23
BO4322312 10 OCT 19 SUMMARY OF CHANGES OCT 2019 DASR RELEASE A-1 Additional text introduced in the Oct 19 DASR release is indicated below in red, while deletions are indicated by ►◄. In both cases, the reason for the change is provided in the ‘Rationale’ column. DASR Clause DCP Reference Change Classification Current Text Revised Text / Implemented Change Rationale General Throughout DCP 2019-045 Editorial N/A The following symbol was introduced to identify where non- editorial changes have been introduced in the current version of DASR. The change symbol will appear: a. after a paragraph in which a change has been incorporated, b. after the title of a section in which several changes have been incorporated, or c. before a list in which a change has been incorporated. A change symbol has been introduced to allow users to better identify changes within the DASR. Currently, users are limited to reading this document or the Top Level Changes document, or directly comparing the latest version of the DASR with a previous version to identify the latest changes to the DASR. This approach is an interim measure and will be further developed to improve usefulness. User Guide Nil. DASR Change Symbol A change symbol is used to identify areas where non-editorial changes have been introduced in the current version of DASR. Index Page DCP 2019-047 Editorial DASR - AAP 8000.011 Defence Aviation Safety RegulationRemoval of ‘AAP 8000.011’. AAP 8000.011 Cover Card DASRCover Card Basic Regulation This Appendix applies to occurrence reporting by persons/organisations regulated by AAP 8000.011Defence Aviation Safety Regulation. This Appendix applies to occurrence reporting by persons/organisations regulated by theDefence Aviation Safety Regulation. DASR 21 AMC1 to DASR 21.A.97 DCP 2019-036 Minor Compliance evidence may utilise prior certification by an NAA/NMAA, whose certification is recognised by the Authority, in accordance with DASR AMC 21.A.20 Compliance with the type-certification basis and environmental protection requirements (where applicable) (AUS). Authority inspections may be appointed to individuals outside the Authority or performed by other recognised NAA/NMAAs in accordance with DASR AMC 21.A.33 Investigations and tests (AUS). Compliance evidence may useprior certification by an NAA/NMAA, whose certification is recognised by the Authority, in accordance with AMC to DASR ►◄ 21.A.20 Compliance with the type-certification basis and environmental protection requirements (where applicable) (AUS). Authority inspections may be appointed to individuals outside the Authority or performed by other recognised NAA/NMAAs in accordance with AMC to DASR ►◄ 21.A.33 Investigations and tests (AUS). The AMC pertaining to compliance demonstration is currently published at AMC to DASR 21.A.20. This AMC is also referenced at AMC1 to DASR 21.A.97 as it is entirely applicable to the certification of major changes. The same AMC needs to also be referenced in AMC to DASR 21.A.433(a) (compliance demonstration for repair designs) and AMC to DASR 21.A.608 (compliance demonstration for AUSMTSO items) as the principles of compliance demonstration relief through prior recognised certification are applicable. This will be done by duplicating AMC1 to DASR 21.A.97 in AMC1 to DASR 21.A.433(a) and AMC to DASR 21.A.608(a). This DCP also corrects incorrect nomenclature in AMC1 to 21.A.97 - Major changes (AUS). The current wording reads 'DASR AMC 21.A.20' and 'DASR AMC 21.A.33'. This has been changed to read 'AMC to DASR 21.A.20' and 'AMC to DASR 21.A.33'. AMC1 to DASR 21.A.433(a) Notification of an intended 'MAJOR' Repair requiring Authority approval can be made using DASR Form 31 Notification of MAJOR Change / MAJOR Repair. Submission of DASR Form 31 initiates dialogue that enables the Authority to guide the applicant through the 'MAJOR' Repair approval process. Application for approval of a 'MAJOR' repair design should be made using DASR Form 31B - Application for Approval of MAJOR Repair Design. Notification of an intended 'MAJOR' Repair requiring Authority approval can be made using DASR Form 31 Notification of MAJOR Change / MAJOR Repair. Submission of DASR Form 31 initiates dialogue that enables the Authority to guide the applicant through the 'MAJOR' Repair approval process. Application for approval of a 'MAJOR' repair design should be made using DASR Form 31B - Application for Approval of MAJOR Repair Design. Compliance demonstration evidence may use prior certification by an NAA/NMAA, whose certification is recognised by the Authority, in accordance with AMC to DASR 21.A.20 Compliance with the type-certification basis and environmental protection requirements (where applicable) (AUS). AMC to DASR 21.A.608(a) Nil. AMC 21.A.608(a) - Declaration of Design and Performance (AUS) Compliance demonstration evidence for AUSMTSO Authorisation applications may use prior certification by an NAA/NMAA, whose certification is recognised by the Authority, in accordance with the principles of AMC to DASR 21.A.20 Compliance with the type- certification basis and environmental protection requirements (where applicable) (AUS). DASR 21.A.33(d) DCP 2019-024 Editorial The applicant shall allow the Authority to review any report and make any inspection and to perform or witness any flight and ground test necessary to check the validity of the declaration of compliance submitted by the applicant under DASR 21.A.20(b) The applicant shall allow the Authority to review any report and make any inspection and to perform or witness any flight and ground test necessary to check the validity of the declaration of compliance submitted by the applicant under DASR The declaration of compliance referred to in DASR 21.A.33(d) is at DASR 21.A.20(d), not (b). The cross reference to the declaration of compliance at DASR 21.A.33(d) has been corrected to refer to DASR 21.A.20(d).

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Page 1: SUMMARY OF CHANGES OCT 2019 DASR RELEASE › DASP › Docs › Manuals › ... · For conduct of composite repairs, SAE AIR4938 is the accepted ... safety standards and regulations

BO4322312

10 OCT 19

SUMMARY OF CHANGES – OCT 2019 DASR RELEASE

A-1

Additional text introduced in the Oct 19 DASR release is indicated below in red, while deletions are indicated by ►◄. In both cases, the reason for the change is provided in the ‘Rationale’ column.

DASR Clause DCP Reference Change

Classification Current Text Revised Text / Implemented Change Rationale

General

Throughout DCP 2019-045 Editorial N/A The following symbol was introduced to identify where non-

editorial changes have been introduced in the current version of

DASR. The change symbol will appear:

a. after a paragraph in which a change has been

incorporated,

b. after the title of a section in which several changes have

been incorporated, or

c. before a list in which a change has been incorporated.

A change symbol has been introduced to allow users to better

identify changes within the DASR. Currently, users are

limited to reading this document or the Top Level Changes

document, or directly comparing the latest version of the

DASR with a previous version to identify the latest changes to

the DASR.

This approach is an interim measure and will be further

developed to improve usefulness. User Guide Nil. DASR Change Symbol

A change symbol is used to identify areas where non-editorial

changes have been introduced in the current version of DASR.

Index Page DCP 2019-047 Editorial DASR - AAP 8000.011 ►Defence Aviation Safety Regulation◄ Removal of ‘AAP 8000.011’.

AAP 8000.011 Cover Card ►DASR◄ Cover Card

Basic Regulation This Appendix applies to occurrence reporting by

persons/organisations regulated by AAP 8000.011—Defence

Aviation Safety Regulation.

This Appendix applies to occurrence reporting by

persons/organisations regulated by ►the◄ Defence Aviation

Safety Regulation.

DASR 21

AMC1 to DASR

21.A.97

DCP 2019-036

Minor Compliance evidence may utilise prior certification by an

NAA/NMAA, whose certification is recognised by the Authority,

in accordance with DASR AMC 21.A.20 – Compliance with the

type-certification basis and environmental protection requirements

(where applicable) (AUS). Authority inspections may be appointed

to individuals outside the Authority or performed by other

recognised NAA/NMAAs in accordance with DASR AMC

21.A.33 – Investigations and tests (AUS).

Compliance evidence may ►use◄ prior certification by an

NAA/NMAA, whose certification is recognised by the Authority,

in accordance with AMC to DASR ►◄ 21.A.20 – Compliance

with the type-certification basis and environmental protection

requirements (where applicable) (AUS). Authority inspections may

be appointed to individuals outside the Authority or performed by

other recognised NAA/NMAAs in accordance with AMC to

DASR ►◄ 21.A.33 – Investigations and tests (AUS).

The AMC pertaining to compliance demonstration is currently

published at AMC to DASR 21.A.20. This AMC is also

referenced at AMC1 to DASR 21.A.97 as it is entirely

applicable to the certification of major changes.

The same AMC needs to also be referenced in AMC to DASR

21.A.433(a) (compliance demonstration for repair designs)

and AMC to DASR 21.A.608 (compliance demonstration for

AUSMTSO items) as the principles of compliance

demonstration relief through prior recognised certification are

applicable. This will be done by duplicating AMC1 to DASR

21.A.97 in AMC1 to DASR 21.A.433(a) and AMC to DASR

21.A.608(a).

This DCP also corrects incorrect nomenclature in AMC1 to

21.A.97 - Major changes (AUS). The current wording reads

'DASR AMC 21.A.20' and 'DASR AMC 21.A.33'. This has

been changed to read 'AMC to DASR 21.A.20' and 'AMC to

DASR 21.A.33'.

AMC1 to DASR

21.A.433(a)

Notification of an intended 'MAJOR' Repair requiring Authority

approval can be made using DASR Form 31 – Notification of

MAJOR Change / MAJOR Repair. Submission of DASR Form 31

initiates dialogue that enables the Authority to guide the applicant

through the 'MAJOR' Repair approval process. Application for

approval of a 'MAJOR' repair design should be made using DASR

Form 31B - Application for Approval of MAJOR Repair Design.

Notification of an intended 'MAJOR' Repair requiring Authority

approval can be made using DASR Form 31 – Notification of

MAJOR Change / MAJOR Repair. Submission of DASR Form 31

initiates dialogue that enables the Authority to guide the applicant

through the 'MAJOR' Repair approval process. Application for

approval of a 'MAJOR' repair design should be made using DASR

Form 31B - Application for Approval of MAJOR Repair Design.

Compliance demonstration evidence may use prior certification by

an NAA/NMAA, whose certification is recognised by the

Authority, in accordance with AMC to DASR 21.A.20 –

Compliance with the type-certification basis and environmental

protection requirements (where applicable) (AUS).

AMC to DASR

21.A.608(a)

Nil. AMC 21.A.608(a) - Declaration of Design and Performance

(AUS)

Compliance demonstration evidence for AUSMTSO Authorisation

applications may use prior certification by an NAA/NMAA, whose

certification is recognised by the Authority, in accordance with the

principles of AMC to DASR 21.A.20 – Compliance with the type-

certification basis and environmental protection requirements

(where applicable) (AUS).

DASR

21.A.33(d)

DCP 2019-024 Editorial The applicant shall allow the Authority to review any report and

make any inspection and to perform or witness any flight and

ground test necessary to check the validity of the declaration of

compliance submitted by the applicant under DASR 21.A.20(b)

The applicant shall allow the Authority to review any report and

make any inspection and to perform or witness any flight and

ground test necessary to check the validity of the declaration of

compliance submitted by the applicant under ►DASR

The declaration of compliance referred to in DASR

21.A.33(d) is at DASR 21.A.20(d), not (b). The cross

reference to the declaration of compliance at DASR

21.A.33(d) has been corrected to refer to DASR 21.A.20(d).

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10 OCT 19

A-2

DASR Clause DCP Reference Change

Classification Current Text Revised Text / Implemented Change Rationale

and to determine that no feature or characteristic makes the product

unsafe for the uses for which certification is requested.

21.A.20(d)◄ and to determine that no feature or characteristic

makes the product unsafe for the uses for which certification is

requested.

DASR M

AMC and GM to

DASR

M.A.301(a)(2)

DCP 2019-044 Minor See Annex A. See Annex A. This amendment both removes a significant amount of

Australian unique text to more closely align with

EMAR/EASA requirements and introduces GM to outline the

philosophical principles that should be applied with respect to

the management of defects. In particular, where the CAMO

opts to utilise the flexibility provided in the AMC and GM the

CAMO must clearly define sources of credible data within the

approved Continuing Airworthiness Management Exposition

(CAME).

DASR 145

AMC1 to DASR

145.A.30(f)

DCP 2019-038 Minor For conduct of composite repairs, SAE (AIR) 4938B and SAE

(ARP) 6262 are the accepted standards for training and

certification of personnel.

For conduct of composite repairs, ►SAE AIR4938 is the accepted

standard◄ for training and certification of personnel.

SAE AIR4938 standard has been updated to Revision C. This

revision incorporates the content of SAE (ARP) 6262. In order

to maintain continuity of standard, the revision suffix has been

taken out.

AMC to DASR

145.A.65(a)

DCP 2019-010 Minor The safety and quality policy should as a minimum include a

statement committing the maintenance organisation to:

- Recognise safety as a prime consideration at all times;

- Apply Human factors principles;

- Encourage personnel to report maintenance related

errors/incidents;

- Recognise that compliance with procedures, quality standards,

safety standards and regulations is the duty of all personnel;

- Recognise the need for all personnel to cooperate with the

quality auditors.

The safety and quality policy should as a minimum include a

statement committing the maintenance organisation to:

- Recognise safety as a prime consideration at all times;

- Apply Human factors principles;

- Encourage personnel to report maintenance related

errors/incidents;

- Recognise that compliance with procedures, quality standards,

safety standards and regulations is the duty of all personnel;

- Recognise the need for all personnel to cooperate with the

quality auditors;

- Ensure that safety standards are not reduced by

commercial/operational imperatives;

- Train all maintenance organisation staff to be aware of human

factors and set a continuous training programme in this field.

The European Defence Agency (EDA) Military Airworthiness

Authorities (MAWA) Forum has approved and released

EMAR 145 AMC & GM, Edition 1.3 dated 12 Feb 19.

Two additional dot points have been added to the AMC to

match the two additional statement requirements in the new

Section 1.2 “Safety and quality policy” of Appendix V to

AMC to 145.A.70 Maintenance Organisation Exposition

(MOE).

Appendix to

DASR AMC

145.A.70

Nil. Appendix V to AMC 145.A.70 was added. The EDA MAWA Forum has approved and released EMAR

145 AMC & GM, Edition 1.3 dated 12 Feb 19.

Appendix V to AMC 145.A.70 was added and details the

content of the MOE. It was developed by the MAWA Forum

Continuing Airworthiness Advisory Group on the basis of the

EASA guide UG.CAO.00024-004 “Foreign Part 145

approvals – User guide for Maintenance Organisation

Exposition” dated October 2015.

AMC to DASR

145.A.70(a)

2. The MOE should contain the information, as applicable,

specified in this AMC. The information may be presented in any

subject order as long as all applicable subjects are covered. Where

a maintenance organisation uses a different format, for example, to

allow the MOE to serve for more than one approval, then the MOE

should contain a cross-reference annex using this list as an index

with an explanation as to where the subject matter can be found in

the MOE.

2. The MOE should contain the information, as applicable,

specified in this AMC and in the Appendix V to AMC 145.A.70.

The information may be presented in any subject order as long as

all applicable subjects are covered. ►◄ The MOE should contain

a cross-reference ►◄ list ►◄ with an explanation as to where

►each DASR 145 Section A requirement is addressed◄ in the

MOE.

The EDA MAWA Forum has approved and released EMAR

145 AMC & GM, Edition 1.3 dated 12 Feb 19.

Paragraph reworded to improve clarity and a sentence added

to create a link to the new Appendix V to AMC 145.A.70

(refer to change above).

AMC to DASR

145.A.70(a)

6. The following information should be included in the MOE:

PART 0 GENERAL ORGANISATION

This Section is reserved for:

6. The following information should be included in the MOE:

PART 0 GENERAL ORGANISATION

►0.1 List of effective pages

0.2 List of issues / amendments / record of revisions

0.3 Distribution list

The EDA MAWA Forum has approved and released EMAR

145 AMC & GM, Edition 1.3 dated 12 Feb 19.

The previous text contained in the “PART 0 GENERAL

ORGANISATION” was deleted because it was considered too

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BO4322312

10 OCT 19

A-3

DASR Clause DCP Reference Change

Classification Current Text Revised Text / Implemented Change Rationale

1. A maintenance organisation seeking approval under

DASR 145, which is also part of an Operating

Organisation.

2. An Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) seeking

approval as a maintenance organisation under DASR 145.

For these organisations, among other organisational

aspects, this section should illustrate how the maintenance

organisation will be independent from other

organisational functions (eg design and production /

engineering tasks, operations).

0.4 DASR 145 requirements cross-reference list

0.5 General information◄

specific and with no added value; except for the sentence

“This section/chapter should illustrate how the maintenance

organisation will be independent from other organisational

functions (e.g. production tasks, operations)” which was

moved to the new 0.5 “General information” in the Appendix

V to AMC 145.A.70 (MOE).

PART 1 MANAGEMENT

1.1 Corporate commitment by the Accountable Manager

1.2 Safety and quality policy

1.3 Management personnel

1.4 Duties and responsibilities of management personnel

1.5 Management organisational chart

1.6 List of Certifying Staff and Support Staff

1.7 Manpower resources

1.8 General description of facilities at each address intended to be

approved

1.9 Organisations intended scope of work

1.10 Notification procedure to the NMAA regarding changes to the

maintenance organisation's activities / approvals / locations /

personnel

1.11 MOE amendment procedures including, if applicable,

delegated procedures

PART 1 MANAGEMENT

1.1 Corporate commitment by the Accountable Manager

1.2 Safety and quality policy

1.3 Management personnel

1.4 Duties and responsibilities of management personnel

1.5 Management organisational chart

1.6 List of certifying staff and support staff

1.7 Manpower resources

1.8 General description of facilities at each address intended to be

approved

1.9 Organisations intended scope of work

1.10 Notification procedure to the NMAA regarding changes to the

maintenance organisation's activities/approvals/locations/personnel

1.11 MOE amendment procedures including, if applicable,

delegated procedures

Unique (AUS) green text which should be black as it is

representative of the latest version of the EMAR.

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BO4322312

10 OCT 19

A-4

PART 2 MAINTENANCE PROCEDURES

2.1 Supplier evaluation and contract tasking / control procedure

2.2 Acceptance/inspection of aircraft components and material

from outside contractors / organisations

2.3 Storage, tagging and release of aircraft components and

material to aircraft maintenance

2.4 Acceptance of tools and equipment

2.5 Calibration of tools and equipment

2.6 Use of tooling and equipment by staff (including alternative

tools)

2.7 Cleanliness standards of maintenance facilities

2.8 Maintenance instructions and relationship to aircraft/aircraft

component manufacturers’ instructions including updating and

availability to staff

2.9 Repair procedures

2.10 Aircraft maintenance programme compliance

2.11 Airworthiness directives procedure

2.12 Optional modification procedure

2.13 Maintenance documentation in use and completion of same

2.14 Technical records control

2.15 Rectification of defects arising during base maintenance

2.16 Release to Service procedure

2.17 Maintenance records for the CAMO

2.18 Reporting of defects to DASA / CAMO / (Military) TC / STC

holder

2.19 Return of defective aircraft components to store

2.20 Management of defective components with outside

contractors / organisations

2.21 Control of computer maintenance records systems

2.22 Control of manhour planning versus scheduled maintenance

work

2.23 Control of critical tasks

2.24 Reference to specific procedures such as:

- Engine running procedures

- Aircraft pressurisation procedures

- Aircraft towing procedures

- Aircraft taxiing procedures

- Aircraft military specific systems procedures

2.25 Procedures to detect and rectify maintenance errors

2.26 Shift / task handover procedures

2.27 Procedures for notification of maintenance data inaccuracies

and ambiguities, to the NMAA / (Military) TC / STC holder

2.28 Maintenance planning procedures

PART L2 ADDITIONAL LINE MAINTENANCE

PROCEDURES

L2.1 Line maintenance control of aircraft components, tools,

equipment, etc.

L2.2 Line maintenance procedures related to servicing / fuelling /

de-icing including inspection for / removal of de-icing / anti-icing

fluid residues, etc.

L2.3 Line maintenance control of defects and repetitive defects

L2.4 Line procedure for completion of technical log

L2.5 Line procedure for pooled parts and loan parts

L2.6 Line procedure for return of defective parts removed from

aircraft

L2.7 Line procedure control of critical tasks

PART 2 MAINTENANCE PROCEDURES

2.1 Supplier evaluation and contract/tasking control procedure

2.2 Acceptance/inspection of aircraft components and material

►◄

2.3 Storage, tagging and release of aircraft components and

material to aircraft maintenance

2.4 Acceptance of tools and equipment

2.5 Calibration of tools and equipment

2.6 Use of tooling and equipment by staff (including alternative

tools)

2.7 Cleanliness standards of maintenance facilities

2.8 Maintenance instructions and relationship to aircraft/aircraft

component manufacturers’ instructions including updating and

availability to staff

2.9 Repair procedures

2.10 Aircraft maintenance programme compliance

2.11 Airworthiness directives procedure

2.12 Optional modification procedure

2.13 Maintenance documentation in use and completion of same

2.14 Technical records control

2.15 Rectification of defects arising during base maintenance

2.16 Release to service procedure

2.17 ►◄ Records for the CAMO

2.18 Reporting of defects ►◄

2.19 Return of defective aircraft components to store

2.20 Management of defective components with outside

contractors/organisations

2.21 Control of computer maintenance records system►◄

2.22 Control of manhour planning versus scheduled maintenance

work

2.23 Control of critical maintenance tasks

2.24 Reference to specific maintenance procedures ►◄

2.25 Procedures to detect and rectify maintenance errors

2.26 Shift / task handover procedures

2.27 Procedures for notification of maintenance data inaccuracies

and ambiguities to the ►author of the maintenance data◄

2.28 Maintenance planning procedures

PART L2 ADDITIONAL LINE MAINTENANCE

PROCEDURES

L2.1 Line maintenance control of aircraft components, tools,

equipment, etc.

L2.2 Line maintenance procedures related to servicing/fuelling/de-

icing including inspection for/removal of de-icing/anti-icing fluid

residues, etc.

L2.3 Line maintenance control of defects and repetitive defects

L2.4 Line procedure for completion of technical log

L2.5 Line procedure for pooled parts and loan parts

L2.6 Line procedure for return of defective parts removed from

aircraft

L2.7 Line procedure control of critical maintenance tasks

The EDA MAWA Forum has approved and released EMAR

145 AMC & GM, Edition 1.3 dated 12 Feb 19.

Change to 2.2: Deleted to keep consistency with 2.2 title

(Appendix V to AMC 145.A.70: MOE) which include the

“Acceptance / inspection of items from internal sources”.

Change to 2.17: To align with Section 2.17 title (Appendix V

to AMC 145.A.70: MOE).

Change to 2.18: Deleted to be more generic and to align with

Section 2.18 title (Appendix V to AMC 145.A.70: MOE).

Change to 2.21: To align with Section 2.21 title (Appendix V

to AMC 145.A.70: MOE).

Change to 2.23: To align with Section 2.23 title (Appendix V

to AMC 145.A.70: MOE).

Change to 2.24: The examples of the specific maintenance

procedures in 2.24 were deleted as they were not adding value

and the list was not exhaustive.

Change to 2.27: Modified to keep consistency with AMC/GM

EMAR 145.A.45 (c) and to align with Section 2.27 title

(Appendix V to AMC 145.A.70: MOE).

Change to L2.7: To align with Section L2.7 title (Appendix V

to AMC 145.A.70: MOE).

Note that unique (AUS) green text should be black text.

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BO4322312

10 OCT 19

A-5

DASR Clause DCP Reference Change

Classification Current Text Revised Text / Implemented Change Rationale

PART 3 QUALITY SYSTEM PROCEDURES

3.A Safety Management Systems (SMS) (AUS)

3.1 Quality audit of organisation procedures

3.2 Quality audit of aircraft and components

3.3 Quality audit remedial action procedure

3.4 Certifying staff and support staff- qualification and training

3.5 Certifying staff and support staff records

3.6 Procedures qualifying of quality audit personnel

3.7 Procedures qualifying of supervisors

3.8 Procedures qualifying of maintenance personnel

3.9 Aircraft or aircraft component maintenance tasks deviation

process control

3.10 Concession control for deviation from organisations’

procedures

3.11 Qualification procedure for specialised activities such as

NDT, welding, etc.

3.12 Control of manufacturers’ and other maintenance working

teams

3.13 Human factors training procedure

3.14 Competence assessment of personnel

3.15 Procedures qualifying of training procedures for On-the-Job

Training as per Section 6 of Appendix III to DASR 66

3.16 Procedure for the issue of a recommendation to the NMAA

for the issue of a MAML, in accordance with DASA Instructions

(to be issued).

PART 3 QUALITY SYSTEM PROCEDURES

3.A Safety Management Systems (SMS) (AUS)

3.1 Quality audit of maintenance organisation procedures

3.2 Quality audit of aircraft and/or components

3.3 Quality audit remedial action procedure

3.4 Certifying staff and support staff- qualification and training

3.5 Certifying staff and support staff records

3.6 Procedures for qualifying of quality audit personnel

3.7 Procedures for qualifying of ►inspectors◄

3.8 Procedures for qualifying of maintenance personnel

3.9 Aircraft or aircraft component maintenance tasks deviation

process control

3.10 Concession control for deviation from the maintenance

organisations’ procedures

3.11 Qualification procedure for specialised activities such as

NDT, welding, etc.

3.12 Control of manufacturers’ and other maintenance working

teams

3.13 Human factors training procedure

3.14 Competence assessment of personnel

3.15 ►◄ Training procedures for On-the-Job Training as per

Section 6 of Appendix III to DASR 66

3.16 Procedure for the issue of a recommendation to the NMAA

for the issue of a ►DASR 66 licence◄ in accordance with DASA

Instructions (to be issued).

The EDA MAWA Forum has approved and released EMAR

145 AMC & GM, Edition 1.3 dated 12 Feb 19.

Change to 3.1: To align with Section 3.1 title (Appendix V to

AMC 145.A.70: MOE).

Change to 3.2: To align with Section 3.2 title (Appendix V to

AMC 145.A.70: MOE).

Change to 3.7: “supervisors” replaced by “inspectors” to align

with Section 3.7 title (Appendix V to AMC 145.A.70: MOE).

Harmonisation with the wording used in the EASA guide for

“Foreign Part 145 approvals – User guide for MOE”.

Change to 3.10: To align with Section 3.10 title (Appendix V

to AMC 145.A.70: MOE).

Change to 3.15: Removal of green text (AUS) to align with

EMAR.

Change to 3.16: To align with Section 3.16 title (Appendix V

to AMC 145.A.70: MOE).

PART 4 OPERATIONS

This section is reserved for describing the procedures, paperwork

and records associated with the CAMOs that place tasks on the

AMO / Tasking CAMO.

4.1 Contracting / tasking CAMO

4.2 CAMO procedures / paperwork

4.3 CAMO records completion

PART 4 OPERATIONS

This section is reserved for describing the procedures, paperwork

and records associated with the CAMOs that place tasks on the

AMO / Tasking CAMO.

4.1 Contracting / tasking CAMO

4.2 CAMO procedures ►and◄ paperwork

4.3 CAMO records completion

The EDA MAWA Forum has approved and released EMAR

145 AMC & GM, Edition 1.3 dated 12 Feb 19.

Change to 4.2: To align with Section 4.2 title (Appendix V to

AMC 145.A.70: MOE).

PART 5

5.A Compliance Matrix (AUS)

5.1 Sample of documents

5.2 List of contractors / tasked organisations in accordance with

DASR 145.A.75(b)

5.3 List of Line maintenance locations in accordance with DASR

145.A.75(d)

5.4 List of contracted / tasked organisations in accordance with

DASR 145.A.70(a)(16)

PART 5

5.A Compliance Matrix (AUS)

5.1 Sample of documents

5.2 List of contracted/tasked maintenance organisations ►as per◄

DASR 145.A.75(b)

5.3 List of Line maintenance locations ►as per◄ DASR

145.A.75(d)

5.4 List of contracted/tasked maintenance organisations ►as per◄

DASR 145.A.70(a)(16)

The EDA MAWA Forum has approved and released EMAR

145 AMC & GM, Edition 1.3 dated 12 Feb 19.

Change to 5.2: To align with Section 5.2 title (Appendix V to

AMC 145.A.70: MOE) and to harmonise with the wording

used in the whole document.

Change to 5.3: To align with Section 5.3 title (Appendix V to

AMC 145.A.70: MOE)

Change to 5.4: To align with Section 5.4 title (Appendix V to

AMC 145.A.70: MOE).

AMC to DASR

145.A.50(e)

DCP 2019-044 Minor See Annex B. See Annex B. This amendment both removes a significant amount of

Australian unique text to more closely align with the

EMAR/EASA requirements and introduces GM to outline the

philosophical principles that should be applied with respect to

the management of defects. In particular, where the CAMO

opts to utilise the flexibility provided in the AMC and GM the

CAMO must clearly define sources of credible data within the

approved Continuing Airworthiness Management Exposition

(CAME).

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DASR 66

AMC1 to DASR

66.A.30(a)(5)

(ii)

DCP 2019-035 Minor 1. Military Tertiary Qualified (TQ) engineers are eligible for a

category C licence 12 months after completing the relevant

Service’s engineering officer initial employment training,

completion of Type course(s) relevant to their position and no less

that 6 months observation of Base maintenance.

1. Military Tertiary Qualified (TQ) engineers are eligible for a

category C licence 12 months after completing the relevant

Service’s engineering officer initial employment training,

completion of Type course(s) relevant to their ►qualification and

category (AERO or ELECTR (E)) and role in the DASR 145

organisation. The phrase '6 months of observation of Base

maintenance' means that the TQ engineer is to understudy and be

mentored by C category licence holder(s) such that the engineer is

competent to exercise the privileges of the C licence holder when

he/she becomes eligible for it.◄

Para 1 of AMC1 to 66.A.30(a)(5)(ii) has been reworded to

remove the vague/ambiguous term 'their position' in the

original text.

GM to DASR

66.A.20(a)(6)

DCP 2019-017 Editorial 1. For the avoidance of doubt, ‘certification’ in paragraph DASR

66.A.20(a)6) refers to the act of signing a Certificate of Release to

Service after the completion of base maintenance.

2. In the Australian context, the term ‘competent mechanics’ refers

to individuals who hold an appropriate qualification or Statement

of Attainment; have the appropriate training and experience for the

particular maintenance tasks they are performing or supervising

and are authorised by the DASR 145 maintenance organisation to

certify (sign for) the maintenance they have performed or

supervised.

►◄ Clarification of GM to DASR 66.A.20(a)(6) was highlighted

by DQF 2019-023. As a result:

1. Paragraph 1 of GM to DASR 66.A.20(a)(6) was removed

because it held no relevance to DASR 66.A.20(a)(6).

2. Paragraph 2 of GM to DASR 66.A.20(a)(6) was relocated

to GM to DASR 66.A.20.

3. Paragraph 2 of GM to DASR 66.A.20 was reworded to

improve clarity/readability.

GM to DASR

66.A.20

1. The requirement for licence holders to issue a Certificate of

Release to Service (CRS) applies only when on-aircraft

maintenance has occurred. Off-aircraft (component) maintenance

does not require the use of a licence holder to sign the DASR Form

1.

2. Where DASR 66 uses terms such as ‘exercising certification

privileges’ it means the act of issuing a CRS, by a licence holder

who has been authorised by the DASR 145 maintenance

organisation, following on-aircraft maintenance.

1. The requirement for licence holders to issue a Certificate of

Release to Service (CRS) applies only when on-aircraft

maintenance has occurred. Off-aircraft (component) maintenance

does not require the use of a licence holder to sign the DASR Form

1.

2. ►◄ Terms such as ‘exercising certification privileges’ ►in

DASR 66.A.20 refer to an authorised licence holder◄ issuing a

CRS ►◄ following on-aircraft maintenance.

3. In the Australian context, the term ‘competent mechanics’ refers

to individuals who hold an appropriate qualification or Statement

of Attainment; have the appropriate training and experience for the

particular maintenance tasks they are performing or supervising

and are authorised by the DASR 145 maintenance organisation to

certify (sign for) the maintenance they have performed or

supervised.

Annex A to

DASR 66

2. Examination credit report

a. The credit report shall include a comparison between:

1. the modules, sub-modules, subjects and knowledge

levels contained in Appendix I to DASR 66, as

applicable; and

2. the syllabus of the technical qualification concerned

relevant to the particular category being sought.

This comparison shall state if compliance is demonstrated and

contain the justifications for each statement.

a. Credit for examinations, other than basic knowledge

examinations carried out in Maintenance Training

Organisations approved in accordance with DASR 147, can

only be granted by the NMAA.

b. No credit can be granted unless there is a statement of

compliance against each module and sub-module, stating

2. Examination credit report

a. The credit report shall include a comparison between:

1. the modules, sub-modules, subjects and knowledge

levels contained in Appendix I to DASR 66, as

applicable; and

2. the syllabus of the technical qualification concerned

relevant to the particular category being sought.

NOTE: This comparison shall state if compliance is

demonstrated and contain the justifications for each

statement.

►b◄. Credit for examinations, other than basic knowledge

examinations carried out in Maintenance Training

Organisations approved in accordance with DASR 147, can

only be granted by the NMAA.

Updating paragraph lettering to improve readability.

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where, in the technical qualification, the equivalent standard

can be found.

c. The NMAA shall check on a regular basis if changes to the

credit report are required due to changes to the national

qualification standard or Appendix I to DASR 66. Such

changes shall be documented, dated and recorded.

►c◄. No credit can be granted unless there is a statement of

compliance against each module and sub-module, stating

where, in the technical qualification, the equivalent standard

can be found.

►d◄. The NMAA shall check on a regular basis if changes

to the credit report are required due to changes to the national

qualification standard or Appendix I to DASR 66. Such

changes shall be documented, dated and recorded.

DASR 147

DASR

147.A.139

DCP 2019-027

Major 147.A.139 - Reporting qualifications to the DASA (AUS)

(a) Within four weeks of issuing any certificate in accordance

with DASR 147.A.145(a)4, the MTO shall provide DASA

(DCA) with a copy of the certificate.

(b) If an MTO assesses a foreign licence for RPL, the MTO

must include in a report to DASA (DAVCOMP) a

statement about how the qualification matches the licence

syllabus requirements.

►◄ DASR 147.A.139 is an Australian-unique clause, modelled off

a similar CASR clause. At the time DASR 147 was drafted,

CASA’s clause was considered to be appropriate as it would

allow Licensing and Training of Personnel (LTP) staff to

proactively issue: licences, or changes to licences.

Additionally, at the time of drafting the clause it was not

possible to automatically download training data from

PMKeyS. The licencing tool now has that capability and

DASA 66 staff update ADF aviation technical training data on

a monthly basis; removing the need for DASR 147

organisations to report training outcomes. AMC to DASR

147.A.139(a) AMC 147.A.139(a) - Reporting qualifications (AUS)

Where the MTO reports course completions in PMKeyS, it is

acceptable for the MTO to provide the course name, PMKeyS

proficiency number and list of graduates’ names and PMKeyS

identification numbers to DASA.

►◄

DASR SMS

DASR SMS DCP 2019-017 Editorial N/A Editorial changes made to correct spelling mistakes, and

grammatical and formatting errors.

Correction of spelling mistakes, and grammatical and

formatting errors were made to improve readability.

DASR MED

AMC to DASR

MED.15.A

DCP 2019-040

Minor See Annex C. See Annex C.

AMC is updated with contemporary requirements as

researched and compiled by RAAF Institute of Aviation

Medicine (IAM).

Numerous changes to AMC and tabulated minimum

Temporary Medically Unfit For Flying (TMUFF) data.

GM to DASR

MED.15.A

1. Purpose. The purpose of this regulation is to assure personnel

engaged in flying duties, noting they will already have a current

medical certificate, remain medically fit to do so through effective

health management. Factors such as injury or disease can adversely

affect medical fitness, both in the short and long-term, but may not

require assessment of the person’s medical certificate. Apart from

serious pathological conditions, fitness may be compromised as a

result of various extraneous factors that may require a member to

be deemed temporarily medically unfit for flying duties (TMUFF).

2. TMUFF may be recommended by:

a. any health care provider

b. commanders and supervisors

c. the individual concerned (self-imposed TMUFF).

3. Authority. The MAO, or a delegated command authority, has

final authority regarding authorisation of personnel to perform

flying related duties, including TMUFF reversal.

4. Applicability - Remote Pilot (RP):

1. Purpose. The purpose of this regulation is to assure personnel

engaged in ►aviation-related◄ duties ►◄ remain medically fit

to do so through effective health management. Noting they will

have a current medical certificate, factors such as injury or

►illness◄ can adversely affect medical fitness, both in the short

and long-term, but may not require assessment of the person’s

medical certificate. ►◄ TMUFF may be recommended by:

a. any health care provider

b. commanders and supervisors

c. the individual concerned (self-imposed TMUFF).

2. Authority. The MAO, or a delegated command authority, has

final authority regarding authorisation of personnel to perform

►aviation-related◄ duties, including TMUFF reversal.

3. Applicability - Remote Pilot (RP):

a. DASR.15.A is applicable for all UAS operations under

the Certified UAS category.

b. DASR.15.A is applicable to UAS operations under a

UASOP (Specified Type A) category if the UASOP

Rewording of Paragraph 1 of GM to DASR MED.15.A to

improve clarity.

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a. DASR.15.A is applicable for all UAS operations under

the Certified UAS category.

b. DASR.15.A is applicable to UAS operations under a

UASOP (Specifed Type A) category if the UASOP

specifies requirement for the RP to hold a current aviation

medical certificate.

c. DASR.15.A is not applicable to UAS operations under

Standard Scenario (Specific Type B) or Open category.

specifies requirement for the RP to hold a current aviation

medical certificate.

c. c. DASR.15.A is not applicable to UAS operations under

Standard Scenario (Specific Type B) or Open category.

DASR SPA

DASR

SPA.05(a)

DCP 2019-039

Minor OIP issued under this regulation must ensure that, where

applicable, rules and requirements are defined that address:

1. flypasts and flying displays

2. formation flying

3. airborne emergency training

4. missions and tasks involving search and rescue and

aeromedical evacuation1 Aeromedical evacuation

regulated under DASR SPO

5. missions and tasks involving civil and community support

activities

6. missions and tasks involving use of automated flight

control, Communication, Navigation and Surveillance

(CNS) and Air Traffic Management Systems (ATMS)

7. flights involving interaction with UAS

8. any other task or mission which requires special

consideration.

The MAO must ensure promulgation of OIP ►◄ that addresses,

where applicable, rules and requirements ►relating to◄:

1. flypasts and flying displays

2. formation flying

3. airborne emergency training

4. missions and tasks involving search and rescue and

aeromedical evacuation1 Aeromedical evacuation

regulated under DASR SPO

5. missions and tasks involving civil and community support

activities

6. missions and tasks involving use of automated flight

control, Communication, Navigation and Surveillance

(CNS) and Air Traffic Management Systems (ATMS)

7. flights involving interaction with UAS

8. any other task or mission which requires special

consideration.

DASR.SPA.05(a) rewritten to clearly articulate the action

required of the Military Air Operator (MAO). The intent of

the regulation has not changed.

DASR AO.Gen

GM to

AO.GEN.05.A

DCP 2018-047 Minor 1. Air operational OIP includes:

a. Aircrew manuals (including the aircraft flight manual)

specific to the aircraft type.

b. General aircrew publications.

c. Defence Instructions.

d. Standing Instructions.

e. Flying Orders, Special Flying Instructions and Standard

Operating Procedures.

f. Flight Information Documents (FID) published as part of

the Defence Aeronautical Information Package (AIP).

1. Air operational OIP includes:

a. Aircrew manuals (including the aircraft flight manual)

specific to the aircraft type.

b. General aircrew publications.

c. Defence Instructions.

d. Standing Instructions.

e. Flying Orders, Special Flying Instructions and Standard

Operating Procedures.

f. Flight Information Documents (FID) published as part of

the Defence Aeronautical Information Package (AIP).

2. Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM) is a document regulated by

DASR 21J. AFM is a manual, associated with Military Type

Certificate (MTC), containing limitations within which the aircraft

is to be considered airworthy, and instructions and information

necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the

aircraft.

3. The MAO has publication responsibilities of the Aircraft Flight

Manual (AFM) under an OIP Management System. The individual

obligations of the MTCH and the MAO under the DASR are

differentiated as follows:

a. The MTCH has obligations under DASR 21.A.57 to

produce, maintain and update the technical data and

instructions of the master copy AFM defined by the type

certification basis of the platform.

b. The MAO has obligations under DASR AO.GEN.05.A to

maintain accuracy, applicability and approval of the AFM

through a management system of their Orders,

Clarification that the Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM) is a

Military Type Certificate Holder (MTCH) document and is

amended under DASR Part 21 Subpart J. The Military Air

Operator (MAO) does not have the authority to change the

AFM without MTCH approval.

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Instructions and Publications (OIP). This gives

publication responsibility, but does not give the MAO an

authority to amend. Additionally, the MAO, as part of

their OIP Management System is required to form a

documented agreement with the MTCH under DASR

AO.GEN.05.C.

GM to

AO.GEN.05.D

1. Purpose. The Defence operational airworthiness concept

requires that aviation systems be operated to approved standards

and limitations. OIP promote the attainment of a known level of

safety for aviation operations rules by establishing boundaries for

conduct of aviation operations.

2. This regulation is applicable to all aviation publications

developed and maintained at the Group, Wing and Unit levels as

part of the FMS supporting operational airworthiness.

1. Purpose. The Defence operational airworthiness concept

requires that aviation systems be operated to approved standards

and limitations. OIP promote the attainment of a known level of

safety for aviation operations rules by establishing boundaries for

conduct of aviation operations.

2. This regulation is applicable to all aviation publications

developed and maintained at the Group, Wing and Unit levels as

part of the FMS supporting operational airworthiness.

3. AAP Policy documents both a method of Publication

Management and Publication Specifications. This series:

a. recommends a sponsor’s responsibilities

b. provides guidance about the responsibilities of a

Publication Sponsor in the management of Defence

aviation publications

c. recommends a system for management and review of OIP

and data used in the operation of Defence registered

aircraft.

AMC to

AO.GEN.05.D

N/A Addition of “MTC holder delegate”, removal of “technical”

airworthiness term and removal of references to individual

Australian Air Publications (AAP).

The term “technical” airworthiness is a legacy term from

TAREGs.

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Intentionally Left Blank

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ANNEX A: Update to AMC and GM to DASR M.A.301(a)(2) – Continuing airworthiness tasks (Oct 2019 release)

A-1

Current Text

Revised Text

AMC M.A.301(a)(2) Continuing airworthiness tasks

1. The CAMO should have a system to ensure that all defects affecting the safe operation of the aircraft are rectified within the

limits prescribed by the approved minimum equipment list (MEL) or configuration deviation list (CDL) as appropriate. Also

that such defect rectification cannot be postponed/deferred unless agreed by the CAMO and in accordance with a procedure

compliant with DASR 145.A.50, DASR M.A.708(b)6 and DASR.SPA.10 approved by the NMAA:

a. This procedure may include provisions to delegate the CAMO deferred defect agreement authority (operational and

logistics assessment) to DASR 145 or equivalent personnel.

b. Any aircraft defect that does not endanger flight safety should be rectified as soon as practicable after the date the

aircraft defect was first identified and within any limits specified in the MEL, CDL or maintenance data, as

appropriate.

c. Any defect not rectified before flight should be recorded in the DASR M.A.305—Aircraft continuing airworthiness

record system, or DASR M.A.306—Aircraft technical log, as applicable.

2. A system of assessment should be in operation to support the continuing airworthiness of an aircraft and to provide a

continuous analysis of the effectiveness of the M.A. Subpart G approved continuing airworthiness management

organisation’s defect control system in use.

3. The system should provide for:

a. significant incidents and defects: monitor incidents and defects that have occurred in flight and defects found during

maintenance and overhaul, highlighting any that appear significant in their own right.

b. repetitive incidents and defects: monitor on a continuous basis defects occurring in flight and defects found during

maintenance and overhaul, highlighting any that are repetitive.

c. deferred defects: Monitor on a continuous basis deferred defects. Deferred defects are defined as those defects

reported in operational service or arising during maintenance which are deferred for rectification at a later

maintenance input.

d. unscheduled removals and system performance: analyse unscheduled component removals and the performance of

aircraft systems for use as part of the maintenance programme efficiency.

e. review the use of Command Clearance and the management of any defects subject to a Command Clearance.

4. When deferring a defect the cumulative effect of a number of deferred defects occurring on the same aircraft and any

restrictions contained in the MEL should be considered. Whenever possible, deferred defects should be made known to the

pilot / flight crew prior to their arrival at the aircraft.

MANAGEMENT OF DEFECTS

ADF Commanders may, at times, be expected to operate Defence aircraft with non-standard changes to Configuration, Role

and Environment (CRE) such as defects, modifications and flight operations outside the aircraft’s certification basis. In

most circumstances, the Initial/Continued/Continuing Airworthiness regulations permit authorisation of flight with non-

standard CRE; however, under certain circumstances, the DASR provides additional flexibility to allow commanders to

AMC M.A.301(a)(2) Continuing airworthiness tasks

1. The CAMO should have a system to ensure that all defects affecting the safe operation of the aircraft are rectified within the

limits prescribed by credible data as described at DASR GM M.A.301(a)(2) and includes the approved Minimum

Equipment List (MEL) or Configuration Deviation List (CDL) ►or national equivalents◄. ►◄ Such defect rectification

cannot be postponed/deferred unless agreed by the CAMO and in accordance with a procedure ►◄ approved by the

NMAA.

►◄

2. A system of assessment should be ►established◄ to support the continuing airworthiness of ►the◄ aircraft and to

provide a continuous analysis of the effectiveness of the ►CAMO’s◄ defect control system in use.

3. The system should provide for:

a. significant incidents and defects: monitor incidents and defects that have occurred in flight and defects found during

maintenance ►◄, highlighting any that appear significant in their own right.

b. repetitive incidents and defects: monitor on a continuous basis defects occurring in flight and defects found during

maintenance ►◄, highlighting any that are repetitive.

c. deferred defects: monitor on a continuous basis deferred defects, including defects deferred by a Command

Clearance. Deferred defects are defined as those defects reported in operational service or arising during

maintenance which are deferred for rectification at a later maintenance input.

d. unscheduled removals and system performance: analyse unscheduled component removals and the performance of

aircraft systems for use as part of the ►AMP◄ efficiency.

e. ►◄

4. When deferring a defect the cumulative effect of a number of deferred defects occurring on the same aircraft and any

restrictions contained in the credible data as described at DASR GM M.A.301(a)(2), including MEL/CDL or national

equivalents, should be considered. ►◄ Deferred defects should be made known to the pilot / flight crew prior to their

►pre-flight inspection of◄ the aircraft.

►◄

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A-2

operate Defence aircraft at higher levels of risk to achieve non-discretionary activities in support of Australia’s national

interests. The DASR.SPA.10—Command Clearance, process provides this flexibility as a provision of Operational

Airworthiness. Command Clearances still require compliance with WHS legislation and must only be used when all other

options have been exhausted and an operational imperative justifies flight.

Refer to AC 005 / 2018 Amangement of Defects for further details on the flexibility provisions stated within this AMC.

5. The following three Flexibility Provisions are available under the Initial / Continued / Continuing Airworthiness regulations

for the management of defects:

a. Flexibility Provision 1. The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) or Configuration Deviation List (CDL) Flexibility

Provision, if available.

b. Flexibility Provision 2. The process where no MEL / CDL exists or the defect is not covered by the MEL / CDL.

c. Flexibility Provision 3. The CAMO management process for defects.

6. Flexibility Provisions 1 through 3 are covered under Initial / Continued / Continuing Airworthiness approvals (DASR M /

145) and instruments (Designs / MPTF) subject to MAA approval and issue whereas Command Clearance, which is an

Operational Airworthiness instrument, is authorised via the command chain.

7. The following section further describes Flexibility Provisions 1, 2 and 3 above.

Flexibility Provision 1 - MEL / CDL

8. An NMAA approved MEL or CDL developed by the operating organisation for the aircraft it operates using the Master

Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) can be used by the appropriately authorised certifying staff in a DASR 145 (or

equivalent) organisation to defer a defect. Importantly the CAMO must agree to defer the defect after consideration of

logistic and/or operational factors. The CAMO may decide to either:

a. agree to the deferment, allowing the issue of a CRS for the aircraft. The deferred defect, along with any associated

limitations, must be documented in the aircraft technical log.

b. disagree to the deferment for logistical or operational reasons and task the DASR 145 maintenance organisation to

rectify the defect.

Flexibility Provision 2 – No MEL/CDL

9. When an ADF aircraft does not have an approved MEL or the situation in question is not listed in the approved MEL, an

assessment (by authorised certifying staff) needs to be conducted to determine whether the defect does or does not

‘endanger flight safety’. Following this assessment there are two options:

a. If the assessment determines that the defect does not ‘endanger flight safety’ the defect can be deferred but

importantly must be passed to the CAMO for agreement to defer the defect after consideration of logistic and/or

operational factors. The CAMO may decide to either:

i. agree to the deferment, allowing the issue of a CRS for the aircraft. The deferred defect, along

with any associated limitations, must be documented in the aircraft technical log.

ii. disagree to the deferment for logistical or operational reasons and task the DASR 145

maintenance organisation to rectify the defect.

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b. If the assessment determines that the defect does/could possibly ’endanger flight safety’, or there is insufficient data

to inform the decision, then the defect can be managed using Flexibility Provision 3 process outlined below.

Flexibility Provision 3 – CAMO Management

10. If the outcome of the Flexibility Provision 2 assessment results in the DASR 145 authorised certifying staff determining that

the defect does / could possibly ‘endanger flight safety’, there is insufficient data to inform the decision or the CAMO does

not agree to the deferment, the CAMO has the following options:

a. Additional Data. The CAMO has the option to provide the DASR 145 organisation with additional data such as

OEM data or Field Service Representative advice that can further inform the DASR 145 certifying staff in making

the ‘endanger flight safety’ assessment.

b. Rectify Defect. The CAMO may decide not to defer the defect and to task the DASR 145 Maintenance Organisation

to rectify the defect.

c. Life Extension. The CAMO may provide a life extension by repackaging life within an existing Airworthiness

Limitation, in accordance with DASR GM M.A.301(a)(3).

d. Approved Repair. The CAMO may seek design support, such as an approved repair or an approval to operate aircraft

with certain limitations, from a DASR 21J design organisation (or MAA as appropriate).

e. Military Permit to Fly. The CAMO may seek a MPTF (issued by the NMAA or a DASR21J, if privileged) in

accordance with DASR 21.A.701.

Operation Airworthiness Flexibility Provision—Command Clearance

11. The nature of military operations is such that commanders require additional flexibility outside the scope of continuing

airworthiness, to succeed in their mission. Ideally, these circumstances should be managed via a MPTF; however, if all

options available through continuing airworthiness flexibility provisions have been exhausted, where there is insufficient

time to process a MPTF application, and an operational imperative to operate the aircraft has been established, a Command

Clearance as allowed by DASR SPA.10 may be exercised by the MAO AM or delegate. The most common justification for

the use of Command Clearance rather than the continuing airworthiness flexibility provisions (Flexibility Provisions 1-3) is

insufficient time to resolve the issue.

12. If used, Command Clearance should be documented in the aircraft technical log and all relevant parties such as the aircrew

and the relevant DASR 145 organisation must be notified. For further information on Command Clearance, consult

DASR.SPA.10 and AC 005 / 2018 Management of Defects.

Nil. GM M.A.301(a)(2) Continuing airworthiness tasks

1. Management of Deferred Defects. To meet the demands of operational availability, where it is not reasonably practicable to

rectify the defects, provide life extensions or obtain approved repairs, deferred defects may be considered. In these cases, it

may be appropriate for the CAMO to defer defects subject to a deferment period using credible data. However, the Military

Air Operator – Accountable Manager (MAO-AM) remains responsible for ensuring that hazards are eliminated and where

this is not practicable, that hazards are minimised so far as is reasonably practicable (SFARP).

2. Credible data (see AMC M.A.301(a)(2) paragraph 1). Credible data is considered to be any instructions or information

resources defined by the CAMO in the NMAA approved CAME that is required to retain the aircraft and/or related

equipment in a condition for safe flight. The CAMO should articulate in the CAME who can use credible data. Credible

data may include:

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- Minimum Equipment List (MEL) / Configuration Deviation List (CDL)

- Maintenance Data as defined by DASR 145.A.45(b)

- OEM publications

- Type certification data

- Approved designs or advice from the relevant design approval holder

- Field Service Representative data

- Flight operations advice where the defect relates to systems or equipment that can be safely disabled or not

used for mission within the period of deferment

3. Deferment Options. If the defect does not affect the safe operation of the aircraft, the CAMO can choose to defer the defect

in accordance with a procedure approved in the CAME. If the defect does affect the safe operation of the aircraft the

CAMO has the following options:

a. Military Permit to Fly. MPTF in accordance with DASR 21.A.701.

b. Command Clearance. If it is not reasonably practicable to seek a MPTF, Command Clearance in accordance with

DASR SPA.10.

4. The CAMO must ensure that deferred defects are documented in the continuing airworthiness record system, including the

deferment period and any associated limitations/restrictions.

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ANNEX B: Update to AMC to DASR 145.A.50(e) – Certification of maintenance (Oct 2019 release)

B-1

Current Text

Revised Text

AMC 145.A.50(e) Certification of maintenance

1. Being unable to establish full compliance with sub-paragraph DASR 145.A.50(a) means that the maintenance required by

the CAMO could not be completed due either to running out of available aircraft maintenance downtime for the scheduled

check or by virtue of the condition of the aircraft requiring additional maintenance downtime.

2. The CAMO is responsible for ensuring that all required maintenance has been carried out before flight and therefore DASR

145.A.50(e) requires the CAMO to be informed in the case where full compliance with DASR 145.A.50(a) cannot be

achieved. If the CAMO agrees to the deferment of full compliance, then the ‘CRS for aircraft’ may be issued subject to

details of the deferment, including the CAMO’s authority, being endorsed on the certificate.

NOTE: Whether or not the CAMO does have the authority to defer maintenance is an issue between the CAMO

and the NMAA. In case of doubt concerning such a decision of the CAMO, the AMO should inform its NMAA on

such doubt, before issuing the CRS. This should allow the NMAA to investigate the matter as appropriate.

3. The procedure should draw attention to the fact that DASR 145.A.50(a) does not normally permit the issue of a ‘CRS for

aircraft’ in the case of non-compliance and should state what action the mechanic, supervisor and certifying staff should

take to bring the matter to the attention of the relevant department or person responsible for technical co-ordination with the

CAMO so that the issue may be discussed and resolved. In addition, the appropriate person(s) as specified in DASR

145.A.30(b) should be kept informed in writing of such possible non-compliance situations and this should be included in

the procedure.

4. The DASR 145 AMO should comply with the CAMO’s defect management system (see DASR M.A.301(a)(2)) to ensure

that all defects affecting the safe operation of the aircraft are rectified within the limits prescribed by the approved

Minimum Equipment List (MEL), Configuration Deviation List (CDL) or maintenance data, as appropriate. Such defect

rectification cannot be postponed/deferred unless agreed by the CAMO and in accordance with a procedure compliant with

DASR M.A.302, DASR M.A.708(b)6 and DASR.SPA.10 and approved by the NMAA.

a. This procedure may include provisions to delegate the CAMO deferred defect agreement authority (operational and

logistics assessment) to DASR 145 or equivalent personnel.

b. Any aircraft defect that does not endanger flight safety should be rectified as soon as practicable after the date the

aircraft defect was first identified and within any limits specified in the MEL, CDL or maintenance data, as

appropriate.

c. Any defect not rectified before flight should be recorded in the DASR M.A.305—Aircraft continuing airworthiness

record system, or DASR M.A.306—Aircraft technical log, as applicable.

d. When deferring a defect, the cumulative effect of a number of deferred defects occurring on the same aircraft and

any restrictions contained in the ME / CDL should be considered. Deferred defects should be made known to the

pilot/flight crew prior to their pre-flight inspection of the aircraft.

MANAGEMENT OF DEFECTS

ADF Commanders may, at times, be expected to operate Defence aircraft with non-standard changes to Configuration, Role and

Environment (CRE) such as defects, modifications and flight operations outside the aircraft’s certification basis. In most

circumstances, the Initial/Continued/Continuing Airworthiness regulations permit authorisation of flight with non-standard CRE;

however, under certain circumstances, the DASR provides additional flexibility to allow commanders to operate Defence aircraft at

higher levels of risk to achieve non-discretionary activities in support of Australia’s national interests. The DASR.SPA.10—

Command Clearance, process provides this flexibility as a provision of Operational Airworthiness. Command Clearances still

AMC 145.A.50(e) Certification of maintenance

1. Being unable to establish full compliance with sub-paragraph DASR 145.A.50(a) means that the maintenance required by

the CAMO could not be completed due either to running out of available aircraft maintenance downtime for the scheduled

check or by virtue of the condition of the aircraft requiring additional maintenance downtime.

2. The CAMO is responsible for ensuring that all required maintenance has been carried out before flight and therefore DASR

145.A.50(e) requires the CAMO to be informed in the case where full compliance with DASR 145.A.50(a) cannot be

achieved. If the CAMO agrees to the deferment of full compliance, then the ‘CRS for aircraft’ may be issued subject to

details of the deferment, including the CAMO’s authority, being endorsed on the certificate.

NOTE: Whether or not the CAMO does have the authority to defer maintenance is an issue between the CAMO

and the NMAA. In case of doubt concerning such a decision of the CAMO, the AMO should inform its NMAA on

such doubt, before issuing the CRS. This should allow the NMAA to investigate the matter as appropriate.

3. The procedure should draw attention to the fact that DASR 145.A.50(a) does not normally permit the issue of a ‘CRS for

aircraft’ in the case of non-compliance and should state what action the mechanic, supervisor and certifying staff should

take to bring the matter to the attention of the relevant department or person responsible for technical co-ordination with the

CAMO so that the issue may be discussed and resolved. In addition, the appropriate person(s) as specified in DASR

145.A.30(b) should be kept informed in writing of such possible non-compliance situations and this should be included in

the procedure.

►◄

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require compliance with WHS legislation and must only be used when all other options have been exhausted and an operational

imperative justifies flight.

Refer to AC 005 / 2018 Amangement of Defects for further details on the flexibility provisions stated within this AMC.

5. The following three Flexibility Provisions are available under the Initial / Continued / Continuing Airworthiness regulations

for the management of defects:

a. Flexibility Provision 1. The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) or Configuration Deviation List (CDL) Flexibility

Provision, if available.

b. Flexibility Provision 2. The process where no MEL / CDL exists or the defect is not covered by the MEL / CDL.

c. Flexibility Provision 3. The CAMO management process for defects.

6. Flexibility Provisions 1 through 3 are covered under Initial / Continued / Continuing Airworthiness approvals (DASR M /

145) and instruments (Designs / MPTF) subject to MAA approval and issue whereas Command Clearance, which is an

Operational Airworthiness instrument, is authorised via the command chain.

7. The following section further describes Flexibility Provisions 1, 2 and 3 above.

Flexibility Provision 1 - MEL / CDL

8. An NMAA approved MEL or CDL developed by the operating organisation for the aircraft it operates using the Master

Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) can be used by the appropriately authorised certifying staff in a DASR 145 (or

equivalent) organisation to defer a defect. Importantly the CAMO must agree to defer the defect after consideration of

logistic and/or operational factors. The CAMO may decide to either:

a. agree to the deferment, allowing the issue of a CRS for the aircraft. The deferred defect, along with any associated

limitations, must be documented in the aircraft technical log.

b. disagree to the deferment for logistical or operational reasons and task the DASR 145 maintenance organisation to

rectify the defect.

Flexibility Provision 2 – No MEL/CDL

9. When an ADF aircraft does not have an approved MEL or the situation in question is not listed in the approved MEL, an

assessment (by authorised certifying staff) needs to be conducted to determine whether the defect does or does not

‘endanger flight safety’. Following this assessment there are two options:

a. If the assessment determines that the defect does not ‘endanger flight safety’ the defect can be deferred but

importantly must be passed to the CAMO for agreement to defer the defect after consideration of logistic and/or

operational factors. The CAMO may decide to either:

i. agree to the deferment, allowing the issue of a CRS for the aircraft. The deferred defect, along

with any associated limitations, must be documented in the aircraft technical log.

ii. disagree to the deferment for logistical or operational reasons and task the DASR 145

maintenance organisation to rectify the defect.

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b. If the assessment determines that the defect does/could possibly ’endanger flight safety’, or there is insufficient data

to inform the decision, then the defect can be managed using Flexibility Provision 3 process outlined below.

Flexibility Provision 3 – CAMO Management

10. If the outcome of the Flexibility Provision 2 assessment results in the DASR 145 authorised certifying staff determining that

the defect does / could possibly ‘endanger flight safety’, there is insufficient data to inform the decision or the CAMO does

not agree to the deferment, the CAMO has the following options:

a. Additional Data. The CAMO has the option to provide the DASR 145 organisation with additional data such as

OEM data or Field Service Representative advice that can further inform the DASR 145 certifying staff in making

the ‘endanger flight safety’ assessment.

b. Rectify Defect. The CAMO may decide not to defer the defect and to task the DASR 145 Maintenance Organisation

to rectify the defect.

c. Life Extension. The CAMO may provide a life extension by repackaging life within an existing Airworthiness

Limitation, in accordance with DASR GM M.A.301(a)(3).

d. Approved Repair. The CAMO may seek design support, such as an approved repair or an approval to operate aircraft

with certain limitations, from a DASR 21J design organisation (or MAA as appropriate).

e. Military Permit to Fly. The CAMO may seek a MPTF (issued by the NMAA or a DASR21J, if privileged) in

accordance with DASR 21.A.701.

Operation Airworthiness Flexibility Provision—Command Clearance

11. The nature of military operations is such that commanders require additional flexibility outside the scope of continuing

airworthiness, to succeed in their mission. Ideally, these circumstances should be managed via a MPTF; however, if all

options available through continuing airworthiness flexibility provisions have been exhausted, where there is insufficient

time to process a MPTF application, and an operational imperative to operate the aircraft has been established, a Command

Clearance as allowed by DASR SPA.10 may be exercised by the MAO AM or delegate. The most common justification for

the use of Command Clearance rather than the continuing airworthiness flexibility provisions (Flexibility Provisions 1-3) is

insufficient time to resolve the issue.

12. If used, Command Clearance should be documented in the aircraft technical log and all relevant parties such as the aircrew

and the relevant DASR 145 organisation must be notified. For further information on Command Clearance, consult

DASR.SPA.10 and AC 005 / 2018 Management of Defects.

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Current Text

Revised Text

AMC MED.15.A – TMUFF Management (AUS)

5. Flying related duties should not be performed when a medical or dental condition exists that may compromise suitability for

flight. Table 1 – TMUFF Rules provides minimum self-cancelling TMUFF periods for many conditions. The individual

may extend the minimum periods where there is excessive pain, limitation of movement following a procedure, or other

complication without seeking AVMO advice; however, if the issue persists longer than 7 days beyond the minimum periods

provided an AvMO consult is required.

6. Documentation. A TMUFF recommendation, including all restrictions, should be documented in writing.

7. Medical certificate. TMUFF does not affect medical certificate validity unless the condition persists into the next medical

certificate currency period. In such cases, a flexibility provision under DASR MED.10.A may be used if the MAO deems

this suitable and required.

Table 1 – TMUFF Rules

Activity, condition or factor Minimum TMUFF period

Medical / Dental procedures Where local anaesthetic (including eye drops) is used:

8 hours.

For general, spinal, epidural anaesthesia or IV sedation:

48 hours.

Where Ketamine is used:

3 weeks.

Eye examinations 24 hours following use of dilating eye drops.

Administration of medication The period specified by the prescribing AvMO or dental officer

Ingestions of alcohol Blood alcohol content level (BAL) of zero and appropriate recovery

time that ensures any effects of alcohol consumption, such as hang

over symptoms, are eliminated.

Immunisations procedures 12 hours or as directed by an AvMO

Blood donation

72 hours for aircrew

24 hours for aircraft controllers and remote pilots

Flying after use of a flight simulator

training device TMUFF in accordance with unit policy

Self-imposed TMUFF, includes fatigue

issues Limited to 48 hour period

Notified to Flight Authorising Officer / Supervisor

Return to duty must be approved by Flight Authorising Officer /

Supervisor

Psychosocial conditions TMUFF pending AvMO consultation

Critical Incident Mental Health

Support (CMS) TMUFF pending AvMO consultation

Diving (Aircrew only) There is no

restriction placed on flying following

snorkelling, breathhold diving or diving

on pure oxygen.

Note: These restrictions should be

considered guidance for other personnel

carried on Defence aircraft

Flying at or below 8,000 ft Cabin Altitude (CA):

12 hours after dive of less than 10 metres, with no decompression

stops.

24 hours after a dive of greater than 10 metres, and/or decompression

stops.

48 hours after Heliox decompression dive of greater than 2 hours, or a

Saturation dive.

9 hours after use of compressed air device, during Emergency

Breathing System (EBS) training. This may be reduced to two hours if

cabin altitude remains at or below 3,280 feet.

Flying above 8,000 ft CA:

48 hours after a dive to any depth.

AMC MED.15.A – TMUFF Management (AUS)

1. ►Aviation-related◄ duties should not be performed when a medical or dental condition exists that may compromise

suitability for ►those duties◄. Table 1 – TMUFF Rules provides minimum self-cancelling TMUFF periods for many

conditions. ►If symptoms persist longer than◄ the minimum self-cancelling TMUFF periods, ►◄ an AvMO consult is

required.

2. Documentation. A TMUFF recommendation, including all restrictions, should be documented contemporaneously in writing.

3. Medical certificate. TMUFF does not affect medical certificate validity unless the condition persists into the next medical

certificate currency period. In such cases, a flexibility provision under DASR MED.10.A may be used if the MAO deems this

suitable and required.

Table 1 – Minimum Self-Cancelling TMUFF Periods

Activity, condition or factor Minimum TMUFF period

Alcohol:

Ingestion of alcohol Blood alcohol content level (BAL) of zero and appropriate recovery

time that ensures any effects of alcohol consumption, such as hang

over symptoms, are eliminated.

Table 2 provides minimum abstinence period guidance.

Blood donation:

Whole blood or partial blood products 72 hours for aircrew

24 hours for aircraft controllers and remote pilots

Diving (Aircrew only)

There is no restriction placed on flying

following snorkelling, breathhold diving

or diving on pure oxygen.

Note: These restrictions should be

considered guidance for other personnel

carried on Defence aircraft

Flying at or below 8,000 ft Cabin Altitude (CA):

12 hours after dive of less than 10 metres, with no decompression

stops.

24 hours after a dive of greater than 10 metres, and/or decompression

stops.

48 hours after Heliox decompression dive of greater than 2 hours, or a

Saturation dive.

9 hours after use of compressed air device, during Emergency

Breathing System (EBS) training. This may be reduced to two hours if

cabin altitude remains at or below 3,280 feet.

Flying above 8,000 ft CA:

48 hours after a dive to any depth.

Seven days after a Heliox decompression dive of greater than 2 hours,

or a Saturation dive.

9 hours after use of compressed air device, during Emergency

Breathing System (EBS) training.

Eye examinations (routine)

Eye examination for clinical reasons is

not to be considered under this regulation

– all must be reviewed by an AvMO

prior to return to flying or controlling

duties.

Cyclopentolate HCL 1% is to be utilised.

TMUFF for 24 hours is required, with return of normal vision, with no

blurring, glare or sensitivity to lights.

Aircrew and controllers are to ensure that they can adequately read the

checklists and instruments, and can transition effortlessly between

near and far vision.

Fluid/meal not consumed within the

previous six hours TMUFF pending fluid/meal consumption

Hypoxia Training:

HRRT, ROBD, CADO, other

normobaric hypoxia training

Excludes other hypobaric chamber runs

conducted at IAM. IAM will advise

12 hours or as directed by an AvMO

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Seven days after a Heliox decompression dive of greater than 2 hours,

or a Saturation dive.

9 hours after use of compressed air device, during Emergency

Breathing System (EBS) training.

Aircraft Pressurisation Check /

Aircraft Wash

Individual exposure to be limited to a maximum of four aircraft

pressurisation checks, lasting no longer than 30 minutes, to be a maximum

of 0.5 atmospheres above ambient pressure in any 24-hour period.

Flying at or below 8,000 ft Cabin Altitude (CA):

24 hours

Flying above 8,000 ft CA

48 hours

For aircraft pressurisation associated with washing the aircraft or transitory

functional checks:

Nil TMUFF period required.

Fluid/meal not consumed within the

previous six hours TMUFF pending fluid/meal consumption

Following a physiological aviation

safety occurrence, whether

symptomatic or asymptomatic

TMUFF pending AvMO consumption

Unplanned exposure above 25 000 ft

CA (aircrew only) TMUFF pending AvMO consumption

TMUFF Considerations

8. Administration of medication. There is potential for almost any medication to generate unwanted side effects. Caution should

be exercised and understanding obtained regarding the risks in taking any drug, including over-the-counter and herbal

preparations. The effects of these drugs vary from person to person and may not be detected by the individual member

concerned. In addition, adverse effects may be exacerbated when two or more drugs are taken together and interact. Herbal

preparations are widely available in the community and are seen by many as a ‘natural’ alternative to conventional

medicine. Unfortunately, such agents are not always subject to the same stringent regulations that apply to registered

medicinal compounds. In addition, many of these preparations contain agents that can interact with other drugs, and have

the potential to cause side effects that are incompatible with flight safety. The use of agents to aid in sleep/wake cycle

regulation have been advocated in some operational circumstances and is conducted in accordance with Health Directive

policy. While not all specialist occupations are specifically addressed, an AvMO may prescribe sleep regulating medication

to members of all aviation related occupations.

9. Prescribed medicine is administered under AvMO instruction. Over the counter, herbal and other ‘alternative’ medications

may only be taken as permitted in relevant Health policy.

10. Alcohol use. Alcohol is a well-recognised cause of impaired performance. Evidence suggests that psychomotor skills can be

degraded even at very low blood alcohol levels (BAL). The effects of alcohol are insidious; the person may be unaware of

the extent of performance degradation. Prior experience and acquired skills do not protect against the effects of alcohol, as

both newly acquired and older skills are affected. Similarly, the effects of hangover, even after BAL has returned to zero,

can result in marked impairment of performance due to dehydration, hypoglycaemia, gastrointestinal upset and disturbances

in vestibular function. Recovery time periods from alcohol ingestion will also vary amongst different people.

11. The histotoxic effects of alcohol are similar to those of hypoxia, and are magnified with increasing altitude such that a BAL

that would have minor effects at sea level can cause significant performance decrement at 10 000 ft. The detrimental

performance effects of alcohol can also be potentiated and worsened by coexisting factors such as medication use or toxic

gas exposure, such as carbon monoxide from cigarette smoke.

12. Performance impairments may include:

c. impairment of motor function and slowed reaction times

individuals of TMUFF periods for non-

standard hypoxia training and hypobaric

chamber exposure.

Immunisations 12 hours or as directed by extant health policy or an AvMO

Medical / dental procedures Where local anaesthetic (including eye drops) is used:

8 hours.

For general, spinal, epidural anaesthesia or IV sedation:

48 hours.

Where Ketamine is used:

3 weeks.

Medication:

Administration of medication The period specified by the prescribing AvMO or AvDO

Mental Health:

Critical Incident Mental Health Support

(CIMHS)

TMUFF pending AvMO consultation

Musculoskeletal:

FIGHTER FIT / Aircrew Exercise

Conditioning Program (equivalent) back

and neck musculoskeletal soreness

TMUFF up to 3 days for minor self-limiting muscular soreness.

Physiological conditions:

Following a physiological episode /

incident / accident

TMUFF duration, if imposed, after involvement in a physiological

episode / incident / accident will vary according to the episode /

incident / accident and / or the extent of physical and / or

psychological effects sustained.

Pressurisation:

Aircraft Pressurisation Check / Aircraft

Wash

Individual exposure to be limited to a maximum of four aircraft

pressurisation checks, lasting no longer than 30 minutes, to be a maximum

of 0.5 atmospheres above ambient pressure in any 24-hour period.

Flying at or below 8,000 ft Cabin Altitude (CA):

24 hours

Flying above 8,000 ft CA

48 hours

For aircraft pressurisation associated with washing the aircraft or transitory

functional checks:

Nil TMUFF period required.

Pressurisation:

Unplanned exposure above 21 000 ft CA

(aircrew only)

TMUFF until the subsequent day, with return to flying permitted if the

individual has been and continues to be symptom free.

Aircrew may only conduct subsequent sorties providing CA exposure

does not exceed 21 000 ft CA again within the next 24 hour period.

Psychosocial conditions If there is a significant risk to aviation safety, a mental health

practitioner or AvMO may recommend TMUFF

Self-imposed TMUFF, includes fatigue

issues Limited to 48 hour period

Notified to Flight Authorising Officer / Supervision

Return to duty must be approved by Flight Authorising Officer /

Supervisor

Simulator:

Flying after Flight Simulator Training

Device

TMUFF is to be imposed IAW extant FEG or unit policy

TMUFF Considerations

4. Administration of medication. There is potential for almost any medication to generate unwanted side effects. Effects are

individual, and may be subtle. Caution should be exercised, and understanding obtained, regarding the risks in taking any

drug, including over-the-counter and herbal preparations. ►Medications and their◄ effects may be ►◄ incompatible with

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d. impairment of function of the vestibular system

e. reduction in situational awareness and response to visual stimuli

f. reduction of cognitive functions such as memory, judgment and problem-solving.

13. BAL will vary with the amount, timing and rate of consumption of alcohol. The presence of food in the stomach, the person’s

build and rate of elimination by the liver will also contribute to determining BAL. With such large individual variations, the

following tools for the calculation of BAL provide guidance that should assist management of BAL:

a. A standard drink contains 10 grams of alcohol. This is equivalent to 285 ml of full strength beer, 100 ml of table

wine, 60 ml of fortified wine or 30 ml of distilled proof spirit

b. The average rate of elimination is 10 grams per hour. This equates to one standard drink, or 0.01% per hour. There is

wide variability between individuals in this rate of elimination

c. Peak BAL occurs between 30 minutes and two hours after the last drink is consumed. This reflects the finite period

between drinking alcohol and its absorption into the bloodstream.

14. A BAL of zero and free from the physical or physiological effects of alcohol consumption is the requirement to perform flying

related duties. The recovery time to achieve a zero blood alcohol level is different for each person. Although not definitive,

personnel should not enter a ‘safety critical area’ for a minimum of eight hours following their last drink. In the case of

heavy alcohol consumption, the time period to recover from the physical or physiological effects of alcohol consumption

may well exceed 24 hours from the time of the last drink. For example, the physiological effects of a hangover may continue

many hours after reaching BAL zero. Therefore, self–assessment is required to ensure a person is free from the physical or

physiological effects of alcohol consumption that may still exist even after achieving a BAL of zero.

15. A person with a suspected BAL greater than zero or with the presence of any after-effects of alcohol consumption may not

perform any flying related duties, nor may they perform any functions preparatory to commencing flying related duties.

TMUFF should either be self-imposed or directed by medical staff or flight supervisors until such time as BAL has returned

to zero and all symptoms of hangover have resolved.

16. Not withstanding the alcohol consumption guidance provided, AMC for abstinence from flying related duties after

consumption of alcohol is outlined in Table 2.

Table 2 – Minimum abstinence period prior to flying according to drinks consumed

Number of standard drinks consumed Minimum period of abstinence from the last drink to commencement

of flying related duties (hours)

1 – 4 8

5 – 6 12

7 – 10 18

13. Immunisation Procedures. Localised or general reactions following immunisations or desensitisation therapy may present

within minutes to hours, or even days following administration. TMUFF is imposed as directed by the relevant Health

policy related to the immunisation. Personnel who have had prior reactions or allergic reactions require an AvMO

consultation before receiving immunisations.

14. Blood Donation. Following blood donation, the circulating blood volume is depleted and will require time to return to

normal. TMUFF is used as a precautionary measure to reduce the likelihood of temporary loss of consciousness, lethargy or

other symptoms following acute reduction in blood volume. Post blood donation a person is increasingly vulnerable to

flight safety. The use of agents to aid in sleep/wake cycle regulation ►is to be◄ conducted in accordance with extant health

policy. ►◄

5. Prescribed medicine is administered under AvMO ►or AvDO◄ instruction. Over the counter, herbal and other

‘alternative’ medications may only be taken as permitted in ►extant health◄ policy; refer to Table 1.

6. ►◄

7. Aircraft Pressurisation Checks / Aircraft Wash. Aircraft pressurisation checks involve post maintenance checks of an

aircraft’s pressurisation system, where personnel working within the pressurised section of an aircraft are exposed to

atmospheric pressures greater than ambient; refer to Table 1 for pressurisation types and frequency and TMUFF durations.

8. ►◄

9. Blood Donation (whole blood or partial blood products). AvMO review post blood donation (whole blood or partial

blood products) is not required unless the member has other health concerns. ►TMUFF for whole blood or partial blood

product donation is 72 hours for aircrew and 24 hours for aircraft controllers and remote pilots; refer to Table 1.◄ For

operational reasons, a desire to donate blood should consider TMUFF restrictions and plan accordingly.

10. ►◄

11. Critical Incident Mental Health Support (CIMHS). ►◄ The psychological response to a crisis, regardless of aetiology,

should be correctly managed in order to ensure quick return to normal activities, including the work environment. After

undergoing CIMHS debriefing, an AvMO recommendation ►regarding fitness◄ to return to ►aviation◄-related duties

should be obtained; refer to Table 1.

12. ►◄

13. Diving (Aircrew only). Diving using self-contained underwater breathing apparatus (SCUBA) using compressed gas

carries a significant DCI risk, with risk increased by exposure to altitude soon after diving; refer to Table 1 for dive types

and TMUFF durations.

14. Eye examinations (routine). For routine eye examinations with completion of PM 086 Aviation Eye Examination,

Cyclopentolate HCL 1% is to be utilised. TMUFF for 24 hours is required, with return of normal vision, with no blurring,

glare or sensitivity to lights. Aircrew and controllers are to ensure that they can adequately read the checklists and

instruments, and can transition effortlessly between near and far vision; refer to Table 1.

15. An eye examination for clinical reasons (examination other than routine eye examination) is not to be considered under this

regulation. Use of dilating eye drops for clinical reasons must be reviewed by an AvMO prior to return to flying or

controlling duties.

16. Fatigue. Fatigue is a well-recognised cause of impaired motor and cognitive performance. The effects of fatigue are

insidious; the person may be unaware of the extent of performance degradation. Fatigue may exacerbate the effects of

coexisting operational stresses such as noise and heat, and may be worsened by numerous other factors such as illness,

domestic stress, alcohol and ingestion of medications. ►◄ It is vital that the relevant policy on crew-rest and duty

limitations be followed; however, maintenance of appropriate ‘by the book’ crew rest hours does not guarantee absence of

fatigue. Commanders, supervisors and health personnel should be watchful for symptoms, particularly where irregular

duty/rest hours are undertaken. ►◄ Where fatigue is still suspected despite appropriate provision of crew-rest, TMUFF

should be imposed until a cause and solution to the fatigue can be identified.

17. FIGHTER FIT / Aircrew Exercise Conditioning Program (equivalent) back and neck musculoskeletal soreness.

Minor self-limiting back and neck pain post flying is to be considered within the normal response to the physical rigors of

military aviation. TMUFF is permitted up to 3 days to allow resolution; refer to Table 1.

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hypoxia and G-induced loss of consciousness (GLOC) and will have decreased exercise tolerance. AvMO review post

blood donation is not required unless the member has other health concerns.

15. Recovery time limits vary depending on whether a person performs flying related duties in the air or ground environment

and are advised in regulation guidance material. For operational reasons, a desire to donate blood should consider TMUFF

restrictions and plan accordingly.

16. Psychosocial conditions. Psychological health is as important as physical wellbeing in determining the aviation medicine

fitness to undertake flying related duties. There are many environmental and personal factors that can adversely affect

mental health and lead to increased risk of disorientation, loss of situational awareness, and training failures. Subjective

expressions of ‘stress’, fatigue, mood liability, and decrease in work performance, along with non-specific physical

symptoms such as loss of appetite or headache, are ways that poor psychological fitness can manifest. It is vital that

personnel, their commanders, and medical staff are vigilant in ensuring that expression of symptoms indicative of

psychosocial pressure are carefully assessed and appropriate specialist management is provided. If there is a significant risk

to aviation safety, a psychologist, counsellor or AvMO may recommend TMUFF, notify the person’s CO and arrange an

AvMO review. Although management of psychosocial conditions may be undertaken by a variety of support staff the

procedures outlined in this guidance material should be used to return a person to flying related duties.

17. Critical Incident Mental Health Support (CIMHS). CIMHS has been developed as a technique to assist coping with a

‘crisis’—an event that is often traumatic, personally confronting and out of the person’s normal range of experiences. The

psychological response to a crisis, regardless of aetiology, should be correctly managed in order to ensure quick return to

normal activities, including the work environment. After undergoing CIMHS debriefing, an AvMO recommendation as

medically fit to return to flying related duties should be obtained.

18. Fatigue. Fatigue causes deterioration of individual performance levels, manifesting initially as irritability and progressing to

loss of judgment, difficulty with complex or multiple tasks, load shedding, mental apathy and tiredness. Fatigue may

exacerbate the effects of coexisting operational stresses such as noise and heat, and may be worsened by numerous other

factors such as illness, domestic stress, alcohol and ingestion of medications. Individual self-assessment of fatigue levels is

notoriously poor, and for this reason it is vital that the relevant policy on crew-rest and duty limitations be followed;

however, maintenance of appropriate ‘by the book’ crew rest hours does not guarantee absence of fatigue. Commanders,

supervisors and health personnel should be watchful for symptoms, particularly where irregular duty/rest hours are

undertaken.

19. Fatigue may be classified several ways:

a. Acute fatigue. Strenuous physical or mental activity may cause acute fatigue, especially if recent workload has

been high. Engaging in physical exercise programs will assist fatigue management, but heavy exercise is likely to

worsen fatigue and disrupt sleep if undertaken directly before or during allocated rest periods.

b. Circadian dysrhythmia. The term ‘circadian dysrhythmia’ indicates a disturbance to the normal human diurnal cycle

of wake and sleep. Without adequate conditioning and rest, these natural rhythms can be upset by rapid or prolonged

travel across time zones, or by activities that rapidly alter normal periods of wakefulness and sleep. These

difficulties are worsened by continually shifting duty patterns such that a new circadian rhythm can never be ‘set’.

In general terms, recovery to a normal circadian rhythm occurs at about one hour per day towards the new time or

duty period. On prolonged flights across time zones, or where duty rapidly cycles through periods of night and day,

personal fatigue should be expected, regardless of the number of hours allocated to rest.

c. Chronic fatigue. Chronic fatigue is largely a result of cumulative periods of poor or insufficient sleep. Sleep is a

physiological need, and the average number of hours required is between seven and eight hours per 24-hour period.

Sleep quality is best if it is uninterrupted and falls over an individual’s circadian low point, which is around 0300

by the body’s internal clock. Repeatedly interrupted sleep or disturbed circadian rhythms will result in the

accumulation of a ‘sleep debt’.

20. Crew rest, crew duty and rostering limitations should be designed to avoid the performance deficit associated with fatigue.

Where fatigue is still suspected despite appropriate provision of crew-rest, TMUFF should be imposed until a cause and

solution to the fatigue can be identified.

18. Fluids and meals. Failure to eat an adequate nutritionally balanced meal prior to performing ►aviation-related◄ duties, or

not being properly hydrated, may reduce tolerance to flight stresses and impair performance. An adequate nutritionally

balanced meal and fluids are required within six hours of aviation related duties; refer to Table 1. Meal and/or fluid

consumption immediately prior to flying should avoid food and drink known to produce intestinal gas as this can result in

abdominal discomfort and even incapacitation during flight ►◄.

19. ►◄

20. To avoid food poisoning be cautious and selective when eating, especially when in remote areas or overseas. In-flight meals

should be handled hygienically at all times, and transit times ►outside of◄ cold storage ►◄ should ►not exceed four

hours◄. After frozen meals are heated, they should be eaten immediately and not refrozen for future use. Where two pilots

are part of one flight crew, they should eat different meals at least one hour apart. In-flight rations provided for consumption

in aircraft without a refrigerator should be supplied in an insulated bag with a cooling block, or be supplied in a collective

cooling facility such as an esky. All perishable foodstuffs should be removed from the aircraft at the end of each flight and

either consumed or destroyed in keeping with local quarantine rules. Perishable foodstuffs should not to be reused for

subsequent flights.

21. In the event of actual or suspected food poisoning, samples of suspect food or water should be retained for investigation and

arrangements made for investigation of the possible source of contamination to be investigated as soon as possible.

22. Flying after Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD). Use of FSTD carries the risk of ‘simulator sickness’, a form of

motion sickness relating to the disparities between the visual and motor components of the trainer. ►TMUFF is to be

imposed IAW extant FEG or unit policy. Aircrew who experience symptoms including postural instability, nausea,

headache, eyestrain, or excessive fatigue following FSTD exposure, should seek AvMO review prior to◄ flying ►; refer to

Table 1◄.

23. Following a Physiological Episode / Incident / Accident. AvMO review following a physiological ►episode may not be

required if the episode was considered trivial and inconsequential, and / or the individual was◄ asymptomatic or their

symptoms were minor and short-lived. Aircrew who experienced significant symptoms, or who are concerned about the

exposure, should seek AvMO advice; refer to Table 1. TMUFF duration, if imposed, after involvement in a physiological

►episode /◄ incident ►/ accident◄ will vary according to the episode / incident / accident and / or the extent of physical

and / or psychological ►effects◄ sustained. ►◄

24. Symptoms that were of moderate severity or greater are to be reviewed by an AvMO, where moderate severity implies any

difficulty or impediment to completing their tasks during the exposure.

25. Possible symptoms include but are not limited to confusion, cognitive slowing, drowsiness, headache, dizziness, nausea,

vomiting, abdominal pain, eye dryness / watering / redness / pain / discomfort with lights / gritty sensation / blurred vision,

sore throat, cough, shortness of breath, sneezing, runny nose, burning-like discomfort, and joint pain.

26. Hypoxia Training. For routine hypoxia training including Hypoxia Recognition and Recovery Training (HRRT), Reduced

Oxygen Breathing Device (ROBD), Combined Altitude and Depleted Oxygen (CADO) in the hypobaric chamber, and any

other normobaric hypoxia training, a TMUFF of 12 hours is required; refer to Table 1. This TMUFF does not apply to other

forms of hypobaric chamber runs conducted at IAM. IAM will advise individuals of TMUFF periods for non-standard

hypoxia training and hypobaric chamber exposure.

27. Immunisations. TMUFF is imposed for 12 hours or as directed by extant health policy or an AvMO; refer to Table 1.

28. Ingestion of alcohol. Alcohol is a well-recognised cause of impaired motor and cognitive performance. BAL will vary with

the amount, timing and rate of consumption of alcohol, and with large individual variations. The following guidance for the

calculation of BAL may assist:

a. A standard drink contains 10 grams of alcohol. This is equivalent to 285 ml of full strength beer, 100 ml of table

wine, 60 ml of fortified wine or 30 ml of distilled proof spirit

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21. Diet and meals. Failure to eat an adequate nutritionally balanced meal prior to performing flight duties, or not being

properly hydrated, may reduce tolerance to flight stresses. Meal and/or fluid consumption immediately prior to flying should

avoid food and drink known to produce intestinal gas as this can result in abdominal discomfort and even incapacitation

during flight, especially at high altitude.

22. Consumption of foods with high caloric values and high glycaemic index as a substitute for planned meals may result in

inappropriate levels of blood sugar, and in the longer term may contribute to nutritional disorders such as obesity.

23. Consumption of contaminated food can lead to gastrointestinal upsets, and subsequent sudden incapacitation. This is of

particular concern for flight crew who may be required to consume in-flight rations. The type and severity of food poisoning

is influenced by the following factors:

a. the hygiene standards of the food handlers

b. cooking procedures and activities

c. types of foodstuffs

d. storage, hygiene and reconstitution procedures

e. susceptibility of the consumer.

24. To avoid food poisoning be cautious and selective when eating, especially when in remote areas or overseas. In-flight meals

should be handled hygienically at all times, and transit times between cold storage and aircraft refrigeration should be

minimised. After frozen meals are heated, they should be eaten immediately and not refrozen for future use. Where two

pilots are part of one flight crew, they should eat different meals at least one hour apart. In-flight rations provided for

consumption in aircraft without a refrigerator should be supplied in an insulated bag with a cooling block, or be supplied in

a collective cooling facility such as an esky. All perishable foodstuffs should be removed from the aircraft at the end of each

flight and either consumed or destroyed in keeping with local quarantine rules. Perishable foodstuffs should not to be reused

for subsequent flights.

25. In the event of actual or suspected food poisoning, samples of suspect food or water should be retained for investigation and

arrangements made for investigation of the possible source of contamination to be investigated as soon as possible.

26. Return to flying related duties following a physiological aviation safety occurrence, whether symptomatic or asymptomatic.

TMUFF duration after involvement in a physiological aviation safety incident requiring AvMO consultation7 AvMO

consultation is not required to be conducted face to face. will vary according to the extent of physical and/or psychological

injury sustained. Incidents that require AvMO assessment prior to a Commander authorising a return to flying related duties

may include:

a. proven or suspected hypoxia

b. decompression illness (DCI) due to cabin pressurisation issues

c. unintentional explosive or rapid cabin decompression

d. evolved gas or severe reaction to trapped gas resulting in incapacitation or flight modification

e. hyperventilation

f. spatial disorientation resulting in an unusual attitude

g. loss of consciousness for any cause, including GLOC

h. toxicological exposures such as carbon monoxide poisoning or smoke/fumes/gases in the cockpit

i. physiological, pathological, physical, psychological or psychiatric conditions, including simulated flight

j. aircraft accident, aircraft incident or related critical incident.

27. Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD). Use of FSTD carries the risk of ‘simulator sickness’, a form of motion sickness

relating to the disparities between the visual and motor components of the trainer. Simulator sickness risk is enhanced if

training is conducted with visual displays, but no comparative motion. The small, but significant differences between

simulator and ‘real time’ flying is sufficient to warrant consideration for a period of TMUFF in circumstances directly

related to the person’s well being vice any other safety effects that might occur when flying.

28. Diving. Diving using self contained underwater breathing apparatus (SCUBA) using compressed air carries a significant

DCI risk. This risk relates to the length and depth of the dive, the timing of subsequent dives and individual variables such

b. The average rate of elimination is one standard drink per hour. There is wide variability between individuals in this

rate of elimination

c. Peak BAL occurs between 30 minutes and two hours after the last drink is consumed.

29. A BAL of zero and free from the physical or physiological effects (such as hangover) of alcohol consumption is the

requirement to perform aviation-related duties. The physiological effects of a hangover may continue many hours after

reaching BAL zero.

30. A person with a suspected BAL greater than zero or with the presence of any after-effects of alcohol consumption (such as

hangover) may not perform any aviation-related duties, to include any functions preparatory to commencing aviation-related

duties. TMUFF should either be self-imposed or directed by medical staff or supervisors until BAL has returned to zero and

all physical or physiological effects (such as hangover) have resolved; refer to Table 1.

31. AMC for abstinence from aviation-related duties after consumption of alcohol is outlined in Table 2.

Table 2 – Minimum Abstinence Period prior to

Aviation-Related Duties According to Drinks Consumed

Number of standard drinks consumed Minimum period of abstinence from the last drink to commencement

of aviation-related duties (hours)

1 – 4 8

5 – 6 12

7 – 10 18

32. Medical / dental procedures. Anaesthetic agents have the potential for causing both short duration effects and long

duration effects, which could be anticipated or unanticipated; refer to Table 1 for the types of anaesthetic utilised and

TMUFF durations.

33. ►◄

34. Psychosocial conditions. Psychological health is as important as physical wellbeing in determining the aviation medicine

fitness to undertake aviation-related duties. It is vital that personnel, their commanders, and medical staff are vigilant in

ensuring that subtle or overt expression of symptoms indicative of psychosocial pressure are carefully assessed and

appropriate specialist management is provided. Early self-referral for mental health assistance is encouraged and does not

always require TMUFF. If there is a risk to aviation safety, a mental health practitioner or AvMO may recommend TMUFF,

with appropriate therapy instituted in accordance with extant health policy, and Command communication; refer to Table 1.

35. Self-imposed TMUFF. Aircrew and controllers are to conduct an IMSAFE check prior to performing aviation-related

duties. Illness, medication, stress, alcohol, fatigue, enough (food, water, other). This TMUFF is to be limited to a 48 hour

period, and notified to the Flight Authorising Officer / Supervisor. Return to duty must be approved by the Flight

Authorising Officer / Supervisor; refer to Table 1. Self-imposed TMUFF greater than 48 hours requires AvMO review.

Regular self-imposed TMUFF of greater than once per week may alert to a broader issue that requires AvMO consideration.

36. Unplanned flight above 21 000 ft CA. In the absence of other DCI risk factors, the risk of DCI is considered very low at or

below 21 000 ft CA without the need for 100% oxygen or flight restrictions. 100% oxygen should be applied and time spent

above that level should be kept to a minimum.

TMUFF Reversal

37. ►◄

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as physical fitness, concurrent illness or injury, age, and fatigue. The risk of DCI is increased by exposure to altitude soon

after diving.

29. Aircraft Pressurisation Checks. Aircraft pressurisation checks involve post maintenance checks of an aircraft’s

pressurisation system, where personnel working within the pressurised section of an aircraft are exposed to atmospheric

pressures greater than ambient.

TMUFF Reversal

30. TMUFF reversal is dependant on a combination of risk assessment, mission essential requirements and AvMO advice.

31. TMUFF reversal. The MAO, or a delegated command authority, has final authority regarding authorisation of personnel to

perform flying related duties including TMUFF reversal. The decision should be based on AvMO advice, normally provided

in writing or the periods specified in Table 1 – TMUFF Rules. Some TMUFF issues may be managed administratively

rather than seeking or returning for additional AvMO consultation. In such situations, the person may be TMUFF for a

specified period and return to duty without seeing a health care provider. Such circumstances include the following:

a. defined time limits prescribed in Table 1 – TMUFF Rules.

b. where the AVMO has set a defined time limit or conditions–based return to flying related duties for uncomplicated,

self-limiting conditions, eg gastric problems, cold, flu or similar, not prescribed in Table 1 – TMUFF Rules.

32. Remote AvMO consultation. Direct consultation with an AvMO may not always be possible8 AVMO telephone contact

may be available. RAAF Institute of Aviation Medicine provides a duty AVMO service.. Where the AvMO is located or by

whom the AvMO contact is established is not important, only that an AvMO is consulted. AvMO consultation is not

intended to stop isolated personnel who cannot achieve medical advice to support command decision making. For example,

a crew member, who might be unable to fly to home base from an isolated location, would be better supported to fly home

under Aircraft Captain authority if the member feels well enough to do so and there is no chance of gaining AvMO advice

in the current location.

33. Use of a Designated Aviation Medical Examiner (DAME). For Defence personnel who operate under oversight of a CASA

medical certificate, a CASA DAME consultation may replace the AvMO consultation.

38. TMUFF reversal. The MAO, or a delegated command authority including Flight Authorising Officer / Supervisor, has final

authority regarding authorisation of personnel to perform►aviation◄-related duties including TMUFF reversal. ►TMUFF

reversal is dependent on mission essential requirements and written AvMO advice, to inform a risk assessment◄. Some

TMUFF issues may be managed administratively rather than seeking or returning for additional AvMO consultation. In such

situations, the person may be TMUFF for a specified period and return to duty without ►AvMO review◄. Such

circumstances include the following:

a. defined time limits prescribed in Table 1 – Minimum Self-Cancelling TMUFF ►Periods; and◄

b. where the AVMO has set a defined time limit or conditions–based return to ►aviation◄-related duties for

uncomplicated, self-limiting conditions, e.g. gastric problems, cold, flu or similar, not prescribed in Table 1 –

Minimum Self-Cancelling TMUFF ►Periods◄.

39. Remote AvMO consultation. Direct consultation with an AvMO may not always be ►possible◄. Verbal advice can be

►given by an AvMO. In the absence of the member’s usual AvMO, the◄ Institute of Aviation Medicine ►◄ duty

►Senior AvMO can◄ be ►contacted for acute / operational SAvMO◄ advice ►. Phone 0408 234 044◄.

40. Use of a Designated Aviation Medical Examiner (DAME). For Defence personnel who operate under oversight of a

CASA medical certificate, a CASA DAME consultation may replace the AvMO consultation.