonal Railway/Productions Unit situated in Region ‘A’ ‘B’& ‘C’ for best

record in a year for Propagation and use of Hindi?

Railway Minister’s Rajbhasha Shield & Trophy respectively for 1st

and 2nd

place. 29. Which award is given to a Adarsh Division situated in Region ‘A’ & ‘B’ for best record in a year

for Propagation and use of Hindi? Acharya Mahaveer Prasad Running Shield.

30. Which award is given to a Adarsh Division situated in Region ‘C’ for best record in a year

for Propagation and use of Hindi? Acharya Raghuveer Running shield.

31. What award is given to a Adarsh Station/Workshop situated in Region ‘C’ for best record in a year

for

Propagation and use of Hindi? Rail Mantri Rajbhasha Shield+Rs.7000/-

VI. IMPLEMENTATION OF OFFICIAL LANGUAGE

1. What is the target fixed for letters in Hindi sent from ‘C’ region to ‘A’ ‘B’ and ‘C’ region? 55%

2. What is the target fixed in Annual Programme for writing noting in Hindi? 30%

3. What is the Target fixed in Annual Programme for letters received in Hind to be answered in Hindi?

100%

12

4. What is the significance of Section 3(3) of O.L. Act? The documents that are to be issued in bilingual form are mentioned in the Section 3(3) of OL Act.

5. What is the target fixed for documents coming under Section 3(3) of O.L. Act? 100%

6. Who is responsible to ensure that the documents coming under Section 3(3) are issued in bilingual

form? The Authority signing on such documents.

7. In which form the General Orders (Office Orders, Allotment orders, Memorandum, Circular etc.) are

to be issued? In Hindi & English bilingual form

8. In which form the letter received in Hindi should be replied to?

9. In which form Application/Appeal/Representative made or signed in Hindi should be replied to?

In Hindi only

10. In which form Office/Station Name boards, sign boards, Designation Boards and Forms used by

public are to be prepared? Trilingual Form (Regional Language, Hindi & English)

11. In which order of languages the Name boards, sign boards, and Designation boards should be

exhibited?

Trilingual Form (Regional Language, Hindi & English)

12. In which order forms used by Public are to be prepared? Trilingual Form (Regional Language, Hindi & English)

13. In which order of languages the Station Announcements are to be made? Trilingual Form (Regional Language, Hindi & English)

14. In which language Roof Boards of Coaches are to be exhibited? Trilingual Form (Regional Language, Hindi & English)

15. In which proportion the Roof Boards are to be displayed? Equal proportion of all the languages.

16. In which form Panel Boards of Train are to be exhibited? Trilingual Form (Regional Language, Hindi & English)

17. In which form Name Badges are to be prepared? Hindi & English – Bilingual Form

18. In which form subject on the Files/Registers are to be written? Hindi & English – Bilingual Form

19. In which form Rubber Stamps are to be prepared? Hindi & English – Bilingual Form

20. In which form Standard Forms (which are not used by public) are to be printed? Hindi & English – Bilingual Form

13

21. In which form Manuals, Codes and other literatures on Procedures are to be printed? Hindi & English – Bilingual Form

22. In which form Letter Heads and Visiting Cards are to be printed? Hindi & English – Bilingual Form

23. In which form Train Time-Tables are to be printed? Hindi & English – Bilingual Form

24. In which form Invitations are to be issued? Regional language, Hindi & English – Trilingual Form

25. In which form Telephone Directories are to be prepared? Hindi & English – Diglot Form

26. In which order inscription on Govt. Vehicles, Walls & Furniture are to be written? Hindi & English – Bilingual Form

27. In which order Name and Designation Boards kept on conference tables are to be exhibited? Hindi & English – Bilingual Form

28. In which order Minutes and Agenda-Notes are to be prepared? Hindi & English – Bilingual Form

29. According to Annual Programme, in which order Advertisement (Tender Notice etc.) of Central

Offices are to be published in News Papers? Hindi & English – Bilingual Form

30. In which order Reservation Charts of Trains are to be prepared and displayed? Hindi & English – Bilingual Form

31. According to Official Language policy, what is to be ensured while purchasing Computer System?

Facility to do Hindi & English Data Entry

32. When ‘World Hindi Day’ is observed?

On 10 January.

33. When was first time ‘World Hindi Day’ is observed? 10 January, 2006

34. Why “Hindi Day/Divas” is celebrated every year? To create awareness of Official Language

35. Why Hindi Libraries are opened in various Offices and /Stations? To propagate Hindi through books and Magazines.

36. What is the amount of honorarium given to Part Time OLIC Part Time clerk? Rs.300 per month.

14

Question Bank on Knowledge of Quality Standards – ISO 9000, 14000, 18000

01. According to ISO, the quality system is the organizational structure, responsibilities, procedures,

processes, and resources for implementing quality management.

a) True

b) False [ a ]

02. 2. Which of the following must not be a characteristic of a quality system?

a) It must be well-understood

b) Products or services actually do satisfy customer expectations

c) Emphasis on problem prevention

d) It must be ineffective [ d ]

03. A quality system is involved in all phases from initial identification to final satisfaction of

requirements and meeting customer satisfaction.

a)True

b) False [ a ]

04. Which of the following is not an advantage of implementing a quality system that conforms to

ISO standards?

a) Improvement in employee involvement

b) Improvement in housekeeping

c) Improvement in customer satisfaction

d) Inefficient decision making [ d ]

05. Which of the following cannot be considered a reason for implementing a quality system that

conforms to ISO standards?

a) Improvement in safe working

b) Reduction in customer complaints

c) Increased inspection efforts

d) Decreased inspection efforts [ c ]

06. Which of the following represents India in ISO?

a) PFRDA

b) FSSAI

c) BIS

d) BCCI [ c ]

07. Which is the latest ISO 9001 version in the ISO 9000 family?

a) ISO 9001:1994

b) ISO 9001:2000

c) ISO 9001:2008

d) ISO 9001:2015 [ d ]

08. Which of the following is/are the advantage(s) of using the ISO 9001 standard?

a) Organizing processes [ d ]

b) Improving the efficiency of processes

c) Continuous improvement

d) Organizing processes, improving the efficiency of processes, and continuous improvement

09. Which is the only standard in the ISO 9000 family to which organizations can certify?

a) ISO 9000

b) ISO 9001

c) ISO 14000

d) ISO 9004 [ b ]

10. Which ISO standard provides guidelines for auditing management systems?

a) ISO 19011:2018

b) ISO 9000:2015

c) ISO 9001:2015

d) ISO 9004:2018 [ a ]

11. Which ISO 9000 family standard provides the fundamentals and vocabulary for quality

management systems?

a) ISO 19011:2018

b) ISO 9000:2015

c) ISO 9001:2015

d) ISO 9004:2018 [ b ]

12. Which is the latest ISO 9000 version in the ISO 9000 family?

a) ISO 9000:1987

b) ISO 9000:2000

c) ISO 19011:2018

d) ISO 9000:2015 [ d ]

13. Which ISO standard provides guidance to achieve sustained success and the continuous

improvement of an organization?

a) ISO 19011:2018

b) ISO 9000:2015

c) ISO 9001:2015

d) ISO 9004:2018 [ d ]

14. Which of the following is not a quality management principle on the basis of which ISO

9000:2015 and ISO 9001:2015 are based on?

a) Customer focus

b) Leadership

c) Customer dissatisfaction

d) Evidence based decision making [ c ]

15. ISO 14000 standards are for the _________

a) Quality Management System

b) Environmental Management System

c) Administration

d) Supply chain [ b ]

16. In which year did the ISO create the ISO 14000 family of standards?

a) 1956

b) 1966

c) 1978

d) 1996 [ d ]

17. Which is the first environmental management system standard?

a) BS 7750

b) ISO 9000

c) ISO 9001

d) ISO 9004 [ a ]

18. In which year did the current revision of ISO 14001 get published?

a) 2010

b) 2011

c) 2015

d) 2016 [ c ]

19. Which one of the following is not within the purview of ISO 14000 family of standards?

a) Environmental management system

b) Environment auditing

c) Life-cycle assessment

d) Quality management system [ d ]

20. Which one of the following does not belong to the area of Organization Evaluation Standards in

ISO 14000 series?

a) Environmental management system

b) Environmental auditing

c) Environmental performance evaluation

d) Environmental labels and declarations [ d ]

21. 8. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall under the category of Environmental

Management System?

a) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004

b) ISO 14010 and ISO 14001

c) ISO 14011 and ISO 14001

d) ISO 14011 and ISO 14004 [ a ]

22. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall under the category of Environmental

Auditing?

a) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004

b) ISO 14010 and ISO 14011

c) ISO 14011 and ISO 14001

d) ISO 14012 and ISO 14004 [ b ]

23. Which ISO 14000 series standard refers to the guidelines on Environmental Performance

Evaluation?

a) ISO 14001

b) ISO 14004

c) ISO 14010

d) ISO 14031 [ d ]

24. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall under the category of Environmental

Labelling?

a) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004

b) ISO 14010 and ISO 14011

c) ISO 14020 and ISO 14021

d) ISO 14012 and ISO 14020 [ c ]

25. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards belong to the category of Environmental

Labelling?

a) ISO 14022 and ISO 14023

b) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004

c) ISO 14001 and ISO 14021

d) ISO 14012 and ISO 14020 [ a ]

26. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards belong to the category of Life Cycle

Assessment?

a) ISO 14041 and ISO 14023

b) ISO 14041 and ISO 14004

c) ISO 14040 and ISO 14041

d) ISO 14040 and ISO 14020 [ c ]

27. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall under the category of Life Cycle

Assessment?

a) ISO 14041 and ISO 14023

b) ISO 14041 and ISO 14004

c) ISO 14042 and ISO 14043

d) ISO 14040 and ISO 14020 [ c ]

28. ISO 18000 is issued for -----

a) Personal health and safety

b) Company’s health and safety

c) Occupational health and safety

d) Society’s health and safety [ c ]

Total Quality Management

01 Malcolm Baldrige national quality award is for (MBNQA)

a) Total Quality Management

b) International Standard Organization

c) Total Productive Maintenance

d) Total Quality Control [ a ]

02 The process mapping is a ____________ diagram.

a) Data flow

b) Work flow

c) Circular

d) Audit [ a ]

03 Control chart is a

a) Process monitoring tool

b) Process control tool

c) Both (a) and (b)


04 The objective of ISO-9000 family of Quality

a) Customer satisfaction.

b) Employee satisfaction.

c) Skill enhancement.

d) Environmental issues. [ a ]

05 Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses on

a) Employee

b) Customer

c) Both (a) and (b)


06 Which of the following is responsible for quality objective?

a) Top level management.

b) Middle level management.

c) Frontline management.

d) All of the above. [ a ]

07 The following is (are) the machine down time.

a) Waste

b) No material

c) Breakdown

d) All of the above. [ d ]

08 TQM & ISO both focuses on

a) Customer

b) Employee

c) Supplier

d) All of the above. [ a ]

09 According to Deming, Quality problems are

a) Due to management.

b) Due to method

c) Due to machine

d) Due to material [ a ]

10 While setting Quality objective, _______ to be considered.

a) Material quality

b) Customer need

c) Market demand

d) All of the above [ b ]

11 ________helps organization reduce employee

a) Job design

b) Training & development

c) Wage revision

d) all of the above [ b ]

12 CMM stands for

a) Capability maturity model

b) Capability monitoring model

c) Capability measuring model

d) Capability matching model [ a ]

13 While setting quality objective __________ to be considered.

a) Customer need.

b) Organizational need.

c) Supplier need.

d) Worker need. [ a ]

14 Which of the following is for environment.

a) ISO-9000

b) ISO-14000

c) ISO-26000

d) ISO-31000 [ b]

15 P-D-C-A stands for

a) Plan-Do-check-Act

b) Plan-Do-correct-Act

c) Proceed-Do-check-Act

d) Proceed-Do-correct-Act [ a ]

16 What is ISO?

a) Indian Organization for Standard.

b) Internal Organization for Standard

c) International Organization for Standard

d) Non of the above [ c ]

17 EMS stands for

a) Environmental Management System

b) Employees Management System

c) Engineering Management System

d) Equipment Management System [ a ]

18 For Cpk (Process capability index) value of 1.33, the PPM is

a) 1

b) 63

c) 2700

d) 45500 [ b ]