QDB 15 = Operational Procedures

Operational Procedures - P a g e | 1

1. Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop

landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:

70% of the landing distance available

2. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

While at their station

3. Who is responsible for providing on Operation Manual in accordance with EU/JAR-OPS Subpart P for the use

and guidance of the operations personnel?

The aircraft operator

4. Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any

transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? (Annex 6, Part I)

The captain

5. For twin-engined aircraft, the takeoff alternate shall be located at a distance that: (Annex 6, Part I)

Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative

6. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available

information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of

alternative destination, are: (Annex 6, Part I)

At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use

7. When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is

necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)

Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board

8. The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List which shall be approved by

the Authority of: (Annex 6, Part I)

The country of the operator

9. Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace shall be equipped: (Annex 6, Part I)

As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with instrument flight rules

10. The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

The operator

11. The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

The manufacturer

12. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range

of at least:

550 m


13. The coverage angle of the regulatory white navigation/position lights, continuously lit in flight and located at

the rear of the aircraft, is:

140

14. The term decision height (DH) is used for:

A precision approach

15. The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be

less than:

3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days

16. The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft of

more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least:

30 minutes

17. A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than:

50 NM

18. On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is

suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to:

400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed

19. The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of:

110

20. According to EU-OPS 1, for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, flight data

recorders shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last:

25 hours of operation

21. For aircraft certified before 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder must keep the conversations and sound

alarms recorded during the last:

30 minutes of operation

22. In accordance with EU-OPS, 100% of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with

supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:

13 000 ft

23. On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout the

period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is between:

10 000 ft and 13 000 ft

The question concerns "non-pressurized aircraft". For non-pressurized aircraft, JAR OPS 1.775 is applicable (and not

JAR-OPS 1.770 which is for pressurized aircraft) Note that the requirements concerning oxygen are not the same for

pressurized and for non-pressurized aircraft. For non-pressurized aircraft, the requirement calls for supply for 10% of

the passengers for Entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 ft but not exceeding

13 000 ft. B) is clearly the "most correct answer"


24. On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen

reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin

depressurization, throughout the flight period after the first 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is greater

than:

10 000 ft

25. The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account:

1. equipment available for navigation

2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways

3. composition of the flight crew

4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas

5. facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1,2,3,4,5

26. For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized aircraft

flying at a pressure altitude greater than:

25 000 ft

27. A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-off gross weight is

greater than:

5 700 kg

28. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will

first see the:

Green steady light

29. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front right, will

first see the:

Red steady light

30. The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located at the tip of the

left wing is:

110

31. For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination

aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:

0.6

32. For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance on at alternate aerodrome

shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:

0.7

33. The EU OPS (aeroplane) and JAR-OPS (helicopter) are based on:

ICAO Appendix 6


34. The validity period of a "certificate of airworthiness" varies with the conditions under which the aircraft is

maintained.

If the maintenance is carried out according to an approved programme and done in a maintenance shop approved

by the Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity period is:

Three years

35. Which of the following statements is true?

OCH is referenced to threshold elevation

36. At takeoff the maximum mass of the aeroplane shall be:

Not more than that which would enable compliance with any noise abatement procedure

37. When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, one of the

requirements is:

The ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas must be kept

clear

38. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on an

approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:

Green light

39. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on an

approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:

Red steady light

40. According to Annex 6, what is the definition of Required Navigation Performance (RNP)?

A statement of the navigation performance necessary for operation within a defined airspace

41. According to Annex 6, "RNP type" is defined as a containment value expressed as a distance in ... (i)... from

the intended position within which flights would be for at least ... (ii)... of the total flying time.

(i) Nautical miles

(ii) 95%

42. The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard side, with a coverage angle of:

110

43. The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located at the left side is:

110

44. According to EASA/JAR-OPS, when a flight data recorder is required, it must start automatically to record the

data:

Prior to the aircraft being capable of moving under its own power


45. According to EASA/JAR-OPS, when a flight data recorder is required, it must stop automatically to record the

data:

After the aircraft is unable to move by its own power

46. A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with:

No runway visual range limits

47. The "NO SMOKING" sign must be illuminated:

When oxygen is being supplied in the cabin

48. A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:

A decision height equal to at least 200 ft

49. A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual

range of at least:

200 m

50. A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual

range of at least:

75 m

51. A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:

A decision height of at least 100 ft

52. Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the:

Operation manual

53. When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the

threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum

certified landing weight multiplied by a factor of:

1.3

54. According to EU-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category D aeroplane

is a meteorological visibility of:

3600 m

55. According to EU-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category C aeroplane


2400 m

56. According to EU-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category B aeroplane


1600 m


57. According to EU-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category A aeroplane


1500 m

58. During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold

altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than:

2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome altitude

59. The minimum flight crew for night transport of passengers or according to the Instrument flight rules is :

2 pilots for turbo-jet aircraft and turbo-prop aircraft with more than 9 passenger seats

60. An operator shall ensure that information relevant to the flight is preserved on the ground for the duration

of each flight or series of flights. This includes:

1) appropriate meteorological information

2) a copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the mass and balance documentation

3) copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft technical log

4) route specific NOTAM documentation if specifically edited by the operator

5) special loads notification

6) copies of the day's performances and limitations with completed charts


2,3,4,5

61. In accordance with EU OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an

operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are :

MDH=500 ft and visibility=1600 m

62. EU OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that:

Special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km

63. In accordance with EU OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A Operation, is a precision

instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with a decision height lower than 100 feet an RVR (runway visual

range) no less than :

200 m

64. In accordance with EU OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), an operator must ensure that system

minima for "non-precision approach procedures", which are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only),

VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:

NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ft

65. In accordance with EU OPS, an operator shall ensure that a copy for the operational flight plan is stored in an

acceptable form for at least:

3 months


66. In accordance with EU OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as pilot-in-

command unless:

He has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight

simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days

67. EU OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight controls during take-off and

landing unless:

He has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at least three take-off and three landings in an aeroplane or

an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 90 days

68. In accordance with EU OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot

operation under IFR or at night shall be:

5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type class of

aeroplane in the single-pilot role

69. In accordance with EU OPS 1, a Category III B operations, is a precision instrument approach and landing

using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual range lower than

200 m but no less than:

75 m

70. The first part of the EU OPS/JAR OPS apply to:

The operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil commercial transport aircraft

71. An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground a copy of the :

Operation flight plan

72. In accordance with EU/JAR-OPS, the operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a

flight is stored for a minimum period of:

3 months

73. Following an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original

recordings for a minimum period of:

60 days

74. During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that a passenger is using a portable device suspected to

disburb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain:

Must not authorize any person to use such a device on board

75. The captain is asked by the authority to present the documents of the airplane. He

Must do so, within a reasonable period of time

76. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, for a pressurised aircraft, the definition of supplemental oxygen is:

Oxygen supplied to the aeroplane occupants in the case of cabin pressurisation failure


77. An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot).

The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old).

The boarding of all passengers is:

Forbidden

78. In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual indicates a minimum crew of one pilot,

when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot?

Never

79. The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records:

1 - the training

2 - the test results

3 - a log of flying hours

4 - a summary of the training by reference period

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct answers?

1 - 2 - 3 - 4

80. The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an

accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum horizontal visibility

required for take-off is:

200 m

81. The information to consider for a standard non precision approach is:

1 - the horizontal visibility

2 - the ceiling

3 - the minimum descending altitude (MDA)

4 - the decision altitude (DA)

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

1 - 3

82. For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in

still air conditions) within:

One hour flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed

83. During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew

contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be

continued is:

The outer marker (OM)

84. The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non-precision direct IFR approach with the following operational

minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750 metres. RVR for threshold, mid and end of the runway are given by the

controller...

The pilot may start the final approach if the threshold RVR is higher than 800 metres


85. The aerodrome operating minima for a VOR/DME approach are:

MDH = 360 ft

Required RVR = 1500 metres

Reported RVR = 1800 metres

According to EU-OPS, the pilot may continue the final approach:

Regardless of the ceiling reported

86. In accordance with OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is established, among other

considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories.

The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at

threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3.

Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is:

D

87. Which of the following forms or information are not required to be carried on all flight?

1) The Operational Flight Plan (OFP)

2) Mass and balance documentation

3) NOTAMS

4) The technical log

5) Maps and charts

6) Passenger and cargo manifests

6

88. After an incident, the FDR recordings must be kept for:

60 days

89. When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on board, the

commander:

Shall comply within a reasonable period of time

90. A pilot in command:

1) Must comply with ATC instructions immediately.

2) Is only responsible when airborne.

3) May deviate in an emergency.

4) May deviate from complying with rules of the air in order to comply with an ATC instruction.

5) May request a new clearance if unsatisfied.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

3, 5

91. What is the requirement for the issue of an AOC?

Not already hold an AOC issued by another authority

92. The number of emergency exits in transport aircraft:

Must be arranged to allow all passengers and all crew members to leave the aircraft within 90 seconds through 50 %

of the available emergency exits


93. According to EU-OPS/JAR-OPS, on a IFR flight a commander shall not commence takeoff unless the expected

weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:

The planning minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the

aerodrome

94. In an aeroplane, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts and harnesses provided:

1) during taxiing

2) during takeoff

3) during landing

4) whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety

5) during other phases of flight

Select the correct regrouping of the statements:

2, 3, 4

EU OPS 1.320

95. How far from an enroute alternate airfield can a 2-engined turbojet aeroplane with more than 20 seats and a

MTOM of 38.000 kg be flown?

60 minutes at the one engine out speed

96. On arriving overhead an isolated aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engined aircraft should have a

minimum quantity of fuel (additional reserve, including the final reserve) sufficient for flying during:

2 hours with normal cruise consumption

EU OPS 1.255

97. A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120 passengers. 42 passengers are on board and the expected

flight level on route Paris-Algers is FL 330. The first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall provide breathing

supply for a least:

1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at a cabin altitude of more than 8000 feet

EU OPS 1.760

98. Aeroplanes having a maximum approved seating capacity between 61 and 200 passengers will require the

following number of megaphones on the passenger deck:

2

EU OPS 1.810

99. JAR/EU-OPS 1 applies to:

The operation by a JAA state member of any civil commercial transport aeroplane

100. An operator shall ensure that for the duration of each flight or series of flights, relevant information is

preserved on the ground. This includes:

Mass and balance documentation, if required

101. In accordance with EU OPS, an operator shall ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical

log is stored for a minimum period of:

24 months


102. According to Annex 6, what is the definition of an Air Operator Certificate?

A certificate authorising an operator to carry out specified commercial air transport operations

103. According to EU/JAR-OPS, which of the following is the correct definition of "wet lease"?

The aircraft is operated under the AOC of the lessor

104. Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the

aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation?

The commander

105. In accordance with EU/JAR-OPS 1, if the flight is to be carried out at FL 290, demonstration concerning

oxygen equipment must be completed before:

Take-off

106. In accordance with EU/JAR-OPS 1, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a final reserve

fuel for:

30 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions

107. For three- and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air

conditions) within:

Two hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed

108. Without ETOPS approval, an operator shall not operate a two-engined Class A aeroplane with a maximum

approved passenger seating configuration of 20 or more over a route which contains a point further from an

adequate aerodrome, at a distance flown:

In 60 minutes at the one engine inoperative cruise speed

109. Information concerning emergency evacuation procedures shall be found in the:

Operations manual

110. In accordance with EU/JAR-OPS, a commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in flight

is not less than the fuel required to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made with:

Final reserve fuel remaining

111. If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:

Select two destination alternates

112. According to EU/JAR-OPS 1, an operator must select two destination alternates when the appropriate

weather reports or forecasts for the destination, or any combination thereof, indicate that during a period

commencing ...(i)... hour(s) before and ending ...(ii)... hour(s) after the estimated ...(iii)..., the weather conditions will

be below the applicable planning minima.

(i) one

(ii) one

(iii) time of arrival


113. According to EU/JAR-OPS 1, planning minima for a destination aerodrome with an applicable precision

approach procedure is:

RVR/visibility specified in accordance with EU/JAR-OPS Aerodrome Operating Minima

114. According to EU/JAR-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT II approach

available?

RVR according to CAT I

115. According to EU/JAR-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT I approach

available?

Non-precision minima (RVR and the ceiling at or above MDH)

116. According to EU/JAR-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a non-precision

approach available?

Non-precision minima (RVR and the ceiling at or above MDH) plus 200 ft/1000 m

117. According to EU/JAR-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination aerodrome, if it is equipped with a

non-precision approach only?

RVR/visibility specified in accordance with EU/JAR-OPS, and the ceiling at or above MDH

118. According to EU-OPS, in establishing the aerodrome operating minima which will apply to any particular

operation, an operator must take full account of:

1) equipment available on the aircraft

2) dimensions and characteristics of the runways

3) composition of the flight crew

4) obstacles in the approach and missed approach areas

5) means to determine and report the meteorological conditions

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

119. In accordance with EU-OPS, which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a

non-precision approach?

1) the required RVR

2) the ceiling

3) the minimum descent height (MDH)

4) the decision height (DH)


1, 3

120. To conduct a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required by EU-OPS 1 is:

1500 metres

121. In accordance with EU OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), an operator must ensure that the MDH

for an ILS approach without the glidepath (LLZ only) is not lower than:

250 ft


122. In accordance with EU-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR approach is not lower than:

300 ft

123. In accordance with EU-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR/DME approach is not lower

than:

250 ft

124. In accordance with EU-OPS, where no outer marker or equivalent position exists, if the reported

RVR/Visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond:

1000 ft above the aerodrome/heliport

125. Regarding all weather operations, if Vat is from 121 kt to 140 kt, the aeroplane is in Category:

C

126. According to EU-OPS 1, a Category I operation is a precision instrument approach and landing with a decision

height (DH) not lower than ...(i)... and with a runway visual range (RVR) not less than ...(ii)...

(i) 200 ft

(ii) 550 m

127. According to EU-OPS 1, who is responsible for establishing Aerodrome Operating Minima for each

aerodrome planned to be used for commercial purposes?

The Operator

128. In normal flight, what is the position of the emergency lighting switch?

ARMED

129. First aid oxygen carried on a pressurised aircraft is used for:

Passengers or crew when required

130. A flight with 42 passengers is required to carry sufficient first aid oxygen for ... calculated for the entire flight

time which, following de-pressurisation, the aircraft cabin altitude would be greater than...

One passenger; 8000 ft

131. If an aircraft has a maximum seating configuration of less than 200 but more than 9, a crash axe or crowbar

must be carried:

One on the flight deck only

132. An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped with a cockpit

voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:

30 minutes or 2 hours of its operation, depending upon the date of the first issue of its individual Certificate of

Airworthiness

133. An aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 370. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, the number of cabin

oxygen masks (dispensing units) required is at least:

110% of the seating capacity


134. For a pressurised aircraft, the first aid oxygen is designed to:

Provide undiluted oxygen for passengers who, for physiological reasons, might require oxygen following a cabin

depressurisation

135. An aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 390. Given that:

Maximum approved passenger seating configuration = 230

Number of seats on board = 200

Scheduled number of passengers on board = 180

According to EU-OPS 1, the minimum required number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) shall be:

220

136. According to EU-OPS 1, oxygen masks for use by flight crew members shall be a quick donning type of mask,

in pressurised aeroplanes operating at pressure altitudes above:

25000 ft

137. According to EU-OPS 1, an operator shall not operated across areas in which search and rescue would be

especially difficult, unless it is equipped with:

1) signaling equipment

2) at least one ELT

3) at least 2 ELTs

4) additional survival equipment for the route to be flown


1, 2, 4

138. According to EU-OPS 1, for aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude of 39000 ft, the total

number of oxygen dispensing units and outlets shall exceed

The number of seats by at least 10%

139. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, regarding the first aid oxygen, the supply of undiluted oxygen carried on

board a pressurised aeroplane with 8 passengers operated at pressure altitude 27000 ft, shall be sufficient for at

least:

1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude exceeds 8000 ft

140. Unless sufficient life rafts to carry all persons on board are carried, on overwater flights, an operator shall

not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is suitable for making an emergency landing, greater

than that corresponding to ...(i)... minutes at cruising speed or ...(ii)... nautical miles, whichever is the lesser, for

aeroplanes capable of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical power unit(s) becoming inoperative at

any point along the route or planned diversions.

(i) 120 minutes (ii) 400 nautical miles

141. The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin according to EU-OPS

depends on the approved number of:

Seats in the cabin


142. An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness on or

after 1 April 1998, which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, unless it is equipped with a cockpit

voice recorder which records:

1) voice communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck by radio

2) the aural environment of the flight deck

3) the cabin attendants communications in the cabin using the aeroplane's interphone system

4) voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the aeroplane's interphone system

5) voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker

6) voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the public address system, if installed


1, 2, 4, 5, 6

143. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, the cockpit voice recorder, when required, must start to record automatically:

Prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of the flight when the aeroplane is no

longer capable of moving under its own power

144. In accordance with EU-OPS 1 and with the exception of amphibians and seaplanes, the carriage of a life

jacket for each person on board is compulsory when the aeroplane is:

1) cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able to return in the case of an engine failure

2) is flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than 50 NM

3) is using departure and arrival paths over water and when a ditching probability exists

4) is flying over a stretch of water at more than 40 NM off shore


2, 3

145. According to EU-OPS, the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers to be located in the passenger

compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is:

2

146. According to EU-OPS 1, the minimum number of crash axes or crowbars on board an aeroplane, whose

maximum approved passenger seating configuration is more than 200, is:

2

147. According to EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 10 seats

must be equipped with:

1 hand fire extinguisher in the cockpit and 1 hand fire extinguisher in the passenger compartment

148. According to EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 200

must be equipped with:

3 hand fire extinguisher in the passenger compartment

149. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7

to 30 seats must be equipped with at least:

1 hand fire extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment


150. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31

to 60 seats must be equipped with at least:

2 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment

151. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is

201 to 300 seats must be equipped with at least:








154. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration

greater than 600 seats must be equipped with at least:



greater than 60 seats must be equipped (including flight deck) with at least:

3 HALON 1211 fire extinguishers or equivalent

156. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum take off mass exceeds 5700 kg or whose

maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and less than 200 seats must be

equipped with a:

Crash axe or a crowbar on the flight deck

157. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, for a pressurised aeroplane, during and following an emergency descent, all

occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with a minimum supplemental oxygen quantity:

1) in order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than

13000 ft

2) in order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than

10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes

3) in no case less than 30 minutes for aeroplanes certificated to fly up to 25000 ft

4) in no case less than 2 hours for aeroplanes certificated to fly over 25000 ft


1, 2, 3, 4

158. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, for a pressurised aeroplane, the minimum requirement for supplemental

oxygen needed to supply 100% of the passengers following a cabin pressurisation failure, is:

The entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15000 ft, but in no case less than 10 minutes


159. In accordance with EU-OPS 1 and if required, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane

must allow the transportation of the entire aeroplane occupants:

In the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capability

160. In accordance with EU-OPS, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty in a non-pressurised aircraft

shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:

10000 ft

161. According to EU-OPS 1, for aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude above 25000 ft, the total

number of oxygen dispensing units shall exceed the number of:

Seats by 10%

162. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, in an aeroplane with a maximum configuration of more than 19 passengers,

the door between the passenger compartment and the flight deck compartment shall have locking means:

To prevent passengers from opening it without permission of a member of the flight crew

163. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of

more than 61 seats must have in its passenger compartment(s) at least 3 hand fire extinguishers including:

2 Halon fire extinguishers or equivalent

164. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, a public address system is required to operate an aeroplane with a maximum

approved passenger seating configuration of more than:

19

165. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, in an aeroplane in which fuses are used, the number of spare fuses available

for use in flight must be at least:

10% of the number of fuses of each rating or 3 of each rating, whichever is the greater

166. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the

windshield during precipitation is required at each pilot station to operate an aeroplane with a:

Maximum certificated take-off mass of more than 5700 kg

167. In accordance with EU-OPS, the public address system must be audible and intelligible at:

1) all passenger seats

2) toilets

3) cabin crew seats

4) work stations


1, 2, 3, 4


168. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, in order to be operated IFR or at night in areas with potentially hazardous

weather conditions, an aeroplane must be equipped with an airborne weather radar when the aeroplane is:

1) pressurised

2) non-pressurised with a maximum take-off mass of more than 5700 kg

3) non-pressurised with a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 9 seats

4) non-pressurised regardless of weight or seating configuration


1, 2, 3

169. In accordance with EU-OPS, for a non-pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:

Required to operate at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft

170. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, for a non-pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be

supplied with supplemental oxygen during:

The entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure

altitudes above 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft

171. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, for a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25000 ft,

all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in

no case less than:

2 hours

172. Assuming 60 passengers on board a land aeroplane. The intended track will overfly water for a distance of 80

NM from the shore. According to EU-OPS 1, the minimum number of passenger life jackets to be on board is:

60

173. Assuming a multi-engine land aeroplane with 60 persons on board. The cruising speed is 180 kt. The

aeroplane is capable of continuing the flight with the critical power unit becoming inoperative. The track will overfly

water for a distance of 380 NM from land which is suitable for making an emergency landing.

According to EU-OPS 1, the minimum number of life rafts shall be:

3 life rafts of 30-seat capacity

174. In accordance with EU-OPS, an aircraft must be equipped with an audio selector panel accessible to each

required flight crew member:

When operating under IFR

175. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, what minimum navigation equipment is required for operations under IFR, or

under VFR over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks?

One VOR receiving system, one ADF system, one DME

176. Which JAR/EASA prescribes requirements for approved maintenance organisations?

JAR 145, EASA Part 145


177. In accordance with EU-OPS, "pre-flight inspection" is the inspection carried out:

Before flight to ensure that the aircraft is fit for the intended flight. It does not include defect rectification

178. Under what circumstances may an operator introduce alternative procedures to those prescribed in EU-OPS

Subpart M (Maintenance)?

When needed and when an equivalent safety case has first been approved by the Authority and supported by JAA

Member Authorities

179. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, for operations under IFR or at night the minimum flight crew is 2 pilots for:

All turbopropeller aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 and for

all turbojet aeroplanes

180. In accordance with EU-OPS, an operator shall ensure that each cabin crew member is at least:

18 years of age

181. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane with a maximum approved

passenger seating configuration of more than ...(i)..., and when carrying ...(ii)... or more passengers, unless at least

one cabin crew is included.

(i) 19

(ii) one

182. According to EU-OPS 1, an operator must select a take-off alternate:

If it would not be possible to return to the aerodrome of departure for meteorological or performance reasons

183. According to EU-OPS 1, the selection of a destination alternate is not required when:

The destination is isolated and no adequate destination alternate exists

184. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, for two-engined aeroplanes in Performance Class B or C without an ETOPS

approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome is the distance flown in ...(i)... minutes at the one-

engine inoperative cruise speed, or ...(ii)... nautical miles, whichever is less.

(i) 120

(ii) 300

185. According to EU-OPS 1, without ETOPS approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for

two-engined aeroplanes in Performance Class A, with a maximum take-off mass of 45360 kg or more, is the distance

flown in ... minutes at the one-engine inoperative cruise speed.

60

186. According to OPS regulation, a quality system:

Shall be established by all operators


187. When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be

located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:

1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine

188. If a pilot has coupled the automatic pilot to the directional gyro equipped with a rate correction device set

for astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is:

A great circle

One of the properties of a gyro is its rigidity in space. Correction of the astronomical precession means correction of

the effects of the earth rotation, or in other words, apparent wander correction, drift und tilt.

Even older airplanes (like the DC-10) where fitted with automatic wander-correction.

This brings us to the topic of GRID-Navigation. To follow, with respect to the earth surface, a constant free gyro

heading, without consideration to the TN-reference and without wind, means to follow a great-circle track. On a

chart, this would be depicted as a constant GRID track.

A rhumb-line is always referenced to TN, therefore the gyro should also be constantly adjusted for TN, even if we fly

close the pole. This is the task of the navigation computer (i.e. INS) and is used for TN-navigation. This has nothing to

do with astronomical precession, more likely with transport drift.

The gyro in this question is obviously not adjusted for TN. There is also no mention that we fly with a constant

heading!! But we must assume it.

189. An aircraft leaves point P (60N 030W) on a true heading equal to 090 while the gyro compass, which is

assumed to be operating perfectly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000.

The aircraft arrives at point Q (62N 010W) on a true heading equal to 095. On the journey from P to Q the gyro

compass remains in free gyro mode.

If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading at Q will be:

328

In the whole thinking process, Variation can be completely disregarded. From the beginning, the gyro indicates 90

less than the true heading. We can say that the scale has shifted by 90.

The aircraft flies eastwards, covering 20 longitude in 1.5 hours. During this time, the earth rotates by 22.5 (1.5 x

15), eastwards as well. To simplify understanding, make a sketch of this situation in the form of a Lambert chart. For

a free gyro, it's the same as if he would have been moved 42.5 (20 + 22.5) eastwards on a "non-rotating" earth, i.e.

imagine a point Q' which lies 22.5 east of Q.

Let's suppose that the axis of the gyro at point P was aligned with true north. Now draw-in the gyro axis at point Q'.

If, at point P, the gyro-axis was aligned with true north, then at point Q', the axis must still be parallel to the local

meridian at P. Therefore, the gyro-axis at Q' will be inclined to the right.

The angle between the gyro-axis and the local meridian at Q' is the convergence between P and Q'. CA = diff. long. x

sin(mean-lat), in this case, 42.5 x sin(61) = 37.17. The true heading at Q' is 095, 5 greater than at P. The angle

between the gyro-axis and the aircraft longitudinal axis at Q' equals 57.83 (095-37.17). At P, the angle between

the gyro-axis and the aircraft longitudinal axis was 90. Therefore, the angle decreased by 32.17 (90-57.83). If the

gyro indicated 000 at P, it will now indicate 32.17 less, or 327.83 (360-32.17).


190. A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero meridians, with Grid North in the

direction of the North geographic pole.

In Polar Regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro mode after leaving the 6 microteslas zone, and the grid

heading controlled by information from the inertial navigation system (INS) is 045. After switching to "magnetic

mode", the compass heading is 220. The INS position at this moment is 76N 180W. The magnetic variation on the

chart is 10E.

The compass shift on this heading at this point in time is:

-5

191. On the diagram where:

Nt = True North

Nm = Magnetic North

Ng = Grid North

If the magnetic variation is equal to 65W and if the grid variation is equal to 4E, the correct arrangement of the

different north is:

3


192. You plan to fly from point A (60N 010E) to point B (60N 020E).

The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned

with the true North of point A.

The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1h30 min with

a zero wind, is equal to:

076

Step 1

Your flight from A to B shows an earth convergence of 8.66 (diff long x sin lat). This leads to a initial TT 85.7 and in

no wind condition to initial TH 085.7

Step 2

Gyro north aligned with true north at E010 is equivalent with a grid and a grid datum E010. At position E010 TH

085.7 equals a gyro heading (GH) 085.7.

Step 3

If your gyro were equipped with an earth rate correction device you could maintain GH 085.7 along the great circle

to B.

Step 4

Without earth correction device your compass drifts during 1h 30min by 19.5 (1.5h x 15/h x sin lat). The heading

decreases even without any aircraft movement. In order to reach point B with constant gyro heading you anticipate

half the drift (9.7). The required GH is calculated as 085.7 minus 9.7 which gives 076. Be aware of the fact that

you will no longer follow a great circle but a curve convex to the pole.

193. When a course is plotted at minimum time route, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding

ground isochrone by applying to point K (original spot) a vector KK' which is equal to:

Mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone

194. When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:

Maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic clearance

195. A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the meridian 054W, with Grid

North in the direction of the North geographic pole.

An aircraft is following a true course of 330.

At position 80N 140E, its grid heading (GH) with this system will be:

136

196. On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the true

North pole, the "true" orientation of the great circle linking point 62N 010E to point 66N 050W is 305. The grid

route at the starting point of this great circle is:

295


197. The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of the Antarctic regions. A grid, printed over it, its aligned

with meridian 180, the grid North in the direction of the geographic North (non standard grid).

The grid course followed by the aircraft is Rg=280, the position is 80S 100E.

The true course followed at this moment is:

000

Draw a sketch of the south polar stereographic chart.

This will be some concentric circles with the South Pole in the centre the 0 meridian upwards, 180 meridian

downwards, 90 W meridian to the left, 90E meridian to the right.

Draw the Grid. Grid North is downward.

Mark the position of the aircraft, S80 E 100 Draw the grid course at the position of the aircraft, GC=280 this is

towards right and slightly downward in your sketch. Now you can see that this is exactly outward from the centre of

your chart, in other words exactly to the north.

198. MNPS is the abbreviation for:

Minimum Navigation Performance Specification

199. In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbojet aircraft is the:

Mach number

200. Refer to the picture below:

The inertial navigation system (INS) indicates: Position: 71 55.1'N 09455.3'W, Drift: 6L (left)

The route followed in order to return to the VOR station is the meridian of the VOR station used:

RESOLUTE BAY (7443.6'N 09455.3W), this VOR has North set on the local geographic meridian.

The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North (chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to zero

meridian, Grid North in the direction of geographic North Pole).

The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at this moment:

(The distance DME is in the box)

2


201. The chart type is polar stereographic with the grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid North in the

direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro is not fitted with a rate correction device.

The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at 5957'N 01030'E is switched to free

gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading 120. A

technical problem delays take off until 16.30 UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero, was not reset prior

to take off.

The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will be:

+32.5

202. On a polar stereographic chart where the earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel 60N

is 20, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is:

9.2 NM

The given earth convergency is 20 at N60. The formula dlong = earth conv / sin lat shows a dlong of 23.1 between A

and B.

Draw a circle with its centre at the NP and a radius of 1800 NM corresponding to the distance NP to N60; sketch a

angle of +/- 11.55. The secant represents the straight line between A and B. At half way the distance between

secant and circumference is 1800 NM x (1-cos 11.55) = 36.45 NM.

This result can be checked on the chart AT5 between A at N60 W128 30 and B at N60 W151 30

As the given earth convergency is only 20 degrees you now sketch an angle of +/- 10. The above formula gives the

distance between N60 and the great circle: 1800 NM x (1-cos 10) = 27.35NM

Finish the calculations with the following conclusions:

N60 and the straight line differ by 36.45 NM

N60 and the great circle differ by 27.35 NM

The straight line and the great circle differ by only 9.1 NM

203. The pilot uses a South polar stereographic chart with grid parallel with the zero meridian and Grid North in

the direction of geographic North along this meridian.

The aircraft position is 80S 130E, its true route is 110, the grid route at this moment is:

240

204. At 18h40min UTC, a complete failure of the inertial systems of an aircraft flying on the LONDON-

ANCHORAGE line occurs in the geographic North Pole region. The wind is nil, the grid heading at this moment is 315.

The crew then uses the Sun to continue the flight. The bearing of the Sun on occurrence of the failure is:

NOTE: The time equation is nil. The chart used is a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the zero

meridians; the Grid North is in direction of the geographic North Pole.

325


205. In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) area, a pilot should first of all take the

following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:

Notify Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time

206. A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle.

The flight must be planned to take place:

At flight level FL 280 or less

207. For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must

be equipped with at least:

One Long Range Navigation System (LRNS)

a) Horizon binder "Flight planning and monitoring", Section 2 MNPS, Paragraph 8.3.1, page 27 of 29

b) Jeppesen student pilot route manual, Atlantic orientation chart AT(H/L)1, panel 8 of this chart (2nd last to the

right), paragraph C. Special routes for use within MNPSA with less than acceptable MNPS long range navigation

equipment

Read the question correctly! It says ....along notified special routes... SPECIAL ROUTES!! A number of SPECIAL

ROUTES have been developed for aircraft equipped with only one LRNS and carrying normal short-range navigation

equipment.....

Note: only ONE (!) LNRS

208. In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance

Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is:

131.800 MHz

209. In the event of communication failure in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace,

the pilot must:

Continue his flight compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledged by him

210. The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from:

27 North to 90 North

211. MNPS airspace in the applicable areas of the North Atlantic is defined between the following flight levels:

FL 285 and FL 420

212. When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be

located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:

2 hours of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine inoperative

213. The Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial Navigation System (INS), indicates the following information:

- Desired track (DTK) = 100

- Track (TK) = 120

Based on this information the:

Track Error Angle (TKE) is right (R)


214. The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance

Specification) airspace during an Eastbound flight normally is:

01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

215. The ascent or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a non

MNPS certified aircraft is:

Authorized under radar control if the aircraft is in VHF contact with the MNPS controller

216. The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance

Specification) airspace during a Westbound flight normally is:

11H30 UTC to 18H00 UTC

217. During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you

expect to cross the 30W meridian at 11H00 UTC ; you will then normally be :

Out of the organized flight track system

218. During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you

expect to cross the 30W meridian at 00H30 UTC ; you will then normally be;

Out of the organized flight track system

219. The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can

be at the very least:

Two inertial navigation units

220. The minimum longitudinal separation of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Flight Level, on the

same track and with the same Mach number is:

10 minutes

221. The minimum lateral separation to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is:

60 NM

222. During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the

longitudinal spacing must be at least:

5 minutes

223. If both precision navigation systems of an aircraft are unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if

you cannot establish communication with the air traffic control, you:

Take an intermediate flight level

224. The minimum time track is a track defined for:

A given travel


225. A minimum time track is a :

Track determined according to weather conditions

226. On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of fuel and

lubricant sufficient for flying during:

30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

227. On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum

quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during:

2 hours with normal cruising consumption

228. During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you

expect to cross the 30W meridian at 1000 UTC; you will normally be :

In random airspace

The hours of validity of the two Organised Track Systems (OTS) are normally as follows: Day-time OTS 1130 UTC to

1800 UTC at 30W, Night-time OTS 0100 UTC to 0800 UTC at 30W. If a flight is crossing 30W not within the above

times, but the deviation is 60 minutes or less, this is called "out of the organised route system". If the deviation is

more than 60 minutes, this is called "in random airspace". This can be found in the Jeppesen/Oxford book Flight

planning and monitoring"

229. During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you

expect to cross the 30W meridian at 2330 UTC; you will normally be :

In random airspace

230. The abbreviation MNPS means:

Minimum Navigation Performance Specification

231. The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in

NAT region is:

123.45 MHz

232. A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised

Track System) must be done:

At or prior entering the NAT region

233. If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended

organised track should be defined in items of the FPL by:

The abbreviation "NAT" followed by the code letter assigned to the track

234. In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the

direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to

maintain its assigned flight level should:

If above FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome



direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to


If at FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome


direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to


Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 15 NM from its assigned route or track

New In Flight Contingency Procedures

===============================

(Effective 16th February 2006)

The new contingency procedure will require aircraft to acquire a track separated by 15nm (28km), instead of the

current requirement of 30nm (56km), from the assigned track. It is recognised that, in establishing on a reciprocal

track laterally separated from the assigned track by 15NM, it is likely that many aircraft will have to overshoot the

track to be acquired

237. An air traffic unit may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west south of 70N between

5W and 65W, every:

10 of longitude

238. An air traffic units may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west north of 70N between

10W and 50W, every:

20 of longitude

239. Which errors in "estimates" minutes shall be reported by aircraft overflying the North Atlantic?

3 or more

240. The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:

60 NM between aircraft flying above FL285

241. Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is used when operating

in MNPS airspace?

60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical

242. At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region?

Between FL290 and FL410

243. Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:

Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft whichever is higher

244. According to the EU OPS rules, the route of a twin-engined aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off

mass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 19 passengers must be planned

in such a way that on one engine an appropriate aerodrome can be reached within:

60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative


245. A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have:

Reduced range

246. For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude and the lock-on altitude increase.

The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of choosing cruising levels which increase during the flight in order to

fly :

About the optimum altitude

247. In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro

heading, follow a:

Great circle line

A free gyro maintains its direction in space and in the absence of astronomic precession effect as well on the surface

of the earth.

Therefore, a straight line on the earth represents a great circle.

248. Posit:

g, the longitude difference

Lm, the average latitude

Lo, the latitude of the tangent

The transport precession is equal to:

g.sin Lm

249. Posit:




The correct formula of the conversion angle applied, during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to:

g/2.sin Lm

250. During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North

with respect to the:

True North

251. During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of

the gyro North with respect to the:

Grid North for a given chart

252. Astronomic precession is:

Existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying

253. Posit:




The correct formula expressing the travel precession applied during a transoceanic and polar navigation is equal to:

15/h.sin Lm


254. Astronomic precession:

Causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the southern hemisphere

255. Astronomic precession:

Causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern hemisphere

256. According to the EU-OPS regulations, an IFR flight with no alternate airfield can be undertaken only if the

minimum weather conditions stipulated in the regulations are effective for at least:

1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival

257. A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth

magnetic field is less than:

6 micro-tesla

258. Arriving at the entry point of the MNPS airspace (except Shanwick Oceanic) and not having yet received the

oceanic clearance, the crew:

Keeps flying in accordance with the current flight plan

259. Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace of the North Atlantic is comprised within:

Flight levels 285 and 420 from the North parallel 27 to the pole

260. Penetration into the North Atlantic Ocean airspace is:

Subject to a mandatory clearance

261. The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to:

The ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures)

262. An airline operator shall make sure that if the aircraft planned for the flight is a performance class B

aeroplane, it will be able, throughout its flight route or its alternate route scheduled from this initial route, to reach a

climb rate of at least:

300ft/min with all engines operating at maximum continuous power

263. In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and

FL410 inclusive is:

1 000 ft

264. An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) in MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with

its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain FL 370. Due to a total loss of communications capability, it is

unable to obtain a revised clearance from ATC.

The aircraft should offset from the assigned route by 15 NM and:

Climb or descend 500 ft


265. An aircraft flying above flight level 410 on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its

air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles... etc), but is

able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised

clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90 (90 degrees) to the right of

left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction

track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and :

Climb or descend 1 000 ft

266. In case of total loss of communications, if an aircraft operating in MNPS airspace is unable to continue its

flight in accordance with its ATC clearance, it must offset from the assigned route by 15 NM and climb by 1000 ft or

descend by 500 ft to a level which differs from those normally used if flying:

At FL 410

267. An aircraft operating within MNPS airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic

control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability,

cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should offset from the assigned route by 15 NM and climb

or descend 500 ft, if:

Below FL 410

268. A minimum time route is a route calculated for:

A given flight from departure to destination


269. Refer to the figure below:

Flight in a twin-engine aircraft from Paris to Washington.

ETOPS authorization: 105 minutes at 420 kts

Track A: time 8 hours 3 minutes

Track B: time 8 hours 10 minutes

Track C: time 8 hours 15 minutes

Track D: time 8 hours 20 minutes

Give that the three alternate aerodromes taken into account are Shannon, Santa Maria, and St. John, the track to be

chosen between will be:

Track C

270. During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS airspace, you expect to cross the 30W meridian at 1330 UTC;

you will normally be:

In a day-time organised track system


271. In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the estimated time for the next

position has changed by:

3 minutes or more

272. According to North Atlantic MNPSA Operations Manual, what is the transponder code to be selected

continuously 30 minutes after entry into NAT airspace?

Code 2000


273. The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can

be allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:

The manufacturer and approved by the certification authority

274. The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be allowed

and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. The Mel is drawn up by:

The operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)

275. The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) shall be established by:

The operator and approved by the Authority

276. The reference document you shall use when a piece of equipment on your aircraft fails during taxy is:

The operation manual's chapter "Abnormal and Emergency Procedures"

277. A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while you are still parked. The reference

document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:

The minimum equipment list

278. According to EU-OPS, the Minimum Equipment List of an aircraft is to be found in the:

Operations Manual

279. The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) is drawn up by:

The manufacturer

280. The minimum equipment list (MEL) states the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a

flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly.

This list is established by:

The operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual

281. An operator is permitted to use an aircraft with certain items of equipment out of service if this is permitted

in:

The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) or Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)

282. The operator shall include in the Operations Manual a Minimum Equipment List which shall be approved by

the Authority of:

The country of the operator

283. The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) shall be established by:

The operator and approved by the Authority

284. According to EU-OPS, if a piece of equipment on the aircraft becomes inoperative while still parked, before

making the decision to proceed the reference document used is:

The Operations Manual under the heading "MEL"


285. The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL), if this exists, is established by:

The manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the Authority

286. Reference shall be made to the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) for equipment found unserviceable at any

time:

Prior to the flight time stage

287. The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under icing conditions, occurs on:

The aircraft front areas

288. The terminal VOR transmitters the following weather data. When do you expect carburetor icing?

Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +10C

Dew Point (DEWP): +7C

289. If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:

Greater than the actual

290. An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free at the latest when:

It is rotating (before taking-off)

291. An aircraft having undertaken an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the holdover time of the anti-

icing fluid:

Must undertake a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid for take-off

292. During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:

At the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage)

293. During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:

The anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot

294. According to EU-OPS, an operator shall not operate an aircraft in expected or actual icing conditions unless:

The aircraft is certified and equipped to operate in icing conditions

295. The accumulation of frost, snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:

Stalling speed

296. When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects:

1 - an increase in the take-off distance

2 - a diminution of the take-off run

3 - an increase in the stalling speed

4 - a diminution of the stalling speed

5 - a diminution of the climb gradient


1, 3, 5


297. The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a:

Certain time of protection depending on its concentration

298. The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:

1. the type and intensity of the showers

2. the ambient temperature

3. the relative humidity

4. the direction and speed of the wind

5. the temperature of the airplane skin

6. the type of fluid, its concentration and temperature


1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

299. The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the protection time:

During strong winds or as a result of the other aircraft engines jet wash

300. In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-icing fluid on your airplane, you are waiting to take-off

by:

1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft

2. avoiding positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft

3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft

4. positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft


1, 2

301. When an aircraft, having already undergone an anti-icing procedure, must be protected again:

First, you must de-ice again the surface of the airplane, then apply the new layer of anti-icing fluid

302. The holdover time of an anti-icing procedure, for a given ambient temperature, will be longest in weather

conditions of:

Frost

303. After anti-icing has been completed, a pre-departure inspection reveals presence of frost, ice or snow. The

correct action is to:

Carry out a new de-icing/anti-icing procedure

304. At a high ambient temperature (+ 30 C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in air free of cloud, fog

and precipitation, serious carburetor icing:

Can occur, but only at a low power setting

305. For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of

weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest ?

Freezing rain


306. In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check that:

External surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the airplane performance and

manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight manual

307. For stable clouds:

1- the most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0C and -10C

2- the most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0C and -15C

3- icing becomes rare at t < -18C

4- icing becomes rare at t < -30C

5- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and 0.03mm

6- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.004 and 0.2mm

Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements?

1 - 3 - 5

308. During the winter an aircraft is parked overnight prior to an early morning departure. The crews notice a

slight glistening ice deposit on top of the wings or blades which appears translucent. Under these conditions:

The aircraft should be sprayed with de-icing fluid of the correct type

309. An aircraft having undertaken an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the holdover time of the anti-

icing fluid:

Must undertake a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid before take-off

310. During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two steps, the holdover time starts:

At the beginning of the second step (anti-icing step)

311. According to EU-OPS, the commander shall not commence take-off:

Unless the external surfaces are clear of any deposit, except as permitted by Aircraft Flight Manual

312. According to OPS, the characteristics of de-icing and anti-icing fluids to be used for your aircraft can be found

in:

The operations manual

313. The observations and studies conducted on the behavior of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft taking

off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt, show that birds fly away:

About two seconds beforehand

314. As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilot's means of information and prevention are:

1 - ATIS.

2 - NOTAMs.

3 - BIRDTAMs.

4 - Weather radar.

5 - The report by another crew.


1,2,3,5


315. An analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk is encountered in a layer from:

From 0 to 150 m

316. 90 % of bird strikes occur:

Under 500 m

317. Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds?

Long grass

318. Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome?

A refuse tip in close proximity

319. The most efficient bird scaring technique generally available is:

Broadcasting of recorded distress calls

320. Whenever a potential bird hazard is observed, the commander shall:

Immediately inform the local ATS unit

321. During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control vibrations a landing must be made immediately.

Following this incident the pilot:

Must file a Bird Strike report

322. The highest risk of bird strikes occurs:

Under 2500 ft

323. The ICAO procedure designed to collect and disseminate information on bird strikes to aircraft is called:

IBIS (ICAO Bird Strike Information System)

324. According to ICAO noise abatement procedures during landing:

Shall not prohibit the use of reverse thrust

325. Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following

circumstances:

1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots.

2. when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots.

3. when the runway is not clear or dry.


1,2,3.


326. When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is:

240 m (800 ft)

327. According with the "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure NADP 2", as established in DOC 8168 -

Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching:

800 ft

328. According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part

V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to

the airport :

Is procedure A (NADP 1)

329. According to the recommended "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure NADP 1" established in ICAO,

DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, acceleration to en-route climb speed has to be done as soon as the aircraft

reaches :

3 000 ft

330. Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during

instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS the:

Operator

Documents

QDB 15 = Operational Procedures