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PROGRAM IPA/IPS Listening Section In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are four parts to this section with special directions for each part. Part I Questions 1 to 3. Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues spoken in English. The dialogues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. After you hear a dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a sample question. You will hear: Man: Have you finished doing your homework? Woman: Not yet. Man: Do it right away. The class will begin soon. You will also hear: Narrator: Where does the conversation take place? Sample answer - B. INGGRIS - PAKET A- TRYOUT MKKS DKI JAKARTA 2013 1

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PROGRAM IPA/IPS

Listening Section

In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you

understand spoken English. There are four parts to this section with special directions for

each part.

Part I

Questions 1 to 3.

Directions:

In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues spoken in English. The

dialogues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen

carefully to understand what the speakers are saying.

After you hear a dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers

and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen

to a sample question.

You will hear:

Man: Have you finished doing your homework?

Woman: Not yet.

Man: Do it right away. The class will begin soon.

You will also hear:

Narrator: Where does the conversation take place?

Sample answer

You will read in your test book:

A. At school

B. At home

C. At a store

D. At the mall

E. At the market

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The best answer to the question ‘Where does the conversation take place?’ is choice (A),

‘At school’. Therefore, you should answer choice (A)

1. A. Doing the final examination B. Having the final examination

C. Joining the final examination D. Passing the final examination

E. Following the final examination

2. A. Tomorrow afternoon at 4 o’clock B. Tomorrow morning at 7 o’clock.

C. Tomorrow afternoon at 7 o’clock D. Tomorrow evening at 7 o’clock

E. The next two days at 7 o’clock

3. A. In the bank B. In the library C. In the cinema

D. In the restaurant E. In the supermarket

Part IIQuestions: 4 to 8

In this part of the test, you will hear several questions or statements spoken in

English followed by five responses, also spoken in English. The questions and responses

will be spoken two times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen

carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. You have to choose the best

response to each question or statement.

Now listen to a sample question:

You will hear:

Woman : Good morning, John. How are you? Sample answer

You will also hear:

A. I am fine, thank you

B. I am in the living room

C. Let me introduce myself

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D. My name is Hendra Gunawan

E. I have been here since this morning

The best answer to the question ‘How are you?’ is choice (A), ‘I’m fine, thank you.’

Therefore, you should choose choice (A)

4. Mark your answer on your answer sheet

5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet

6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet

7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet

8. Mark your answer on your answer sheet

Part IIIQuestions 9 to 11

In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues and a monologue spoken in

English. The dialogues and the monologue will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in

your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say.

After you hear the dialogue or the monologue and the question about it, look at the

pictures and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard.

9.

1 2 3

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. 4 5

A.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

10.

1 2 3

4 5

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

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11.

. 1 2 3

4 5

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

Part IV

Questions 12 to 15

Directions:

In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologue will be

spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to

understand what the speakers are saying.

After you hear a monologue and the questions about it, read the five possible

answers and decide which one would be the best answer to the questions you have heard.

- B. INGGRIS - PAKET A- TRYOUT MKKS DKI JAKARTA 20135

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12.

A. Disney’s childhood B. Life in Kansas City

C. Disney’s unhappy life D. World War I incidents

E. Disney’s education and job

13.

A. 1900 B. 1911 C. 1917 D. 1918 E. 1919

14.

A. Sunlight affects B. Seasonal affective disorder

C. Substances in human brain D. Symptoms of body disturbance

E. The causes of a medical disorder

15.

A. It lessens the production of melatonin and serotonin

B. The chemical substance produced in the brain stops

C. People are in the state of listlessness

D. It causes severe cold weather

E. People gain weight

IT IS THE END OF THE LISTENING SECTION

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Reading Section

The following text is for questions 16 to 18.

Many people call platypus duckbill because this animal has a bill like a duck's bill.

Platypus is an indigenous of Tasmania and southern and eastern Australia. Although it lays

eggs instead of bearing its young alive, the platypus is a true mammal, not a reptile. It

nurses its young with milk as do other mammals. Platypus has a flat tail and webbed feet.

Its body length is 30 to 45 cm covered with a thick and woolly layer of fur. Its bill is detecting

prey and stirring up mud. Platypus' eyes and head are small. It has no ears but has ability

to sense sound and light. The male platypus has a hollow claw, or spur, on each hind leg.

The spurs are connected with poison glands. The platypus poisons its enemies with the

spurs.

Platypus lives in steams, rivers, and lakes. Female platypus usually digs burrows in

the streams or river banks. The burrows are blocked with soil to protect it from intruders and

flooding. On the other hand, male platypus does not need any burrow to stay.

16. The text describes … of platypus.

A. the origin, physical features and habitat

B. the physical features, food and habitat

C. the physical features and habitat

D. the physical features

E. the habitat

17. Platypus protects itself from its enemy by …

A. hitting with its head B. flapping with its feet C. attacking with its claws

D. poisoning with its spurs E. kicking with its hind legs

18. “It nurses its young with milk as do other mammals.” (Paragraph 1)

The underlined word is synonymous with … .

A. looks at B. cares for C. looks for D. prepares E. provides

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The following text is for questions 19 to 21

An earthquake is the result of a sudden release of energy in the Earth's crust that

creates seismic waves. Earthquakes are recorded with a seismometer, also known as a

seismograph. The moment magnitude of an earthquake is conventionally reported, or the

related and mostly obsolete Richter magnitude, with magnitude 3 or lower earthquakes

being mostly imperceptible and magnitude 7 causing serious damage over large areas.

Intensity of shaking is measured on the modified Mercalli scale.

At the Earth's surface, earthquakes manifest themselves by a shaking and

sometimes displacement of the ground. When a large earthquake epicenter is located

offshore, the seabed sometimes suffers sufficient displacement to cause a tsunami. The

shaking in earthquakes can also trigger landslides and occasionally volcanic activity.

In its most generic sense, the word earthquake is used to describe any seismic

event-whether a natural phenomenon or an event caused by humans—that generates

seismic waves. Earthquakes are caused mostly by rupture of geological faults, but also by

volcanic activity, landslides, mine blasts, and nuclear experiments.

An earthquake's point of initial rupture is called its focus or hypocenter. The term

epicenter means the point at ground level directly above this.

19. What is the text mainly about?

A. Hypocenter B. Earthquake C. Seismometer

D. Seismograph E. Natural phenomenon

20. How does earthquake happen?

A. There are volcanoes B. Damage occurs in the Earth’s crust

C. There are seismic waves D. There is earth’s crust

E. A sudden release of energy in the Earth's crust

21. What is the writer’s purpose in writing the text?

A. To explain how earthquake occurs

B. To expose the danger of earthquake

C. To report the occurrence of earthquake

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D. To tell the past occurrence of earthquake

E. To describe different kinds of earthquake

The following text is for questions 22 to 24

The issue of using drugs to enhance athlete’s performance is controversial

Those who agree to the use of drug in enhancing performance say that most - top

players in all sports take drugs to train harder and feel no pain during play. The trainers,

sports doctors, nutritionists, physiotherapists and managers of the big names make sure

banned substances are taken at the safest and most efficient levels. The main effect of

banning such substances has been to turn performers and their coaches into liars and

cheaters. We should legalize performance-enhancing drugs so that they can be regulated

and athletes on the way up - whose entourages do not yet include savvy physiotherapists

and doctors - don't overdose and do damage themselves.

On the other hand, some still believe that performance enhancing drugs in sport

should be banned. Performance-enhancing drugs are not only prohibited because they

violate the spirit of sport but because they can damage the health of athletes. The idea of

allowing them in sport could lead to a situation whereby sportsmen and women are used as

human guinea pigs for a constant flow of new, unregulated substances. The long-term

effects don't bear thinking about.

To my point of view, athletes’ best performances must be the result of hard training

rather than using performance enhancing drugs.

22. What make people disagree with the use of performance enhancing drugs?

A. Athletes’ health is badly affected B. Athletes consume more drugs

C. Athletes are independent D. Athletes violate the rules

E. Athletes perform better

23. What does the text mainly discuss?

A. The controversy of using drugs to enhance athlete’s performance

B. The benefit of drugs in enhancing athlete’s performance

C. The danger of using drugs in sport

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D. Proponents for drug use in sport

E. Drug regulation for athletes

24. “Those who agree to the use of drug in enhancing performance say that

…”(Paragraph 2)

What does the underlined word mean?

A. Creating B. Showing C. Attracting D. Improving E. Influencing

The following text is for questions 25 and 26.

Based on true events, Argo chronicles the life-or-death covert operation to rescue

six Americans, which unfolded behind the scenes of the Iran hostage crisis—the truth of

which was unknown by the public for decades. On November 4, 1979, as the Iranian

revolution reaches its boiling point, militants storm the U.S. embassy in Tehran, taking 52

Americans hostage. But, in the midst of the chaos, six Americans manage to slip away and

find refuge in the home of the Canadian ambassador. Knowing it is only a matter of time

before the six are found out and likely killed, a CIA "exfiltration" specialist named Tony

Mendez (Affleck) comes up with a risky plan to get them safely out of the country. A plan so

incredible, it could only happen in the movies.

Unlike the more controversial Zero Dark Thirty which has an ending everyone on

the planet is aware of, this based on a true story drama tells the little known tale of a rescue

operation led by a brave CIA "exfiltration" specialist. Affleck not only handled the lead role

but also directed Argo, and in doing so solidified his place as one of the best directors of his

generation.

25. What is the writer’s purpose in writing the text?

A. To tell the saving of hostages B. To describe the Iranian revolution

C. To explain ‘Cargo’, an action movie D. To criticize ‘Cargo’, an action movie

E. To report the success of making a movie

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26. How does the writer judge Affleck?

A. He leads the role and directs the film well

B. He helps a team in a rescue operation

C. He plays well in Zero Dark Thirty

D. He is a quite good director

E. He is likely a good actor

The following text is for questions 27 and 28

February 8, 2013

Dear Mr. Hasibuan,

On behalf of the members of the Research & Scholarship Committee, thank

you for submitting an application for this year's Research & Scholarship grants

competition.

I’m sorry to report that your grant proposal was among those that were not

approved for funding in the spring. With the reduction in grant funds caused by budget

cuts and the record number of applications, I’m afraid that many worthwhile proposals

could not be supported.

Although you did not receive a grant this year, I trust that you will continue to

pursue both internal and external funding opportunities

Sincerely,

Dr. Michael Smith

Research & Scholarship Committee

The University of Iowa, IA

27. The text is about …

A. grand proposal report B. the influence of budget cut

C. the distribution of scholarship D. the disapproval of grant proposal

E. research and scholarship application

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28. What is the writer’s main intention in writing his letter to Mr. Hasibuan?

A. To tell him there is budget cut

B. To inform him that the grant has been distributed

C. To inform him the way how to apply for the grant

D. To inform him that his grant proposal was refused.

E. To inform him that there is research and scholarship grant

29. Rearrange the following sentences into the correct and meaningful paragraph!

1. Mahmoud Ahmadinejad was born Mahmoud Saborjhian on October 28, 1956

2. During this time, his father, Ahmad, changed the family name from Saborjhian , to

the more religious Ahmadinejad.

3. He received high marks on the national university entrance exams, finishing 130th

out of 400,000 students.

4. He entered Iran University of Science and Technology in 1975 and received his

undergraduate degree in civil engineering in 1979.

5. In 1957, the family moved from Aradan to the Narmak district of Tehran in search of

better economic conditions.

6. With his new name, he went to primary and high school in Tehran, and excelled in

his studies.

A. 1-2-5-6-3-4 B. 1-5-2-6-3-4 C. 1-5-2-6-4-3

D. 2-1-6-5-3-4 E. 2-1-6-5-4-3

Complete the following text with the correct words.

Canberra is the capital city of Australia. The city's design was heavily …(30)… by the

garden city movement and incorporates significant areas of natural vegetation that have

earned Canberra the title of the "bush capital". The growth and …(31)… of Canberra were

hindered by the World Wars and the Great Depression, which exacerbated a series of

planning disputes and the ineffectiveness of a sequence of bodies that were to oversee the

development of the …(32)… . The national capital emerged as a thriving city after World

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War II, as Prime Minister Robert Menzies championed its development and the National

Capital Development Commission was formed with executive powers.

30. A. influence B. influences C. influenced

D. influencing E. being influenced

31. A. develop B. developer C. developed

D. developing E. development

32. A. city B. state C. village D. district E. country

The following text is for questions 33 and 34

We are pleased to announce that Jane Doe of Doe Elementary School is the winner of

our essay contest, "What the Constitution Means to Me." The judges chose her entry

out of 43 essays received from elementary students all over the city.

Jane, a fifth-grader, is the daughter of John and Mary Doe of Springfield. She will

receive a $50 savings bond, and her essay will be published in the Springfield Herald

Sunday, July 6. Congratulations, Jane!

We also want to congratulate all of the students who entered; we received many

outstanding essays. Our only regret is that there can only be one winner. Every student

who entered will receive a certificate of participation.

33. The text announces ….

A. an essay contest B. students of Elementary school

C. the requirement of essay contest D. the champion of writing competition

E. Doe Elementary school’s achievement

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34. Besides receiving savings bond, Jane’s writing ....

A. will be copied for the judges B. will be put in the city’s paper

C. will be published at her school D. will be exposed in the whole city

E. will be published in the Springfield Herald

The following text is for questions 35 and 36

Memo: Afterwork Party

An afterwork party will take place on December 24 th, 2009 at Spatafores Italian

Restauraunt. Everyone who works in office building number 3 is invited.

Please note that the party will begin at 6 pm. This means you are not to leave the

office before your scheduled end time of 5 pm. If you do not attend work on that

day, you will not be permitted to attend the party.

Food and beverages will be supplied free of cost. The dress code is casual. Please

remember that this is an official office function, and unprofessional behavior will not

be tolerated.

See you there!

The Management

35. The text tells mainly about … .

A. leaving the office B. conducting a party

C. implementing dress code D. preparing food and beverages

E. implementing professional behavior

36. “This means you are not to leave the office before your scheduled end time of 5 pm.”

The word ‘this’ refers to ….

A. the goal of the party B. the place of the party

C. the number of visitors D. the visitors of the party

E. the schedule of the party

- B. INGGRIS - PAKET A- TRYOUT MKKS DKI JAKARTA 201314

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The following text is for questions 37 and 38.

Australian Scholarships

Australian Scholarships is an initiative of the Australian Government to promote

sustainable development and excellence in education in the Asia-Pacific region.

Australian Scholarships will provide educational, research and professional

development opportunities to support growth in the region and to build enduring

links at the individual, institutional and country levels.

Existing and new awards programs, managed by the Australian Agency for

International Development (AusAID) and the Department of Education,

Employment and Workplace Relations (DEEWR) are combined under the one

umbrella of Australian Scholarships.

37. Besides providing in the field of education and research opportunities,

Australian Scholarship also offers … development opportunities.

A. professional B. instructional C. managerial

D. physical E. rural

38. What does the text mainly inform?

A. Employment and Workplace Relations B. Institutions

C. Australia Leadership Awards D. Department of Education

E. Scholarships

The following text is for questions 39 to 41.

Smoking is harmful. People who smoke a pack a day die on average seven years

earlier than people who have never smoked. There are also several causes of heart

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disease and smoking is one of them. And there are many diseases which can develop from

smoking and heart disease is one of them. Cigarette smoking is actually a major cause of

heart attack, stroke and peripheral vascular disease.

Smoking and heart disease may not come hand in hand because not everyone

with heart disease used to smoke, but we can’t ignore the fact that smokers may develop

heart disease in a later time or any other serious disease for that matter.

Smoking kills more and more people each year and almost 40% of those who died

from smoking die from heart and blood vessel disease. Tobacco smoke contains thousands

of chemicals in which many of them are poisonous. Nicotine in tobacco smoke can increase

blood pressure causing the heart to work harder. Carbon monoxide replaces oxygen in your

blood. Smoking adds to the obstruction of the arteries which can lead to heart attack and

other heart-related conditions.

39. According to the text, people who smoke will die ... years earlier than people who have

never smoked.

A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10 E. 11

40. What does the text mainly inform?

A. Heart disease

B. Smoking prevention

C. The danger of smoking

D. Number of dying smokers

E. Substances found in cigarettes

41. The second paragraph tells about … .

A. the number of people who suffer from heart attack

B. the relation between smoking and heart disease

C. people who suffer from heart attack

D. the effect of heart attack

E. the danger of smoking

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The following text is for questions 42 to 44.

Everyone wants to be happy in their lives. But many cannot accomplish it due to

their poor health. Apparently, keeping our health benefits our lives. One that we can do for

keeping our health is doing exercise. It does not cost a lot. Jogging is an example of 'cheap'

exercise. What you have to possess when doing exercise is your discipline.

You must set your time when you want to do exercise. Doctor recommends to do

exercise at least three times a week, thirty minutes each. So you have to determine what

days are available for you. Once you designate the days, you must start doing your

exercise at all cost. Bad weather, busy work, laziness may not become reasons to skip your

doing exercise.

When your habit of doing exercise has been well established, you will harvest the

fruit of your effort. Your health quality increases. You can breathe more deeply. Your blood

circulation also becomes smoother. Thus, oxygen can be easily delivered to your lungs and

brain. As a matter of fact, one who does exercise regularly remembers better than one who

does not.

As a result of good health, your quality of life enhances. You can work more

vigorously. You do not easily get tired of working. Consequently, it makes individual

production have a better result. Furthermore, your marriage is happier. Also, you can

commit religious duties more solemnly.

Considering there are a number of advantages that we can obtain from doing

exercise, I suggest you do exercise without much cancellation, and you will enjoy your living

in all aspects.

42. How many times in a week does the doctor advise us to do exercise?

A. Once B. Twice C. Three times D. Four times E. Five times

43. What does the text mainly inform?

A. The importance of health B. The way of keeping healthy

C. The struggle of doing exercise D. The persistence of doing exercise

E. The importance of doing exercise

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44. Paragraph 4 mainly tells about … resulting from good health.

A. the increase of work B. the increase of income

C. the increase of marriage D. the increase of life quality

E. the increase of production

The following text is for questions 45 to 47.

JAKARTA : A community of young professionals and university students will introduce

Jakarta residents to street children in an event on Feb. 17 in Senayan, Central Jakarta.

"The event is being held to introduce people to street children in the hope they will

offer them support. It could be a solution to this social problem," Sahabat Anak” (Friends of

Children) executive Benyamin Lumy said Wednesday, as quoted by Antara.

The organization was formed in 1997 after several young professionals and

students organized a jamboree for street children.

It now runs seven educational shelters for more than 300 street children across

Jakarta.

The organization offers street children support and an education, and sometimes

even reunites children with their parents.

"We feel we have to do something to help these marginalized children rather than

staying silent," Benyamin said. -- JP

45. What does the text mainly report?

A. The establishment of youth organization B. An effort to help street children

C. The educational shelters D. Marginalized children

E. The social problem

46. Why will the event be held?

A. People are expected to help street children

B. Street children want to show up

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C. There are 300 street children

D. An organization is formed

E. The event is important

47. ‘The organization was formed in 1997 after several young professionals and students

organized a jamboree for street children.’

The underlined word can be replaced by ….

A. found B. set up C. directed D. invented E. introduced

The following text is for questions 48 to 50

Nelson Mandela was born in Qunu in the Transkei. His father was Hendry

Mphakanyiswa Gadla, chief of Mvezo, a tiny village on the banks of the Mbashe River. At

the age of seven, Rolihlahla Mandela became the first member of his family to attend

school, where he was given the English name "Nelson" by a Methodist teacher. His father

died when he was 10, and Nelson attended a Wesleyan mission school next door to the

palace of the Regent. Following Xhosa custom he was initiated at age 16, and attended

Clarkebury Boarding Institute, learning about Western culture. He completed his Junior

Certificate in two years, instead of the usual three.

At age 19, in 1934, Mandela moved to the Wesleyan College in Fort Beaufort,

which most Thembu royalty attended, and took an interest in boxing and running. After

matriculating, he began a B.A. at the Fort Hare University, where he met Oliver Tambo,

who became a lifelong friend and colleague.

At the end of his first year he became involved in a boycott of the Students'

Representative Council against the university policies, and was asked to leave Fort Hare.

He left to go to Johannesburg, where he completed his degree with the University of South

Africa (UNISA) via correspondence, then began a Law degree at Wits University.

48. How old was Nelson Mandela when he started to learn about Western culture?

A. Ten B. Eleven C. Twelve D. Sixteen E. Nineteen

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49. Paragraph one tells mostly about Nelson Mandela’s …

A. Childhood and teenage life

B. Difficult life

C. Happy family

D. Tertiary education

E. Life supporters

50. How was Nelson Mandela’s reaction towards the Fort Hare University’s policies?

A. pposing B. favorable C. supporting

D. doubting E. worrying

GOOD LUCK

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