200 Read the following instructions carefully before you

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MOCK TEST SBI CLERK MAINS - 06

Time Allowed: 120 Minutes Maximum Marks: 200

Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.

INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATE

1. This booklet contains 200 questions in all comprising the following 5 parts: Part - (I): Reasoning + Computer (50 Question) Part – (II): Math (50 Question) Part – (III): ENGLISH LANGUAGE (40 Question) Part – (VI): GENERAL AWARENESS (50 Question) 2. All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. 3. Before you start to answer the question you must check up this booklet and ensure that it contains

all the pages and see that no page is missing or replaced. If you find any defect in this booklet, you must get it replaced immediately.

4. The paper carries negative marking. 0.25 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer. 5. You will be supplied the Answer-sheet separately by the invigilator. You must complete the

details of Name, Roll number, Test Id and name of the examination on the Answer-Sheet carefully before you actually start answering the questions. You must also put your signature on the Answer-Sheet at the prescribed place. These instructions must be fully complied with, failing which, your Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and you will be awarded ‘ZERO’ mark.

6. Answer must be shown by completely blackening the corresponding circles on the Answer -Sheet against the relevant question number by HB pencil or Black/ blue ball pen only.

7. A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer-Sheet. In case the information is incompletely /different from the information given in the application form, the candidature of such candidate will be treated as cancelled.

8. The Answer-Sheet must be handed over to the Invigilator before you leave the Examination Hall.

9. Failure to comply with any of the above Instructions will render a candidate liable to such action/penalty as may be deemed fit.

10. Answer the questions as quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and others easy. Do not spend too much time on any question.

11. Mobile phones and wireless communication device are completely banned in the examination halls/rooms. Candidates are advised not to keep mobile phones/any other wireless communication devices with them even switching it off, in their own interest. Failing to comply with this provision will be considered as using unfair means in the examination and action will be taken against them including cancellation of their candidature.

12. No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet.

SBI CLERK 06


REASONING + COMPUTER

Direction (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Seven people Meena, Maya, Monika, Monalisha, Mamta, Meenakshi and Madhuri have their weekly offs on different days of the week i.e. Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Saturday not necessarily in that order. Each of them has a liking for different cuisine i.e. Indian, Italian, Mexican, Chinese, Spanish, Continental and Thai, not necessarily in that order. Maya likes Thai food and gets his weekly off on Thursday. Monalisha likes Italian food and does not have off on Sunday. Mamta has weekly off on Saturday and Madhuri has his weekly off on Tuesday. Meenakshi likes continental food whereas the one who has weekly off on Monday likes Mexican cuisine. Monika does not like Spanish cuisine and has weekly off on Wednesday. The one who likes Indian food does not have a weekly off on Tuesday or Wednesday. 1. Who has a weekly off on Friday?

(a) Monika (b) Madhuri (c) Meenakshi (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

2. What cuisine does Madhuri like? (a) Continental (b) Indian (c) Italian (d) Spanish (e) None of these

3. On which day does Meena have weekly off ? (a) Tuesday (b) Friday (c) Monday (d) Sunday (e) None of these

4. Who likes Chinese cuisine? (a) Monika (b) Monalisha (c) Madhuri (d) Meena (e) None of these

5. On which day does Meenakshi have weekly off? (a) Monday (b) Sunday (c) Wednesday (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

Direction (6-10): Study the following information and answer the given questions. In a certain code language, 'aniket is handsome and smart' is written as 'su zo ti ra mo', 'is modi great' is written as 'chi mo nic', 'aniket great leader narendra' is written as 'fa nic ti ye', 'welcome polite narendra brave' is written as 'phi ye koo da' and 'and polite' is written as 'su phi'. 6. What is the code for 'smart'? a) su b) zo c) ra d) Either zo or ra e) None of these 7. What does 'fa' stand for? a) aniket b) narendra c) great d) leader e) Can't be determined 8. Which of the following can be the code for 'and polite

modi brave'? a) koo da phi chi b) phi su re chi c) ti da zo chi d) su phi chi pa e) None of these

9. Which of the following is represented by the code 'mo ye su phi'? a) great handsome and narendra b) is modi narendra polite c) and is narendra polite

d) narendra great brave polite e) None of these 10. Which of the following may be the code for 'world

handsome overcome through and smart'? a) nic zo su ra mo pic b) pic zo ra su vo bi c) su pic ye zo ra fa d) ti ra su chi mo zo e) None of these

Direction (11-15): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements labeled I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give your answer accordingly: (a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (c) If the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (d) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. (e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question 11. How many students in standard V of our school do

not play chess? I. No girl has interest in chess. II. In standard V, there are 40 boys.

12. How old is Tomar? I. Tomar could not appear for the final exams because he was short by two months for the stipulated 18 years of age in January this year. II. He will become eligible for casting his vote, where minimum age limit is 18, in March this year.

13. Jai ranks 10th in the class. How many students are there in the class? I. His class-friend got 58th rank which is the last. II. Jai’s rank from the last(other end) is 49th.

14. How many brothers does Ramu have? I. Ramu’s father has three children. II. Ramu has two sisters.

15. Lal is taller than Nand, Jim is taller than Harry. Who among them is the tallest? I. Jim is taller than Nand. II. Lal is taller than Harry.

Direction (16-20): Each question consists of three statements followed by two conclusions I and II. Consider the statements to be true even if they are in variance with the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements using all the three statements together. Mark your answer as – (a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.


(c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. (d) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. (e) If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow. 16. Statements: All meena are sweet.

Some vandana are meena. Some rude are sweet. Conclusions:I. No rude is a vandana is a possibility. II. Some sweet which are rude they must be a part of vandana.

17. Statements: All neeraj are chiku. All fat are neeraj. All chiku are sweet. Conclusions: I. All sweet are fat is a possibility. II. Some sweet which are neeraj also a part of fat.

18. Statements: All table are chair. Some chair are bed. All bed are desk. Conclusions:I. Some desk which are chair are also a part of table. II. No bed is table is a possibility.

19. Statements: All aishwariya are katrina. All kareena are sonam. No kareena is katrina. Conclusions: I. All aishwariya are sonam is a possibility. II. All katrina which are sonam are also a part of kareena.

20. Statements: Some badshah are honey. All honey are raftar. All badshah are jaz. Conclusions:I. Some badshah are not honey. II. All jaz are raftar is a possibility.

Direction (21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: Ragini, Roshini, Rahul, Renu, Rajeev, Rashmi, Rohit and Rocky are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside. Two females sit in the middle of the sides and two at the corners. Ragini sits second to the left of Rohit. Rohit sits in the middle of one of the sides. Rahul sits fourth to the right of his wife and his wife is not an immediate neighbour of Ragini or Rohit. Roshini sits third to right of her husband. Roshini does not sit at any of the corners. Only Renu sits between Roshini and Rocky. Rocky is the husband of Ragini. Rajeev is a male. 21. Which of the following is true with respect to the

given seating arrangement? (a) No two males are immediate neighbours of each other. (b) Rohit and Rocky are immediate neighbours of each other. (c) Rajeev and Renu are immediate neighbours of each other (d) Rashmi is a male and sits diagonally opposite to Rajeev (e) Ragini sits at the centre of one of the sides of the square table

22. Who amongst the following is Roshini's husband? (a) Rahul (b) Rohit (c) Rajeev (d) Rashmi (e) Cannot be Determined

23. How many people sit between Roshini and Rahul when counted in anti-clockwise direction from Roshini? (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) Four

24. Who amongst the following is the wife of Rahul? (a) Renu (b) Rashmi (c) Roshini (d) Rohit (e) Cannot be determined

25. What is the position of Rajeev with respect to Rahul? (a) Immediately to the left (b) Second to the right (c) Third to the right (d) Immediately to the right (e) Second to the left

Direction (26–30): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—

C ? 1 K X 6 U 3 ★9 5 $ R + Z 4 @ G A T # E 7 S © 3 26. How many such prime numbers are there in the

given arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a symbol and preceded by a consonant? (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) More than three

27. If the places of the those symbols which are immediately followed by numbers are interchanged with those of the numbers in the given arrangement then which of the following will be the eleventh from the right end? (a) G (b) @ (c) 4 (d) Z (e) None of these

28. Which of the following is the seventh letter to the left of ©? (a) U (b) Z (c) R (d) X (e) None of these

29. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement? 1 6 X , 3 5 9, R 4 Z, ? (a) @ T A (b) 4 A G (c) G E # (d) G # T (e) None of these

30. If the symbols and numbers are dropped from the given arrangement and then the letters are rearranged in alphabetical order which of the following will be the sixth from the left end ? (a) C (b) S (c) Z (d) A (e) None of these

Direction (31-35): In these questions, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by three conclusions. Mark your answer from the given options. 31. Statements: L ≥M> K, Z=K<P

Conclusions: I. Z ≤ L II. M = P III. Z <M a) Only I is true b) Only II is true c) Only III is true d) Both I and III are true e) None of these

32. Statements: R=P ≥ J> S, J ≤M<N Conclusions: I. S < R II.N>S III. R=M a) Only 1 is true b) Only II is true c) Either II or III is true d) both I and II are true e) All are true


33. Statements: S<P=Z≤M, Z≥K≥R, S≥J Conclusions: I. M ≥ R II. Z > J III. S < Z a) Only I is true b) Only II is true c) Only I and II are true d) All I, II and III are true e) Only II and III are true

34. Statements: K≤M<R>P, R≥S=N>J Conclusions: I. K < R II. P> S III. S = K a) Only I is true b) Only II is true c) Only III is true d) Only I and II are true e) Only I and III are true

35. Statements: R≤J>M, J≥L=S<N, S≥P Conclusions: I. P ≤ J II. R=L III. M <N a) Only I is true b) Only II is true c) Only I and III are true d) All are true e) None of these

Direction (36-40): Read the following information and answer the questions given below— Seven managers Shukla, Mishra, Singh, Kulkarni, Rao, Joshi and Nair are to conduct interviews simultaneously either alone or in pairs at four different locations—Surat, Chandigarh, Delhi and Lucknow. Only one wants to travel by rail, two prefer travelling by car and the rest travel by air. (i) Shukla is going to Lucknow but neither by car nor by air. (ii) Mishra prefers to travel by car. (iii) Neither Joshi nor Nair is going to Delhi. (iv) Person going to Surat travel by car. (v) Kulkarni will assist his friend Mishra. (vi) The two managers who go to Delhi travel by air. 36. Where will Kulkarni conduct the interviews?

(a) Surat (b) Lucknow (c) Chandigarh (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these

37. Who goes to Delhi ? (a) Mishra-Kulkarni (b)Rao-Singh (c) Kulkarni-Joshi (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

38. Which of the following is true ? (a) Kulkarni travels by air (b) Nair will assist Rao (c) Shukla conducts interviews alone (d) Joshi goes to Chandigarh (e) None of these

39. Who will conduct interviews at Chandigarh ? (a) Nair (b) Singh (c) Rao (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

40. Which of the following pairs is different from the other four with regard to mode of travel ? (a) Shukla-Mishra (b) Rao-Mishra (c) Nair-Rao (d) Kulkarni-Joshi (e) Shukla-Singh

41. Which layers of the OSI model are included in the lower layers?

1) Application, Session, Presentation 2) Physical, Transport, Data Link, Network 3) Data link, Physical, Network 4) Session, Data Link, Physical 5) None of these 42. Where are cookies stored? 1) On the server 2) In web.xml 3) On the client 4) In HTML 5) None of these 43. What is backup? 1) Adding more components to your network 2) Protecting data by copying it from the original

source to a different destination 3) Filtering old data from the new data 4) Accessing data on tape 5) None of these ANS - 2 44. What is the main folder on a storage device called ? 1) Platform 2) Interface3) Root directory 4) Device driver 5) None of these 45. What happens when you boot up a PC? 1)Portions of the operating system are copied from

disk into memory 2)Portions of the operating system are copied from

memory onto disk 3) Portions of the operating system are compiled 4)Portions of the operating system are emulated 5)None of these ANS – 1 46. What is correcting errors in a program called ? 1) Interpreting 2) Translating 3) Debugging

4) Compiling 5) None of these 47. When you instal a new program on your computer, it

is typically added to the ________ menu. 1) All Programs 2) Select Programs 3) Start Programs 4) Desktop Programs 5) None of these 48. The acronym HTML stands for 1) High Transfer Machine Language 2) High Transmission Markup Language 3) Hypertext Markup Language 4) Hypermedia Markup Language 5) None of these 49. Storing same data in many places is called _______.

1) iteration 2) concurrency 3) redundancy 4) enumeration 5) None of these

50. ________ is collection of web-pages and ________ is the very first page that we see on opening of a web-site.

1) Home-page, Web-page 2) Web-site, Home-page 3) Web-page, Home-page 4) Web-page, Web-site 5) None of these

NUMERICAL ABILITY

Directions (51–55): What approximate value will come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) 51. 465×84 + 765×86 – 211×99 = ?

(a) 84000 (b) 10800 (c) 83000 (d) 85000 (e) 86000

52. 151.1% of 151.1 + 151.1 = ? (a) 380 (b) 400 (c) 350 (d) 420 (e) 440


53. 2001 × 473 ÷ 1001 – 245 = ? (a) 650 (b) 700 (c) 950 (d) 850 (e) 1000

54. 2400 − 1220 + 440 = ? (a) 59 (b) 35 (c) 44 (d) 25 (e) 30

55. 501

58×

291

101÷

31

155 = ?

(a) 140 (b) 125 (c) 95 (d) 85 (e) 110

Directions (56-60): What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations? 56. 27+28× 3.5− 14 × 6.5 =?

(a) 48 (b) 42 (c) 38 (d) 34 (e) 28

57. 4

7 of 1058.4=?% of 448

(a) 175 (b) 165 (c) 155 (d) 145 (e) 135

58. ?

441=

16

?

(a) 72 (b) 84 (c) 96 (d) 108 (e) 124

59. 1369 × 72.25=? (a) 302.5 (b) 306.5 (c) 308.5 (d) 312.5 (e) 314.5

60. 45% of 660−32% of 555 =? (a) 113.4 (b) 116.4 (c) 119.4 (d) 123.4 (e) 127.4

61. 854.4÷4.8=? (a) 164 (b) 172 (c) 175 (d) 178 (e) 184

62. ?+ 676=74 (a) 1936 (b) 2116 (c) 2304 (d) 2704 (e) 3136

63. 73804+81819−68527−45366=? (a) 41730 (b) 42130 (c) 42830 (d) 43670 (e) 43730

64. (3.6)−2.8 × (46.656)1.2 ÷ 12.96 = (3.6)? (a) 1.2 (b) −1.2 (c) 4.4 (d) −4.4 (e) None of these

65. 4

7 of 1316 −

5

9 of 1152 =?

(a) 104 (b) 108 (c) 112 (d) 116 (e) 120

Directions (66-70): Study the following table carefully and answer the given questions: The number of various crimes, as supplied by national crime record, reported in different states in the year

2012-13.

66. The total number of various crimes in HP is (a) 37803 (b) 38903 (c) 37903 (d) 36903 (e) 37003

67. Find the ratio of Stalking and Assault in UP to Theft and Criminal Trespass in Haryana. (a) 28 : 51 (b) 21 : 52 (c) 52 : 21 (d) 14 : 55 (e) 55 : 14

68. Find the approximate average of Murder and Theft in all the eight states together. (a) 1141 (b) 1132 (c) 1311 (d) 941 (e) 1021

69. The total number of Assaults and Murders together in Bihar is what per cent of the total number of crimes in that state? (a) 29.82% (b) 39.82% (c) 25% (d) 21.82% (e) 25.5%

70. Find the difference between the number of various crimes committed in Bihar and that in Rajasthan. (a) 105 (b) 98 (c) 145 (d) 139 (e) 104

Directions (71-75): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series? 71. 228 , 224, 208, 172, 108, ?, −136

(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 15 (d) 0 (e) −12

72. 10, 18, 34, ? , 130, 258, 514 (a) 60 (b) 64 (c) 68 (d) 72 (e) 66

73. 7, ?, 22, 37, 57, 82, 112 (a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 12 (e) 11

74. 15, 32, ?, 400, 2005, 12036, 84259 (a) 125 (b) 99 (c) 100 (d) 120 (e) 150

75. 122 , 148, 178, 212, ? , 292, 338 (a) 255 (b) 260 (c) 250 (d) 262 (e) 264

76. The circumference of a circle is equal to the side of a square whose area measures 407044 sq cm. What is the area of the circle? (a) 22583.2 sq. m. (b) 32378.5 sq. m. (c) 41263.5 sq. m. (d) 39483.4 sq. m. (e) Cannot be determined

77. 60 per cent of 2

7 of three-fourths of a number is 1836.

What is the number? (a) 14280 (b) 13391 (c) 15670 (d) 16220 (e) None of these

78. The ratio of the present age of A to that of B is 5 : 3. After 16 years the total of their ages will be 96 years. What will be the ratio of their ages at that time? (a) 5: 4 (b) 6 : 5 (c) 7 : 4 (d) 7 : 5 (e) 8 : 5

79. If the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs 14,500 in two years is Rs 4676.25, what is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.? (a) 11 (b) 9 (c) 18 (d) 15 (e) None of these


80. The ages of Ranjana and Rakhi are in the ratio of 15 : 17 respectively. After 6 years, the ratio of their ages will be 9 : 10. What will be the age of Ranjana after 6 years? (a) 40 years (b) 30 years (c) 34 years (d) 36 years (e) None of these

81. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 20000 at the end of 3 years is Rs. 7200. What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the same period? (a) Rs. 8342.36 (b) Rs. 8098.56 (c) Rs. 8246.16 (d) Rs. 8112.86 (e) None of these

82. Ninad, Vikas and Manav enter into a partnership. Ninad invests some amount at the beginning. Vikas invests double the amount after 6 months and Manav invests thrice the amount invested by Ninad after 8 months. They earn a profit of Rs. 45000 at the end of the year. What is Manav’s share in the profit? (a) Rs. 25000 (b) Rs. 15000 (c) Rs. 12000 (d) Rs. 9000 (e) None of these

83. A train 180 m long moving at the speed of 20 m/sec. over takes a man moving at a speed of 10m / sec in the same direction. The train passes the man in: (a) 6 sec (b) 9 sec (c) 18 sec (d) 27 sec (e) None of these

84. The distance between two cities A and B is 330 km. A train starts from A at 8 a.m. and travels to wards B at 60 km / hr another train starts from B at 9 a.m. and travels towards A at 75 km/ hr At what time do they meet? (a) 10 a.m. (b) 10 :30 a.m. (c) 11 a.m. (d) 11 :30 a.m. (e) None of these

85. In covering a certain distance, the speeds of A and B are in the ratio of 3 : 4. A takes 30 minutes more than B to reach the destination. The taken by A to reach the destination is: (a) 1 hour (b) 1.5 hours (c) 2 hours (d) 2.5 hours (e) None of these

86. The ratio of the number of students studying in Schools A, B and C is 4 : 8 : 3 respectively. If the number of students studying in each of the schools is increased by 80%, 20% and 60% respectively, what will be the new ratio of the number of students in Schools A, B and C. (a) 8 : 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 2 : 3 (c) 2 : 3 : 4 (d) Can’t say (e) None of these

87. A person covered some distance in 24 hours. He covered half the distance by rail @ 75 km per hour and the rest by car @ 45 km/hr. The total distance covered by him was (a) 900 km (b) 1350 km (c) 675 km (d) 2700 km (e) None of these

88. A sum of Rs. 2135 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a way that 3 times A’s share, 4 times B’s share and 7 times C’s share are all equal. The share of C is (a) Rs. 420 (b) Rs. 735 (c) Rs. 980 (d) Rs. 1200 (e) None of these

89. A person sold 160 mangoes for the C.P. of 200 mangoes. His gain percent is

(a) 10% (b) 15% (c) 12½% (d) 25% (e) None of these

90. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DESIGN be arranged so that the vowels are at the two ends ? (a) 48 (b) 72 (c) 36 (d) 24 (e) None of these

Directions (91-95): Study the table below and answer the questions that follow: Oil import from different countries over the years (in

million tonnes)

COUNTRY 2007-08

2008-09

2009-10

2010-11

2011-12

Saudi Arabia

28.8 29.9 27.2 27.4 32.6

Iran 20.5 21.8 21.2 18.5 17.5

Iraq 15.8 14.4 15.0 17.2 24.6

Nigeria 11.6 10.5 13.2 15.9 14.2

Kuwait 13.9 14.8 11.8 11.5 17.8

Venezuela 7.2 7.6 7.3 10.3 9.6

91. What is the ratio of average of imports from Iraq to that from Venezuela for all the years? (a) 14 : 29 (b) 29 : 14 (c) 39 : 23 (d) 23 : 39 (e) None of these

92. In which of the following years is the percentage increase/decrease in oil import from Nigeria the maximum? (a) 2008-09 (b) 2010-11 (c) 2009-10 (d) 2011-12 (e) None of these

93. What is the approximate percentage of oil import from Iran in the year 2009-10 with respect to total oil import in all the years together? (a) 20% (b) 23% (c) 21% (d) 25% (e) None of these

94. What is the approximate average of percentage increase or decrease in oil import from Kuwait over its previous year for the given period? (a) 4% (b) 5% (c) 15% (d) 21% (e) None of these

95. Average oil import from all the countries in the year 2011-12 is approximately what percentage of that in the year 2009-10? (a) 21% (b) 15% (c) 115% (d) 121% (e) None of these

Directions (96-100):In each of these questions, two equation (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer (a) if x > y (b) if x ≥ y (c) if x < y (d) if x ≤ y (e) if x = y or no relation can be established between x

and y 96. I.𝑥2 − 2𝑥 − 15 = 0 II.𝑦2 + 5𝑦 + 6 = 0 97. I.𝑥2 − 𝑥 − 12 = 0 II.𝑦2 − 3𝑦 + 2 = 0

98. I.𝑥 − 169 = 0 II.𝑦2 − 169 = 0

99. I.𝑥2 − 32 = 112 II.𝑦 − 256 = 0 100. I.𝑥2 − 25 = 0 II.𝑦2 − 9𝑦 + 20 = 0


ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (101-110): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The government directive to public sector banks (PSBs) to mandatorily offer broking service and sell products of more than one insurance company to customers from January 2014 is controversial, without properly appreciating the issue and ground realities of cross-selling at PSBs.

No one disputes the fact that PSBs can play a huge role in enhancing insurance penetration in the country. With over 400 million customer accounts, PSBs have barely achieved 1% insurance penetration. They sell mostly saving-oriented policies, turning a blind eye to low-premium, low-commission term insurance, which is a vital social security tool for vulnerable segments. Insurance selling is confined to urban and city branchless, with little awareness in the rural network.

On the non-life side, banks are simply unaware of the nuances of various insurance products and their risk-mitigation benefits, especially for the millions of SME clients.

The bulk of bancassurance business is currently sourced by insurers with help from their sales staff deployed at bank branches. The number of bank personnel trained to sell insurance with the knowledge of what is good for customers and what is not is minuscule. Despite insurers’ efforts, the persistency rate of bancassuracne – a measure of insured customers paying renewal premium – is poor, at about 50% in some PSBs, a poor reflection of their post-sale followup.

The key reason for the state of affairs is lack of cross-selling culture in PSBs. With years of social banking orientation, bank managements find it tough to create a new business culture that aims to look at the customer’s wallet in an integrated manner. In PSBs, the internal reporting and performance evaluation are not geared to encourage cross-selling. As a result, they earn less than 1% of profits from distributing third-party products.

PSBs attribute the reason to shortage of staff at various levels. True, there is a vacuum in most banks following large-scale retirements, and there are daunting issues of training many new recruits on banking aspects. It is, therefore, unrealistic to expect the frontline staff to become experts at suggesting insurance solutions for multiple insurers in the near future.

While our extensive banking network should aid greater insurance penetration, this cannot be achieved by compelling all PSBs to become insurance brokers overnight. It has to be a nuanced exercise, with a supportive policy framework.

First, make a distinction between banks that have consciously entered the insurance business through equity JVs, and others that have remained plain

distributors. RBI has allowed only large banks the equity route, relying on their risk management and other capabilities. These banks should set an example by offering advice-based insurance solutions to customers for more than one insurer life – non – life and health – through their network. This category should include both PSBs and private banks that have set up insurance ventures.

Second, encourage such banks to recruit staff that would be only involved in cross-selling insurance, mutual funds and pension products. It is difficult to change the mindset of banking trained staff to be broking – oriented, including on claim settlements. New recruits governed by different service conditions and intensively trained is the answer, and they should be allowed to switch to mainstream banking upon a successful track record in broking. PSBs had recruited such specialist staff in the 1980s for rural banking operations, and many of them became capable generalist bankers. 101. What is the purpose behind making the selling of

insurance products of more than one insurance company mandatory for public sector banks? (a) To enhance the profit of public sector banks (b) To maximise the use of extra manpower at banks (c) To enhance insurance penetration in the country (d) To make purchase of insurance products mandatory for each bank customer (e) All the above

102. What problem do the banks face while selling non-life insurance products? (A) Banks are unaware of the nuances of various insurance products. (B) They feel it difficult to deal with millions of small and medium enterprises clients. (C) Very few bank personnel are trained enough to sell appropriate insurance products to appropriate clients. (a) Only (A) and (B) (b) Only (B) and (C) (c) Only (A) and (C) (d) Only (B) (e) All (A), (B) and (C)

103. Which of the following is not correct in the context of the given passage? (a) The number of account holders in public sector banks is over 400 million. (b) PSBs have hardly achieved one per cent insurance penetration. (c) There is little awareness about insurance in the rural areas. (d) PSBs give as much importance to selling saving oriented policies as to low-premium term insurance. (e) Low-premium policy is a vital social security tool for vulnerable segments.

104. Why do PSBs earn very little profit from distributing third-party products?


(a) Because bank personnel are not good at selling insurance products. (b) Because there is a lack of cross-selling culture in PSBs. (c) Because PSBs are not geared to encourage cross- selling. (d) Bank management finds it difficult to create a new business culture that aims to look at the customer’s wallet. (e) All the above

105. What is the reason for poor performance of bancassurance business in India? (a) Shortage of staff at various levels (b) Lack of proper training to bank personnel for selling insurance products (c) People do not prefer to purchase insurance products (d) Only a) and b) (e) Only b) and c)

Directions (106-108): Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage. 106. Daunting

(a) inciting (b) encouraging (c) pleasing (d) heartening (e) appalling

107. Vulnerable (a) susceptible (b) careful (c) watchful (d) beautiful (e) irresponsible

108. Nuances (a) upshot (b) distinction (c) effects (d) problems (e) consequences

Directions (109-110): Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage. 109. Confined

(a) open (b) restrained (c) restricted (d) held back (e) hindered

110. Minuscule (a) microscopic (b) diminutive (c) minute (d) enormous (e) small

Directions (111-115): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) 111. a) AamAadmi Party leader ArvindKejriwal’s

campaign against crony capitalism /b) with focus on the Reliance group and its close relationship /c) with the two political parties, the Congress and the BJP, /d) snowballs into an election debate. /e) No error

112. a) In fact, his entire life was shaped /b) by his majesty of knowing /c) the rules and /d) knowing to use them. /e) No error

113. a) The FIR filed be the Anti-Corruption Branch of the Delhi Government /b) against Union Minister MurliDeora and RIL chairman Mukesh Ambani /c)

alleges rigging of the price of gas /d) to favour the corporate giant. /e) No error

114. a) In order to meet rising demand of doctors /b) in the state, the state government /c) has taken a major decision to increase /d) the number of seats in MBBS course. /e) No error

115. a) President Maduro has called /b) on the opposition /c) to start talk urgently with the government /d) to end the violence. /e) No error

Directions (116-120): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), and (F) to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow. A. According to it, organized retail stores are not wolves

at the doors of friendly neighbourhood grocery stores as there is room for expansion of both.

B. Many have been crying foul over the entry of organized retail stores expressing concern over their impact on small store owners.

C. The final winner in the competition, however, is the common man who gets to choose between the most suitable options and in turn fights with the runaway inflation in prices of essential commodities.

D. In spite of this potential for expansion, it is doubtless that the small store owners face a decline in profit in initial years if organized retailers set up stores in the vicinity.

E. But a study conducted over a period of two years goes a long way towards allaying these fears.

F. This impact, however, wears off once they learn to take on the competition which, in turn, enhances efficiency all around.

116. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

117. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement? (a) A (b) E (c) D (d) F (e) C

118. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH after rearrangement? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) F

119. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) F

120. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement? (a) D (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) F

Directions (121-125): Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c), and (d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (e), i.e., No correction required, as the answer. 121. I overheard him saying something to me when I

was quit. (a) was almost quit (b)was about to quit (c) had about to quit (d)had been quitting

(e) No correction required


122. We had not only helped them with money but also with new machinery and raw material. (a) not only helped them by (b) helped them not only with (c) helped not only to them with (d) not only been helped them by (e) No correction required

123. I was shocked to learn that no one was knowing where the files were kept. (a) had been knowing (b) had been known (c) knew (d) was known (e) No correction required

124. All you really need is a mask, a tube, flippers and a spear gun. (a) You really need are (b) Your really need are (c) You real need is (d)You really needed is (e) No correction required

125. By contrast, the construction of great temples which had seemingly have presented great engineering difficulties, was relatively easy. (a) had seemingly been presented (b) had been seemed present (c) was seemingly presented (d) would seemingly have presented (e) No correction required

Directions (126-130): Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete. 126. Sikkim was________ seriously by the September 2011

earthquake, which measured 6.9 on the Richter___________. a) effected, range b) damaged, meter c) haunted, calibration d) affected, scale e) blemished, system

127. India has a vibrant publishing scene, thanks to not only the big publishers but also a lot of quality-___________little publishing house that ____ it going. a) conscious, keep b) responsive, put c) apprised, retain d) mindful, retain e) cognisant, enjoy

128. The staunch proponents of economic liberalization have often _______________that the relaxation of state ______________will lead to phenomenal growth of industries spurred by FDI. a) contended, neglect b) jumped, inability c) hassled, domination d) crossed, dominion e) argued, control

129. After a relationship_____ over one-and-a-half centuries, on July 14, Kolkata bid an emotional ____to a mode of communication called the telegram. a) traversing, farewell b) extending, relation c) spanning, adieu d) ranging, goodbye e) covering, hello

130. ____ the defeat of Tipu Sultan in the Fourth Anglo Mysore War (1798-99) in Srirangpatnam, the British army ______ itself in the vicinity of the old city area of Bangalore.

a) By, opened b) With, garrisoned c) At, guarded d) On, armoured e) For, left

Directions (131-140): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.

There is a school of thought that some kinds of complex governance/policymaking functions should be insulated from the tumult of partisan politics by (131) them to technocrats. Giving in to the seductive appeal of this argument to the (132) of breaking the line of accountability of policymakers to the people altogether would undermine democracy and run the risk of these technocratic bodies being captured by (133) interests, instead of practising fidelity to professionalism. The proposal of the RBI’s Urjit Patel committee to entrust monetary policy (134) to a committee of wise men in which even the RBI governor would have just one vote and can be overruled (135) to this school. This is a bad idea that (136) firmly be rejected.

At present, the RBI has reasonable autonomy but holds consultations with the government and has begun to testify before parliamentary committees. Both are needed to make monetary policy and regulation of the banking system (137) to the people. A committee does advise the RBI governor on policy rates, but he makes the final call. One person taking the final call seems less democratic than a committee voting to make that call only (138) that one person is taken out of his institutional context. The RBI governor is not some lone ranger but the RBI’s link with the elected government of the country. Simultaneous accountability of the RBI governor to a committee of Parliament would (139) that the government does not make (140) demands on the central bank as well. 131. (a) allocating (b) entrusting (c) imposing

(d) conferring (e) holding 132. (a) ambit (b) stretch (c) term

(d) extent (e) length 133. (a) vested (b) endowed (c) simple

(d) compound (e) any 134. (a) arranging (b) initiating (c) setting

(d) building (e) beginning 135. (a) concerned (b) agrees (c) associates

(d) correlates (e) belongs 136. (a) needs (b) must (c) had

(d) ought (e) requires 137. (a) adapted (b) suited (c) responsible

(d) accountable (e) attributed 138. (a) while (b) whereas (c) whether

(d) where (e) when 139. (a) ensure (b) think (c) protect

(d) pursue (e) follow 140. (a) fervent (b) obsolete (c) arbitrary

(d) despotic (e) passionate


GENERAL AWARENESS

141. The World Day for International Justice, also referred to as Day of International Criminal Justice or International Justice Day is celebrated throughout the world on 1) 11 Jul 2) 17 Jul 3) 18 Jul 4) 28 Jul 5) 30 Jul

142. The RBI has said that banks will now report past dues and levy any late payment charges on credit card holders only if the payment has been due for more than 1) two days 2) three days 3) five days 4) ten days 5) 15 days

143. The countdown to the first-ever niche banking license award process has began as the external advisory committee headed by ________ has given its report to the RBI. 1) Nachiket Mor 2) R Gandhi 3) Urjit Patel 4) Bimal Jalan 5) Usha Thorat

144. The men’s team which won 2016 Asian Nations Cup Chess tournament in Abu Dhabi recently is? 1) China 2) India 3) Vietnam

4) Mangolia 5)Malaysia 145. The RBI is all set to introduce a fifth Deputy

Governer in the top management of the top management of the Central Bank.the fifth Dy. Governer will be designed as…. 1) Chief Operating Officer(COO) 2) Chief Executive Officer(CEO) 3) Chief Advisory Officer(CAO) 4) Chief Financial Officer(CFO) 5) None of these

146. Within the banking sector, foreign investment up to ________ in private sector banks and ________ in the case of public sector banks is allowed. 1) 49 per cent, 26 per cent 2) 51 per cent, 24 per cent 3) 74 per cent, 20 per cent 4) 76 per cent, 20 per cent 5) None of these

147. The Centre has done away with sub-limits for foreign investments in Indian companies. Which of the following will NOT be considered a foreign investment in an Indian firm? 1) Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) 2) Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) 3)Qualified Foreign Investors (QFIs) 4) Depository Receipts (DRs) 5) None of these

148. The Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY), which seeks to preserve and rejuvenate the rich cultural heritage of the country in the selected 12 cities, does not cover 1) Amaravati 2) Vellankini 3) Kanchipuram 4) Madurai 5) Ajmer

149. Who among the following has been named as brand ambassador for Swachh Saathi (student internship) programme. It is a youth-based programme of Swachh Bharat Mission? 1) Sania Mirza 2) Pariniti Chopra 3) Diya Mirza 4) Hema Malini 5) Priyanka Chopra

150. The Union Cabinet has approved setting up of the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) as a Public Limited Company under the Department of Posts with ----------- Government of India (GOI) equity. 1) 100% 2) 50% 3) 75% 4) 80% 5) None of these

151. Which of the following is not a tool in the hands of RBI to control the inflationary pressure in the country? (1) Bank Rate (BR) (2) Special Drawing Rights (SDR) (3) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) (4) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) (5) None of these

152. Which of the following tool is used frequently by the RBI to control credit and monetary situations of the markets in the country? (1) Cash Reserve Ratio (2) Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) (3) Balance of Trade (4) Forward Trade Agreements (5) Electronic Clearing Service

153. Which among the following organization has got the principal approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for establishing as well as operating White Label ATMs (WLAs)? (1) Muthoot Finance (2) Union Bank of India (3) LIC (Life Corporation of India) (4) NICL (National Insurance Company Limited) (5) None of these

154. Present minimum & maximum limit for RTGS transactions is ____. (1) Rs.50000, Rs 200000 (2) Rs. 1 lac, No Limit (3) Rs. 2 lac, Rs 5 lac (4) Rs.5 lac, Rs 10 lac (5) Rs. 2 lac, No Limit

155. The maximum amount of the total revenue earned by the government of India comes from- (1) Income Tax (2) Customs Duty(3) Excise Duty (4) VAT (5) Corporate Tax

156. The conversion of a physical cheque into a substitute electronic form for transmission to the paying bank is termed as.. 1)Cheque Negotiation 2)Cheque Crossing 3) Cheque truncation 4)Cheque alteration 5) Cheque endorsement

157. The Group of 7countries (G-7) summit 2016 held in which country? 1) Canada 2) Japan 3) Russia


4)China 5) Germany

158. The Union govt’s Department of Industrial Policy and

Promotion (DIPP) has approved a proposal to set up the country’s first defence industrial park at Ottappalam in 1) Tamil Nadu 2) Kerala 3) Karnataka 4) West Bengal 5) Gujarat

159. Who among the following has been appointed as the new Director of National Book Trust? 1) MA Sikandar 2) Uddipana Goswami 3) Rita Chowdhury 4) Arupa Kalita Patangia 5) Anuradha Sharma Pujari

160. The RBI signed a special currency swap agreement, recently, with the central bank of which of the following countries that will allow the latter to draw up to $1.1 bn for a maximum period of six months? 1) Afghanistan 2) Bangladesh 3) Myanmar 4) Sri Lanka 5) Maldives

161. India has signed a pact with the World Bank, recently, for $250-mn financial assistance for the Disaster Recovery Project of 1) Odisha 2) Tamil Nadu 3) Andaman and Nicobar 4) Andhra Pradesh 5) Lakshadweep

162. RBI launched Inflation Indexed Bonds (IIBs) to stop away investors from gold to paper-based savings instruments. What is the maturity period these bonds? (1) 5 years (2) 10 years (3) 6 years (4) 7 years (5) None of these

163. RBI Provides--------for meeting day-to-day receipt and expenditure mismatch to both Central and State Governments 1) Treasury bills 2) Ways and Means advance 3) Date and securities 4) All the above 5) None of these

164. The maximum number of withdrawals permitted in a savings account, half yearly is__? (1) 90 (2) 60 (3) 50 (4) 110 (5) None of these

165. The Capital Account Convertibility of the Indian rupee refers to: (1) That the Indian rupee can be exchanged for the US dollar for international trade in goods and service (2) That the Indian rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trading financial assets (3) That the Indian rupee can be exchanged by the authorized dealer for travel purpose (4) That the Indian rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trade in goods and services (5) None of the above

166. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM) concerns: I. Fiscal Deficit II. Balance of Payment

III. Revenue Deficit (1) Only I (2) Only II (3) Only I & II (4) Only I & III (5) All of these

167. Which of the following is the principal institution for promotion, financing and development of small scale industries in the country? (1) RBI (2) SBI (3) IDBI (4) SIDBI (5) None of these

168. Which of the following instruments of credit control adopted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) does not fall within ‘general’ or ‘quantitative’ methods of credit control? (1) Stipulation of certain minimum margin in respect of advance against specified commodities (2) Open market operations (3) Bank rate (4) Variable reserve requirement (5) None of these

169. Indigenously built INS Astravahini was decommissioned at Vishakhapatnam recently. It was a 1) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel 2) guided missile destroyer 3) Fast attack vessel 4) helicopter carrier 5) Anti-submarine warfare carrier

170. The proposal of which of the following Chinese telecom solutions providers to set up a manufacturing unit in Tamil Nadu received conditional security clearance from the Union Home Ministry recently? 1) China Unicom 2) Pioneer Global 3) ZTE 4) Huawei 5) Lenovo

171. Accounts are allowed to be operated by cheques in respect of____. (1) Both savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts (2) Savings bank accounts and current accounts (3) Both savings bank accounts and loan accounts (4) Both savings bank accounts and cash accounts only (5) Both Current accounts and fixed deposit accounts

172. Largest shareholder (in percentage shareholding) of a nationalized bank is____. (1) RBI, (2) NABARD (3) LICI (4) Govt. of India, (5) IBA

173. Insurance cover for bank deposits in our country is provided by____.? (1) SBI, (2) Govt. of India(3) GIC, (4) LIC (5) DICGC

174. Expand the term ALM as used in Banking/ Finance sector: (1) Asset Liability Maturity (2) Asset Liability Mismatch, (3) Asset Liability Manpower (4) Asset Liability Maintenance (5) Asset Liability Management


175. For repayment of loan availed from Banks/ NBFC we

come across a term known as EMI. What does it stand for? (1) Equated Money index, (2) Easy Money Installment (3) Equated Monthly Installment (4) Equal Monthly Installment, (5) Equal Minimum Installment

176. The approach of ‘Micro-Credit’ or ‘Banking with the poor’ is comparatively a new concept in the field of rural credit. This approach has been tried very successfully in which of the following countries? (1) India (2) China, (3) Japan (4) Bangladesh, (5) None of these

177. The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of India leads to (1) More liquidity in the market, (2) Less liquidity in the market (3) No change in the liquidity in the market, (4) Mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks (5) none of the above

178. Which of the following is not a part of the scheduled banking structure in India? (1) Public Sector Banks (2) Moneylenders (3) Private Sector Banks (4) Regional Rural Bank (5) State Co-operative banks

179. The rate of interest on Savings Bank Account is decided by (1) RBI (2) Indian Banks Association (3) Government of India (4) the concerned bank (5) Banking Codes and Standards Board of India

180. Many times we read a term CBS used in banking operation. What is the full form of the letter ‘S’ in the term ‘CBS’? (1) Systematic (2) Super (3) Support (4) Solution (5) None of these

181. Who has been chosen for 2016 Saraswati Samman award? 1) Padma Sachdev 2) Govind Mishra 3) Sughatakumari 4) Veerappa Moily 5) None of these

182. Which state has hosted National AROGYA fair in March, 2016? 1) New Delhi 2) Maharashtra 3) Karnataka 4) Madhya Pradesh 5) Goa

183. Which Indian Airport got International awards 2016? 1) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport 2) Indira Gandhi International Airport 3) Kempegowda International Airport 4) Mangalore International Airport 5) None of these

184. RBI governor Raghuram Rajan Launched which payment system as its latest offering in boosting digital money transfer? 1) Unified Payment Interface 2) Unicode Payment Interface 3) Unisource Payment Interface 4) Universal Payment Interface 5) None of these

185. Name the Former Sri Lanka captain and dashing left-hander is all set to return as the chairman of the senior selection committee taking over from Aravinda De Silva? 1) Marvan Atapattu 2) Arjun Ranatunga 3) Romesh Kaluwitharna 4) Sanath Jayasuriya 5)None of these

186. Union Government announced to withdraw tax proposal on Employee Provident Fund withdrawals.According to the proposal what percentage of EPF withdrawals would have become taxable? 1) 40% 2)50% 3) 60% 4) 70% 5) 80%

187. Which of the following airline operated the World's longest all-woman flight from the New Delhi to San Francisco? 1) Air India 2) Jet Airways 3) Indigo 4) Pan America 5) None of these

188. Who is the Chief Economic Advisor of India? 1) Arvind Kumar 2) Arvind Subramaniam 3) Arvind Kapoor 4) Arvind Panagariya 5) None of these

189. The US Agency for International Development (USAID) with which organization have signed an MoU to facilitate USD 848 million (Rs. 5,681 crore) in funding to develop solar parks across India? 1) Asian Development Bank 2) World Bank 3) IMF 4) Federal Bank 5) None of these

190. Who has won the FIDE World Chess Candidates Tournament held in Moscow? 1) Nakamurav Topolov 2) Vaselin Topolov 3) Sergery Karjakin 4) Fabiano Caruana 5) None of these

Documents

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