Bloomberg Aptitude Test (BAT) Analytical Reasoning
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1. Analytical & Logical Reasoning
2. Set - A Directions for questions 1 to 5: Compare XYZ Ltd.,
started a project with 12 stages, A through L. The following table
gives the time required to complete each stage, and the necessary
stages that should be completed before that stage can be
started.
3. Stage Stages necessary to be completed before starting the
stage Time required to complete the stage (in days) A None 5 B A 16
C A 12 D C 10 E B, D 3 F B 4 G F 6 H E 8 I D 10 J G, H 18 K H, I 12
L K 8
4. Any stage, once it is started, is implemented till is
completion without any stoppages in between. However, it is
possible that more than one stage is under implementation
simultaneously. The Project is said to be completed only when all
of the above listed 12 stages are completed. Assume that the day on
which the project is started is the 1st day.
5. days are required to complete the project ? 1. After
completing stage E, at least how many more (1) 20 (2) 24 (3) 28 (4)
32 (5) None of the above
6. 2. Stage J cannot be started before the (1) 26th day. (2)
27th day. (4) 39th day. (5) 40th day. (3) 32nd day.
7. 3.If the project is to be completed in the least possible
number of days, then after the completion of stage F, at least how
many more days are required to complete the project ? (1) 20 (4) 26
(2) 22 (5) 33 (3) 24
8. Additional information for question 4 and 5: After
completing the above project, the company was awarded another two
project, both exactly identical to the above project. However, the
company had a constraint that there was only one team for each
stage of the project, because of which no stage could be
implemented simultaneously in both the projects. 4. What is the
least time required, from the start of these new project, to
complete stage G in both the projects ? (1) 36 days (2) 38 days (3)
43 days (4) 45 days (5) 47 days
9. 5. What is the least time required, from the start of these
new projects, to complete the implementation of stage E both the
projects ? (1) 42 days (4) 43 days (2) 40 days (5) 46 days (3) 35
days
10. Solutions for questions 1 to 5: Let us tabulate the number
of days required to complete the project stage wise. Stage Earlier
Stage Time form the beginning A - 5 B A 21 C A 17 D C 27 E B, D 30
F B 25 G F 31 H E 38 I D 37 J G, H 56 K H, I 50 L K 58
11. 1. Number of days required = 58 30 = 28 days. Choice (3) 2.
J depends upon G and H, among which 38 days is the longest time
taken (i.e., by H). .. J can start on 39th day. Choice (4) 3. The
least possible number of days taken by the project is 58. Hence, F
should have been completed by the most 34 days. Hence, 24 more days
are needed. Choice (3)
12. 4. The least time required is 47 days as shown below. Stage
A B C D Implementation Days Project 1 Project II 1 to 5 6 to 10 6
to 21 22 to 37 22 to 25 38 to 41 26 to 31 42 to 47 Choice (5)
13. 5. The least time required is as shown below. Stage A B C D
Implementation Time Project I 1 to 5 6 to 21 6 to 17 18 to 27
Project II 6 to 10 22 to 37 18 to 29 30 to 39 E 28 to 30 40 to 42
It takes a total of 42 days. Choice (1)
14. Set - B Directions for question 6 and 7: Each question
contains six statements followed by four groups of three statements
each. Find out the group(s) in which the three statements are
logically related. 6. A. B. C. D E. F. All letter are alphabet.
Some letters are characters. No letter is a number. Some alphabet
are characters. No alphabet is a number. Some characters are
numbers. (1) DFA (4) ACE (2) BCF (5) FAB (3) DEF
15. Sol. DFA :BCF :DEF :ACE :- This is not a valid group as the
total number of terms is more than three. This is not a valid group
as exactly one of the statements is negative. This is not a valid
group as exactly one of the statements is negative. This is a valid
group as none of the rules is violated and here C is the conclusion
drawn A and E. Choice (4)
16. 7. A. All players are stars. B. Some players are artists.
C. All artists are actors. D. Some stars are artists. E. Some
artists are not starts. F. No actor is a star. (1) (4) EFA DCF (2)
(5) CEF (3) CBA More than one of the above
17. Sol. EFA :- This is not a valid group as the term starts is
present in each of the statements. CEF :- This is a valid group as
none of the rules is violated and here E is the conclusion drawn
from C and F. Choice (2)
18. Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 3 4 3 5 5. 6. 7. 1 4 2
19. Analytical & Logical Reasoning
20. Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below. The following table gives the production capacity of the
five refineries P, Q, R, S and T of the oil company SPCL, the
demand at the companys four outlets A, B, C and D and the
transportation costs involved in transporting and the
transportation costs involved in transporting and the
transportation costs involved in transporting the oil from
different refineries to different outlets. Transportation cost (in
rupees/kilolitre) Refinery (Production capacity in kilolitres/day)
Outlet (Demand in kilolitres/day) A (40) B (30) C (10) D (20) P
(30) 500 300 600 200 Q (10) 600 400 400 100 R (30) 300 400 700 400
S (20) 200 300 400 200 T (10) 400 300 600 100
21. In the above table, the number given in the brackets
alongside each refinery gives the production capacity (in
kilolitres per day) of that refinery and the number given in the
brackets alongside each outlet. The number given in the brackets
alongside each outlet gives the demand (in kilolitres per day) at
that outlet. The number given in the cell corresponding to a
refinery and an outlet, gives the transportation cost (in rupees
per kilolitre) incurred for transporting oil from that refinery to
that outlet. For example, the production capacity of refinery P is
30 kilolitres/day and the demand at outlet A is 40 kilolitres/day
and the cost of transporting one kilolitre of oil from refinery P
to outlet P to outlet A is Rs.500. Assume that the company
currently operates only the refineries and outlets mentioned above
and that the production at the refineries on any day is transported
to the outlets such that the demand at all the outlets is met.
22. 1.The daily of transportation of oil to all the outlets is
at least (1) Rs.24,000 (2) Rs.26,000 (3) Rs.28,000 (4)
Rs.29,000
23. Solution : The lowest cost of transportation occurs when
the oil is transported along the cheapest routes available, which
are shown below. T D 10 kl 10 x 100 = Rs.1000 Q D 10 kl 10 x 100 =
Rs.1000 P B 30 kl 30 x 300 = Rs.9000 S A 10 kl 10 x 200 = Rs.2000 R
A 30 kl 30 x 300 = Rs.9000 S C 10 kl 10 x 400 = Rs.4000 Total =
Rs.26,000 Choice (2)
24. 2. If due to a disruption in the supply lines to some of
the outlets, refinery P can supply oil to only outlets A and C then
the daily cost of the transportation of oil to A and C, then the
daily cost of transportation of oil to all the outlets is at least
(1) Rs.29,000 (3) Rs.33,000 (2) Rs.30,000 (4) Rs.34,000
25. Solution: As P can be used for supplying only to A or C,
the minimum cost of transportation in this case would be P C 10 kl
Rs.6,000 P A 20 kl Rs.10,000 Q D 10 kl Rs.1,000 T D 10 kl Rs.1,000
R B 30 kl Rs.12,000 S A 20 kl Rs.4,000 Total = Rs.34,000 Choice
(4)
26. Currently, the daily cost of transportation of oil to all
the outlets is the outlets is the least possible. 3. The daily cost
of transportation to all the outlets would increase by the maximum
amount, if there is a disruption (blockage) in the supply line
connecting. (1) P and B (3) Q and C (2) S and D (4) T and B
27. Solution: The cheapest supply lines were already determined
in the first question of the set. Now we have to determine in the
supply line whose disruption would cause the transportation cost to
increase by the maximum amount. Choices (2), (3) and (4) can be
straight away ignored as they are not part of the cheapest route.
Hence, the increase in transportation cost would be highest, if the
supply line P B is distributed. Choice (1)
28. 4. If the company plans to decrease the daily cost of
transportation of oil to all the outlets by doubling the production
capacity of exactly one of the refineries, which refinery should it
select so as to reduce the transportation cost by the maximum
amount? (1) S (2) Q (3) R (4) P
29. Solution: As far as the cost of transportation at each of
the outlets is considered, most of the outlets receive the oil at a
low transportation cost from the refinery S, hence if the capacity
of refinery S is doubled, the saving in the expenditure will be
more. Choice (1)
30. Question - Eight county teams Kent, Essex, Somerset,
Durham, Hampshire, Yorkshire, Derbyshire and Lancashire
Participated, Yorkshire, Derbyshire and Lancashire participated in
a Twenty20 tournament held in London. In the first round, these
eight teams were divided into two groups of four teams each. Each
team has to Play two matches against each of the other teams in its
group. The teams with the highest and the second Highest number of
wins in both the group will move to the next round, i.e.,
semi-finals. It is known that, Essex, Yorkshire, Lancashire and
Derbyshire reached the semi-finals. It is also known that, in the
first round (i) No match ended in a tie and in each of the groups,
each of the four teams won a different number of matches. (ii)
Yorkshire lost both its matches against Derbyshire. (iii) Kent won
the same number of matches that by Lancashire. (iv)In its group,
Somerset lost both of its matched against all the other teams,
except Durham, which in turn, won at least one match against each
of the other teams, except one.
31. 5. Which team won the highest number of matches in the
first round? (1) Yorkshire (2) Derbyshire (3) Essex (4) Cannot be
determined 6. What was the total number of matches won by Durham in
the first round? (1) Hampshire (2) Somerset (3) Durham (4) Cannot
be determined 7. What was the total number of matches won by Durham
in the first round? (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 8. Which team/s lost at
least one match against Kent in the first round? (1) Only Hampshire
(2) Only Yorkshire (3) Only Yorkshire and Hampshire (4) Only
Hampshire and Derbyshire
32. Solution: Given that, Essex, Yorkshire, Lancashire and
Derbyshire reached the semi finals. Hence, Kent, Somerset, Durham
and Hampshire are eliminated in the first round. It is also given,
Yorkshire played against Derbyshire. Hence, Yorkshire and
Derbyshire must be the two of one group. .. Lancashire and Essex
must be the two teams of the other group. As Kent has same number
of wins as Lancashire, they must be in different groups. .. Kent
and Hampshire are the losing teams in the group from which
Yorkshire and Derbyshire qualified and Durham and Somerset are the
eliminated teams in the group from which Essex and Lancashire
qualified. The groups can be classified and follows: Qualified for
Semis Lancashire Essex Yorkshire Derbyshire Eliminated in 1st round
Somerset Durham Kent Hampshire
33. Total number of matches in each group = 12 Given, each of
them has a different number of wins, so the possibilities are as
follows. Number of wins Qualified teams Eliminated teams Highest
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 2nd highest 6 4 2 0 6 3 2 1 5 4 2 1 5 4 3 0 3rd
highest 4th highest As Kent, which is eliminated has the same
number of wins as Lancashire, which qualified, the only
possibilities That can be considered are (ii) and (iv). In the
group of Kent, Yorkshire must have lost only the matches against
Derbyshire i.e. it must have won 4 matched. Derbyshire must Have
won both the matches against Yorkshire, both against Hampshire and
one against Kent.
34. Kent won both the matches against Hampshire and one against
Derbyshire and Hampshire lost all the matches. In the group of
Lancashire, Essex won all the matches, Lancashire, Essex won all
the matches, Lancashire won both the matches against Somerset and
one against Durham. Durham Won one against Lancashire and one
against Somerset and Somerset won against Durham. 5. Essex won the
maximum number of matches in the first round. 6. Hampshire has the
least number of wins. 7. The number of matches won by Durham is
two. Choice (3) Choice (1) Choice (3) 5. Hampshire and Derbyshire
lost at least one match against Kent. Choice (4)
35. Key 1. 4 2. 2 3. 1 4. 1 5. 6. 7. 8. 3 1 3 4
36. THANK YOU
37. qcfinance.in COMPARISON OF RANKS, BLOOD RELATIONS, FAMILY
TREE AND CONDITIONS & GROUPINGS
38. qcfinance.in COMPARISON OF RANKS
39. COMPARISON OF RANKS The term ranks may include various
objects such as age, height, marks, salary, weights, etc. A set of
information is given in the questions. Solutions of such questions
requires ranking of objects either in ascending or descending
order, depending upon their characteristic. Position of one person
is given: From both ends of the row or ranks from top and bottom
are given and total number of persons is asked. Sometimes the
position is altered by interchanging the seats of two persons, or
some third person is seated between the two. Gap before Rank Gap
after A 17 18th 9th 8
40. COMPARISON OF RANKS Example: Monica is at 25th place from
one end in group of 35 students. What is her position from the
other end? Solution: 25th position means 24persons are before
Monica, 1 position is occupied by herself and 10 people will be
left behind her, as total are 35 students. So, 24 + 1 + 10 =35
(total persons) Monica 24 25th 11th 10 Shortcut. (Total person + 1)
Position from one side = Position from other side (35 + 1) = 25 or
means 36 25 = 11th, So, the answer is 11, her position is 11th from
other end.
41. COMPARISON OF RANKS Example: If position is 13th from the
last. If there are 21 students in all in his class, what is his
position from the beginning? Solution: (Total + 1) position from
one side. (21 + 1 ) 13 22 13 = 9th
42. qcfinance.in QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
43. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: Kanmani ranked sixteenth
from the top and twenty ninth from the bottom among those who
passed an examination. Six boys did not participate in the
competition and five failed in it. How many boys were there in the
class? A. 35 B. 45 C. 50 D. 55 Answer: D Number of boys who passed
= (15 + 1 + 28) = 44 Total number of boys in the class = 44 + 6 +5
= 55. Question: Murugan is sixth from the left end and Prasanna is
tenth from the right end in a row of boys. If there are eight boys
between Murugan and Prasanna, how many boys are there in the row?
A. 21 B. 23 C. 24 D. 25 Answer: C Clearly, number of boys in the
row = ( 6 + 10 + 8) = 24.
44. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: In a row of girls facing
North, Reena is 10th to the left of Pallavi, who is 21st from the
right end. If Malini, who is 17th from the left end, is fourth to
the right of Reena, how many girls are there in the row? A. 37 B.
41 C. 43 D. 49 Answer: C Pallavi is 21st from right and Reena is
10th to the left of Pallavi. So, Reena is 31st from right. Malini
is 4th to the right of Reena. So, Malini is 27th from the right.
Also, Malini is 17th from the left. Therefore number of girls in
the row = ( 26 + 1 + 16 ) = 43.
45. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: In a queue, Viji is
fourteenth from the front and Jack is seventeenth from the end,
while Mary is in between Viji and Jack. If Viji be ahead of Jack
and there be 48 persons in the queue, how many persons are there
between Viji and Mary? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 Answer: D Number of
persons between Viji and Jack = 48 - (14 + 17) = 17. Now, Mary lies
in middle of these 17 persons i.e., at the eighth position. So,
number of persons between Viji and Mary = 7. Question: Murugan is
sixth from the left end and Prasanna is tenth from the right end in
a row of boys. If there are eight boys between Murugan and
Prasanna, how many boys are there in the row? A. 21 B. 23 C. 24 D.
25 Answer: C. Clearly, number of boys in the row = ( 6 + 10 + 8) =
24.
46. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: In a row of girls, Nithya
and Suganya occupy the ninth place from the right end and tenth
place from the left end, respectively. If they interchange their
places, then Nithya and Suganya occupy seventeenth place from the
right and eighteenth place from the left respectively. How many
girls are there in the row? A. 22 B. 24 C. 26 D. 28 Answer: C.
Since Nithya and Suganya exchange places, so Ritas new position is
the same as Monikas earlier position. This position is 17th from
the right and 10th from the left. Therefore Number of girls in the
row = (16 + 1 + 9) = 26.
47. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: In a queue of children,
Arun is fifth from the left and Suresh is sixth from the right.
When they interchange their places among themselves, Arun becomes
thirteenth from the left. Then, what will be Suresh's position from
the right? A. 8th B. 14th C. 15th D. 16th Answer: B. Since Arun and
Suresh interchange places, so Aruns new position (13th from left)
is the same as Sureshs earlier position (6th from right). So,
number of children in the queue = (12 + 1 + 5) = 18. Now. Sureshs
new position is the same as Arun's earlier position fifth from
left. Therefore Sureshs position from the right = (18 - 4) =
14th.
48. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: In a class of 35 students,
Kamal is placed seventh from the bottom whereasa Sunil is placed
ninth from the top. Manoj is placed exactly in between the two.
What is Kamals position from Manoj? A. 7 B. 9 C. 10 D. 12 Answer:
C. Number of students between Kamal and Sunil = 35 - ( 7 + 9) = 19.
Clearly, there are 9 students between Kamal and Manoj, as well as
Manoj and Sunil. So Kamal is 10th from Manoj.
49. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: Vimal is 7 ranks ahead of
Sathish in a class of 39. If Sathishs rank is seventeenth from the
last, what is Vimals rank from the start? A. 11th B. 13th C. 16th
D. 18th Answer: C. Sathish is 17th from the last and Vimal is 7
ranks ahead of Sathish. So, Vimal is 24th from the last. Number of
students ahead of Vimal in rank = (39 - 24) = 15. So, Vimal is 16th
from the start. Question: Ram ranked ninth from the top and
thirtyeighth from the bottom in a class. How many students are
there in the class? A. 44 B. 45 C. 46 D. 47 Answer: Clearly, number
of students in the class = ( 8 + 1 + 37 ) = 46.
50. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: Kiran is taller than Sameer
but shorter than Pramod. John is taller than Urmila. Sameer is
taller than John. Who is the tallest in the group? a)Kiran b)Sameer
c)Pramod d)John Answer: C. Question: Prabir remembers that his
father's birthday is between thirteenth and sixteenth of May
whereas his sister remembers that their father's birthday is
between fourteenth and eighteenth of May. On which day of may is
their father's birthday? a)15th b)16th c)14th d)Seventeenth Answer:
C.
51. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: The coach arrived at the
playground at 8.35. Rakesh arrived 45 minutes later and was 15
minutes late for the training. By how much time did the coach come
early than the scheduled time? a) 35 minutes b) 45 minutes c) 15
minutes d) None of these Answer: d. Question: Five children were
administered psychological tests to know their intellectual levels.
In the report, psychologists pointed out that the child A is less
intelligent than the child B. The child C is less intelligent than
the child D. The child B is less intelligent than the child C and
child A is more intelligent then the child E. Which child is the
most intelligent ? a) A b) B c) D d) E Answer: c.
52. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: Five boys participated in a
competition. Rohit was ranked lower than Sanjay. Vikas was ranked
higher than Dinesh. Kamal`s rank was between Rohit and Vikas. Who
was ranked highest? A. Sanjay B. Vikas C. Dinesh D. Kamal E. None
of These Answer: A. Question: Ramesh is taller than Vinay who is
not as tall as Karan. Sanjay is taller than Anupam but shorter than
Vinay. Who among them is the tallest? a)Ramesh b)Karan c)Vinay
d)Cannot be determined Answer: d.
53. BLOOD RELATIONS
54. RELATIONS Questions on Blood Relationship are related to
our day to day life. We are bound by our kith and kin through a
chain of relationships. The examiner defines the simple
relationships by using rather complicated set of definitions and
expects from us to comprehend these definitions rather quickly. In
order to solve these problems, analyse the given statements
carefully and systematically. For examples : (i) My father's only
child means I (Myself). (ii) Ritu's husband's father-in-law's only
daughter means Ritu (Herself). You should have a sound knowledge of
the blood relation in order to solve these questions. To remember
easily, the relations may be divided into two sides as given below:
1. Relations of Paternal side 2. Relations of Maternal side
55. RELATIONS 1. Relations of Paternal side: Father's father
Grandfather Father's mother Grandmother Father's brother Uncle
Father's sister Aunt Children of uncle Cousin Wife of uncle Aunt
Children of aunt Cousin Husband of aunt Uncle 2. Relations of
Maternal side: Mother's father Maternal grandfather Mother's mother
Maternal grandmother Mother's brother Maternal uncle Mother's
sister Aunt Children of maternal uncle Cousin Wife of maternal
uncle Maternal aunt
56. RELATIONS FROM ONE GENERATION TO NEXT:
57. RELATIONS Pay particular attention to the information given
in the question itself without your personal biases and conceived
notions and assumptions coming to the fore. While attempting
questions on Blood Relationship, first read all the pieces of
information as quickly as possible and then point out the two
persons between whom relationship is to be established. Finally,
try to co-relate the given relationships. While concluding
relationship between two persons be careful about the genders of
the persons involved. Majority of the students tend to define or
derive relationship without caring for gender of the persons. It is
not possible to define relationship between two persons without
knowing their gender. Consider the following illustration: Example:
A is the child of P and Q. From this statement can we conclude that
P is the father of A. No, it is not possible. Without knowing the
gender of either P or Q, it is not possible to conclude that P is
the father of A. What we can conclude from the above statement is
that P and Q are parents of A. Thus, we see that the knowledge
about the gender of persons is necessary to conclude relationship
between the two persons.
58. TYPES OF RELATIONS In these tests, the success of a
candidate depends upon the knowledge of blood relations. Here we
will discuss 3 types of relations: Type 1: Deciphering jumbled up
descriptions Type 2: Relation puzzle Type 3: Coded Puzzles
59. TYPE 1: DECIPHERING JUMBLED UP DESCRIPTIONS Type 1: In this
type of questions, a round about description is given in the form
of certain small relationships and direct relationship between the
persons concerned is to be deciphered Example1: Pointing out to a
lady, Rajan said, she is the daughter of the woman who is the
mother of the husband of my mother..Who is the lady to Rajan?
Solution: The relations may be analyzed as follows: Mothers
husband-Father, Fathers mother-Grandmother, Grandmothers
daughter-fathers sister; fathers sister-Aunt. So the lady is Rajans
aunt
60. TYPE 1: DECIPHERING JUMBLED UP DESCRIPTIONS Example2:
Pointing to a man in the photograph, Asha said His mothers only
daughter is my mother.How is Asha related to that man? Solution:
Ashas mothers mother is mans mother I.e. Ashas mother is mans
sister or Asha is mans niece. Example3: Pointing to an old man,
Kailash said, his son is my sons uncle, how is the old man related
to Kailash? Solution: Kailashs sons uncle Kailashs brother. So ,
the old mans son is Kailashs brother I.e. the old man is Kailashs
father.
61. TYPE 2: RELATION PUZZLE In this type, mutual blood
relations or other information's of more than two persons are
mentioned and information about any two is mentioned. Example1: A
and B are brothers. C and D are sisters. As son is Ds brother. How
is B related to C? Solution: Clearly B is the brother of A; As son
is Ds brother. This means D is the daughter of A. Since C and D are
sisters, C is also the daughter of A. So B is the uncle of C.
Example2: A is Bs sister. C is Bs mother. D is Cs father. E is Ds
mother. Then how is A related to D? Solution: A is the sister of B
and B is the daughter of C. So , A is the daughter of C. Also , D
is the father of C. So , A is the granddaughter of D.
62. TYPE 3: CODED PUZZLES Here the relationships are
represented by certain codes or symbols such as +,-,* etc. Then
relationships between certain persons, given in the form of these
codes are to be analyzed. Example1: If A+B means A is the sister of
B; A-B means A is the brother of B; A*B means A is the daughter of
B Which of the following shows the relation that E is the maternal
uncle of D? a) b) c) d) D+F*E D-F*E D*F+E D*F-E Solution: Clearly ,
E is the maternal uncle of D means D is the daughter of the sister
of E, i.e. option c) D*F+E
63. TYPE 3: CODED PUZZLES If, A+B means A is the son of B A-B
means A is the wife of B A*B means A is the brother of B A/B means
A is the mother of B A=B means A is the sister of B Example2: What
does P+R-Q mean? Solution: Clearly, P+R-Q means P is the son of R
who is the wife of Q, i.e. Q is the father of P. Example3: What
does P*R/Q mean? Solution: P*R/Q means P is the brother of R who is
the mother of Q, i.e. P is the uncle of Q.
64. qcfinance.in QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
65. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 1. Introducing a girl, Santhosh said,
Her mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law. How is
Santhosh related to the girl? (1) Uncle (2) Husband (3) Brother (4)
Father (5) None of these Solution: (4) Only daughter of
mother-in-law wife i.e. girls mother is Santhoshs wife. Santhosh is
the father of the girl. 2. Pointing to a lady a man said, the son
of her only brother is the brother of my wife. How is the lady
related to the man? (1) Mothers sister (2) Grandmother (3)
Mother-in-law (4) Sister of the Mans father-in-law (5) None of
these Solution: (4) Brother of wife brother-in-law. Son of ladys
brother is his brotherin-law. So the ladys brother is mans
father-in-law i.e. the lady is the sister of mans
father-in-law.
66. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 3. Pointing to an old man, Kailas
said, his son is my sons uncle. How is the old man related to
Kailas? (1) Brother (2) Uncle (3) Father (4) Grandfather (5) None
of these Solution: (3) Old mans son is Kailas brother. So old man
is Kailas father. 4. Pointing to a lady on the platform Geetha
said, she is the sister of the father of my mothers son. What is
the lady to Geetha? (1) Mother (2) Sister (3) Aunt (4) Niece (5)
None of these Solution: (3) Mothers son brother, My brothers father
my father My fathers sister my aunt So the lady is Geethas
aunt.
67. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 5. Pointing to a lady a girl said,
she is the only daughter-in-law of the grandmother of my fathers
son. How is the lady related to the girl? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Sister-in-law Mother Niece Mother-in-law Cousin Solution: (2) My
fathers son my brother Grandmother of my brother my grandmother
Only daughter-in-law of my grandmother means my mother. So the lady
is the girls mother
68. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 6. Q's mother is sister of P and
dauhter of M. S is daughter of P and sister of T. How is M related
to T? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) Father Grandfather Grandmother Either
grandfather of grandmother None of these Solution: (4) Q's mother
is sister of P. (gender of P is not clear). Q's mother is daughter
of M. (gender of M is not clear). S is daughter of P and sister of
T. (The gender of P and T is not clear) M's Children : Q's mother
and P. P's children : S (female) and T. Therefore, M is either
grandfather or grandmother of T.
69. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Five persons are sitting around
dinning table. - K, L, M, N and O - K is the mother of M, who is
the wife of O. N is the brother of K and L is the husband of K.
Ex.7. How is L related to O? (1) Father (2) Mother-in-law (3)
Brother-in-law (4) Father-in-law (5) Niece Ex.8. How is K related
to O? (1) Sister (2) Mother (3) Mother-in-law (4) Brother-in-law
(5) Aunt Ex.9. How is N related to L? (1) Son (2) Cousin (3)
Brother (4)Brother-in-law (5) Uncle Ex.10. How is M related to L ?
(1) Aunt (2) Niece (3) Daughter (4) Daughter-in-law (5) Mother
70. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Solution: K is the mother of M. M is
the wife of O. So, K is the mother-in-law of O, who is the husband
of M. N is the brother of K. L is the husband of K. Therefore, N is
the brother-in-law of L. L is the father-in-law of O. M is the
daughter of L and K. 7. (4) L is the father-in-law of O 8. (3) K is
the mother-in-law of O 9. (4) N is the brother-in-law of L 10. (3)
M is the daughter of L
71. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 11. If A + B means A is the mother of
B; A x B means A is the father of B; A $ B means A is the brother
of B and A @ B means A is the sister of B then which of the
following means P is the son of Q? (1) Q + R @ P @ N (2) Q + R * P
@ N (3) Q x R $ P @ N (4) Q x R $ P $ N Solution: (D) Q x R = Q is
the mother of R [-Q, R] R $ P = R is the brother of P [+ R, P] P $
N = P is the brother of N [+ P, N] Therefore P is the son of
Q.
72. qcfinance.in FAMILY TREE
73. FAMILY TREE The very basics to solve the family tree
problems are to know the various relations between the family
members. The actual problem is when simple relation is defined in a
typical way. So to make yourself able to deal with, study some
common relations and the manner in which they may be presented,
given next.
74. SOME COMMON RELATIONS Sibling: Person having one or both
parents in common with another. Sibling can either be: Brother
Sister First Cousin: First cousins are commonly known as cousin.
Can be defined in following ways: Child of one's aunt or uncle. A
relative descended from a common ancestor, such as a grandparent,
by two or more steps in a diverging line. Second Cousin: Child of
one's first cousin. Child of a first cousin of one's parents.
75. SOME COMMON RELATIONS Grandparent: The father of one's
mother or father is called grandfather/grandpa. The mother of one's
mother or father is called grandmother/grandma. Uncle: The brother
of one's mother or father. The husband of one's aunt. Aunt: The
sister of one's father or mother. The wife of one's uncle Nephew:
Son of one's brother or sister. Niece: Daughter of one's brother or
sister.
76. SOME COMMON RELATIONS Brother-in-law The brother of one's
spouse. The husband of one's sister. The husband of the sister of
one's spouse. Sister-in-law The sister of one's spouse. The wife of
one's brother. The wife of the brother of one's spouse.
77. CHARACTER NOTATIONS Relations are endless and to understand
them properly, family trees need to be build with certain
notations. It is always better to solve these questions
diagrammatically and to do the same, you can use below mentioned
notations. First Level Denoting a Male (rectangle) and a female
(circle) separately Denoting a Husband-Wife relationship with a
single line Denoting a Brother-Sister relationship with double
lines Denoting a parent and child relationship in a T structure (
using a circle to denote a female child and rectangle for a male
child)
78. CHARACTER NOTATIONS First Level
79. CHARACTER NOTATIONS Second Level (Multiple Generations)
Denoting a Grand Parents relationship with their grandchild is only
a repetition of the above structure (parent-child) Now here we can
see three generations of the same family, A is the son of X and Y,
B is the daughter-in-law of X and Y, C is the grandchild, E is the
maternal aunt of C. Grandfather X and grandmother Y with son A, who
in turn is husband (A) to wife B and child C.
80. CHARACTER NOTATIONS Example: B is Fs daughter in law. D is
As only grand child . C is Ds only uncle. A has only 2 children F
and C, one of them is male and another is female. E is the father
of C. Solution:
81. CHARACTER NOTATIONS
82. qcfinance.in QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
83. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question2: M, N, O, P, Q and R are
two sets of triplets, not necessarily in the order given. (i) None
of the six is married to a sibling or to someone of the same sex.
(ii) Four of the six are male and two are female. (iii)Neither set
of triplets contains 3 siblings of the same sex. (iv)M and P are
married to each other. (v) N is Qs only brother. 1. Who cannot be
sister and brother? a) M and Q b) O and R c) P and R d) R and Q
Answer: d. R and Q From conditions (II) and (III), we can
definitely say that one set of siblings has 2 males. From condition
(V), N should be a male. Therefore, one set of sibling must contain
N and Q and a female either M or P. Hence, option (a) is false. (b)
is false as both O and R belong to the second set. (c) is false as
P and R may both belong to the second set. But R and Q cannot be
brother and sister as they are of different sets. Hence, option (d)
is the correct choice.
84. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2. R must be a female if : a) M and Q
are siblings b) P and Q are siblings c) O is Ps sister in law d) O
is Ps brother in law Answer: d. O is Ps brother in law Option (a)
is false since it does not conclusively determine Rs sex. Option
(b) is false since they do not conclusively determine Rs sex.
Option (c) is false as it establishes O as a female and since we
know that only M or P can be the other female, hence option (d) is
the correct choice. 3. Which of the following statements must be
false? a) O is Ps sister in law b) Q is Ps sister in law c) N is Ps
brother in law d) Q is Ps brother in law Answer: b. Q is Ps sister
in law Option (b) is false as in the second set, we have
established that Q is a male.
85. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 4. If Q and R are married to each
other, which of the following must be true? a) b) c) d) O is a male
R is a male M is a female N is a female Answer: a. O is a male If Q
and R married, it implies that R is a female in one of the sets. We
know that Q is a male. Hence, option (b) is false. Option (a) is
the only option which must be true as one of the sets has R as a
female and, therefore, the other two (either O, M or P) are
males.
86. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS There is a family of six persons P,
Q, R, S, T and U. they are Engineer, Doctor, Teacher, Salesman,
Manager and Lawyer. (i) There are two married couples in the
family. (ii) The manager is the grandfather of U, who is an
Engineer. (iii) R, the Salesman, is married to the lady Teacher.
(iv) Q is the mother of U and T. (v) The Doctor S, is married to
the Manager. 1. How many male members are there in the family? A.
Two C. Four B. Three D. Data inadequate
87. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Answer: d. Data inadequate From the
information given in the question, it is clear that there is a
family tree of three generations. I II III P (Manager) R S (Doctor)
Q (Salesman) (Teacher) (Engg.) (Lawyer) U T It is clear from the
information that two married couples will be (P S) and (R Q).
Gender of U and T cannot be determined from the information. The
gender of U and T cannot be determined. Therefore, we cannot how
many male members are there.
88. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2. How P is related to T? A. Father
B. Grandfather C. Mother D. Grandmother Answer: Grandfather From
the information given in the question, it is clear that there is a
family tree of three generations. I P S (Manager) (Doctor) II R Q
(Salesman) (Teacher) III U T (Engg.) (Lawyer) It is clear from the
information that two married couples will be (P S) and (R Q). Sex
of U and T cannot be determined from the information. (b) : P is
the grandfather of T.
89. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 3. What is the profession of P? A.
Lawyer B. Lawyer or Teacher C. Manager D. None Answer: Manager (c)
: P is the Manager. 4. Who are the two married couples in the
family? A. PQ and SR B. RU and ST C. PT and SR D. PS and RQ Answer:
PS and RQ (d) : Two married couples are (P S) and (R Q).
90. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question1: In a family of six, there
are three men L, M and N and three women R, S and T. The six are
Architect, Lawyer, C.A., Professor, Doctor and Engineer by
profession but not in same order. (i) There are two married couples
and two unmarried persons. (ii) N is not Rs husband. (iii) The
Doctor is married to a lawyer. Rs grandfather is professor. (iv) M
is not Ls son, nor he is an Architect or Professor (v) The Lawyer
is Ts daughter in law. (vi) N is T.s son and the Engineers father.
(vii) L is married to C.A. 1. Which among the following is the
correct pair of married couples? A. LS and NT B. LR and NM C. LT
and NS D. SM and NR Answer: C. LT and NS
91. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2. Who among the following are two
unmarried persons? A. B. C. D. LS LM LT RM Answer: D. RM 3. Who is
an Architect? A. B. C. D. R M N T Answer: A. R
92. qcfinance.in CONDITIONS & GROUPINGS
93. INTRODUCTION Selecting a part out of whole. Infer from the
statements without Assumptions Apply condition and select.
Conditions are given based on which the action takes place. There
are four basic conditions. Based on them the decisions are
made.
94. CONDITIONS Based on this conditions the groups are formed.
If A occurs then B also will occur If A occurs then B will not
occur If A has not occurred then B will occur If A has not occurred
then B also will not occur
95. qcfinance.in QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
96. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: From a group of six boys M,
N, O, P, Q, R and five girls G, H, I, J, K a team of six is to be
selected. Some of the criteria of selection are as follows: M and J
go together O cannot be placed with N I cannot go with J N goes
with H P and Q have to be together K and R go together
97. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 1. If the team consists of two girls
and I is one of them, the other members are? a) GMRPQ b) HNOPQ c)
KOPQR d) KRMNP Answer: c) KOPQR 2. If four members are boys, which
of the following cannot constitute the team? a) GJMOPQ b) HJMNPQ c)
JKMNOR d) JKMPQR Answer: c) JKMNOR 3. If the team has three girls
including J and K, the members of the team are? a) GHNR b)
MNOG
98. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: Final year students plan to
go for project which consist of 5 members ( 3 from A group and 2
from B group) based on the condition. There are two groups, group A
consist of 6 members M N O P Q R and group B consist of 5 members V
W X Y Z. conditions for selection are, i) M does not come , Z &
O should come ii) X and Y remains together iii) R and V cannot go
together iv) N is always go with Z v) Q always go with W vi) O can
go with V vii) O and P are together 1. If M is not there in the
team, the team consist of? Answer: OPNZV a) X & Y 2. If Q is
there, who cannot be there in that team? a) X & Y b) R & V
c) V & W Answer: a) X & Y
99. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: From a group of 6 boys
A,B,C,D,E,F and 5 girls L,M,N,O,P a group of 6 is to be selected
based on the following conditions: 1.O and P have to be together
2.C cannot go with O 3.A and D have to be together 4.D cannot go
with L 5.C and M have to be together 6.Band N have to be together
7.B and E cannot be together
100. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 1. If the team consists of four
girls the members of the team are: i) BELNOP ii) EFLNOP iii) BFLNOP
Answer: D and A cannot be there. So (iii)BFLNOP 2. If the team
consist of 5 boys and 1 girl that girl would be: i) L ii) M iii) N
iv) O Answer: If B is selected, you cannot select E, without E you
cannot form 5 boys team. So reject B, then you have A, C, D, E, F.
If C is selected M will be there in that team. ii) M.
101. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: Coach Balkishan is trying
to put together a team of four players for a tennis tournament. He
has seven players available: males A, B, C and females M,N, O and
P. All players are of equal ability, and there must be at least two
males in the team. For a team of four, all players must be able to
play with each other player. Player B cannot play with player M,
player C cannot play with player P, player M cannot play with
player O. If player O is selected and player B is rejected, the
team will consist of which foursome? Answer: A, C, O and N. 1. 2.If
player M is in the team, which other players must be in the team as
well? Answer: A, C and N.
102. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: Mr. Pict must accommodate
seven tour group passengers in two four person cabins on the S.S.
Gallia. Each passenger in a cabin must be able to converse with at
least one passenger, though not necessarily in the same language A,
an Etruscan, also speaks Gothic and Hittite B and F are Hittites
and speak only that language C, an Etruscan also speaks Gothic D
and G are Goths and speak only Gothic E, an Etruscan also speaks
Hittite Hittites refuse to share rooms with Goths 1. Which
combinations of passengers in one of the cabins will result in a
rooming arrangement that satisfies all conditions for both cabins?
a. B, C, F b. D, E, G c. C, D, E, G d. B, D, F, G Answer: c. C, D,
E, G 2. How many different combinations of cabin mates satisfy all
conditions? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6 Answer: a. 2
103. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: 2 collectors, Frank and
Gloria are each selecting a group of three wildlife prints from a
group of 7 prints T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z. No print can be in both
groups. The selections made by Frank and Gloria are subject to the
following restrictions. a)If U is in Franks group, W must be in
Glorias group b)If X is in Franks group, Z must be in Glorias
group. c)T and Z cannot be in the same group. d)W and Y cannot be
in the same group.
104. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 1. If X is in Franks group, of the
following could be in Glorias group except a) T b) U c) V d) W e) Z
Answer: a) T 2. Which of the following pairs of groups selected by
Frank and Gloria conform to the restrictions? a) Fr TUV Gl - WXY b)
Fr - TUZ Gl VWX c) Fr UXZ Gl TWY d) Fr VWX Gl UYZ Answer: d) Fl VWX
Gl UYZ 3. If U is in Franks group, which of the following is true?
a) T must be in Franks group b) Y must be in Franks group c) Y
cannot be in Franks group Answer: b) Y must be in Franks
group.
105. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Question: There are five men A, B,
C, D and E and six women P, Q, R, S, T and U. A, B and R are
advocates; C, D, P, Q and S are doctors and the rest are teachers.
Some teams are to be selected from amongst these eleven persons
subject to the following conditions; i) ii) iii) iv) v) vi) A, P
and U have to be together B cannot go with D or R. E and Q have to
be together C and T have to be together D and P cannot go together
C cannot go with Q.
106. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 1. If the team is to consist of two
male advocates, two lady doctors and one teacher, the members of
the team are? Answer: A B P U S 2. a) b) c) If the team is to
consist of one advocate, two doctors, three teachers and C may not
go with T, the members of the team are? AEPQSU AEPQTU BEQSTU
Answer: b) A E P Q T U 3. If the team is to consist of one
advocate, three doctors and one male teacher, the member of the
team are? Answer: D E Q R S
107. qcfinance.in THANK YOU.
108. qcfinance.in
109. INTRODUCTION: Analytical Reasoning represents judgments
made upon statements that are based on the virtue of the statements
own content. No particular experience beyond an understanding of
the meanings of words used is necessary for analytical reasoning.
These days analytical reasoning has become an important part of any
competitive exams. So today we will discuss the most important and
interesting topic of analytical reasoning that is sitting
arrangement.
110. Sitting Arrangement can be explained under two categories:
1. Circular 2. Linear As the name indicates circular arrangement
means we have to arrange given number of persons in circular order.
Whereas in linear arrangement in a single line or parallel
lines.
111. HOW TO SOLVE SITTING ARRANGEMENT PROBLEMS? Sitting
arrangement or seating plan is just a diagram or a set of written
instructions that determines where people should take their seats.
This is one of the crucial and promising sections of banks and
other competitive exams. Sitting arrangement is not any new word
which directly invented /introduced for competitive exams. Its just
picked up from our daily life. We follow this strategy in formal
dinners, weddings, theaters etc to avoid chaos and confusion upon
entrance.
112. But in competitive exams we should arrange given people in
specific shape. Most widely asked shapes are circular, parallel
lines etc. Generally as soon as seeing the question people tend to
draw the shape mentioned in the question and latter put dots or
lines according to the given details. Its not good practice because
it ruins your valuable time and often leads to extra confusion. So
better use straight lines instead of circles and shapes.
113. Drawing straight lines instead of circles also make it
easier to find who is sitting opposite to whom. Lets have a look at
below diagram for detailed understandings. Assume that you have
been asked to draw a circular arrangement of six people:
114. A B A B C F F C E D E D
115. In the above mentioned figure the simpler and easier way
to assign is to draw through lines. Drawing circle and then
assigning places accordingly will be time consuming. so the simpler
way is to draw lines as mentioned in second figure and then assign
places to persons instead of drawing shape and then assigning.
116. NOW TRY TO REMEMBER SOME IMPORTANT POINTS: 1. If A is
sitting immediate left of B, that means B is on immediate right of
A. 2. To avoid confusion of left and right in circular and other
shapes seating arrangement problems you should assume that all
people are facing to the center.(unless and until they specify the
direction) 3. Its always better idea to assume you are one among
them so that it will be easier for you to get an idea of the
arrangement. 4. If you are unable to get the idea from a line then
better skip that line and go to next line. You can revisit to the
skipped line after getting another clue.
117. Now lets have a look at some problems on seating
arrangement so that you will get the concept clear: QUE: 6 persons
A,B,C,D,E and F are sitting around a circular table, B sitting to
the immediate right of E. C is not sitting next to F, F is sitting
opposite to B and D is sitting opposite to E. Who is to immediate
left of D? SOL: Its given that there are 6 people sitting around
the table, 6 persons that means you should represent 6 points, That
means 3 lines.
118. Now its given that B is sitting to the immediate right of
E, so we shall start with E , just choose any of the end of the
line and mark it as E. And B is sitting immediate right to E , so
put B at the right side of F. Now arrangement will look like the
figure shown in next slide:
119. Draw 3 lines as shown in below figure : A B E start from
here
120. Later its given that C is not sitting next to F . We dont
have any idea about this statement at present , so skip to next
statement that is F is sitting opposite to B . We know where B is ,
so mark F to opposite to B. Its also given that D is sitting
opposite to E, so mark D as opposite to E. Now the arrangement will
look like:
121. B E D F
122. So only A and C are available , now go to the previous
statement which we have skipped. C is not sitting next to F. With
this statement its clearly known that we cant place C besides F, so
we can place A there. And now there is only one gap between D and
B. We can place C there. So the final arrangement of seating will
be appear like this:
123. C D F B E A
124. QUE: 8 persons P,Q,R,S,T,U,V and W are sitting around a
circular table. S is to the immediate right of W. V is not next to
either R or T W is to the immediate right of T who is sitting
opposite to R. U and W are sitting opposite to each other. SOL:
Here are 8 persons, that means 4 lines. Given that S sat
immediately right of W, so start with W. V is not next to either R
and T (no clue about this statement so skip it)
125. W is to immediate right of T, who is sitting opposite to
R. We know where W is, given that it is immediate right of T. That
means T should be immediate left of W. Now from the above statement
we came to know that T is sitting opposite to R . So place R
opposite to T, now the arrangement will appear like this:
126. R S W T
127. Now check the skipped statement V is not next to either R
or T. That means we cant place V neither on both sides of R nor at
the single side of T. So the only vacant place remaining was
opposite to S. U and V are sitting opposite to each other , so just
place U opposite to W. Now there are 2 vacancies and 2 people (P
and Q) are pending. There is no specific clue to find their exact
places so there are equal chances for them to place any of the side
. Usually they leave blanks like this to make you confused.
128. In these cases its better to write P/Q (P or Q) at both
sides, in fact they wont ask question about P/Q because they left
them clueless. So finally the arrangement will appear like this:
P/Q R S U W V P/Q T
129. QUE: A) Who is sitting opposite to S? 1. V 2. R 3. T 4. U
5. NONE OF THESE ANS: V B) Who is sitting 2 places to the right of
W? 1.P
130. 2. S 3. V 4. Cant Say 5. None of these ANS: Cant say C) If
R and V interchange their places then who is opposite to T? 1. P 2.
S
131. 3. R 4. V 5. None of these ANS: V D) If V is to the
immediate left of P, then who is to the immediate left of R? 1. U
2.P 3.Q
132. 4. Cant say 5. None of these ANS: Q So these were question
based on circular arrangement. Now let us discuss about linear
arrangement As the name indicates it includes arrangement linearly
where single or parallel lines are given on which arrangements have
to be done. Lets understand it through example:
133. QUE: A) A, P, R, X, S, and Z are sitting in a row . S and
Z are in the center. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting to the
left of A. Who is to right of P? 1. A 2. X 3. S 4. Z SOL: X Given S
and Z are in the center and A and P are at the ends but the
question lies which amongst A and P are at the right and left
end.
134. But if we read ahead then its given that R is sitting to
left of A, that means A is to extreme right, and P to extreme left.
That means arrangement is like: P X S Z R So the answer is X.
A
135. QUE: A, B, C, D, E are sitting on a bench, A is sitting
next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not sitting with E who is
on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the
right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together ,
in which position A is sitting? 1. Between B and D 2. Between B and
C 3. Between E and D 4. Between C and E
136. ANS: Between B and C Now in this question its given C is
sitting next to D, and D is not sitting with E which is at the
left, C is on the second position from right, so it can be
represented as: E C D now A is to right of B and E that means E B C
D Also given A and C are together so finally it can be framed as:
EBACD So answer is Between B and C.
137. So this was all about the discussion on sitting
arrangement including circular and linear arrangement. To conclude
with in both the arrangements its very necessary to analyze the
given conditions and plan arrangements accordingly. Take the best
possible clue from the question and try to arrange them as quick as
possible to complete on time with accuracy.
138. THANK YOU
139. STATEMENT AND ARGUMENTS, PASSAGE AND CONCLUSION, STATEMENT
AND COURSE OF ACTION
140. STATEMENT AND ARGUEMENTS Here in such type of topic each
question consists of statement followed by arguments. By arguments
we mean an exchange of diverging or opposite views, or a support or
set of reasons given in support of an idea, action or theory. So
after analyzing the given arguments you have to decide which of the
arguments is a strong one and which is a weak. qcfinance.in
141. Lets understand with an e.g.: Statement:- Should India
encourage exports when most things are insufficient for internal
use itself. Arguments: 1. Yes, we have to earn foreign exchange to
pay for our imports. 2. No, even selective encouragement would lead
to shortages. qcfinance.in
142. Answer: Option 1, Clearly India can export only the
surplus and that which can be saved after fulfilling its own needs,
to pay for its imports. Encouragement to exports cannot lead to
shortages as it shall provide the resources for imports. So only
argument 1 holds. qcfinance.in
143. Lets consider another e.g.: Statement:- Should all the
drugs patented and manufactured in western countries be first tried
out on sample basis before giving license for sale to general
public in India. Arguments: 1. Yes, many such drugs require
different doses and duration for Indian population and hence it is
necessary. qcfinance.in
144. 2. No, this just not feasible and hence cannot be
implemented. Answer: Option 1, Clearly health of the citizens is an
issue of major concern for the government. So a product like drugs
must be first studied and tested in the Indian context before
giving license for its sale. So only argument 1 holds strong.
qcfinance.in
145. PASSAGE AND CONCLUSION Here in this type of question a
passage is given followed by several possible inferences which can
be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine
each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide
upon its degree of truth or falsity. Lets understand through an
e.g.: qcfinance.in
146. Passage: In the absence of an integrated sugar-field to
sale policy, the Indian sugar industry has become a victim of
surplus production and price mismatch of sugarcane and finished
sugar. Despite a lower estimated sugar production at around 12.8
million tones for 1996-97 against 16.7 million tones in the
previous year, the total availability is put to 20.8 million tones
including qcfinance.in
147. a carryover stock of 8 million tones from the previous
year. Of this the domestic consumption may not exceed 13.5 million
tones, though the industry could export 10.5 million tones to
different countries during 1995-96, this years export policy
existing norms and international market conditions may bring down
the export quality to half a million tones. qcfinance.in
148. Conclusion 1: India need not import sugar during the next
few years. Answer: If the inference is probably true though not
definitely true in the light of facts given. Explanation: Since
there has been surplus production of sugar, hence it is likely that
India will not require to import sugar during next few years.
qcfinance.in
149. Conclusion 2: There may be a fall in the sugar price
during 1997-98. Answer: If the inference is definitely true i.e. it
properly follows from the statement of facts given. Explanation:
Conclusion speaks of probability of the fall in price for the year
1997-98. It is given in the passage that there has been surplus
production in the year 1996-97. qcfinance.in
150. Conclusion 3: Indias export policy has made the sugar
price non competitive in the international market. Answer: The data
are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you can say whether the
inference is likely to be true or false. Explanation: Data given in
the passage is not adequate to say anything about the conclusion.
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151. STATEMENT AND COURSE OF ACTION Here in such kind of
situation question follows a statement with courses of action. You
have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the
basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of
the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.
Lets understand from an e.g.: qcfinance.in
152. Statement: A large number of people in ward X of the city
are diagnosed to be suffering from a fatal malaria type. Course of
Action: 1. The city municipal authority should take immediate steps
to carry out extensive fumigation in ward X. 2. The people in the
area should be advised to take steps to avoid mosquito bites.
qcfinance.in
153. Answer: Both 1 and 2 follows. Explanation: Clearly,
prevention from mosquitoes and elimination of mosquitoes are the
two ways to prevent malaria. So both the courses of action follows.
Lets consider another e.g.: qcfinance.in
154. Statement: Severe drought is reported to have set in
several parts of country. Courses of Action: 1. Government should
immediately make arrangement for providing financial assistance to
those affected. 2. Food, water and fodder should immediately be
sent to all these areas to save the people and cattle.
qcfinance.in
155. Answer: Option 2 follows Explanation: In the break out of
a natural calamity the basic duty of the government becomes to
provide the basic amenities essential to save the lives of people
and cattle, providing financial assistance to all would put undue
burden on countrys resources. So only 2nd course of action follows.
qcfinance.in
157. SYLLOGISM, STATEMENT AND CONCLUSION, STATEMENT AND
ASSUMPTION
158. SYLLOGISM A syllogism is a logical argument composed of 3
parts: Major premise Minor premise Conclusion Each part is composed
of 2 categorical terms linked in the form SOME/ all A is / are[not]
B Each of the premises has 1 term in common with conclusion.
qcfinance.in
159. The major term in the major premise which forms the
predicate of the conclusion. The minor term in the minor premise
which forms the subject of conclusion. The categorical term in
common in the premises is called the middle term. For e.g.: major
premise: All birds are animals. Minor premise : All parrots are
birds. qcfinance.in
160. Conclusion: All parrots are animals. In this e.g. animal
is the major term and predicate of the conclusion , parrot is the
minor term and subject of the conclusion, and bird is the middle
term. The premises and conclusion of a syllogism can be any of 4
types, which are labeled by letters as follows: qcfinance.in
161. All subjects are predicate is denoted by "a No subjects
are predicate is denoted by e Some subjects are predicate is
denoted by I Some subjects are not predicate is denoted by o.
Letter a is called universal affirmatives. Letter e is called
universal negatives. Letter I is called particular affirmatives.
Letter o is called particular negatives. qcfinance.in
162. Now consider a following e.g. Statement: All harmonium are
instruments. All instruments are flutes. Conclusion: All flutes are
instruments. All harmonium are flutes. qcfinance.in
163. Now to solve this we have to prepare Venn diagram: FLUTE
INSTRUMENT HARMONIUM qcfinance.in
164. From above we can conclude that all harmonium are flutes.
But all flutes are not instruments because from the diagram it is
clear that all instruments are flute and some flute are
instruments. So only conclusion 2 follows. qcfinance.in
165. Considering another e.g. : Statement: Some mangoes are
yellow Some twigs are mango Conclusion: Some mangoes are green
Twigs is a yellow Now to solve this again we have to make Venn
diagram: qcfinance.in
166. Twigs Mango Yellow qcfinance.in
167. Now in the above Venn diagram according to the statement
we have made the relationship. Now conclusion can be drawn that
some mangoes are yellow, but its given some mangoes are green which
is not followed. Then next some mangoes are twigs, but its given
that twigs is a yellow which is false. So from above Venn diagram
no conclusion follows, both are false. qcfinance.in
168. STATEMENT AND CONCLUSION Statement conclusion refer to
situation where we are provided with a statement followed by
conclusion. Assuming everything in the statement to be true
consider both the conclusion together. Then decide which of them
logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information
given in the statement. qcfinance.in
169. Now understand through an e.g.: Statement: In a one day
cricket match the total runs made by a team were 200. Out of those
160 runs were made by spinners. Conclusion: 1. 80% of the team
consists of spinners. 2. The opening batsmen were spinners.
qcfinance.in
170. Ans is none follows According to statement 80% of total
runs were made by spinners so, first conclusion does not follow.
Nothing about the opening batsmen is mentioned in the statement so
second conclusion also does not follow. qcfinance.in
171. Statement: The old order changed yielding place to new.
Conclusion: Change is the law of nature. Discard old ideas because
they are old. Here first conclusion follows as clearly it is
mentioned that old ideas are replaced by new ones, as thinking
changes with the progressing time . So second conclusion does not
follow. qcfinance.in
172. STATEMENT AND ASSUMPTION Assumption which means a thing
that is acceptable as true or as certain to happen without proof
Similarly statement assumption refer to a situation where statement
followed by assumptions You have to consider the statement and
following assumption and decide which of the assumption is implicit
in the statement. qcfinance.in
173. Let us understand with an e.g.: Statement: It is desirable
to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so. Assumption: At
that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is
ready to learn. The schools do not admit children after 6 years of
age. qcfinance.in
174. Now here in given assumption first follows as statement
talks of putting the child in school at the age of 5. It means that
the child is mentally prepared for the same at this age, so first
assumption is implicit. But nothing about admission after 6 years
of age is mentioned in the statement, so assumption 2 is not
implicit. qcfinance.in
175. Lets take another e.g.: Statement: If you trouble me, I
will slap you- A mother warns her child. Assumption: With the
warning the child may stop troubling her. All children are
basically naughty. qcfinance.in
176. Here in this case assumption first is implicit. The mother
warns her child with the expectation that he would stop troubling
her, so first assumption is implicit. Whereas the general nature of
children cannot be derived from the statement. So second assumption
is not implicit. qcfinance.in
179. Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below. The following table gives the production capacity of the
five refineries P, Q, R, S and T of the oil company SPCL, the
demand at the companys four outlets A, B, C and D and the
transportation costs involved in transporting and the
transportation costs involved in transporting and the
transportation costs involved in transporting the oil from
different refineries to different outlets. Transportation cost (in
rupees/kilolitre) Refinery (Production Outlet (Demand in
kilolitres/day) capacity in kilolitres/day) A (40) B (30) C (10) D
(20) P (30) 500 300 600 200 Q (10) 600 400 400 100 R (30) 300 400
700 400 S (20) 200 300 400 200 T (10) 400 300 600 100
qcfinance.in
180. In the above table, the number given in the brackets
alongside each refinery gives the production capacity (in
kilolitres per day) of that refinery and the number given in the
brackets alongside each outlet. The number given in the brackets
alongside each outlet gives the demand (in kilolitres per day) at
that outlet. The number given in the cell corresponding to a
refinery and an outlet, gives the transportation cost (in rupees
per kilolitre) incurred for transporting oil from that refinery to
that outlet. For example, the production capacity of refinery P is
30 kilolitres/day and the demand at outlet A is 40 kilolitres/day
and the cost of transporting one kilolitre of oil from refinery P
to outlet P to outlet A is Rs.500. Assume that the company
currently operates only the refineries and outlets mentioned above
and that the production at the refineries on any day is transported
to the outlets such that the demand at all the outlets is met.
qcfinance.in
181. 1. The daily of transportation of oil to all the outlets
is at least (1) Rs.24,000 (2) Rs.26,000 (3) Rs.28,000 (4) Rs.29,000
qcfinance.in
182. Solution : The lowest cost of transportation occurs when
the oil is transported along the cheapest routes available, which
are shown below. T D 10 kl 10 x 100 = Rs.1000 Q D 10 kl 10 x 100 =
Rs.1000 P B 30 kl 30 x 300 = Rs.9000 S A 10 kl 10 x 200 = Rs.2000 R
A 30 kl 30 x 300 = Rs.9000 S C 10 kl 10 x 400 = Rs.4000 Total =
Rs.26,000 Choice (2) qcfinance.in
183. 2. If due to a disruption in the supply lines to some of
the outlets, refinery P can supply oil to only outlets A and Cm
then the daily cost of the transportation of oil to A and C, then
the daily cost of transportation of oil to all the outlets is at
least (1) Rs.29,000 (3) Rs.33,000 (2) Rs.30,000 (4) Rs.34,000
qcfinance.in
184. Solution: As P can be used for supplying only to A or C,
the minimum cost of transportation in this case would be P C 10 kl
Rs.6,000 P A 20 kl Rs.10,000 Q D 10 kl Rs.1,000 T D 10 kl Rs.1,000
R B 30 kl Rs.12,000 S A 20 kl Rs.4,000 Total = Rs.34,000 Choice (4)
qcfinance.in
185. Currently, the daily cost of transportation of oil to all
the outlets is the outlets is the least possible. 3. The daily cost
of transportation to all the outlets would increase by the maximum
amount, if there is a disruption (blockage) in the supply line
connecting. (1) P and B (3) Q and C (2) S and D (4) T and B
qcfinance.in
186. Solution: The cheapest supply lines were already
determined in the first question of the set. Now we have to
determine in the supply line whose disruption would cause the
transportation cost to increase by the maximum amount. Choices (2),
(3) and (4) can be straight away ignored as they are not part of
the cheapest route. Hence, the increase in transportation cost
would be highest, if the supply line P B is distributed. Choice (1)
qcfinance.in
187. 4. If the company plans to decrease the daily cost of
transportation of oil to all the outlets by doubling the production
capacity of exactly one of the refineries, which refinery should it
select so as to reduce the transportation cost by the maximum
amount? (1) S (2) Q (3) R (4) P qcfinance.in
188. Solution: As far as the cost of transportation at each of
the outlets is considered, most of the outlets receive the oil at a
low transportation cost from the refinery S, hence if the capacity
of refinery S is doubled, the saving in the expenditure will be
more. Choice (1) qcfinance.in
189. Eight county teams Kent, Essex, Somerset, Durham,
Hampshire, Yorkshire, Derbyshire and Lancashire Participated,
Yorkshire, Derbyshire and Lancashire participated in a Twenty20
tournament held in London. In the first round, these eight teams
were divided into two groups of four teams each. Each team has to
Play two matches against each of the other teams in its group. The
teams with the highest and the second Highest number of wins in
both the group will move to the next round, i.e., semi-finals. It
is known that, Essex, Yorkshire, Lancashire and Derbyshire reached
the semi-finals. It is also known that, in the first round (i) No
match ended in a tie and in each of the groups, each of the four
teams won a different number of matches. (ii) Yorkshire lost both
its matches against Derbyshire. (iii) Kent won the same number of
matches that by Lancashire. (iv) In its group, Somerset lost both
of its matched against all the other teams, except Durham, which in
turn, won at least one match against each of the other teams,
except one. qcfinance.in
190. 5. Which team won the highest number of matches in the
first round? (1) Yorkshire (2) Derbyshire (3) Essex (4) Cannot be
determined 6. What was the total number of matches won by Durham in
the first round? (1) Hampshire (2) Somerset (3) Durham (4) Cannot
be determined 7. What was the total number of matches won by Durham
in the first round? (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 8. Which team/s lost at
least one match against Kent in the first round? (1) Only Hampshire
(2) Only Yorkshire (3) Only Yorkshire and Hampshire (4) Only
Hampshire and Derbyshire qcfinance.in
191. Solution: Given that, Essex, Yorkshire, Lancashire and
Derbyshire reached the semi finals. Hence, Kent, Somerset, Durham
and Hampshire are eliminated in the first round. It is also given,
Yorkshire played against Derbyshire. Hence, Yorkshire and
Derbyshire must be the two of one group. .. Lancashire and Essex
must be the two teams of the other group. As Kent has same number
of wins as Lancashire, they must be in different groups. .. Kent
and Hampshire are the losing teams in the group from which
Yorkshire and Derbyshire qualified and Durham and Somerset are the
eliminated teams in the group from which Essex and Lancashire
qualified. The groups can be classified and follows: Qualified for
Semis Lancashire Essex Yorkshire Derbyshire Eliminated in 1st round
Somerset Durham Kent Hampshire qcfinance.in
192. Total number of matches in each group = 12 Given, each of
them has a different number of wins, so the possibilities are as
follows. Number of wins Qualified teams Eliminated teams Highest
2nd highest 3rd highest 4th highest (i) 6 4 2 0 (ii) 6 3 2 1 (iii)
5 4 2 1 (iv) 5 4 3 0 As Kent, which is eliminated has the same
number of wins as Lancashire, which qualified, the only
possibilities That can be considered are (ii) and (iv). In the
group of Kent, Yorkshire must have lost only the matches against
Derbyshire i.e. it must have won 4 matched. Derbyshire must Have
won both the matches against Yorkshire, both against Hampshire and
one against Kent.qcfinance.in
193. Kent won both the matches against Hampshire and one
against Derbyshire and Hampshire lost all the matches. In the group
of Lancashire, Essex won all the matches, Lancashire, Essex won all
the matches, Lancashire won both the matches against Somerset and
one against Durham. Durham Won one against Lancashire and one
against Somerset and Somerset won against Durham. 5. Essex won the
maximum number of matches in the first round. Choice (3) 6.
Hampshire has the least number of wins. Choice (1) 7. The number of
matches won by Durham is two. Choice (3) 5. Hampshire and
Derbyshire lost at least one match against Kent. Choice (4)
qcfinance.in