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PasTest Exam ReviseMRCP 21 01- 05- 0-Passmedicine 3-Pastest
4-Revisemrcp 43- 0 : A 30-year-old femalepresents with a one year
history of galactorrhoea. She has been receivingtreatment for hay
fever, depression, obesity anddyspepsia. Her investigationsreveal:
Full blood count Normal Urea and electrolytes Normal Prolactin 820
mU/l( 300 mg/dL). The serumtransferrin saturation is a sensitive
parameter of increased Fe and merits evaluation when > 50%. The
serum ferritin is increased. Urinary Fe excretion is markedly
increased (> 2 mg/24 h) by the chelating drug deferoxamine (500
to 1000 mg IM based on the size of the patient), and this has been
used as a diagnostic test. In addition, when the Fe content in the
liver is significantly increased, an MRI may reflect this change.
Liver biopsy had been the gold standard in diagnosis; it now serves
only to
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PasTest Exam ReviseMRCP 39 provide evidence of fibrosis
(cirrhosis). Gene assay (Homozygosity C282y mutations) is also an
excellent diagnostic test. [ Q: 11 ] MRCPass - Gastroenterology A
65 year old woman presents with dysphagia and intermittent
vomiting. Endoscopy shows a tight lower oesophageal sphincter
suggestive of achalasia. Which of the following medical therapies
is most effective? 1- Diltiazem 2- Bismuth 3- Glyceryl trinitrate
4- Botulinum toxin 5- Glypressin Answer & Comments Answer: 4-
Botulinum toxin Botulinum injections are most effective of all the
options for relieving a lower oesophageal sphincter restriction
which leads to achalasia. Nifedipine, nitrates or sildenafil can
also be used, but are less effective. [ Q: 12 ] MRCPass -
Gastroenterology Which of the following factors decreases large
intestinal motility? 1- Lactulose 2- Parasympathetic activity 3-
CCKPZ 4- Gastric Distension 5- Anticholinergic agents Answer &
Comments Answer: 5- Anticholinergic agents Anticholinergic agents,
e.g. atropine, reduce intestinal motility. All the other agents
increase intestinal motility. [ Q: 13 ] MRCPass - Gastroenterology
A 50 year old presents with tiredness and heavy periods. She is
known to drink large amounts of alcohol. Her investigations reveal:
Haemoglobin 7.3 g/dl MCV 72 fL white cell count 7.5 x 109 /L
platelet count 250 x 109 /L serum ferritin 7 g/L, (15-300) She was
commenced on oral iron therapy one month later but her haemoglobin
concentration was 7.8 g/dl. What is the likely cause of the failure
of her haemoglobin to respond? 1- Folate deficiency 2- Poor
compliance therapy 3- Sideroblastic anaemia 4- Alcoholism 5-
Irreversible cause of iron deficiency Answer & Comments Answer:
2- Poor compliance therapy The likely explanation failure of an
iron deficiency anaemia to respond iron therapy in a patient with
heavy periods is poor compliance. [ Q: 14 ] MRCPass -
Gastroenterology A 55 year old man with a history of heavy alcohol
intake presents with acute confusion. A diagnosis of hepatic
encephalopathy is made and treatment with lactulose is commenced.
What is its mode of action in this context? 1- Reduces absorption
of chlordiazepoxide 2- Inhibits proliferation of ammonia forming
organisms in the gut 3- Absorbed from gut
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PasTest Exam ReviseMRCP 40 4- Contraindicated in diabetes mellitus
5- Causes hypermagnesaemia Answer & Comments Answer: 2-
Inhibits proliferation of ammonia forming organisms in the gut
Lactulose is used in patients with cirrhosis/hepatic
encephalopathy. It limits the proliferation of ammonia forming gut
organisms and increases clearance of protein load in gut. It causes
hypomagnesaemia. Chlordiazepoxide absorption is not affected. [ Q:
15 ] MRCPass - Gastroenterology A 35 year old lady has sudden onset
right upper quadrant pain and abdominal distension. She was well
until 5 weeks ago, when over several days she rapidly developed
abdominal distension and pain. She was also nauseous and vomiting.
On examination, temperature was 37.1C, her JVP was not raised and
breath sounds were clear. Abdominal examination revealed tender
hepatomegaly, jaundice and gross ascites. There was also bilateral
ankle oedema. What is the likely diagnosis? 1- Dubin Johnson
syndrome 2- Gilbert's syndrome 3- Budd Chiari syndrome 4- Lymphoma
5- Myeloma Answer & Comments Answer: 3- Budd Chiari syndrome
Budd-Chiari syndrome is a condition induced by thrombotic or
nonthrombotic obstruction to hepatic venous outflow. The classic
clinical triad of abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, and ascites was
described by Budd in 1845, and the histopathological features were
described by Chiari at the turn of the 20th century. The syndrome
most often occurs in patients with underlying thrombotic diathesis,
including myeloproliferative disorders such as polycythemia vera
and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, pregnancy, tumors, chronic
inflammatory diseases, clotting disorders, and infections. Doppler
ultrasonography, as was used in this case, is the most effective
primary initial screening method. CT and magnetic resonance
angiography are both more sensitive than ultrasonography. The gold
standard for diagnosis is hepatic venography, which should be
performed when there is a high index of clinical suspicion and the
results of noninvasive testing are either equivocal or negative. [
Q: 16 ] MRCPass - Gastroenterology A 40 year old man who usually
drinks only 2 units of alcohol a day went on an alcohol binge with
his friends. On that day, he vomited 10 times and was brought to
hospital feeling very unwell. He has not previously had any
symptoms of dyspepsia or abdominal pains. During physical
assessment, he vomits a large bowlful of blood. What is the likely
cause of his haemetemesis? 1- Oesophageal varices 2- Duodenal ulcer
3- Mallory Weiss tear 4- Gastritis 5- Gastric outlet obstruction
Answer & Comments Answer: 3- Mallory Weiss tear A Mallory-Weiss
tear occurs in the mucous membrane typically in the lower
oesophagus. Mallory-Weiss tears are usually caused by forceful or
prolonged vomiting or coughing. They may also be caused by
epileptic convulsions.
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PasTest Exam ReviseMRCP 41 The tear may be followed by vomiting
bright red blood or by passing blood in the stool. The incidence is
4 in 100,000 people. Mallory Weiss tear [ Q: 17 ] MRCPass -
Gastroenterology A 30 year old lady has altered bowel habit. At the
gastroenterology clinic, her symptoms are reviewed. She has a 2
year history of bloating and abdominal pains. Some weeks she is
constipated and during others she has diarrhoea. What is the likely
diagnosis? 1- Whipple's disease 2- Tropical sprue 3- Coeliac
disease 4- Irritable bowel syndrome 5- Ulcerative colitis Answer
& Comments Answer: 4- Irritable bowel syndrome Weight loss,
fevers and blood in the stool are features which suggest a
different organic cause other than irritable bowel syndrome. [ Q:
18 ] MRCPass - Gastroenterology A 60 lady has symptoms of
intermittent abdominal pain and loose stool which have occurred
over 1 year. Investigations reveal: Hb 8.5 g/dl MCV 85 fl WCC 6 x
109 /l Iron 11 (14-29) mol/l Ferritin 20 (15-200) mol/l Folate 2
(3-20) ?g/l What investigation should be done? 1- Ultrasound of
abdomen 2- Small bowel biopsy 3- Smooth muscle antibodies 4- ERCP
5- Rigid sigmoidoscopy Answer & Comments Answer: 2- Small bowel
biopsy The combined iron and folate deficiency anaemia as well as
symptoms suggestive of malabsorption makes celiac disease a likely
diagnosis. Small bowel biopsy may show partial or subtotal villous
atrophy. Anti endomysial antibodies will also be helpful. [ Q: 19 ]
MRCPass - Gastroenterology A 25 year old bartender has had
abdominal pains and loose stools for 3 years. He also has symptoms
of myalgia and profound fatigue. He mentions that the abdominal
pains are often worse after he has bread. Anti endomysial antibody
is positive. An enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay test was
conducted and it showed positive reactions to gluten, albumin,
lactose, barley, and rye. What is the diagnosis? 1- Diverticulosis
2- Tropical sprue 3- Ulcerative colitis 4- Crohn's disease
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PasTest Exam ReviseMRCP 42 5- Coeliac disease Answer & Comments
Answer: 5- Coeliac disease Signs of coeliac disease include
fatigue, weight loss, diarrhoea, arthralgia and myalgia. The "gold
standard" for diagnosing celiac disease is through a jejunal
mucosal biopsy sample to measure the extent of the damage. Another
method is the enzyme-linked immunosorbant assay (ELISA). Celiac
disease patients cannot tolerate gluten, a protein found in the
grains wheat, rye, and barley. In order to preserve their
gastrointestinal integrity, patients with celiac disease need to
take extra precaution when selecting foods. [ Q: 20 ] MRCPass -
Gastroenterology A 55 year old man is suspected of having a
duodenal ulcer recurrence despite being on omeprazole. Which of the
following is the most sensitive test in detecting ongoing infection
with Helicobacter pylori? 1- The (13C) urea breath test 2- The
urease test on a gastric biopsy 3- A gastric fundal biopsy culture
4- Helicobacter pylori serology 5- Stool culture Answer &
Comments Answer: 1- The (13C) urea breath test The urea breath test
is expensive but has up to 98% sensitivity. The gastric biopsy
culture has high specificity but sensitivity of 90%. Histology of
gastric biopsy (not listed above) has both high sensitivity and
specificity. [ Q: 21 ] MRCPass - Gastroenterology A 35 year old
lady presents with abdominal pain to the GP who suspects irritable
bowel syndrome. Which of the following is a recognised feature of
irritable bowel syndrome? 1- Lactase deficiency 2- Bloating 3- A
past history of dysentery 4- Late development of carcinoma of the
colon 5- Diarrhoea but not constipation Answer & Comments
Answer: 2- Bloating Abdominal pain relieved by defecation,
bloating, as well as alternating bowel habits is common. [ Q: 22 ]
MRCPass - Gastroenterology A 28 year old intravenous drug user
complains about severe epigastric pains, nausea and vomiting. He
has upper GI endoscopy which shows small areas of ulceration and
white plaques. Which of the following is the best treatment option?
1- Metronidazole 2- Amoxycillin 3- Ranitidine 4- Fluconazole 5-
Aciclovir Answer & Comments Answer: 4- Fluconazole This is a
patient with possible HIV who has oesophageal candidiasis.
Fluconazole, ketoconazole and itraconazole can be used.
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PasTest Exam ReviseMRCP 43 Oesophageal Candidiasis [ Q: 23 ]
MRCPass - Gastroenterology A couple develops profuse vomiting after
attending a dinner in a chinese restaurant. They ate at 7 pm but
became ill early in the next morning. What is the likely infective
organism? 1- Bacillus cereus 2- Salmonella enteriditis 3- Bacillus
anthracis 4- Clostridium perfringens 5- E. Coli Answer &
Comments Answer: 1- Bacillus cereus Bacillus Cereus food poisoning
is a gastrointestinal intoxication caused by toxins produced by the
Bacillus Cereus bacteria. There are two types of toxin, - the
Diarrhoeal and the Emetic toxins. Symptoms with the diarrhoeal
toxin are nausea, cramplike abdominal pains and watery diarrhoea.
The diagnosis is confirmed by a laboratory test on a faecal
specimen. Bacillus cereus exists in normal bacterial and spore
forms in foods. The normal form is inactivated by cooking, but most
illness is a result of the multiplication of spores during
inadequate refrigeration of moist cooked protein foods and rice
(hence its association with chinese takeaways). [ Q: 24 ] MRCPass -
Gastroenterology A 36 year old lady has noticed mild jaundice,
worsening joint pains and is complaining of itching on her skin for
the past 8 months. On examination, she has palpable hepatomegaly
and a bronze pigmentation on her skin. Her liver function tests
show a bilirubin of 25 mol/l, ALT 100 U/l, ALP 480 U/l. ANA is
negative, anti-mitochondrial antibody is positive at 1/320. Which
of the following medications is helpful? 1- Desferrioxamine 2-
Hydrocortisone 3- Propanolol 4- Ursodeoxycholic acid 5- Tranexemic
acid Answer & Comments Answer: 4- Ursodeoxycholic acid Primary
biliary cirrhosis is described. Liver transplantation does not cure
the condition. Histology shows white cell damage to the biliary
epithelium with non necrotising granuloma formation in the portal
triad. Ursodeoxycholic acid lowers serum bilirubin and symptoms of
itching, and prolongs the progression tow ards requirement for
liver transplantation. IgM levels are particularly high in PBC. [
Q: 25 ] MRCPass - Gastroenterology A 45 year old man has a
diagnosis of coeliac disease. He presents with a one month history
of intermittent, colicky, central abdominal pain and weight loss of
5 kg. There is positive faecal occult blood. What is the most
appropriate investigation?
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PasTest Exam ReviseMRCP 44 1- Duodenal biopsy 2- Barium enema 3-
Surgical exploration 4- CT scan of abdomen 5- Colonoscopy Answer
& Comments Answer: 5- Colonoscopy Colonoscopy is necessary to
exclude a colonic carcinoma. There is a relatively high prevalence
of colorectal neoplasia among older patients with coeliac disease
who can present with iron deficiency or altered bowel habit. [ Q:
26 ] MRCPass - Gastroenterology A 60 year old man has symptoms of
lethargy and vomiting. He drinks 10 pints of beer a day. He was
started on an intravenous glucose infusion and chlordiazepoxide.
For a day, he symptomatically improved. However, the next day, he
became confused and started vomiting several times. He also had
diplopia and was unable to stand. What is the likely diagnosis? 1-
Delirium tremens 2- Hepatic encephalopathy 3- Cerebellar stroke 4-
Vitamin B deficiency 5- Pancreatitis Answer & Comments Answer:
4- Vitamin B deficiency Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurologic
disorder of acute onset caused by a thiamine deficiency. The
condition is characterized by ocular abnormalities, ataxia, and a
global confusional state. Wernicke's encephalopathy results from a
deficiency in vitamin B-1 (ie, thiamine). The episode may have been
precipitated by intravenous dextrose administration which exhausted
his vitamin B reserves. B vitamins should be administered to all
alcoholic patients requiring dextrose. [ Q: 27 ] MRCPass -
Gastroenterology A 30 year old psychology lecturer has deranged
liver function tests. She also has jaundice, pruritus and
xanthelasmata. Blood tests reveal elevated levels of conjugated
bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, gamma-glutamyltranspeptidase and
positive anti-mitochondrial antibody. She seeks advice about the
associations of the disease. Which one of the following is likely
to be associated? 1- Raised IgA 2- Osteomalacia 3-
Hyperparathyroidism 4- Nephrotic syndrome 5- Vitamin A deficiency
Answer & Comments Answer: 2- Osteomalacia The diagnosis is
primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC). It is based on a combination of
findings including cholestatic liver enzymes, a positive
antimitochondrial antibody (AMA), and characteristic liver biopsy
findings. Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase of liver origin is
the most common laboratory finding. Fatigue, jaundice, pruritus and
xanthelasmata are other features of primary biliary cirrhosis. In
the disease, IgM is raised. Primary biliary cirrosis is associated
with autoimmune conditions such as scleroderma and Sjogren's
syndrome. These conditions are also associated with distal RTA
(type 1). There is xanthelasma formation due to impaired
cholesterol excretion and also osteomalacia due to impaired Vitamin
D absorption.
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PasTest Exam ReviseMRCP 45 [ Q: 28 ] MRCPass - Gastroenterology A
25 year old man presents with pain over the right side of the
abdomen, diarrhoea, poor appetite and weight loss. He is pyrexial
with a temperature of 39C. He has oral apthous ulcers and a tender
right lower quadrant in the abdomen. Rectal examination is normal.
His Hb is 12.5g/dl, WCC 14 x 109 /L and platelets 550 x 109 /L.
Urea is 8 mol/l and creatinine is 90 mol/l, CRP is 105 mg/l. Which
of the following is the best test to confirm the diagnosis? 1-
Stool cultures 2- Barium meal and follow through 3- Ultrasound of
abdomen 4- Colonoscopy 5- Surgical laparotomy Answer & Comments
Answer: 2- Barium meal and follow through The likely diagnosis is
Crohn's disease and a barium follow through is the best test to
confirm this. Behcet's disease and Yersinia colitis can also
present with raised inflammatory markers, oral ulceration and right
sided abdominal pathology. Strictures seen on the Barium Follow
through in Crohn's disease [ Q: 29 ] MRCPass - Gastroenterology A
52 year old male presents with general weakness. He drinks
approximately 20 units of alcohol each week and smokes 10
cigarettes daily. Examination reveals jaundice, numerous spider
naevi and he has a temperature of 37.5C. Abdominal examination
reveals hepatosplenomegaly. Investigations show : Bilirubin 140
micromol/L (1-22) Alkaline phosphatase 525 iu/l (45-105) AST 178
iu/l (1-31) Albumin 28 g/L (37-49) Hepatitis B virus surface
antigen - negative Hepatitis B virus e antigen - negative Hepatitis
B virus e Antibody- positive Hepatitis B core Antigen (anti-HBc) -
positive Hepatitis B virus DNA - undetectable What is the likely
diagnosis? 1- Chronic hepatitis D (delta) infection 2- New
hepatitis A infection
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PasTest Exam ReviseMRCP 46 3- Alcoholic liver disease 4- Chronic
hepatitis B infection 5- New hepatitis C infection Answer &
Comments Answer: 4- Chronic hepatitis B infection A negative HbsAg
and HbeAg, along with positive hepatitis B antibodies (anti-HBc)
would suggest past or chronic infection. [ Q: 30 ] MRCPass -
Gastroenterology A 35 year old man presents with 2 bowls full of
haemetemesis. He drinks 10 pints of beer a day and has done so for
10 years. Upper GI endoscopy reveals oesophageal varices. Which of
the following is effective in reducing the rates of rebleeding in
the future? 1- Lisinopril 2- Propanolol 3- Simvastatin 4-
Ranitidine 5- Naproxen Answer & Comments Answer: 2- Propanolol
Beta blockers (propanolol, nadolol), nitrates, vasopressin
analogues and somatostatin analogues can be used for reducing
rebleeding in oesophageal varices. [ Q: 31 ] MRCPass -
Gastroenterology A 30 year old woman who has been on the
contraceptive pill presents with abdominal pain and distension of 5
days duration. On examination she has no stigmata of chronic liver
disease. She has distended veins over the anterior abdominal wall.
She also has ascites, an enlarged tender palpable liver with absent
hepato-jugular reflux. Her ankles are oedematous. What is the
diagnosis? 1- Congestive cardiac failure 2- Antiphospholipid
syndrome 3- Fatty liver 4- Budd Chiari syndrome 5- Pulmonary
hypertension Answer & Comments Answer: 4- Budd Chiari syndrome
Budd-Chiari syndrome is thrombosis of the hepatic vein, the major
vein that leaves the liver. Most patients have an underlying
thrombotic tendency. About 10% have polycythemia vera, and about
10% have been on the OCP. The most common symptoms in Budd-Chiari
syndrome are ascites and jaundice. [ Q: 32 ] MRCPass -
Gastroenterology A 25 year old woman with cystic fibrosis presents
with abdominal pain. The abdominal pain is colicky and localised in
the lower abdomen. On examination, she was pyrexial and
tachycardic. Her abdomen was distended. There was guarding and
bowel sounds were present. Which of the following is likely to be
the cause? 1- Renal Calculi 2- Ulcerative colitis
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PasTest Exam ReviseMRCP 47 3- Meconium Ileus Equivalent Syndrome 4-
Pyelonephritis 5- Irritable Bowel Syndrome Answer & Comments
Answer: 3- Meconium Ileus Equivalent Syndrome Meconium Ileus is the
earliest clinical manifestation of cystic fibrosis (CF) and occurs
in approximately 16% of patients with CF. Meconium in patients with
ileus has higher protein and lower carbohydrate concentration than
that in control populations. Signs of peritonitis include
tenderness, abdominal wall edema, distension, and clinical evidence
of sepsis. A palpable mass may indicate pseudocyst formation.
Surgical exploration is indicated for patients with progressive
distension, signs of peritonitis, or clinical deterioration.
Complicated Meconium Ileus requires resection more often than
simple cases and always requires temporary stomas. [ Q: 33 ]
MRCPass - Gastroenterology A 40 year old woman has previously had a
right hemicolectomy and resection of 30 cms of terminal ileum for
ileocaecal Crohn's disease. She has persistent diarrhoea, which is
not explosive. She does not have abdominal pain, bloating, or loss
of weight. Investigations have failed to demonstrate evidence of
recurrent Crohn's disease. Which is the best therapy for the
symptoms? 1- Prednisolone 2- Mesalazine 3- Azathioprine 4-
Cholestyramine 5- Loperamide Answer & Comments Answer: 4-
Cholestyramine The patient has had resection of the terminal ileum
and the cause of the diarrhoea is likely to be Bile Acid
Malabsorption (BAM). Bile acid sequestrants such as cholestyramine
should help the symptoms of persistent diarrhoea. [ Q: 34 ] MRCPass
- Gastroenterology A 45 year old man has had a 5 year history of
severe sharp, epigastric pains and diarrhoea. He gets 2-3 episodes
of these symptoms a day. His GP has prescribed proton pump
inhibitors which has helped partly, but he still complains that the
symptoms are severe. Which one of the following might confirm the
diagnosis? 1- Amylase 2- ERCP 3- C-peptide 4- Insulin 5- Gastrin
level Answer & Comments Answer: 5- Gastrin level The diagnosis
is likely to be Zollinger Ellison syndrome which is frequently
secondary to a gastrinoma. Gastrin levels are significantly
elevated. The secretin test can help to confirm the diagnosis.
There is increased gastrin elevation (greater than 200 pg/mL) in a
positive test after secretin is given intravenously . There is an
association with the MEN 1 syndrome, so calcium levels should be
checked (to screen for a parathyroid adenoma).
44. El-zohry MRCP Questions Bank (Part 1) 2013 (For my personal
use) Dr. Khalid Yusuf El-Zohry Sohag Teaching Hospital
(01118391123) Ref MRCPass OE OE 2012 PasTest 2009 PassMedicine 2009
PasTest Exam ReviseMRCP 48 [ Q: 35 ] MRCPass - Gastroenterology A
42 year old man has a diagnosis of Ulcerative Colitis. He was
incidentally found to have positive anti smooth muscle antibodies
by the GP who sent an autoimmune screen. Which is the next
recommended test for this patient? 1- CT of the abdomen 2-
Colonoscopy 3- ESR 4- Endoscopy 5- Liver function tests Answer
& Comments Answer: 5- Liver function tests The features are
suggestive of autoimmune hepatitis. Liver function tests may
demonstrated eleveated levels of bilirubin, AST and ALT. A liver
biopsy may then be warranted. [ Q: 36 ] MRCPass - Gastroenterology
A 35 year old man has chronic liver disease secondary to hepatitis.
He comes on having had a depressive episode but also feels tired
and unw ell. He reveals that he has had a bottle of wine a day for
a week. On examination he has gross abdominal distension. A
peritoneal tap is done. Results from the tap show that it has
albumin of 25 g/l, LDH of 320 U/l, glucose 3.5 mmol/l (serum
glucose 6.5) and a white cell count of 700 per mm3 (90%
neutrophils). What is the diagnosis? 1- Acute reactivation of
hepatitis B 2- Tuberculous peritonitis 3- Alcoholic liver disease
decompensation 4- Chylous ascites 5- Spontaneous bacterial
peritiontis Answer & Comments Answer: 5- Spontaneous bacterial
peritiontis A white cell count of > 350 mm3 is diagnostic of
spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. There is underlying cirrhotic
liver disease and this should always be considered related to
decompensation. [ Q: 37 ] MRCPass - Gastroenterology A 60 year old
male presents with a two month history of shorness of breath,
weight loss and lethargy. He looks pale and is jaundiced.
Investigations show : Haemoglobin 6 g/dL MCV 106 fL White cell
count 2.2 x 109 /L Platelets 60 x 109 /L Urinalysis: Increased
urobilinogen. What is the next appropriate test? 1- Coomb's test 2-
Colonoscopy 3- Vitamin B12 concentration 4- Bone marrow aspirate 5-
Reticulocyte count Answer & Comments Answer: 3- Vitamin B12
concentration The clinical picture is one of megaloblastic anaemia.
B12 and folate measurement is the first test to confirm this, and
then other tests such as blood film and marrow aspirates can be
done to investigate the cause. [ Q: 38 ] MRCPass - Gastroenterology
A 30 year old man had previous bowel resection for acute abdomen.
He continues to have frequent episodes of bloody diarrhea and
abdominal pain.