245 (1 – A )
D ±ÜÅÍæ°±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° ñæÃæ¿ááÊÜíñæ ¯ÊÜáWæ £ÚÓÜáÊÜÊÜÃæWÜã C¨Ü®Üá° ñæÃæ¿áPÜãvÜ Üá
±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ ÍæÅà~
±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ
¯©ìÐÜr ±Ü£ÅPæ (±Ü£ÅPæ II)
ÓÜÊÜá¿á : 2 WÜípæWÜÙÜá WÜÄÐÜu AíPÜWÜÙÜá : 200
ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜá 1. ±ÜÄàûæ ±ÝÅÃÜí»ÜWæãívÜ ñÜûÜ|Êæà J.Gí.BÃ…. EñܤÃÜÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ ÍæÅà~¿á®Üá° WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞvÜáÊÜ Êæã¨ÜÆá, D ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿áÈÉ
ÊÜáá©ÅñÜÊÝWÜ Ü A¥ÜÊÝ ÖÜÄ©ÃÜáÊÜ A¥ÜÊÝ ¿ÞÊÜâ æà ±Üâo CÆÉ©ÃÜáÊÜ A¥ÜÊÝ ÊÜáá©ÅñÜÊÝWÜ Ü ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜá CñÝ© JÙÜWæãíwÆÉÊæíŸá¨Ü®Üá° ¯àÊÜâ ±ÜÄàüÓÜñÜPÜR Üáª. Êæáà騆 ¿ÞÊÜâ æà ¨æãàÐÜ PÜívÜáŸí ÜÈÉ A¨Ü®Üá° ×í£ÃÜáXÔ Æ»ÜÂËÃÜáÊÜ ÍæÅà~¿á ±ÜıÜä|ìÊÝ Ü ¸æàÃæ ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° ±Üvæ¿áñÜPÜR¨Üáª.
2. A»Ü¦ì¿áá ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á ÍæÅà~ A, B, C A¥ÜÊÝ D A®Üá° ËÐÜ¿á ÓÜíPæàñÜ ÊÜáñÜᤠ®æãàí Ü~ ÓÜíTæ¿á®Üá° OMR EñܤÃÜ ±Ü£ÅPæ¿áÈÉ A¨ÜPÝRX J¨ÜXÓÜÇÝXÃÜáÊÜ ÓܧÙܨÜÈÉ ŸÃæ¨Üá ÓÜíPæàñÜ (G®… Pæãàv…) WæãÚÓܸæàPÜá. ÖÝWÜã ¯WÜ©ñÜ ÓܧÙÜ ÜÈÉ ñÝÊÜâ ÊÜáñÜᤠÓÜíËàûÜPÜÃÜá ÓÜ× ÊÜÞwÃÜáÊÜâ¨Ü®Üá° SbñÜ ±ÜwÔPæãÙÜÛ æàPÜá. J.Gí.BÃ…. ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ £ÚÔÃÜáÊÜ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà ÊÜÞ×£¿á®Üá° »Ü£ì ÊÜÞvÜáÊÜâ Üá/G®… Pæãàv… ÊÜÞvÜáÊÜâ¨Üá A»Ü¦ìWÜÙÜ gÊݸݪĿÞXÃÜáñܤ¨æ. Jí¨Üá ÊæàÙæ »Ü£ì ÊÜÞvÜ©¨ÜªÈÉ/ñܲ³¨ÜÈÉ AíñÜÖÜ J.Gí.BÃ…. EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° £ÃÜÓÜRÄÓÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ Üá.
3. ±ÜPÜR ÜÈÉ J ÜXÔÃÜáÊÜ aèPÜ ÜÇæÉà ¯ÊÜá¾ ®æãàí Ü~ ÓÜíTæ¿á®Üá°
®ÜÊÜáã©ÓÜ æàPÜá. ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿áÈÉ ¸æàÃæ H®Ü®Üã° ŸÃæ¿á¸ÝÃܨÜá.
4. D ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ 100 ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ®Üá° JÙÜWæãíwÃÜáñܤ æ. ±ÜÅ£Áãí¨Üá ±ÜÅÍæ°¿áá 4 ±ÜÅ£QÅÁáWÜÙÜ®Üá° (EñܤÃÜWÜÙÜ®Üá°) JÙÜWæãíwÃÜáñܤ æ. ¯àÊÜâ EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞvܸæàPæ¯ÓÜáÊÜ EñܤÃÜÊÜ®Üá° BÁáR ÊÜÞwPæãÚÛ. Jí Üá ÊæàÙæ AÈÉ Jí¨ÜQRíñÜ ÖæaÜác ÓÜÄ¿Þ Ü EñܤÃÜWÜÚÊæÁáí¨Üá ¯àÊÜâ »ÝËÔ¨ÜÃæ ¯ÊÜáWæ AñÜáÂñܤÊÜáÊæ ÓÜáÊÜ EñܤÃÜPæR WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞw. H®æà A¨ÜÃÜã ±ÜÅ£ ±ÜÅÍæ°Wæ ¯àÊÜâ PæàÊÜÆ Jí Üá EñܤÃÜÊÜ®Üá° ÊÜÞñÜÅ BÁáR ÊÜÞvÜ æàPÜá.
5. GÇÝÉ EñܤÃÜWÜÙÜ®Üá° ¯ÊÜáWæ J ÜXÓÜÇÝXÃÜáÊÜ ±ÜÅñæÂàPÜ EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á ÊæáàÇæ PæàÊÜÆ PܱÜâ³ A¥ÜÊÝ ¯àÈ ÍÝÀá¿á ¸ÝÇ…±ÝÀáíp… ±æ °®ÜÈÉ ÊÜÞñÜÅ WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞvÜ æàPÜá. J.Gí.BÃ…. EñܤÃÜ ±Ü£ÅPæ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ®Ü ËÊÜÃÜÊÝ¨Ü ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜ®Üá° WÜÊÜá¯ÓÜáÊÜâ¨Üá.
6. GÇÝÉ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ ÓÜÊÜÞ®Ü AíPÜWÜÙÜá. GÇÝÉ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ EñܤÄÔÄ. ±ÜÅ£ ñܱÜâ³ EñܤÃÜPæR ±ÜÅÍæ°Wæ ¯WÜ©±ÜwÔ Ü AíPÜWÜÙÜ ¼ (0.25) ÃÜÐÜár AíPÜWÜÙÜ®Üá° PÜÙæ¿áÇÝWÜáÊÜâ Üá.
7. bñÜᤠPæÆÓÜPÝRX ÖÝÙæWÜÙÜ®Üá° ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á Pæã®æ¿áÈÉ ÓæàÄÓÜÇÝX¨æ. ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á C®Üá°Ú Ü ¿ÞÊÜ »ÝWܨÜÈÉ¿áã ¯àÊÜâ ¿ÞÊÜ Äࣿá WÜáÃÜáñÜ®Üá° ÊÜÞvÜñÜPÜR ܪÆÉ.
8. ±ÜÄàûæ¿á ÊÜááPݤ¿áÊÜ®Üá° ÓÜãbÓÜáÊÜ Aí£ÊÜá WÜípæ ¸ÝÄÔ Ü ñÜûÜ|Êæà EñܤÃÜ ±Ü£ÅPæ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ C®Ý°ÊÜâ¨æà WÜáÃÜáñÜá ÊÜÞvÜáÊÜâ Ü®Üá° ¯ÈÉÓܸæàPÜá. ÓÜíËàûÜPÜÃÜá Ÿí¨Üá ¯ÊÜá¾ÈÉÃÜáÊÜ EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° ñÜÊÜá¾ ÊÜÍÜPæR ±Üvæ ÜáPæãívÜá ÇæPÜRPæR ñæWæ¨ÜáPæãÙÜáÛÊÜÊÜÃæWÜã ¯ÊÜá¾ ¯ÊÜá¾ BÓÜ®Ü ÜÈÉÁáà PÜáÚ£ÃÜñÜPÜR Üáª.
9. ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜá PܮܰvÜ ÊÜáñÜᤠBíWÜÉ »ÝÐæ¿áÈÉÃÜáñܤÊæ. PܮܰvÜ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜÈÉ ÓÜí¨æàÖÜ EípÝ ÜÃæ, Ü¿áËoár BíWÜÉ »ÝÐæ¿á ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ®Üá° WÜÊÜá¯ÓÜáÊÜâ¨Üá. ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ¿á ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜÈÉ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà Wæãí¨ÜÆWÜڨܪÃÜã BíWÜÉ»ÝÐæ¿á ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙæà Aí£ÊÜáÊÝXÃÜáñܤ¨æ.
Note : English version of the instructions is printed on the back cover of this booklet.
A ËÐÜ¿á ÓÜíPæàñÜ : 245
*245/A*
®æãàí¨Ü~ ÓÜíTæÂ
¿ÞÊÜâ æà Äࣿá Êæã æçÇ… ¶æäà®…, PÝÂÇ…PÜáÂÇæàoÃ… ÊÜáñÜᤠCñÜÃæ Äࣿá GÇæPÝó¯P…/PÜÊÜáã¯PæàÐÜ®… ÓÝ«Ü®ÜWÜÙÜá CñÝ©WÜÙÜ®Üá° ±ÜÄàûÝ Pæàí¨ÜÅ Ü BÊÜÃÜ|¨æãÙÜWæ ñÜÃÜáÊÜâ Ü®Üá° ¯Ðæà˜Ô¨æ.
245 (2 – A )
1. ¨ÁåAQ£À°è §¼ÀPÉAiÀiÁUÀĪÀ MICR vÀAvÀæeÁÕ£ÀzÀ «¸ÀÛøvÀ gÀÆ¥À:
(1) ªÀiÁåUÉßnPï EAPï PÁågÀPÀÖgï gÉPÀVß±À£ï
(2) ªÀiÁåUÉßnPï EAPï PÀ£ÀÆìªÀÄgï gÉPÀVß±À£ï
(3) ªÀiÁåUÉßnPï EAPï PÀ¸ÀÖªÀÄgï gÉPÀVß±À£ï
(4) ªÀiÁåUÉßnPï E£ï¥sÀgïªÉÄñÀ£ï PÁågÀPÀÖgï gÉPÀVß±À£ï
2. IFSC ¸ÀAPÉÃvÀªÀÅ :
(1) D¯Áá£ÀÆåªÀÄjPï 11 rfmï PÉÆÃqï ¸ÀASÉå
(2) D¯Áá£ÀÆåªÀÄjPï 12 rfmï PÉÆÃqï ¸ÀASÉå
(3) D¯Áá£ÀÆåªÀÄjPï 17 rfmï PÉÆÃqï ¸ÀASÉå
(4) D¯Áá£ÀÆåªÀÄjPï 10 rfmï PÉÆÃqï ¸ÀASÉå
3. ¨ÁåAQAUï ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ°è£À ‘£ÀUÀzÀÄ ¸Á®’ JAzÀgÉ :
(1) ¸Á®UÁgÀgÀÄ vÀªÀÄä ‘£ÀUÀzÀÄ ¸Á® SÁvÉ’¬ÄAzÀ ¤UÀ¢vÀ «ÄwAiÀÄ°è »AvÉUÉ¿ááªÀÅzÀÄ.
(2) ¸Á®UÁgÀgÀÄ vÀªÀÄä ‘£ÀUÀzÀÄ ¸Á® SÁvÉ’¬ÄAzÀ C¤¢ðµÀÖ «ÄwAiÀÄ°è »AvÉUÉzÀÄPÉƼÀÄîªÀÅzÀÄ.
(3) ¸Á®UÁgÀgÀÄ ‘Overdraft’ SÁvɬÄAzÀ ºÀt ×íñæWæ¿ááÊÜâ Üá.
(4) ¸Á®UÁgÀgÀÄ ZÁ°Û SÁvɬÄAzÀ ºÀt vÉUÉAiÀÄĪÀÅzÀÄ.
4. ‘Overdraft’ ¸Ë®¨sÀåªÀÅ ®¨sÀåªÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ EzÀgÀ ªÉÄïÉ
(1) ¯ÎcñÜ sæàÊÜOæ
(2) G½vÁAiÀÄ ¸ÝÂíP… SÁvÉ
(3) ZÁ°Û SÁvɬÄAzÀ ªÀiÁvÀæ
(4) G½vÁAiÀÄ SÁvÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ZÁ°Û SÁvÉ JgÀqÀÆ
5. RTGS £À «¸ÀÛøvÀ gÀÆ¥À:
(1) jAiÀįï N£ï mÉÊA UÁæ¸ï ¸ÉmïèèªÉÄAmï
(2) jAiÀįï mÉÊA UÁæ¸ï ¸ÉmïèèªÉÄAmï
(3) gÉÃgï mÉÊA UÁæ¸ï ¸ÉmïèèªÉÄAmï
(4) gÉÃgï N£ï mÉÊA UÁæ¸ï ¸ÉmïèèªÉÄAmï
6. MAzÀÄ HUF £ÀÄß ¤ªÀð»¸ÀĪÀªÀgÀÄ :
(1) ªÀiÁå£ÉÃdgï
(2) PÀvÁð
(3) PÀÄlÄA§zÀ CvÀåAvÀ »jAiÀÄ ªÀÄ»¼É
(4) PÀÄlÄA§zÀ CvÀåAvÀ QjAiÀÄ ¥ÀÄgÀĵÀ
7. ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ ¥Á®ÄUÁjPÉ PÁAiÉÄÝ eÁjUÉ §AzÀ ªÀµÀð
(1) 1935
(2) 1936
(3) 1932
(4) 1947
245 (3 – A )
1. MICR technology in banks stands for
(1) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
(2) Magnetic Ink Consumer Recognition
(3) Magnetic Ink Customer Recognition
(4) Magnetic Information Character
Recognition
2. IFSC code is
(1) Alpha numeric 11 digit code number
(2) Alpha numeric 12 digit code number
(3) Alpha numeric 17 digit code number
(4) Alpha numeric 10 digit code number
3. Cash Credit in banking business stands
for
(1) The borrower can withdraw up to a
specified limit from cash credit
account.
(2) The borrower can withdraw up to
unspecified limit from cash credit
account.
(3) The borrower can withdraw from
overdraft account.
(4) The borrower can withdraw from
current account.
4. Overdraft facility is available on
(1) Fixed deposit
(2) Savings bank a/c
(3) Only Current account
(4) Both Current and SB a/c
5. RTGS stands for
(1) Real own time gross settlement
(2) Real time gross settlement
(3) Rare time gross settlement
(4) Rare own time gross settlement
6. An HUF is managed by
(1) The Manager
(2) The Karta
(3) The seniormost woman in the family
(4) The youngest male member of the
family
7. The Indian Partnership Act came into
existence in the year
(1) 1935
(2) 1936
(3) 1932
(4) 1947
245 (4 – A )
8. «¤ªÀÄAiÀÄ ¨ÁåAPïUÀ¼ÀÄ JAzÀgÉ
(1) zÉñÀzÀ DAvÀjPÀ ªÁå¥ÁgÀPÁÌV EgÀĪÀ ¨ÁåAPï
(2) ªÀÄÄRåªÁV «zÉò «¤ªÀÄAiÀÄ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀPÁÌV ºÀtPÁ¹£À £ÉgÀªÀÅ ¤ÃqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(3) gÀ¥sÀÄÛ ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä DªÀÄzÀÄ ªÀiÁrPÉƼÀÄîªÀ ¸À®ÄªÁV ºÀtPÁ¹£À £ÉgÀªÀÅ ¤ÃqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(4) PÀȶUÁV ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Á® ¤ÃqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
9. F ¢£ÀzÀAzÀÄ RBI ¸Áܦ¸À®ànÖvÀÄ.
(1) K¦æ¯ï 1, 1945
(2) K¦æ¯ï 1, 1935
(3) ¸É¥ÉÖA§gï 1, 1936
(4) K¦æ¯ï 1, 1931
10. ‘¦æëÄAiÀÄA’ JAzÀgÉ
(1) «ªÉÄUÉ M¼À¥ÀlÖ ªÀåQÛAiÀÄÄ ‘«ªÀiÁ PÀA¥À¤UÉ’ ¥ÁªÀw ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(2) «ªÉÄUÉ M¼À¥ÀlÖ ªÀåQÛUÉ ¥ÁªÀw¹zÀ ªÉÆvÀÛ.
(3) MlÄÖ ¨sÀj¸À¨ÉÃPÁVgÀĪÀÅzÀgÀ°è£À ¨sÁUÀ±ÀB ¥ÁªÀw.
(4) zÀAiÉĬÄAzÀ ¥ÁªÀw ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
11. ¢é-«ªÉÄ JAzÀgÉ
(1) «ªÉÄ ªÀiÁr¸ÀĪÀªÀ¤AzÀ MAzÉà «µÀAiÀÄ
ªÀ¸ÀÄÛ«£À ªÉÄÃ¯É JgÀqÀÄ CxÀªÁ ºÉaÑ£À
«ªÀiÁzÁgÀgÀ£ÀÄß (CzÉà UÀAqÁAvÀgÀzÀ
M¼ÀUÉƼÀÄî«PÉUÁV) M¼À¥Àr¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
(2) MAzÀÄ jÃwAiÀÄ ¥ÀÄ£Àgï «ªÉÄ
(3) ¸À¨ïgÉÆÃUɵÀ£ï£À vÀvÀé
(4) CvÀÄåZÀÒ M¼ÉîAiÀÄ £ÀA©PÉAiÀÄ
vÀvÀéÊÜ®æã°ÙÜWæãÙÜáÛñܤ æ
12. DzÀåvÁ µÉÃj£À ªÉÄÃ¯É ¤ÃqÀĪÀ r«qÉAqï zÀgÀªÀÅ :
(1) ªÀµÀð¢AzÀ ªÀµÀðPÉÌ ¹ÜgÀªÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(2) ªÀµÀð¢AzÀ ªÀµÀðPÉÌ KgÀÄ¥ÉÃgÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(3) UÀ½¹zÀ ¯Á¨sÀzÀ ªÉÆvÀÛzÀ ªÉÄïÉ
CªÀ®A©vÀªÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(4) PBIT ªÉÄÃ¯É CªÀ®A©vÀªÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
13. ‘Ploughing back profit’ AiÀÄÄ C¨ÜÃÜ ¥ÀæªÀÄÄR DPÀgÀUÀ¼À¯ÉÆèAzÀÄ.
(1) C¯ÁàªÀ¢ü ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ
(2) ¢ÃWÁðªÀ¢ü ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ
(3) ªÀÄzsÀåªÀiÁªÀ¢üAiÀÄ ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ
(4) C¯ÁàªÀ¢ü ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀÄzsÀåªÀiÁªÀ¢ü JgÀqÀÆ
245 (5 – A )
8. Exchange banks refers to
(1) Banks meant for internal trade of
the country
(2) Which finance mainly the foreign
exchange business
(3) Which finance only entrepot trade
(4) Which finance only agriculture
9. The RBI came into existence on
(1) 1st April, 1945
(2) 1st April, 1935
(3) 1st September, 1936
(4) 1st April, 1931
10. Premium refers to
(1) The payment made to the insurer by
the insured
(2) The claim amount paid to the
insured
(3) Part payment of the total claim
amount
(4) The payment made in kind
11. Double insurance refers to
(1) The same subject matter is insured
by the insured with 2 or more
insurers to cover the same risk
(2) It is type of re-insurance
(3) It refers to principle of subrogation
(4) It covers the principle of utmost
good faith
12. The rate of dividend on preference shares
is
(1) Fixed from year to year
(2) Fluctuates from year to year
(3) Depends upon amount of profit
earned
(4) Depends on PBIT
13. Ploughing back profit is one of the
important source of
(1) Short term finance
(2) Long term finance
(3) Medium term finance
(4) Both short and medium term
finance
245 (6 – A )
14. MAzÀÄ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄÄ ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ ºÀÆrPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß M¦àPÉƼÀÄîªÀÅzÀÄ.
(1) CzÀgÀ Paid Up §AqÀªÁ¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
j¸Àªïð£À PÀ¤µÀ× 25% ªÀgÉUÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ.
(2) CzÀgÀ Paid Up §AqÀªÁ¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
j¸Àªïð£À PÀ¤µÀ× 20% ªÀgÉUÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) CzÀgÀ Paid Up §AqÀªÁ¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
j¸Àªïð£À ±ÉÃPÀqÀ 10% ªÀgÉUÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ
(4) CzÀgÀ Paid Up §AqÀªÁ¼À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
j¸Àªïð£À ±ÉÃPÀqÀ 12% ªÀgÉUÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ
15. ‘GDR’ _________ zÀ°è ¥ÀnÖ ªÀiÁqÀ®ànÖzÉ.
(1) CªÉÄjPÀ£ï µÉÃgÀÄ «¤ªÀÄAiÀÄ PÉÃAzÀæ
(2) AiÀÄÄgÉÆæAiÀÄ£ï µÉÃgÀÄ «¤ªÀÄAiÀÄ PÉÃAzÀæ
(3) ªÀÄÄA¨ÉÊ µÉÃgÀÄ «¤ªÀÄAiÀÄ PÉÃAzÀæ
(4) gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ µÉÃgÀÄ «¤ªÀÄAiÀÄ PÉÃAzÀæ
16. ADRs WÜÙÜ®Üá° ______ £À°è ºÉüÀ¯ÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(1) AiÀÄÆgÉÆà PÀgɤìUÀ¼ÀÄ
(2) US qÁ®gïUÀ¼ÀÄ
(3) d¥Á¤Ã¸ï Áá®…
(4) gÀµÀå£ï gÀƨɯï
17. ¤¢ðµÀÖ voyage UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ M¥ÀàAzÀ ªÀiÁrPÉƼÀÄîªÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß ___________ JAzÀÄ PÀgÉAiÀÄÄvÁÛgÉ.
(1) PÁ® ¸À£ÀßzÀÄ ¥ÀPÀë
(2) ¸ÀªÀÄÄzÀæ ¥ÀæAiÀiÁt ¸À£ÀßzÀÄ ¥ÀPÀë
(3) ²¦àAUï DzÉñÀ
(4) §¼ÀPÉzÁgÀ zsÁgÀuÉ¥ÀnÖ
18. EXIM ¨ÁåAPï ¸ÁÜ¥À£ÉAiÀiÁzÀzÀÄÝ _____ gÀ°è.
(1) 1947
(2) 1962
(3) 1965
(4) 1982
19. ECGC AiÀÄ «¸ÀÛøvÀ gÀÆ¥À §gɬÄj.
(1) JPïì¥ÉÆÃmïð PÉærmï CAqï UÁågÀAn
PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉõÀ£ï D¥sï EArAiÀiÁ
(2) JPïì¥ÉÆÃmïð PÉærmï CAqï UÀÆqïì
PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉõÀ£ï D¥sï EArAiÀiÁ
(3) JPïìZÉÃAeï PÉærmï CAqï UÁågÀAn
PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉõÀ£ï D¥sï EArAiÀiÁ
(4) JPïì¥ÉÆÃmïð PÀªÀiÁrn CAqï UÁågÀAn
PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉõÀ£ï D¥sï EArAiÀiÁ
245 (7 – A )
14. A company accepts public deposits
(1) Only up to a minimum of 25% of its
paid up capital and reserves
(2) Only up to a minimum of 20% of its
paid up capital and reserves
(3) Only up to minimum of 10% of its
paid up capital and reserves
(4) Only up to a minimum of 12% of its
paid up capital and reserves
15. GDRs are listed in
(1) American stock exchanges
(2) European stock exchanges
(3) Bombay stock exchange
(4) National stock exchange
16. ADRs are quoted in
(1) Euro currencies
(2) US Dollars
(3) Japanese Yen
(4) Russian Rouble
17. A contract which is entered for a definite
voyage is called as
(1) Time charter party
(2) Voyage charter party
(3) Shipping order
(4) Consumer invoice
18. EXIM bank was established in the year
(1) 1947
(2) 1962
(3) 1965
(4) 1982
19. ECGC refers to
(1) Export Credit and Guarantee
Corporation of India
(2) Export Credit and Goods
Corporation of India
(3) Exchange Credit and Guarantee
Corporation of India
(4) Export Commodity and Guarantee
Corporation of India
245 (8 – A )
20. GATS £ÀÄß «¸ÀÛj¹ §gɬÄj.
(1) d£ÀgÀ¯ï CVæªÉÄAmï D£ï mÉæÃrAUï ¸À«Ãð¸À¸ï
(2) d£ÀgÀ¯ï CVæªÉÄAmï D£ï mÉæÃqï E£ï ¸À«Ãð¸À¸ï
(3) UÉÆèç¯ï CVæªÉÄAmï D£ï mÉæÃrAUï ¸À«Ãð¸À¸ï
(4) fAiÉÆà CVæªÉÄAmï D£ï mÉæÃrAUï ¸À«Ãð¸À¸ï
21. ‘Sole Proprietorship’ (KPÀ ªÀåQÛ
¥ÉÆæ¥ÉæöÊlgï²¥ï) £À°è dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀÄÄ
(1) ¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀªÁzÀÄzÀÄ
(2) C¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀªÁzÀÄzÀÄ
(3) ªÁå¥ÁgÀzÀ°è£À ºÀÆrPÉAiÀÄ ªÁå¦ÛUÉ ¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀªÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ
(4) F ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è
22. dAn ¸ÁÖPï PÀA¥À¤UÀ¼À PÁAiÉÄÝ eÁjUÉ §AzÀ
ªÀµÀð
(1) 1947
(2) 1955
(3) 1956
(4) 1972
23. »AzÀÆ C«¨sÀPÀÛ PÀÄlÄA§zÀ ¯Á¨sÀ CxÀªÁ £ÀµÀÖUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÀAZÀ¯ÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(1) PÀÄlÄA§zÀ ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀÄUÀ¼À (¸ÀªÀĨsÁVUÀ¼À) £ÀqÀĪÉ
(2) PÀÄlÄA§zÀ »jAiÀÄ ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀÄUÀ¼À £ÀqÀĪÉ
(3) PÀÄlÄA§zÀ QjAiÀÄ ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀÄUÀ¼À £ÀqÀĪÉ
(4) PÀvÀð¤UÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ
24. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ
ZÀlĪÀnPÉAiÀÄ DyðPÀ GzÉÝñÀªÀ®è?
(1) ¸ÁPÀµÀÄÖ ¯Á¨sÀ CxÀªÁ ºÀÆrPÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É vÀȦÛzÁAiÀÄPÀ UÀ½PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀ½¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(2) GzÉÆåÃUÀ CªÀPÁ±ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß MzÀV¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(3) ¥ÀæUÀwAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸Á¢ü¸À®Ä ¥ÉÊ¥ÉÆÃn ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¨É¼ÀªÀtÂUÉAiÀÄ ¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðzÀ°è C¹ÛvÀé.
(4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è
25. PÉÊUÁjPÁ PÁæAwAiÀÄ ªÀÄÄAZÉ, dªÀ½ GvÁàzÀ£É
ªÀÄvÀÄÛ gÀ¥sÀÄÛ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀ zÉñÀªÀÅ «±ÀézÀ
£ÁAiÀÄPÀ ¸ÁÜ£ÀzÀ°èvÀÄÛ?
(1) UÉæÃmï ©æl£ï
(2) ¨sÁgÀvÀ
(3) ZÉÊ£Á
(4) gÀµÁå
245 (9 – A )
20. GATS stands for
(1) General Agreement on Trading
Services
(2) General Agreement on Trade in
Services
(3) Global Agreement on Trading
Services
(4) Geo Agreement on Trading Services
21. In case of sole proprietorship the liability
is
(1) Limited
(2) Unlimited
(3) Limited to the extent of investment
made in business
(4) None of the above
22. The Joint Stock Companies Act was
enacted in the year
(1) 1947
(2) 1955
(3) 1956
(4) 1972
23. The profits and losses of Joint Hindu
Family are shared
(1) Between the co-parceners of the
family
(2) Between the senior members of the
family
(3) Between the junior members of the
family
(4) Only the Karta
24. Which of the following is not an economic
objective of business activity?
(1) Earning adequate profit or
satisfactory return on investment
(2) Providing employment opportunities
(3) Survival in the case of competition
and growth to maintain the progress
(4) None of the above
25. Before the industrial revolution, which
country was the world leader in textile
manufacturing and exporting ?
(1) Great Britain
(2) India
(3) China
(4) Russia
245 (10 – A )
26. ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ ºÉƸÀ PÉÊUÁjPÁ ¤Ãw 1991gÀ J¯Áè ¥ÀæªÀÄÄR GzÉÝñÀUÀ¼ÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀŪÀÅ?
I. ±ÜÃܪÁ£ÀVUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¤AiÀÄAvÀætUÀ¼ÀAvÀºÀ ¤AiÀÄAvÀæPÀ ¸ÁzsÀ£ÀUÀ½AzÀ GzÀåªÀĪÀ£ÀÄß ¸ÀévÀAvÀæUÉƽ¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
II. ¸ÀtÚ ¥ÀæªÀiÁtzÀ PÉëÃvÀæPÉÌ ¨ÉA§®ªÀ£ÀÄß ºÉaÑ ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
III. ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ªÀÄ£ÀĵÀå£À ¥ÀæAiÉÆÃd£ÀPÁÌV PÉÊUÁjPÉUÀ¼À ¸ÀàzsÁðvÀäPÀvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ºÉaÑ ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
IV. »AzÀĽzÀ ¥ÀæzÉñÀUÀ¼À PÉÊUÁjQÃPÀgÀtPÁÌV ºÉaÑ£À GvÉÛÃdPÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß MzÀV¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr :
(1) I, II & IV
(2) I, II & III
(3) I, III & IV
(4) I, II, III & IV
27. PÁgÉÆæïï CªÀgÀ “PÁ¥ÉÆÃðgÉÃmïì ¸ÁªÀÄÄzÁ¬ÄPÀ, ¸ÁªÀiÁfPÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀÄ ¦gÀ«Äqï” ¥ÀæPÁgÀ PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß eÉÆÃr¹ : I. ¯ÉÆÃPÉÆÃ¥ÀPÁj dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ¼ÀÄ II. PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ¼ÀÄ III. DyðPÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ¼ÀÄ IV. £ÉÊwPÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ¼ÀÄ F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr :
(1) I II III IV
(2) III II IV I
(3) I III IV II
(4) I III II IV
28. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆð¹ : ¥ÀnÖÖ – 1 (ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ
ºÉÆuÉUÁjPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ) ¥ÀnÖ – 2
(®PÀëtUÀ¼ÀÄ) A. ªÀiÁ°ÃPÀgÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝj
I. ªÀåªÀºÁgÀPÉÌ ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ
B. ºÀÆrPÉzÁgÀgÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝj
II. PÀvÀðªÀåUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ªÀð»¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
C. GzÉÆåÃVUÀ¼À dªÁ¨ÁÝj
III. ²PÀët MzÀV¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
D. ªÀÈwÛ¥ÀgÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼À dªÁ¨ÁÝj
IV. ¤AiÀÄAwæ¸ÀĪÀ C¢üPÁgÀ
F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr :
A B C D
(1) I II III IV
(2) IV III II I
(3) IV III I II
(4) IV I II III
29. GzÀåªÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÁtÂdå «µÀAiÀÄUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ?
(1) GzÀåªÀĪÀÅ ¸ÀgÀPÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÉêÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀgÀ§gÁdÄ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛªÉ, DzÀgÉ ªÁtÂdåªÀÅ ¸ÀgÀPÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÉêÉUÀ½UÉ ¨ÉÃrPÉ GAlÄ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛªÉ.
(2) GzÀåªÀĪÀÅ GvÁàzÀ£Á ¸ÀܼÀzÀ°è ªÀiÁvÀæ PÉÊUÉƼÀî®àqÀÄvÀÛzÉ. DzÀgÉ ªÁtÂdåªÀÅ GvÁàzÀ£É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ G¥À¨sÉÆÃUÀ ¸ÀܼÀzÀ°è PÉÊUÉƼÀî®àqÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(3) GzÀåªÀĪÀÅ ºÉaÑ£À C¥ÁAiÀĪÀ£ÀÄß M¼ÀUÉÆArgÀÄvÀÛzÉ, DzÀgÉ ªÁtÂdåzÀ°è PÀrªÉÄ C¥ÁAiÀÄ«zÉ.
(4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è
245 (11 – A )
26. What all are the major objectives of
India’s New Industrial Policy 1991 ?
I. Liberalizing the industry from the
regulatory devices such as licenses
and controls.
II. Enhancing support to the small
scale sector.
III. Increasing competitiveness of
industries for the benefit of the
common man.
IV. Providing more incentives for
industrialization of the backward
areas.
Select the code for the correct answer
from the options given below :
(1) I, II & IV
(2) I, II & III
(3) I, III & IV
(4) I, II, III & IV
27. Arrange the following as per Carroll’s
“Pyramid of corporate social
responsibility” :
I. Philanthropic responsibilities
II. Legal responsibilities
III. Economic responsibilities
IV. Ethical responsibilities
Select the code for the correct answer
from the options given below :
(1) I II III IV
(2) III II IV I
(3) I III IV II
(4) I III II IV
28. Match the following :
List-I (Responsibilities
of Business)
List-II (Features)
A. Responsibility of
owner
I. Cooperation to
the business
B. Responsibility of
investors
II. Perform the
duties
C. Responsibility of
employees
III. Provide
education
D. Responsibility of
professional
institutions
IV. Controlling
Power
Select the code for correct answer from the
options given below :
A B C D
(1) I II III IV
(2) IV III II I
(3) IV III I II
(4) IV I II III
29. Which of the following statements is
wrong with regard to industry and
commerce ?
(1) Industry supplies goods and services
whereas commerce demands goods
and services.
(2) Industry carries on at production
place only whereas commerce
carries on production and
consumption.
(3) Industry involves with more risk
whereas commerce involves less risk.
(4) None of the above
245 (12 – A )
30. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢¹ : I II
A. ªÁå¥ÁgÀ I. ¥sÁªÀiïð G¥ÀAiÀÄÄPÀÛvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸Àȶ׸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ
B. GzÀåªÀÄ II. ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀܼÀzÀ G¥ÀAiÀÄÄPÀÛvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸Àȶ׸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ
C. ªÁtÂdå III. ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀܼÀzÀ G¥ÀAiÀÄÄPÀÛvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸Àȶ׸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ. ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀåQÛUÀ¼À CqÀvÀqÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß vÉUÉzÀĺÁPÀÄvÀÛzÉ
F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr : A B C (1) I II III
(2) III I II
(3) III II I
(4) II III I
31. NASSCOM JA§ÄzÀÄ MAzÀÄ ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ ªÀiÁ»w vÀAvÀæeÁÕ£À (L.n.) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¥ÀæQæAiÉÄ ºÉÆgÀUÀÄwÛUÉ (©.¦.M.) GzÀåªÀÄzÀ ªÁå¥ÁgÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀiÁVzÉ. NASSCOM EzÀgÀ «¸ÀÛgÀuÉ?
(1) £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï C¸ÉÆùAiÉÄõÀ£ï D¥sï ¸Á¥sïÖªÉÃgï CAqï ¸À«Ãð¸À¸ï PÀA¥À¤Ã¸ï
(2) £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï C¸ÉÆùAiÉÄñÀ£ï D¥sï ¸Á¥sÀÖªÉÃgï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸À«Ãð¸ï ZÉÃA§gï
(3) £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï C¸ÉÆùAiÉÄõÀ£ï D¥sï ¸Á¥sïÖªÉÃgï CAqï ¸À«Ãð¸À¸ï PÀA¥À¤Ã¸ï Omï¸ÉÆÃjìAUï ªÉÄPÁ夸ÀA
(4) £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï C¸ÉÆùAiÉÄõÀ£ï D¥sï ¸Á¥sïÖªÉÃgï CAqï ¸À«Ãð¸À¸ï Omï ¸ÉÆùðAUï ªÉÄPÁ夸ÀA
32. ªÀiÁ»w vÀAvÀæeÁÕ£À PÁ¬ÄzÉAiÀÄÄ ¸Éʧgï C¥ÀgÁzsÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ E-ªÁtÂdåUÀ¼À §UÉÎ ªÀåªÀºÀj¸ÀĪÀ ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è£À ¥ÁæxÀ«ÄPÀ PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ DVzÉ. F PÁ¬ÄzÉAiÀÄÄ AiÀiÁªÁUÀ eÁjUÉ §A¢vÀÄ?
(1) 17£Éà CPÉÆÖçgï 2000
(2) 19£Éà £ÀªÉA§gï 2000
(3) 19£Éà CPÉÆÖçgï 2000
(4) 17£Éà £ÀªÉA§gï 2000
33. Dgï.n.f.J¸ï. ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ §UÉÎ F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ?
(1) ªÀåªÀºÁgÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÁ¸ÀÛªÀ ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄzÀ°è £ÀqÉAiÀÄÄvÀÛzÉ.
(2) qÉ¥sÀqïð £Émï ¸ÉlèªÉÄAmï DzsÁgÀzÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É F ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜAiÀÄÄ PÁAiÀÄð¤ªÀð»¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(3) Dgï.n.f.J¸ï. ªÀåªÀºÁgÀUÀ¼À°è PÀ¤µÀ× gÀÆ. 2 ®PÀë ªÀUÁð¬Ä¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
(4) RTGS ªÀåªÀºÁgÀUÀ½UÉ ¸ÉêÁ ±ÀÄ®ÌUÀ¼ÀÄ MAzÀÄ ¨ÁåAQ¤AzÀ ªÀÄvÉÆÛAzÀPÉÌ §zÀ¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
34. PÉærmï E£ÀágÀªÉÄõÀ£ï §ÆågÉÆà EArAiÀiÁ °«ÄmÉqï (¹.L.©.L.J¯ï.) C£ÀÄß ¸Áܦ¹zÀ JgÀqÀÄ ¨ÁåAPÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀŪÀÅ?
(1) J¸ï.©.L. & L.¹.L.¹.L.
(2) J¸ï.©.L. & JZï.r.J¥sï.¹.
(3) L.¹.L.¹.L. & JZï.r.J¥sï.¹.
(4) Dgï.©.L. & J¸ï.©.L.
245 (13 – A )
30. Match the following :
I
II
A. Trade I. Creates Form Utility
B. Industry II. Creates Time and
Place Utility
C. Commerce III. Creates Time and Place
Utility and removes
hindrances of persons
Select the code for the correct answer from
the options given below :
A B C
(1) I II III
(2) III I II
(3) III II I
(4) II III I
31. NASSCOM is a trade association of
Indian Information Technology (IT) and
Business Process Outsourcing (BPO)
industry. What does NASSCOM stand
for ?
(1) National Association of Software
and Services Companies
(2) National Association of Software
and Services Chamber
(3) National Association of Software
and Services Companies
Outsourcing Mechanism
(4) National Association of Software
and Services Outsourcing
Mechanism
32. The Information Technology Act is the
primary law in India dealing with
cybercrime and e-Commerce. The Act
came into force on
(1) 17th October 2000
(2) 19th November 2000
(3) 19th October 2000
(4) 17th November 2000
33. Which of the following statements is
incorrect regarding RTGS system?
(1) The transactions take place in real
time.
(2) The system operates on Deferred
Net Settlement basis.
(3) The minimum amount that can be
remitted is rupees 2 lakhs.
(4) Service charges for RTGS
transactions vary from one bank to
another.
34. Which two banks established Credit
Information Bureau India Limited
(CIBIL)?
(1) SBI and ICICI
(2) SBI and HDFC
(3) ICICI and HDFC
(4) RBI and SBI
245 (14 – A )
35. £ÀµÀÖzÀ vÀvÀéªÀÅ PÉêÀ® D ¥ÀæPÀgÀtzÀ°è ªÀiÁvÀæ
C£Àé¬Ä¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(1) CVß «ªÉÄ
(2) PÀqÀ® «ªÉÄ
(3) (1) ªÀÄvÀÄ (2) JgÀqÀÆ
(4) ¦üqÉ°n «ªÉÄ
36. AË»ÜPܤ »AzÀÆ PÀÄlÄA§ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀPÉÌ
¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ
¸ÀjAiÀÄ®è?
(1) PÀÄlÄA§zÀ »jAiÀÄ ¥ÀÄgÀĵÀ ¸ÀzÀ¸Àå£À£ÀÄß
PÀvÁð JAzÀÄ PÀgÉAiÀįÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(2) ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀ ºÉÆuÉUÁjPÉAiÀÄÄ AiÀiÁªÁUÀ®Æ
C¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀªÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(3) AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉà DqÀ½vÀ zÁR¯ÉUÀ½®è ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
CzÀgÀ ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀ PÀ¤µÀ× ªÀÄvÀÄÛ UÀjµÀ× «Äw
E®è.
(4) EzÀÄ vÀ£Àß ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀåjAzÀ ¥ÀævÉåÃPÀ PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ
C¹ÛvÀé ºÉÆA¢zÉ.
37. ¥Á®ÄzÁgÀ£À PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀħzÀÞ ºÀPÀÄÌUÀ¼ÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀŪÀÅ?
I) ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ZÀlĪÀnPÉUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀQæAiÀĪÁV ¥Á¯ÉÆμÀÄîªÀ ºÀPÀÄÌ.
II) ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ ¯Á¨sÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÀAaPÉƼÀÄîªÀ ºÀPÀÄÌ.
III) ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ«®èzÀ ¥Á®ÄzÁgÀ£À£ÀÄß
GaÝfn¸ÀĪÀ ºÀPÀÄÌ.
IV) §AqÀªÁ¼ÀQÌAvÀ®Æ ºÉaÑWæ CÃÜáÊÜ CqÁé£ïìUÀ¼À ªÉÄð£À §rØAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄĪÀ ºÀPÀÄÌ.
F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr :
(1) I & II
(2) I, II, III & IV
(3) I, II & IV
(4) I, II & III
38. F PɼÀV£À ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ ¸ÀAWÀUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀ AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ vÀ¥ÀÄà?
(1) ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ ZÀ¼ÀĪÀ½ EAUÉèAqï £À°è
ªÉÆzÀ®Ä ºÀÄnÖPÉÆArvÀÄ.
(2) ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ ¸ÀAWÀUÀ¼À PÁ¬ÄzÉ 1919 gÀ°è
¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è eÁjAiÀiÁ¬ÄvÀÄ.
(3) ‘’MAzÀÄ ªÀåQÛ MAzÀÄ ªÀÄvÀ’’vÀvÀéªÀ£ÀÄß
ªÀiÁåPÁèöåUÀ£ï ¸À«Äw¬ÄAzÀ ²¥sÁgÀ¸ÀÄì
ªÀiÁqÀ¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ.
(4) ¥sÉqÀgÀ¯ï ¸ÁA¹ÜPÀ gÀZÀ£ÉAiÀÄÄ ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è£À
¸ÀºÀPÁjUÀ½AzÀ C£ÀĸÀj¸À®àqÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
245 (15 – A )
35. Principle of Indemnity is only applicable
in the case of
(1) Fire Insurance
(2) Marine Insurance
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Fidelity Insurance
36. Which of the following statements is
incorrect regarding Joint Hindu Family
Business ?
(1) The eldest male member in the
family is called Karta.
(2) Liability of members is always
unlimited.
(3) There is no governing documents
and there is no minimum and
maximum limit of its members.
(4) It is separate legal entity from its
members.
37. What all are the legal rights of a
partner ?
I. Right to take an active part in the
business activities
II. Right to share profits of the business
III. Right to expel a non-cooperative
partner
IV. Right to get interest on advances in
excess of capital
Select the code for the correct answer
from the options given below :
(1) I and II
(2) I, II, III and IV
(3) I, II and IV
(4) I, II and III
38. Which of the following statements is
wrong regarding cooperation and
cooperative societies ?
(1) Cooperative movement originated
first in England.
(2) The Cooperative Societies Act was
passed in India in the year 1919.
(3) “One Man One Vote” principle was
recommended by Maclagan
Committee.
(4) Federal organizational structure is
followed by cooperatives in India.
245 (16 – A )
39. ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ PÀA¥À¤UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ ¸ÀjAiÀÄ®è?
(1) PÀ¤µÀÖ ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀÄ 7 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ
UÀjµÀÖ «Äw¬Ä®è.
(2) ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄÄ µÉÃgÀÄUÀ¼À GavÀ
ªÀUÁðªÀuÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß C£ÀĪÀÄw¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(3) PÀA¥À¤UÀ¼ÀÄ (wzÀÄÝ¥Àr) PÁ¬ÄzÉ 2000 gÀ
¥ÀæPÁgÀ ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ PÀ¤µÀ×
¥ÁªÀw¹zÀ §AqÀªÁ¼À gÀÆ. 5,00,000
DVgÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ.
(4) PÀA¥À¤UÀ¼ÀÄ (wzÀÄÝ¥Àr) PÁ¬ÄzÉ 2000 gÀ
¥ÀæPÁgÀ PÀ¤µÀ× ¥ÁªÀw¹zÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀªÀÅ
gÀÆ. 10,00,000 DVgÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ.
40. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢¹:
¥ÀnÖ – I ¥ÀnÖ – II
A. zÀÆgÀzÀ±Àð£À I. ¸ÀPÁðj PÀA¥À¤ B. AiÀÄƤmï læ¸ïÖ D¥sï EArAiÀiÁ
II. E¯ÁSÉAiÀÄ CAqÀgï mÉÃQAUï (¸ÁéªÀÄåzÀ)
C. JZï.JA.n III. ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ ¤UÀªÀÄ
IV. SÁ¸ÀV PÀA¥À¤
F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr :
A B C
(1) I II IV
(2) II III I
(3) I III IV
(4) II I IV
41. ¥ÉÆÃZÀÄðVøï F¸ïÖ EArAiÀiÁ F jÃwAiÀÄ PÀA¥À¤UÉ GzÁºÀgÀuÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.
(1) ¸À£ÀßzÀÄ ¥ÀqÉzÀ PÀA¥À¤
(2) ±Á¸À£À §zÀÞ PÀA¥À¤
(3) £ÉÆÃAzÁ¬ÄvÀ PÀA¥À¤
(4) ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ PÀA¥À¤
42. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ±Á¸À£À§zÀÞ PÀA¥À¤UÉ GzÁºÀgÀuÉAiÀiÁVzÉ?
(1) J¸ï.©.L.
(2) J¯ï.L.¹.
(3) AiÀÄÄ.n.L. (4) ªÉÄð£À J¯Áè
43. EwÛÃa£À ªÀµÀðUÀ¼À°è ¥ÀjZÀ¬Ä¸À¯ÁzÀ ¥ÀæªÀÄÄR ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ ªÀ®AiÀÄzÀ ¸ÀÄzsÁgÀuÉUÀ¼ÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀŪÀÅ?
I. ªÀåªÀ¸ÁÜ¥ÀPÀ ¸ÁéAiÀÄvÀÛvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß C£ÀĪÀÄw¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
II. gÉÆÃUÀUÀæ¸ÀÛ ¦.J¸ï.E.UÀ¼À ¥ÀÄ£ÀgÀÄfÓêÀ£À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÀÄ£Àgï gÀZÀ£É.
III. ºÀÆrPÉ gÀ»vÀvÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ SÁ¸ÀVÃPÀgÀt.
IV. ¦.J¸ï.E.UÀ¼ÀÄ §AqÀªÁ¼À ªÀiÁgÀÄPÀmÉÖUÉ ¥ÀæªÉò¸À®Ä C£ÀĪÀÄw¸ÀĪÀÅ¢®è.
V. DzsÀĤÃPÀgÀt F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ÊÜÞw :
(1) I II & IV
(2) II, III & V
(3) II, III & IV
(4) I, II, III & V
245 (17 – A )
39. Which of the following statements is
incorrect regarding a public company ?
(1) Minimum number of members is 7
and there is no maximum limit
(2) Public company allows free transfer
of shares.
(3) Minimum paid up capital of a public
company should be Rs.5,00,000
according to Companies
(Amendment) Act 2000.
(4) Minimum paid up capital of a public
company should be Rs. 10,00,000
according to Companies
(Amendment) Act 2000.
40. Match the following :
List I List II
A. Doordarshan
I. Government
Company
B. Unit Trust of
India
II. Departmental
Undertaking
C. HMT
III. Public
Corporation
IV. Private
Company
Select the code for the correct answer
from the options given below :
A B C
(1) I II IV
(2) II III I
(3) I III IV
(4) II I IV
41. Portuguese East India Company is an
example for
(1) Chartered Company
(2) Statutory Company
(3) Registered Company
(4) Public Company
42. Which of the following is an example of a
Statutory Company ?
(1) SBI
(2) LIC
(3) UTI
(4) All of the above
43. What are the important public sector
reforms introduced in the recent years?
I. Allowing managerial autonomy
II. Revival and restructuring of sick
PSEs
III. Disinvestment and Privatization
IV. Not allowing PSEs to enter capital
market
V. Modernization
Select the code for the correct answer
from the options given below :
(1) I, II & IV
(2) II, III & V
(3) II, III & IV
(4) I, II, III & V
245 (18 – A )
44. PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ gÀZÀ£É ¥ÀæPÁgÀ ºÀAvÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜUÉƽ¹.
(1) ªÀÈ¢Þ, ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¥ÁægÀA¨sÀ, £ÉÆÃAzÀtÂ,
§AqÀªÁ¼À ZÀAzÁzÁjPÉ
(2) ªÀÈ¢Þ, £ÉÆÃAzÀtÂ, §AqÀªÁ¼À
ZÀAzÁzÁjPÉ, ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¥ÁægÀA¨sÀ
(3) ªÀÈ¢Þ, ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¥ÁægÀA¨sÀ, §AqÀªÁ¼À
ZÀAzÁzÁjPÉ, £ÉÆÃAzÀtÂ
(4) £ÉÆÃAzÀtÂ, ªÀÈ¢Þ, §AqÀªÁ¼À
ZÀAzÁzÁjPÉ, ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ ¥ÁægÀA¨sÀ
45. PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ ªÀÈ¢ÞAiÀÄ°è M¼ÀUÉÆArgÀĪÀ ºÀAvÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß eÉÆÃr¹.
I. ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ PÀ®à£ÉAiÀÄ C£ÉéõÀuÉ
II. vÀ¤SÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥Àj²Ã®£É
III. eÉÆÃqÀuÉ
IV. ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ ¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É
F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ÊÜÞw :
(1) I II III IV
(2) I III II IV
(3) I II IV III
(4) I III IV II
46. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ £ÉÆÃAzÀtÂAiÀÄ ªÁå¦ÛAiÉƼÀUÉ §gÀĪÀÅ¢®è?
(1) ºÉ¸Àj£À C£ÀĪÉÆÃzÀ£É
(2) M/A & A/A £ÀAvÀºÀ zÁR¯ÉUÀ¼À ¸À°èPÉ
(3) £ÉÆÃAzÀtÂAiÉÆA¢UÉ ¥ÀjZÀAiÀÄ ¥ÀwæPÉ ¸À°èPÉ
(4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è
47. F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðzÀ°è PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄÄ PÀqÁØAiÀĪÁV «¸Àdð£ÉUÉƼÀî¨ÉÃPÁV®è?
(1) PÀ¤µÀ× ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀÄ ¤UÀ¢vÀ «ÄwVAvÀ PÀrªÉÄAiÀiÁzÁUÀ
(2) ¸ÀAAiÉÆÃd£ÉUÀ¼ÉƼÀUÉ ¢£ÁAPÀ¢AzÀ 6 wAUÀ¼ÀÄUÀ¼ÉƼÀUÉ ±Á¸À£À§zÀÞ ¸À¨sÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß £ÀqɸÀ¯ÁUÀ¢zÁÝUÀ
(3) £ÉÆÃAzÀt ¥ÀæªÀiÁt ¥ÀvÀæªÀ£ÀÄß ¹éÃPÀj¹zÀ ¢£ÁAPÀ¢AzÀ MAzÀÄ ªÀµÀðzÉƼÀUÁV ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¥ÁægÀA©ü¸À¢zÁÝUÀ
(4) ºÉaÑ£À ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀåjAzÀ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¤tðAiÀĪÀÅ eÁjAiÀiÁzÁUÀ
48. ºÉZÀÄѪÀj ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå µÉÃgÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀĪÀ «ZÁgÀªÀ£ÀÄß ________________ ¤AzÀ C¢üPÀÈvÀUÉƽ¹gÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ.
(1) DnðPÀ¯ïì D¥sï C¸ÉÆùAiÉÄõÀ£ï
(2) £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï PÀA¥À¤ ¯Á ¨ÉÆÃqïð
(3) ¸É©
(4) PÉÃAzÀæ ¸ÀPÁðgÀ
245 (19 – A )
44. Arrange the stages according to the
formation of a company.
(1) Promotion, Commencement of
Business, Incorporation, Capital
Subscription
(2) Promotion, Incorporation, Capital
Subscription, Commencement of
Business
(3) Promotion, Commencement of
Business, Capital Subscription,
Incorporation
(4) Incorporation, Promotion, Capital
Subscription, Commencement of
Business
45. Arrange the steps involved in promotion
of a company.
I. Discovery of a business idea
II. Investigation and verification
III. Assembling
IV. Financing the proposition
Select the code for the correct answer
from the options given below :
(1) I II III IV
(2) I III II IV
(3) I II IV III
(4) I III IV II
46. Which of the following won’t come under
incorporation stage ?
(1) Approval of name
(2) Filing of documents such as M/A &
A/A
(3) Filing of prospectus with the
Registrar of Companies
(4) None of the above
47. Which of the following is not a
circumstance for the company to be
compulsorily wound up ?
(1) When minimum number of members
falls below the prescribed limit
(2) When it cannot held a statutory
meeting within 6 months from the
date of incorporation
(3) When it cannot commence the
business within a year from the date
of receiving the incorporation
certificate
(4) By passing an ordinary resolution
by majority of members
48. The issue of additional equity shares
should be authorized by
(1) Articles of Association
(2) National Company Law Board
(3) SEBI
(4) Central Government
245 (20 – A )
49. ¸Á®¥ÀvÀæPÉÌ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀvÀå?
I) jAiÀiÁ¬Äw ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ MAzÀÄ ¸Á® ¥ÀvÀæªÀ£ÀÄß ¦æëÄAiÀÄA£À°è ªÀÄgÀÄ ¥ÁªÀw ªÀiÁqÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
II) ¸Á® ¥ÀvÀæzÀ MqÉvÀ£À §AqÀªÁ¼ÀzÀ ¨sÁUÀªÁVzÉ.
III) ¸Á®¥ÀvÀæUÀ¼À «vÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄð£À £ÀµÀÖªÀÅ ««zsÀ ªÉZÀÑUÀ¼À MAzÀÄ CA±ÀªÁVzÉ.
IV) ¸Á® ¥ÀvÀæªÀ£ÀÄß §AqÀªÁ¼ÀzÀ £ÀµÀÖªÀ£ÀÄß vÀÄA§®Ä §¼À À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr :
(1) I, II & III
(2) I, III & IV
(3) I & III
(4) I, II, III & IV
50. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ GDR UÀ¼À «²µÀÖ ®PÀëtªÀ®è?
(1) EzÀÄ C¸ÀÄgÀQëvÀ ¨sÀzÀævÉAiÀiÁVzÉ
(2) EzÀ£ÀÄß µÉÃgÀÄUÀ¼À ¸ÀASÉåAiÀiÁV ¥ÀjªÀwð¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
(3) f.r.Dgï. MqÉvÀ£À ºÉÆA¢gÀĪÀªÀgÀÄ ªÀÄvÀzÁ£ÀzÀ ºÀPÀÄÌ ºÉÆA¢gÀÄvÁÛgÉ.
(4) GDR ºÀÆrPÉzÁgÀgÀÄ PÀA¥À¤UÉ ¸À®ºÉ ¤ÃqÀĪÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ vÀªÀÄä gÀ²Ã¢AiÀÄ£ÀÄß gÀzÀÄÝUÉƽ¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
51. ªÀÄÆåZÀĪÀ¯ï ¤¢üUÀ¼À£ÀÄß AiÀiÁªÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ ¤AiÀÄAwæ¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ?
(1) ¸É©
(2) AiÀÄÄ.n.L.
(3) J.JªÀiï.J¥sï.L
(4) Dgï.©.L.
52. £Á£ï¨ÁåAQAUï ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ PÀA¥À¤UÀ½UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀÄ®è?
(1) J£ï.©.J¥sï.¹. AiÀÄÄ rªÀiÁåAqï oÉêÀtÂUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¹éÃPÀj¸ÀĪÀÅ¢®è.
(2) J£ï.©.J¥sï.¹. AiÀÄÄ ¥ÁªÀwAiÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸Él¯ïªÉÄAmï ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ MAzÀÄ ¨sÁUÀªÀ®è.
(3) J£ï.©.J¥sï.¹.AiÀÄÄ CzÀPÁÌV ¸É¼ÉzÀ ZÉPï UÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
(4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è
53. ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ : I. MAzÀÄ ºÉÊ¥Àgï ªÀiÁPÉðmï, MAzÀÄ
ÀÆ¥Àgï ªÀiÁPÉðmï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ r¥ÁmïðªÉÄAl¯ï ¸ÉÆÖÃgïUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ÀAAiÉÆÃV¹zÀ MAzÀÄ ¸ÀÆ¥Àgï ¸ÉÆÖÃgï
DVzÉ. II. ºÉÊ¥Àgï ªÀiÁPÉðmï JA§ ±À§ÝªÀ£ÀÄß
1968 gÀ°è ¥sÉæAZï ªÁå¥ÁgÀ vÀdÕ eÁPÉés¸ï ¦PÉÖmï Àȶ׹zÀgÀÄ.
(1) I ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ
(2) II ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ I vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ
(3) I ªÀÄvÀÄ II JgÀqÀÆ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ
(4) I ªÀÄvÀÄ II JgÀqÀÆ vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ
245 (21 – A )
49. Which of the following statements are
true regarding debentures ?
I. A debenture issued at a discount
can be redeemed at a premium.
II. Debenture is a part of owned
capital.
III. Loss on issue of debentures is an
item of miscellaneous expenditure.
IV. Debenture can be used to write off
capital loss.
Select the code for the correct answer
from the options given below :
(1) I, II & III
(2) I, III & IV
(3) I & III
(4) I, II, III & IV
50. Which of the following is not a
characteristic of GDRs ?
(1) It is an unsecured security.
(2) It may be converted into number of
shares.
(3) GDR holders do have voting right.
(4) GDR investors may cancel their
receipt by advising the company.
51. Mutual Funds are regulated by
(1) SEBI
(2) UTI
(3) AMFI
(4) RBI
52. Which of the following is not true with
regard to a Non-Banking Financial
Company ?
(1) An NBFC cannot accept demand
deposits.
(2) An NBFC is not a part of the
payment and settlement system.
(3) An NBFC can issue cheques drawn
on itself.
(4) None of the above
53. Statements :
I. A hypermarket is a super store
combing a supermarket and a
departmental store.
II. The term hypermarket was coined in
1968 by a French trade expert
Jacques Pictet.
(1) I is correct and II is incorrect
(2) II is correct and I is incorrect
(3) Both I and II are correct
(4) Both I and II are incorrect
245 (22 – A )
54. ºÉÆïï¸Éîgï, ¸ÉêÁ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ vÀAiÀiÁgÀPÀgÀ
£ÀqÀÄ«£À PÀgÁjUÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀ
M¥ÀàAzÀªÁVzÀÄÝ, EzÀgÀ ªÉÄÃgÉUÉ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ¸ÀÜgÀÄ
¸ÀéAvÀ AiÀÄƤmïUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆAzÀĪÀ ºÀPÀÄÌUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
ºÉÆA¢zÀÄÝ, EzÀ£ÀÄß »ÃUÉAzÀÄ
ªÀVÃðPÀj¸À¯ÁVzÉ
(1) PÁAiÀÄðvÀAvÀæzÀ MPÀÆÌl
(2) dAn ¸ÁºÀ¸À
(3) ¥sÁæöåAZÉʹAUï
(4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è
55. £ÉÃgÀ ªÀiÁgÁlzÀ CA±ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀŪÀÅ?
I. EAlgÉßmï ªÀiÁPÉðnAUï
II. mÉ°ªÀiÁPÉnðAUï
III. £ÉÃgÀ ªÉÄïï
IV. ªÉƨÉÊ¯ï ªÀiÁPÉðnAUï
V. qÉÊgÉPïÖ gɸÁà£ïì n«
F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr :
(1) I, II, III, & IV
(2) I, II, III & V
(3) I, II, & IV
(4) I, II, III, IV & V
56. gÀ¥sÀÄÛ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ DªÀÄzÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ C¨ÜÃÜ ªÁå¦ÛAiÀÄ°è
§gÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(1) ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ ¸ÀaªÁ®AiÀÄ
(2) ªÁtÂdå ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÉÊUÁjPÁ ¸ÀaªÁ®AiÀÄ
(3) «zÉñÁAUÀ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀUÀ¼À ¸ÀaªÁ®AiÀÄ
(4) UÀȺÀ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀUÀ¼À ¸ÀaªÁ®AiÀÄ
57. DªÀÄzÀÄzÁgÀ£ÀÄ ¸ÀgÀPÀÄUÀ¼À §lªÁqÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß F zÁR¯É ¤ÃqÀzÉ vÉUÉzÀÄPÉƼÀî®Ä ¸ÁzsÀå«®è.
(1) £ÉÆÃlzÀ ©¯ï
(2) ²¦àAUï ©¯ï
(3) ªÀÄÆ®zÀ ¥ÀæªÀiÁt ¥ÀvÀæ
(4) ºÉÆgÉ¥ÀnÖ ©¯ï
58. ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ :
I. AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉà SÁ ÀV/¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ/ dAnªÀ®AiÀÄ CxÀªÁ gÁdå ÀPÁðgÀ CxÀªÁ CzÀgÀ KeɤìUÀ¼ÀÄ SEZ C£ÀÄß ¸Áܦ À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
II. «zÉò ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄÄ ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è SEZ C£ÀÄß ¸Áܦ À®Ä ¸ÁzsÀå«®è.
(1) I ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ
(2) II ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ I vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ
(3) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj
(4) I DUÀ°Ã CxÀªÁ II DUÀ°Ã vÀ¥ÁàVzÉ
245 (23 – A )
54. Contractual agreement between
wholesaler, service organization and
manufacturer according to which
business people have rights to own units
is classified as
(1) Strategic Alliance
(2) Joint Venture
(3) Franchising
(4) None of the above
55. Elements of direct marketing are
I. Internet marketing
II. Telemarketing
III. Direct mail
IV. Mobile marketing
V. Direct response TV
Select the code for the correct answer
from the options given below :
(1) I, II, III & IV
(2) I, II, III & V
(3) I, II & IV
(4) I, II, III, IV & V
56. Exports and Imports come under the
purview of
(1) Ministry of Finance
(2) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(3) Ministry of External Affairs
(4) Ministry of Home Affairs
57. The importer cannot take delivery of
goods unless he produces the
(1) Bill of sight
(2) Shipping bill
(3) Certificate of origin
(4) Bill of lading
58. Statements :
I. Any private/public/joint sector or
state government or its agencies can
set up an SEZ.
II. Foreign agency cannot set up SEZs
in India.
(1) I is correct and II is incorrect
(2) II is correct and I is incorrect
(3) Both I and II are correct
(4) Neither I nor II is correct
245 (24 – A )
59. «zÉò «¤ªÀÄAiÀÄ ¤ªÀðºÀuÁ PÁAiÉÄÝ 1999 (FEMA) JAzÀÄ eÁjUÉ §A¢vÀÄ?
(1) 26£Éà DUÀ¸ïÖ 2000
(2) 29£Éà r¸ÉA§gï 2000
(3) 25£Éà dįÉÊ 2000
(4) 27£Éà CPÉÆÖçgï 2000
60. gÀ¦üÛUÉ GvÉÛÃd£À ¤ÃqÀĪÀ°è gÀ¥sÀÄÛ ¥ÀæQæAiÀiÁ
ªÀ®AiÀÄ (EPZ)£À ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁjvÀéªÀ£ÀÄß
KµÁåzÀ°è ªÉÆzÀ®Ä UÀÄgÀÄw¹zÀªÀgÀ°è ¨sÁgÀvÀªÀÇ
¸ÀºÀ MAzÀÄ. 1965gÀ°è _______ £À°è KµÁåzÀ
ªÉÆzÀ® E.¦.gÀhÄqï ¸ÁÜ¥À£ÉAiÀiÁ¬ÄvÀÄ.
(1) ¸ÁAvÁ PÀÆæeï
(2) PÁAqÁè
(3) £ÉÆÃAiÀiÁØ
(4) EAzÉÆÃgï
61. MAzÀÄ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ°è£À ¯Á¨sÀzÀ ªÀÄÆ® ¥ÁvÀæªÀÅ
PɼÀV£À_______ DVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(1) ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ ¨É¼ÀªÀtÂUÉUÉ PÁgÀtªÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
(2) «±Áé¸À¤ÃAiÀÄ ºÀtPÁ¹£À CUÀvÀåvÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀÆgÉʸÀ®Ä ¸ÀºÁAiÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
(3) ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ G½ªÀ£ÀÄß SÁvÀjUÉƽ¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
(4) EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è J®èªÀÇ
62. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¥ÁæxÀ«ÄPÀ PÉÊUÁjPÉ ªÀUÀðPÉÌ ¸ÉÃgÀĪÀÅ¢®è :
(1) £À¸ÀðjUÀ¼ÀÄ
(2) UÀtÂUÁjPÉ GzÀåªÀÄ
(3) PÉÆý ¸ÁPÁtÂPÉ
(4) vÉʯÉÆÃzÀåªÀÄ
63. ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¤Ãw±Á¸ÀÛçªÀÅ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹gÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
(1) M§â ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ¸ÀÛ¤UÉ vÀ£Àß ¤tðAiÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸Àj CxÀªÁ vÀ¥ÀÄà JAzÀÄ w½¹PÉÆqÀĪÀ PÀ®à£ÉUÀ¼ÀÄ.
(2) ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼À £ÀqÁªÀ½UÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤zÉÃð²¸ÀĪÀ £ÉÊwPÀ vÀvÀéUÀ¼ÀÄ.
(3) ¸ÀªÀiÁd PÀ¯ÁåtªÀ£ÀÄß UÀjµÀ×UÉƽ¸ÀĪÀ ªÀÄÆ® ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ vÀvÀé.
(4) EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è J®èªÀÇ
64. E-ªÁtÂdåzÀ°è J£ïQæ¥Àê£ï JAzÀgÉ _______
(1) ¥ÀPÀëUÀ½UÉ ºÁ¤AiÀiÁUÀĪÀAvÉ ªÀiÁ»wAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁ¥ÁðqÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(2) PÀA¥ÀÆålgï £À°è ¸ÀAUÀ滹zÀ J¯Áè ªÀiÁ»wAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ±ÀÄ¢Þ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(3) ªÀiÁ»w ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄĪÀªÀ¤UÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ w½AiÀÄĪÀAvÉ ªÀiÁ»wAiÀÄ£ÀÄß «±ÉõÀ PÉÆÃqïUÀ¼À£ÁßV ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(4) EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è
245 (25 – A )
59. The Foreign Exchange Management Act
1999 (FEMA) was enacted on
(1) 26th August 2000
(2) 29th December 2000
(3) 25th July 2000
(4) 27th October 2000
60. India was one of the first in Asia to
recognize the effectiveness of the Export
Processing Zone (EPZ) in promoting
export, with Asia’s first EPZ set up in
1965 at :
(1) Santa Cruz
(2) Kandla
(3) Noida
(4) Indore
61. Following is the basic role of profits in a
business :
(1) Leading to growth of business
(2) Helping to meet genuine financial
requirements
(3) Ensuring survival of business
(4) All of these
62. Which one of the following does not
belong to primary industry ?
(1) Nurseries
(2) Mining industry
(3) Poultry farming
(4) Oil industry
63. Business Ethics refer to
(1) Ideas that guide businessman as to
whether his decisions are right or
wrong.
(2) Moral principles which govern the
conduct of business enterprises.
(3) The basic business philosophy that
seeks to maximize social welfare.
(4) All of these
64. Encryption in E-commerce means
(1) Modifying information to harm the
parties.
(2) Cleaning up all information that is
stored in the computer.
(3) Putting information into special
code to make it understandable only
to the recipient.
(4) None of these
245 (26 – A )
65. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ UÀAqÁAvÀgÀUÀ½UÉ
AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸ÁªÀiÁfPÀ PÁgÀtªÀ®è :
(1) ¥sÁåµÀ£ïUÀ¼À §zÀ¯ÁªÀuÉ
(2) UÁæºÀPÀgÀ ªÀgÀªÀiÁ£ÀzÀ°è£À §zÀ¯ÁªÀuÉ
(3) C®à ¨ÉÃrPÉUÉ PÁgÀtªÁUÀĪÀ GzÀåªÀÄzÀ°è£À ©PÀÌlÄÖ
(4) ºÉƸÀ fêÀ£À ±ÉÊ°UÉ zÁjªÀiÁqÀĪÀ ¸ÁªÀiÁfPÀ ªÀiË®åUÀ¼À §zÀ¯ÁªÀuÉ
66. ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ¸ÀÜ£ÀÄ ¸ÁªÀiÁfPÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝj
vÉUÉzÀÄPÉƼÀî¨ÉÃPÉA§ÄzÀgÀ ¥ÀgÀªÁzÀ ªÁzÀUÀ¼À°è
___________ M¼ÀUÉƼÀÄîªÀÅ¢®è.
(1) zsÀªÀÄðzÀ²ðvÀé
(2) ¯Á¨sÀªÀ£ÀÄß UÀjµÀ×UÉƽ¸ÀÄ«PÉ
(3) ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ ¢ÃWÁðªÀ¢ü »vÁ¸ÀQÛUÀ¼ÀÄ
(4) ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ ¥Àæw©A§
67. ¨ÉÃgÉ GzÀåªÀÄUÀ½UÉ ¨ÉA§® ¸ÉêÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
MzÀV¸ÀĪÀ GzÀåªÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ________ JAzÀÄ
PÀgÉAiÀÄÄvÁÛgÉ.
(1) vÀÈwÃAiÀÄ GzÀåªÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
(2) C£ÀĵÀAVPÀ GzÀåªÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
(3) ¥ÁæxÀ«ÄPÀ GzÀåªÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
(4) ªÁtÂdå GzÀåªÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
68. ¦üqÉ°n (£ÀA©PÉ) «ªÉÄ ________ UÀ½AzÀ GAmÁUÀĪÀ £ÀµÀÖzÀ §UÉÎ SÁvÀj MzÀV¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(1) GzÉÆåÃUÀzÁvÀ£À ªÀÄgÀt
(2) GzÉÆåÃVAiÀÄ ªÀÄgÀt
(3) GzÉÆåÃVAiÀÄ C¥ÁæªÀiÁtÂPÀvÉ
(4) GzÉÆåÃUÀzÁvÀ£À C¥ÁæªÀiÁtÂPÀvÉ
69. ¨sÁgÀvÀ fêÀ«ªÀiÁ ¤UÀªÀÄzÀ PÉÃAzÀæ PÀbÉÃj
________ £À°è EzÉ.
(1) ZÉ£ÉßöÊ
(2) zɺÀ°
(3) PÉÆ®ÌvÁÛ
(4) ªÀÄÄA¨ÉÊ
70. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «zsÀzÀ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ MqÉvÀ£ÀªÀ£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ
ªÀiÁqÀĪÀ ¤nÖ£À°è PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ
¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ?
(1) PÀÆqÀÄ §AqÀªÁ¼À ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ - ¸ÀÄ®¨sÀ PÁAiÀÄð¤ªÀðºÀuÉ zÀȶ׬ÄAzÀ
(2) KPÀªÀåQÛ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ – ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ ¹ÜgÀvÉ zÀȶ֬ÄAzÀ
(3) ¥Á®ÄzÁgÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ - ¯Á¨sÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÀAaPÉƼÀÄîªÀ zÀȶ֬ÄAzÀ
(4) KPÀªÀåQÛ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ – ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ UÀÄlÄÖUÀ¼À£ÀÄß PÁ¥ÁrPÉƼÀÄîªÀ zÀȶ֬ÄAzÀ
245 (27 – A )
65. Following is not a social cause for
business risks :
(1) Change in fashions
(2) Changes in income of consumers
(3) Recession in industry leading to
poor demand
(4) Changing social values leading to a
new pattern of life
66. Arguments in favour of assumption of
social responsibility by the businessman
do not include
(1) Theory of trusteeship
(2) Maximisation of profits
(3) Long-term interests of business
(4) Public image
67. The industries which provide support
services to other industries are known as
(1) Tertiary industries
(2) Secondary industries
(3) Primary industries
(4) Commercial industries
68. Fidelity Insurance guarantees for the loss
out of
(1) The death of the employer
(2) The death of the employee
(3) The employee’s dishonesty
(4) The employer’s dishonesty
69. Central office of the Life Insurance
Corporation of India is located at
(1) Chennai
(2) Delhi
(3) Kolkata
(4) Mumbai
70. Which of the following statements is
correct with respect to choice of suitable
form of business ownership ?
(1) Joint stock company from the view
point of operational flexibility
(2) Sole proprietorship from the view
point of stability
(3) Partnership firm from the view
point of sharing of profits
(4) Sole proprietorship from the view
point of business secrecy aspect
245 (28 – A )
71. SÁ¸ÀV ¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ ¸Àj¬Ä®è?
(1) EzÀÄ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¥ÁægÀA©ü¸ÀĪÀ ¥ÀæªÀiÁt ¥ÀvÀæªÀ£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉzÀÄPÉƼÀî¨ÉÃQ®è.
(2) EzÀÄ UÀjµÀ× ªÀAwUÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¹éÃPÀj¸ÀzÉ EzÀÄ µÉÃgÀÄUÀ¼À ºÀAaPÉ ªÀiÁqÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
(3) EzÀÄ vÀ£Àß ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀ µÉÃgÀÄ ªÀUÁðªÀuÉ ºÀQÌ£À ªÉÄÃ¯É AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉà ¤§AzsÀ£ÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÃgÀĪÀÅ¢®è.
(4) EzÀÄ ±Á¸À£À§zÀÞ ¸À¨sÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß £ÀqɸÀ¨ÉÃPÁV®è ºÁUÀÆ CzÀgÀ ªÀgÀ¢AiÀÄ£ÀÄß PÉÆqÀ¨ÉÃPÁV®è.
72. ¸ÀºÀPÁj ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼À UÀÄt®PÀët PɼÀV£À ________ DVgÀĪÀÅ¢®è.
(1) MAzÀÄ µÉÃgÀÄ – MAzÀÄ ªÀÄvÀ
(2) ¸ÉêÉAiÀÄ GzÉÝñÀ
(3) ¸ÀPÁðgÀzÀ ¤AiÀÄAvÀæt
(4) ¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝj
73. C«¨sÁdå »AzÀÄ PÀÄlÄA§zÀ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀzÀ°è PÀvÀð£À dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀÄÄ ______
(1) ¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝj
(2) C¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀ dªÁ¨ÁÝj
(3) dAn dªÁ¨ÁÝj
(4) dªÁ¨ÁÝj¬Ä®è¢gÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
74. MAzÀÄ PÀÆqÀÄ §AqÀªÁ¼À ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ ¤zÉÃð±ÀPÀ
ªÀÄAqÀ½AiÀÄ£ÀÄß ZÀÄ£Á¬Ä¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(1) ¸ÀPÁðgÀzÀ CAUÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼ÀÄ
(2) £ËPÀgÀgÀÄ
(3) µÉÃgÀÄzÁgÀgÀÄ
(4) ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀgÀÄ
75. §ºÀÄgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ PÀA¥À¤UÀ¼À ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå UÀÄt®PÀët
PɼÀV£À ________ DVgÀĪÀÅ¢®è.
(1) ««zsÀ zÉñÀUÀ¼À°è£À PÁAiÀiÁðZÀgÀuÉ
(2) zÉòà GzÀåªÀÄUÀ½UÉ ¨ÉA§®
(3) ªÀÄÄAzÀĪÀjzÀ ºÁUÀÆ DzsÀĤPÀ
vÀAvÀæeÁÕ£À
(4) ¨sÁjà ¥ÀæªÀiÁtzÀ D¹ÛUÀ¼ÀÄ ºÁUÀÆ
ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ
76. ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ ¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀ PÀA¥À¤UÉ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ
¥ÁægÀA¨sÀ ¥ÀæªÀiÁt¥ÀvÀæªÀ£ÀÄß ______ ¤ÃqÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(1) PÀA¥À¤ ¯Á ¨ÉÆÃqïð
(2) jf¸ÁÖçgï D¥sï PÀA¥À¤
(3) PÀA¥À¤ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀUÀ¼À ªÀÄAvÁæ®AiÀÄ
(4) ¸É©
245 (29 – A )
71. Which of the following statements is not
correct with respect to a private limited
company ?
(1) It need not obtain a certificate of
commencement of business.
(2) It can allot shares without receiving
the maximum subscription.
(3) It does not put any restrictions on
the right of members to transfer
their shares.
(4) It need not hold a statutory meeting
and file a statutory report.
72. Following is not a feature of co-operative
societies :
(1) One share one vote
(2) Service motive
(3) State control
(4) Limited liability
73. The Karta in a Joint Hindu Family
business has
(1) Limited Liability
(2) Unlimited Liability
(3) Joint Liability
(4) No Liability
74. The Board of Directors of a Joint Stock
Company is elected by
(1) Government bodies
(2) Employees
(3) Shareholders
(4) General public
75. Following is not a common feature of
multinational companies :
(1) Operations in several countries
(2) Support for domestic industries
(3) Advanced and sophisticated
technology
(4) Huge assets and turnover
76. Business commencement certificate for a
public limited company is issued by
(1) Company Law Board
(2) Registrar of Companies
(3) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(4) SEBI
245 (30 – A )
77. ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ ¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ ¤zÉÃð±ÀPÀ ªÀÄAqÀ½AiÀÄ ªÉÆzÀ® ¸À¨sÉAiÀÄ°è C£ÀĪÉÆâ¸À®àlÖ £ÉÆÃAzÀt ¥ÀƪÀð M¥ÀàAzÀUÀ¼ÀÄ PɼÀV£À ________ ¤AiÀĪÀÄ ¥ÀÆgÉʹzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀªÉà PÀA¥À¤UÉ §AzsÀ£ÀPÁgÀPÀªÁVgÀÄvÀÛªÉ.
(1) ¸À¨sÉAiÀÄ «±ÉõÀ ¤tðAiÀĪÀ£ÀÄß jf¸ÁÖçgï D¥sï PÀA¥À¤UÉ ¸À°è¹zÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ
(2) £ÉÆÃAzÀt ¥ÀæªÀiÁt ¥ÀvÀæ ¥ÀqÉzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ
(3) ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¥ÁægÀA¨sÀ ¥ÀæªÀiÁt ¥ÀvÀæ ¥ÀqÉzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ
(4) PÀ¤µÀ× ªÀAwUÉ ¥ÀqÉzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ
78. MAzÀÄ ¸ÁªÀðd¤PÀ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄÄ vÀ£ÀUÉ CUÀvÀåªÁzÀ §AqÀªÁ¼ÀªÀ£ÀÄß SÁ¸ÀV M¥ÀàAzÀUÀ¼À ªÀÄÆ®PÀ ¸ÀAUÀ滸À®Ä ¸ÁzsÀåªÁzÀ°è, CzÀÄ _________ C£ÀÄß ¸À°è¸À¨ÉÃPÀÄ.
(1) «ªÀgÀuÁ ¥ÀvÀæ (¥Áæ¸ÉàPÀÖ¸ï)
(2) «ªÀgÀuÁ ¥ÀvÀæzÀ (¥Áæ¸ÉàPÀÖ¸ï) §zÀ° ºÉýPÉ
(3) ªÀiÁgÁl ¤ªÉÃzÀ£ÉAiÀÄ ¥ÀvÀæ
(4) EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ E®è
79. vÉjUÉ ¥ÁªÀw ¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðzÀ°è F PɼÀV£À CA±ÀªÀÅ PÀ¼ÉAiÀÄ®àqÀÄvÀÛzÉ :
(1) DzÀåvÁ ±ÉÃgÀÄUÀ¼À ¯Á¨sÁA±À
(2) ¸Á®¥ÀvÀæUÀ¼À ªÉÄð£À §rØ
(3) (FQén) ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ±ÉÃgÀÄUÀ¼À ¯Á¨sÁA±À
(4) EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è J®èªÀÇ
80. MAzÀÄ J£ï.©.J¥sï.¹.AiÀÄÄ vÀ£Àß ¸ÀéAvÀ ºÀtzÀ ºÀÆrPÉAiÀÄ°è _____ VAvÀ ºÉaÑUÉ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉà MAzÀÄ ªÀåQÛ/¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÉ ¸Á® PÉÆqÀĪÀAw®è.
(1) 15%
(2) 10%
(3) 20%
(4) 18%
81. MAzÀÄ ¤¢ðµÀÖ PÉëÃvÀæzÀ°è vÀ£Àß ¸ÀgÀPÀÄ ºÁUÀÆ ¸ÉêÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ªÀiÁgÀ°aÒ¸ÀĪÀªÀjUÉ MAzÀÄ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄÄ PÉÆqÀĪÀ C¢üPÀÈvÀ ¥ÀgÀªÁ£ÀVAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ________ JAzÀÄ PÀgÉAiÀÄÄvÁÛgÉ.
(1) ¥sÁæAZÉʹAUï
(2) £ÉmïªÀPïð ªÀiÁgÁl
(3) §ºÀĺÀAvÀzÀ ªÀiÁgÁl
(4) EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è
82. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉ ¸Àj¬Ä®è :
(1) vÀªÀÄä ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¸ÀܼÀªÀ£ÀÄß DUÁUÉÎ
§zÀ°¸ÀĪÀ a®ègÉ ªÀiÁgÁlUÁgÀgÀ£ÀÄß
¸ÀAZÁjà a®ègÉ ªÀiÁgÁlUÁgÀgÉAzÀÄ
PÀgÉAiÀÄÄvÁÛgÉ.
(2) ¸ÀÆ¥Àgï ªÀiÁPÉðmïUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£ÀåªÁV
UÁæºÀPÀgÉÆA¢UÉ ªÀåªÀºÀj¸ÀÄvÀÛªÉ.
(3) ¸ÀÆ¥Àgï §eÁgïUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ
¸ÀAWÀUÀ½AzÀ ¸ÀAWÀn¸À®àlÖ a®ègÉ
ªÀiÁgÁl ªÀĽUÉUÀ¼ÀÄ.
(4) UÁæºÀPÀ ¸ÀºÀPÁj ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£ÀåªÁV
£ÀUÀzÀÄ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀªÀ£Éßà ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛªÉ.
245 (31 – A )
77. The preliminary contracts of a public
limited company ratified at its first board
meeting will be binding on the company
only after
(1) Filing a copy of special resolutions
with the Registrar of Companies
(2) Obtaining Certificate of
Incorporation
(3) Obtaining Business Commencement
Certificate
(4) Obtaining minimum subscription
78. If a public company is able to raise the
required capital through private
arguments, it must file
(1) Prospectus
(2) Statement in lieu of prospectus
(3) Letter of offer for sale
(4) None of these
79. Following is a deductible item for
taxation purposes :
(1) Preferential dividend
(2) Debenture interests
(3) Equity dividend
(4) All of these
80. An NBFC should not lend/invest more
than __________ of its own funds to any
single party.
(1) 15%
(2) 10%
(3) 20%
(4) 18%
81. Formal permission given by a company to
someone who wants to sell its goods and
services in a particular area is called
(1) Franchising
(2) Network marketing
(3) Multi-level marketing
(4) None of these
82. State which of the following statements is
not correct :
(1) Retail traders who change their
business place frequently are called
itinerant retailers.
(2) Supermarkets normally deal with
consumers.
(3) Super bazaar is a retail shop
organised by a co-operative society.
(4) Consumer co-operative stores
usually sell products on cash.
245 (32 – A )
83. GíqÅà±Ýp… ÊݱÝÃ Ü Gí¨ÜÃæ
(1) GvÉÛÃd£ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄĪÀÅzÀPÁÌV
ªÀ¸ÀÄÛUÀ¼À£ÀÄß gÀ¥sÀÄÛ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(2) ¸ÀºÁAiÀÄzsÀ£À ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄĪÀÅzÀPÁÌV ¤¢ðµÀÖ
ªÀ¸ÀÄÛUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DªÀÄzÀÄ ªÀiÁrPÉƼÀÄîªÀÅzÀÄ.
(3) ªÀÄgÀÄ gÀ¥sÀÄÛ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀPÁÌV ªÀ¸ÀÄÛUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
DªÀÄzÀÄ ªÀiÁrPÉƼÀÄîªÀÅzÀÄ.
(4) EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è
84. ¨sÁgÀvÀ ¸ÀPÁðgÀ ¤ÃrgÀĪÀ gÀ¥sÀÄÛ GvÉÛÃd£ÀUÀ¼À°è
________ M¼ÀUÉƼÀÄîªÀÅ¢®è.
(1) £ÀUÀzÀÄ ¥ÀjºÁgÀ ¨ÉA§®
(2) DzÁAiÀÄ vÉjUÉ jAiÀiÁ¬Äw
(3) ¨ÁrUÉ ¸ÀºÁAiÀÄzsÀ£À
(4) §rØgÀ»vÀ ¸Á®
85. gÀ¥sÀÄÛ C¥ÁAiÀÄ «gÀÄzÀÞ gÀPÉëUÁV _______ £ÀÄß
¸Àȶ׸À¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ.
(1) L.r.©.L.
(2) Dgï.©.L.
(3) E.¹.f.¹.
(4) F AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è
86. ¸ÀªÀÄÄzÀæ «ªÀiÁ PÁAiÉÄÝAiÀÄ£ÀÄß AiÀiÁªÀ ªÀµÀðzÀ°è eÁjUÉƽ¸À¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ
(1) 1961
(2) 1962
(3) 1963
(4) 1964
87. F ªÀÄÄA¢£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉ ¸ÀjAiÀÄ®è?
(1) «ªÀiÁPÀgÁgÀÄ £ÀµÀÖ ¨sÀwðAiÀÄ PÀgÁgÀÄ DVzÉ.
(2) MAzÀÄ «µÀAiÀÄzÀ §UÉÎ E§âgÀÄ CxÀªÁ ºÉZÀÄÑ «ªÀiÁUÁgÀgÀ°è «ªÉÄ ªÀiÁr¹gÀĪÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß ¢é«ªÉÄ JAzÀÄ PÀgÉAiÀįÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(3) AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉà PÁgÀtPÁÌV ªÀÄÆ® «ªÉÄ ¯Áå¥ïì DzÁUÀ ªÀÄgÀÄ «ªÉÄAiÀÄ£ÀÄß CAvÀåUÉƽ¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
(4) j¸ï̤AzÀ GAmÁzÀ £ÀµÀÖzÀ ¸ÀA§AzsÀzÀ°è £ÀµÀÖ ¥ÀjºÁgÀ ¤ÃqÀ®Ä M¦àPÉÆArgÀĪÀ ªÀåQÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß «ªÀiÁzÁgÀ£É£À߯ÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
88. ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå «ªÀiÁ PÀgÁj£À°è ‘¸ÀgÁ¸Àj RAqÀ’ªÀ£ÀÄß ¸ÉÃj¹gÀĪÀÅzÀÄ ________ £ÀÄß
¸æàvÜÊæ®Ü°Æá.
(1) PÀrªÉÄ ªÉÆvÀÛzÀ «ªÉÄ
(2) CvÀå¢üPÀ ªÉÆvÀÛzÀ «ªÉÄ
(3) zÀÄ¥ÀàlÄÖ «ªÉÄ
(4) ªÀÄgÀÄ «ªÉÄ
245 (33 – A )
83. Entrepot trade means
(1) Exporting of goods to avail
incentives.
(2) Importing of specified goods to avail
subsidies.
(3) Importing of goods for re-exporting.
(4) None of these
84. Export incentives extended by the Indian
Government do not include
(1) Cash compensatory support
(2) Income tax concession
(3) Freight subsidy
(4) Interest free credit
85. To cover export risks _______ has been
created.
(1) IDBI
(2) RBI
(3) ECGC
(4) None of these
86. The Marine Insurance Act was passed in
the year
(1) 1961
(2) 1962
(3) 1963
(4) 1964
87. Which of the following statements is not
true ?
(1) A contract of insurance is a contract
of indemnity.
(2) Subject matter insured with two or
more insurers is known as Double
Insurance.
(3) Re-Insurance can be terminated
when the original insurance has
lapsed for any reason.
(4) The person who agreed to
compensate the losses arising from
the risk is called the Insured.
88. The ‘Average Clause’ is inserted in
General Insurance Contract to discourage
(1) Under Insurance
(2) Over Insurance
(3) Double Insurance
(4) Re-Insurance
245 (34 – A )
89. F ªÀÄÄA¢£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉ ¸ÀvÀåªÀ®è :
(1) AiÀiÁgÉà ¥Á®ÄzÁgÀ£À ªÀÄgÀtzÉÆA¢UÉ
¥Á®ÄzÁjPÉ PÉÆ£ÉUÉƼÀÄîvÀÛzÉ.
(2) ¥Á®ÄzÁgÀgÀÄ vÀªÀÄä ªÉÊAiÀÄQÛPÀ
¸ÀA¥À£ÀÆ䮢AzÀ®Æ ¸ÀºÀ ¸Á®UÀ¼À£ÀÄß
ªÀÄgÀÄ¥ÁªÀw ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä
ºÉÆuÉUÁgÀgÁVgÀÄvÁÛgÉ.
(3) ¥Á®ÄzÁjPÉ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄÄ vÀ£Àß DyðPÀ
ªÀgÀ¢UÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀæPÀn¸À¨ÉÃPÉAzÀÄ PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ
CUÀvÀå¥Àr¸ÀĪÀÅ¢®è.
(4) UÉÆÃ¥Àå ¥Á®ÄzÁgÀ£ÀÄ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ
§AqÀªÁ¼ÀPÉÌ ºÀt ºÀÆrgÀĪÀÅ¢®è.
90. »AzÀÆ PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ F ªÀÄÄA¢£ÀªÀÅUÀ½UÉ
C£ÀéAiÀĪÁUÀĪÀÅ¢®è
(1) ¥Á®ÄzÁjPÉ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ
(2) eÁ¬ÄAmï ¸ÁÖPï PÀA¥À¤
(3) ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ ¸ÀAWÀ
(4) ªÉÄîÌAqÀ J®èªÀÇ
91. PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ zsÉåÃAiÉÆÃzÉÝñÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ªÁåSÁ夸ÀĪÀ
zÁR¯É ¥ÀvÀæ
(1) ¥Áæ¸ÉàPÀÖ¸ï
(2) ¸ÀAWÀzÀ «¢üUÀ¼ÀÄ
(3) ¸ÀAWÀzÀ eÁÕ¥À£À¥ÀvÀæ
(4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è
92. «ªÀiÁPÀAvÀ£ÀÄß ________ CªÀgÀÄ ______
CªÀjUÉ ¸ÀAzÁAiÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÁÛgÉ.
(1) «ªÉÄzÁgÀ, «ªÉÄPÁgÀ
(2) «ªÉÄPÁgÀ, «ªÉÄzÁgÀ
(3) «ªÉÄzÁgÀ, ¥Á°¹zsÁgÀPÀ
(4) «ªÉÄPÁgÀ, ¥Á°¹zsÁgÀPÀ
93. ¦¦J¥sï SÁvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß vÉgÉzÀ _____ ªÀµÀðUÀ¼À
vÀgÀĪÁAiÀÄ ¦¦J¥sï SÁvɬÄAzÀ ¸Á®
¸Ë®¨sÀå vÀqÉAiÀħºÀÄzÀÄ.
(1) 3 ªÀµÀðUÀ¼ÀÄ
(2) 4 ªÀµÀðUÀ¼ÀÄ
(3) 5 ªÀµÀðUÀ¼ÀÄ
(4) 6 ªÀµÀðUÀ¼ÀÄ
94. F ªÀÄÄA¢£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ªÀåªÀºÁgÀPÁÌV ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ
MzÀV¸ÀĪÀ ¢ÃWÁðªÀ¢ü ¨ÁºÀåªÀÄÆ®
AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ?
(1) FQén µÉÃgÀÄ
(2) r¨ÉAZÀgïUÀ¼ÀÄ
(3) jmÉãïØ CjßAUïì
(4) EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è
245 (35 – A )
89. Which of the following statements is not
true ?
(1) Partnership comes to an end with
death of any partner.
(2) Partners are liable to repay debts
even from their personal resources.
(3) A Partnership firm is not legally
required to publish its financial
reports.
(4) Secret partner does not contribute to
the capital of the firm.
90. Hindu law is not applicable to
(1) Partnership Business
(2) Joint Stock Company
(3) Co-operative Society
(4) All of the above
91. The document which defines the
objectives of a company is known as
(1) Prospectus
(2) Articles of Association
(3) Memorandum of Association
(4) None of these
92. Premium is paid by ______ to ______ .
(1) Insured, Insurer
(2) Insurer, Insured
(3) Insured, Policy-holder
(4) Insurer, Policy-holder
93. Loan facility is available from P.P.F
Account after _______ of opening the
account.
(1) 3 years
(2) 4 years
(3) 5 years
(4) 6 years
94. Which one of the following is a long term
external source of Business Finance?
(1) Equity share
(2) Debentures
(3) Retained earnings
(4) None of these
245 (36 – A )
95. PÉÊUÁjPÁ ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ PÉëÃvÀæzÀ°è ________
C¥ÉPïì ¨ÁåAQ£ÀAvÉ ªÀwð¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(1) L.J¥sï.¹.L.
(2) L.¹.L.¹.L.
(3) L.r.©.L.
(4) AiÀÄÄ.n.L.
96. ¸ÁÖPï ªÀiÁPÉðmï£À°è F ªÀÄÄA¢£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è
AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ªÀÄÄPÀÛªÁV ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¤ªÀð»¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(1) f.r.Dgï.
(2) J.r.Dgï.
(3) L.r.Dgï.
(4) ªÉÄð£À J®èªÀÇ
97. F ªÀÄÄA¢£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ eÁUÀwPÀ
¨ÁåAPï JAzÀÄ ¥ÀjUÀt¸À¯ÁVzÉ :
(1) L.JªÀiï.J¥sï.
(2) L.©.Dgï.r.
(3) qÀ§Æèöå.n.M.
(4) AiÀÄÄ.J£ï.¹.n.J.r.
98. ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è ªÁ¸ÀÛªÀªÁV ªÀÄÄåZÀĪÀ¯ï ¥sÀAqï£À ªÀÄÆ® ¤¢ü PÀÄjvÀÄ ªÀåªÀºÀj¸ÀĪÀ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ£ÀÄß F ªÀÄÄA¢£ÀAvÉ PÀgÉAiÀįÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ?
(1) ¥ÁæAiÉÆÃdPÀ PÀA¥À¤
(2) læ¹Ö PÀA¥À¤
(3) D¹Û ¤ªÀðºÀuÁ PÀA¥À¤
(4) ªÀÄÆåZÀĪÀ¯ï ¤¢ü PÀA¥À¤
99. JA.J£ï.¹. UÀ¼À §UÉÎ EgÀĪÀ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå nÃPÉ JAzÀgÉ
(1) JA.J£ï.¹. UÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀézÉñÀUÀ¼À°è GzÉÆåÃUÀ
ºÉZÀѼÀªÀ£ÀÄß PÀÄApvÀUÉƽ¸ÀÄvÀÛªÉ
(2) C©üªÀȢݲî gÁµÀÖçUÀ¼À°è CªÀÅUÀ¼ÀÄ
PÀrªÉÄ DzÀåvÉAiÀÄ PÉëÃvÀæzÀ°è §AqÀªÁ¼À
ºÀÆqÀĪÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ºÉaÑ£À ¯Á¨sÁA±À
¥ÀqÉAiÀÄĪÀ ªÀ®AiÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß PÀAqÀÄ
»rAiÀÄÄvÀÛªÉ
(3) vÉjUÉ vÀ¦à¸ÀÄvÀÛªÉ
(4) ¨É¯ÉUÀ¼À°è ºÀ¸ÀÛPÉëÃ¥À ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛªÉ
100. ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¥ÁægÀA¨sÀ ¸ÀA§A¢ü ¥ÀæªÀiÁt¥ÀvÀæªÀ£ÀÄß F ªÀÄÄA¢£ÀªÀgÀÄ ¤ÃqÀĪÀgÀÄ
(1) PÀA¥À¤UÀ¼À jf¸ÁÖçgï
(2) J¸ï.E.©.L.
(3) PÀA¥À¤ PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ ªÀÄAqÀ°
(4) PÀA¥À¤ PÁAiÀÄðzÀ²ð
245 (37 – A )
95. __________ acts as an Apex bank in the
field of industrial finance.
(1) IFCI
(2) ICICI
(3) IDBI
(4) UTI
96. Which one of the following is/are traded
freely in the stock market ?
(1) GDR
(2) ADR
(3) IDR
(4) All of the above
97. Which of the following is also known as
World Bank ?
(1) IMF
(2) IBRD
(3) WTO
(4) UNCTAD
98. In India, the company which actually
deals with the corpus of the Mutual Fund
is called
(1) Sponsor Company
(2) Trustee Company
(3) Asset Management Company
(4) Mutual Fund Company
99. A common criticism against the MNCs is
(1) MNCs retard growth of employment
in the home country
(2) They find to invest in low priority
and high profit sectors in developing
countries
(3) Avoid taxes
(4) Manipulate prices
100. Business commencement certificate is
issued by
(1) The Registrar of Companies
(2) SEBI
(3) The Company Law Board
(4) The Company Secretary
245 (40 – A )
DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Question Booklet Series
QUESTION BOOKLET
SPECIFIC PAPER
(PAPER II)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately after the commencement of the Examination, before writing the Question Booklet
Series in the OMR sheet, you should check that this Question Booklet does NOT have any unprinted
or torn or missing pages or questions etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete ‘Question Booklet’ of the
available series.
2. Write and encode clearly the Question Booklet Series A, B, C or D, Subject Code and
Register Number in the appropriate space provided for that purpose in the OMR Answer
Sheet. Also ensure that candidate’s signature and Invigilator’s signature columns are
properly filled in. Please note that it is candidate’s responsibility to fill in and encode
these particulars and any omission/discrepancy will render the OMR Answer Sheet liable
for Rejection.
3. You have to enter your Register Number in the
Question Booklet in the box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Question Booklet.
4. This Question Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question contains four responses (answers).
Select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the most appropriate. In any case,
choose ONLY ONE RESPONSE for each question.
5. All the responses should be marked ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided and ONLY in
Black or Blue Ball Point Pen. See detailed instructions in the OMR Answer Sheet.
6. All questions carry equal marks. Attempt all questions. Every question for which wrong answer has been given by the candidate, 1/4th (0.25) of the marks assigned for that question will be deducted.
7. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Question Booklet at the end. You should not make any
marking on any other part of the Question Booklet.
8. Immediately after the final bell indicating the conclusion of the examination, stop making any
further markings in the Answer Sheet. Be seated till the Answer Sheets are collected and accounted
for by the Invigilator.
9. Questions are printed both in Kannada and English. If any confusion arises in the
Kannada Version, please refer to the English Version of the questions. Please note that in
case of any confusion the English Version of the Question Booklet is final.
WÜÊÜá¯Ô : ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜ PܮܰvÜ BÊÜ꣤¿áá D ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á ÊÜááí»ÝWܨÜÈÉ ÊÜáá©ÅÓÜƳqr æ.
A SUBJECT CODE : 245
Register Number
Use of Mobile Phones, Calculators and other Electronic/Communication gadgets of any kind
is prohibited inside the Examination venue.