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compteur number subject/section topic paragraph subpara provisional reference
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texte de la question réponseA
10000 ft (approx. 3000 m)
a great circle.
328°.
-5°.
A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude:
An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped with a cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
30 minutes or 2 hours of its operation, depending upon the date of the first issue of its individual Certificate of Airworthiness.
One of the primary factors causing dynamic hydroplaning is:
the depth of the standing water on the runway.
Articles and substances are considered to be dangerous goods if defined as such by:
the ICAO document entitled "Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air".
If a pilot has coupled the automatic pilot to the directional gyro equipped with a rate correction device set for astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is:
An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true heading equal to 090° while the directional gyro without an hourly rate correction device, indicates 000°.The aircraft arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on a true heading equal to 095°. During the flight from P to Q the directional gyro remains in free gyro mode.If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading at Q will be:
A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole.In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro mode after leaving the 6 microteslas zone, and the grid heading controlled by information from the inertial navigation system (INS) is 045°. After switching to "magnetic mode", the compass heading is 220°. The INS position at this moment is 76°N 180°W. The magnetic variation on the chart is 10°E.The compass deviation at this heading is:
3
076°.
136°.
295°.
MNPS is the abbreviation for:
Mach number.
(For this question use annex 071-2070A)
On the diagram where:
TN = True NorthMN = Magnetic NorthGN = Grid North
If the magnetic variation is equal to 65°W and if the grid variation is equal to 4°E, the correct arrangement of the different north is:
You plan to fly from point A (60°N 010°E) to point B (60°N 020°E).The North of the directional gyro with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A.The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from point A, given that the flight time scheduled is 1h30 min with a zero wind, is equal to:
When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:
maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic clearance.
A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the meridian 054°W, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole.An aircraft is following a true course of 330°.At position 80°N 140°E, what is the grid heading:
On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the true North pole, the true track of the great circle linking point 62°N 010°E to point 66°N 050°W is 305°. The grid route at the starting point of this great circle is:
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.
In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:
Track C
viscous.
+32.5°.
240°.
at FL 280 or less.
from front or rear side.
(For this question use annex 071-2083A)Given:Flight in a twin-engine aircraft from PARIS to WASHINGTONETOPS authorisation: 105 minutes at 420 ktTRACK A: Flight time 08h03TRACK B: Flight time 08h10TRACK C: Flight time 08h15TRACK D: Flight time 08h20Only three alternates are available: SHANNON, SANTA MARIA, ST JOHN TORBAY.The track to be chosen will be:
Viscous hydroplaning occurs primarily if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:
the runway is very smooth and dirty.
The type of hydroplaning that is most likely to occur at the touch down area located at both ends of the runway is called:
The chart type is polar stereographic with the grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro is not fitted with a rate correction device.The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at 59°57'N 010°30'E is switched to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading 120°. A technical problem delays take off until 16.30 UTC. The gyro was not reset prior to take off.The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will be:
The pilot uses a South polar stereographic chart with grid parallel with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction of geographic North along this meridian.The aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true route is 110°, the grid route at this moment is:
In the MNPS airspace, a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:
notify Air Traffic Control and wait for instructions within a reasonable period.
A flight via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle with no MNPS certification can be planned:
Following a landing with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. For safety reasons, the landing gear wheels should be approached:
2, 3, 4.
The aircraft operator.
1, 2, 3The MNPS airspace extends from: 27° North to 90° North.
285 and 420.
123.45 MHz.
In a aeroplane, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts and harnesses provided
1 - during taxying2 - during take-off3 - during landing4 - whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety5 - during other phases of the flight while at his station
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Who is responsible for providing an Operation Manual in accordance with JAR-OPS Subpart P for the use and guidance of the operations personnel?
Aircraft may operate in MNPS airspace along a number of special routes, if the aircraft is equipped with at least:
one Long Range Navigation System (LNRS).
In a light crosswind (approximately 5 kt) from the right behind an aeroplane taking off:
The right wake vortex remains approximately on the runway.
The wake turbulence is the most severe when the generating aeroplane is:
1. flying slowly2. heavy3. in a clean configuration4. flying with high thrust
The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is:
The MNPS airspace extends vertically between flight levels:
In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is:
In the event of communication failure in an MNPS airspace, the pilot must:
continue the flight in compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledged.
The commander.
the country of the operator.
1, 2, 3.
Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation?
For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
one hour flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed.
According to JAR-OPS, on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:
the planning minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome.
In accordance with JAR-OPS, refuelling performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft:
is acceptable provided that the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas must be kept clear.
The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List which shall be approved by the Authority of:
According to ICAO noise abatement procedures during landing:
shall not prohibit the use of reverse thrust.
Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following circumstances:
1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots.2. when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots.3. when the runway is not clear or dry.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the initial action to be taken by the flight deck crew is to:
put on the oxygen mask and goggles.
1, 2, 3.
110% of the seating capacity.
220.
25000 ft.
1, 2, 4.
Malfunctioning of the automatic pressurization system is indicated by:
1. a change in environmental sounds.2. the cabin altitude gauge indicates an abnormal rate of climb.3. the differential pressure between the exterior and the interior of the aircraft decreases.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Who initially is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as dangerous goods is not prohibited?
The shipper when completing the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.
An aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL370. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required is at least:
For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:
provide undiluted oxygen for passengers who, for physiological reasons, might require oxygen following a cabin depressurisation.
An aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 390. Given that:
Maximum approved passenger seating configuration = 230Number of seats on board = 200Scheduled number of passengers on board = 180
According to JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) shall be:
According to JAR-OPS 1, oxygen masks for use by flight crew members shall be a quick donning type of mask, in pressurised aeroplanes operating at pressure altitudes above:
According to JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall not operate across areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, unless it is equipped with:1 - signalling equipment2 - at least one ELT3 - at least 2 ELTs4 - additional survival equipment for the route to be flown.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:
the operator
the manufacturer
the shipper.
2, 4
2, 4.
1, 3.
1, 3.
a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.
The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) shall be established by:
The MMEL (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
The dangerous goods transport document shall be drawn up by:
During a manual approach, the aeroplane is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aeroplane:
1. flies above the intended approach path2. flies below the intended approach path3. has an increasing true airspeed4. has a decreasing true airspeed
The combination of correct statements is:
During a manual approach, the aeroplane is subjected to windshear with an increasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aeroplane:
1- flies above the intended approach path2- flies below the intended approach path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a decreasing true airspeed
The combination of correct statements is:
During a manual approach, the aeroplane is subjected to windshear with an increasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aeroplane:
1- flies above the intended approach path2- flies below the intended approach path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a decreasing true airspeed
The combination of correct statements is:
During a manual approach, the aeroplane is subjected to windshear with a decreasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aeroplane:
1- flies above the intended approach path2- flies below the intended approach path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a decreasing true airspeed
the combination of correct statements is:
2, 4.
take-off.
A minimum time track is a:
After take-off, an aeroplane is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aeroplane:
1- flies above the climb-out path2- flies below the climb-out path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a decreasing true airspeed
The combination of correct statements is:
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, for aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude of 39000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units and outlets shall exceed:
the number of seats by at least 10%.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, regarding the first aid oxygen, the supply of undiluted oxygen carried on board a pressurised aeroplane with 8 passengers operated at pressure altitude 27000 ft, shall be sufficient for at least:
1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude exceeds 8000 ft.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, if the flight is to be carried out at FL 290, demonstration concerning oxygen equipment must be completed before:
track determined according to wind conditions
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a final reserve fuel for:
30 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
In accordance with the fuel policy for isolated aerodromes (JAR-OPS 1), for aeroplanes with turbine engines, the amount of Additional Fuel should not be less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome for:
2 hours at normal cruise consumption, including final reserve fuel.
For three- and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
2 hours flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed.
In accordance with JAR-OPS, on board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than:
10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft
1,2,3,4,5
25 000 ft
0100 UTC to 0800 UTC
1130 UTC to 1900 UTC
Two inertial navigation systems.
10 minutes.
60 NM.
5 minutes
climbing or descending 500 feet
According to JAR-OPS, in establishing the aerodrome operating minima which will apply to any particular operation, an operator must take full account of:
1. equipment available on the aircraft2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways3. composition of the flight crew4. obstacles in the approach and missed approach areas5. means to determine and report the meteorological conditions
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, for the flight crew members, quick donning type of oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurised aeroplane operating at a pressure altitude above:
The validity period of a nigh-time organised track system in MNPS airspace is normally at 30°W, between:
The validity period of a day-time OTS in the MNPS airspace is normally, at 30°W, between:
During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC ; you will then normally be:
outside of the validity period of the organised track system.
During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC ; you will then normally be ;
out of the validity period of organised flight track system
The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least:
The minimum longitudinal separation of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Flight Level, on the same track and with the same Mach number is:
The minimum lateral separation to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is:
During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal separation must not be below:
If all long range navigation systems of an aircraft become unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if no instructions are received from the air traffic control, you must consider:
Minimum time route is a route calculated for:The term decision height (DH) is used for: a precision approach.
50 NM
550 m
200 m
75 m
seats in the cabin.
a given flight from departure to destination
According to JAR-OPS 1, the recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an aeroplane by an operator must not be less than:
3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aeroplane or approved simulator, of the aeroplane type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
According to JAR-OPS, a life jacket is mandatory for each person on board a land aeroplane, when flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than:
Unless sufficient life-rafts to carry all persons on board are carried, on overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is suitable for making an emergency landing, greater than that corresponding to ...(i)...minutes at cruising speed or ....(ii)... nautical miles, whichever is the lesser, for aeroplanes capable of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical power unit(s) becoming inoperative at any point along the route or planned diversions.
(i) 120 minutes (ii) 400 nautical miles
A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
According to JAR-OPS 1, a category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
According to JAR-OPS 1, a category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
The Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial Navigation System (INS), indicates the following information:
- Desired track (DTK) = 100°- Track (TK) = 120°
Based on this information the:Track Error Angle (TKE) is right (R)
The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is:
Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration
To avoid wake turbulence, when flying behind and close to a large aeroplane, the pilot should manoeuvre whenever possible:
above and upwind from the large aeroplane.
The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the approved number of:
110°.
25 hours of operation.
The abbreviation MNPS means:
30 minutes of operation.
13 000 ft
123.45 MHz.
10° of longitude.
20° of longitude.
During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 0300 UTC; you will normally be:
in a night-time organised track system.
During a flight from Europe, scheduled in MNPS airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1330 UTC; you will normally be:
in a day-time organised track system
The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard side with a coverage angle of:
According to JAR-OPS 1, for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, flight data recorders shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last:
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, for aeroplanes certified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder (CVR), when required, must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last:
In accordance with JAR-OPS, on board a non-pressurised aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is:
A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done:
At or prior entering the oceanic airspace.
If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks in the MNPS airspace, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by:
the abbreviation "NAT" followed by the code letter assigned to the track.
In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained, an aircraft not able to maintain its assigned flight level should:
minimise its rate of descent while acquiring a 15 NM offset track.
Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every:
Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every:
3 minutes or more.
operations manual.
140°
green light
red steady light
110°
1.3
great circle line
In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the estimated time for the next position has changed by:
The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:
60 NM between aircraft meeting minimum navigation performance specifications.
Which separation will be provided if RVSM is used when operating in MNPS airspace?
60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within the NAT region?
Between FL290 and FL410 inclusive.
Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:
Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft above ground whichever is the higher.
Without ETOPS Approval, an operator shall not operate a two-engined Class A aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 20 or more over a route which contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome, at a distance flown:
in 60 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed.
Information concerning emergency evacuation procedures shall be found in the:
A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in:
the Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air.
The coverage angle of the regulatory white navigation / position lights, located to the rear of the aircraft, is:
The climb or descent through MNPS airspace of a non MNPS certified aircraft:
can be authorised under radar control if the pilot is in VHF contact with the controller
During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
The coverage angle of the red navigation / position light is:
When establishing an instrument approach procedure, five aeroplane categories are determined according to their speed at the threshold (VAT). This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing mass multiplied by a factor of:
In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a:
true North
grid North for a given chart
Astronomic precession is:
Astronomic precession:
Astronomic precession:
3600 m
2400 m
1600 m
1500 m
at the estimated time of arrival
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North with respect to the:
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the:
existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying
causes an apparent wander on the axis of the directional gyro to the left in the southern hemisphere
causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern hemisphere
According to JAR-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category D aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:
According to JAR-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category C aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:
According to JAR-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category B aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:
According to JAR-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category A aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:
According to the JAR-OPS 3, an IFR flight with no alternate heliport can be undertaken only if the visual meteorological conditions (VMC) at the destination heliport are effective:
The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:
the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority
The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures under which this allowance can be accepted . The MEL shall be drawn up by:
the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)
The correct statement concerning extinguishing agents onboard aircraft is:
Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aircraft.
In case of a cargo compartment fire, the system which should be switched off, is generally the:
ventilation of the cargo compartment
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2, 4
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 3
You could use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for:
1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fire
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for:
1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fire
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will:
1. set the maximum take-off thrust2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker3. retract gear and flaps, if they are extended4. keep gear, flaps and slats in current configuration and retract the speed brakes5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements:
1. mist in the cabin2. air streaming out of the aircraft3. expansion of body gases4. blast of air released violently from the lungs
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A slow decompression may be caused by:
1. a leak in a doorseal during normal pressurised flight2. loss of a cabin window3. malfunction of all pressurised systems4. loss of a door
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
to descend
One of the main characteristics of windshear is:
6 micro-tesla
Indicated airspeed.
A 7500
stalling speed
Annex 18
ICAO Annex 18 is a document dealing with:
FL 285 and FL 420
Penetration into the NAT MNPS airspace is:
1,3
heavy at low airspeed.
When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends:
Aeroplane wake turbulence during take off starts when:
the nose wheel lifts off the runway.
it can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes.
A polar track is a part of a track which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than:
Which parameter will change first, when penetrating a horizontal windshear?
What is the transponder code to be used by the commander of an aircraft that is subject to unlawful interference?
The accumulation of frost, snow or ice on an aeroplane in flight induces, amongst other serious consequences, an increase in the:
The ICAO Annex dealing with the safe transport of dangerous goods by air is:
the safety of the air transport of dangerous goods.
Arriving at the entry point of MNPS airspace (except Shanwick Oceanic) and not having yet received the oceanic clearance, the crew:
keeps flying in accordance with the current flight plan
MNPS airspace in the applicable areas of the North Atlantic is defined between the following flight levels:
subject to a mandatory clearance
In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind which forces you to go around. You
1- maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and flaps)2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps)3- gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick shaker4- avoid excessive attitude change
The combination of correct statements is:
At a given configuration, the wake turbulence of an aeroplane is greater when the aeroplane is:
According to JAR-OPS, an operator shall not operate an aircraft in expected or actual icing conditions unless:
the aircraft is certificated and equipped to operate in icing conditions.
to put on the oxygen mask
1, 2, 5
2, 3, 4, 5.
The highest risk of bird strikes occurs: under 2500 ft.
During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be:
The North Atlantic airspace is regulated, among other, according to:
the ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures)
In regard to the warning of bird strike hazards, pilots may obtain information by means of:
1 - ATIS.2 - NOTAMs.3 - BIRDTAMs.4 - Weather radar.5 - The report by another crew.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
An operator shall ensure that information relevant to the flight is preserved on the ground for the duration of each flight or series of flights. This includes:
1 - appropriate meteorological information;2 - a copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the mass and balance documentation;3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft technical log;4 - route specific NOTAM documentation if specifically edited by the operator;5 - special loads notification;6 - copies of the day's performances and limitations with completed charts.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the pre-selected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of windshears in final phase. you must:
maintain the aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive speed deviation, monitor the speed evolution.
While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs you about the presence of a "microburst". You will expect to encounter:
windshears (vertical and horizontal).
If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
in a straight line and at a relatively high flight level.
1, 3
1, 3, 5
1, 2, 4, 5, 6
Just after take-off an aircraft encounters a "microburst" situated directly ahead. The initial indications will be:
1 - an increase in head wind2 - an increase in tail wind3 - better climb performance4 - a decrease in climb gradient
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice, snow or frost will cause the following effects:
1 - an increase in the take-off distance2 - a decrease of the take-off run3 - an increase in the stalling speed4 - a decrease of the stalling speed5 - a decrease of the best climb gradient
The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is:
The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aeroplane on the ground will provide a:
limited time of protection, dependent on the outside temperature, precipitations and fluid mixture.
An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness on or after 1 April 1998, which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which records:
1 - Voice communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck by radio2 - The aural environment of the flight deck3 - The cabin attendants communications in the cabin using the aeroplane's interphone system4 - Voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the aeroplane's interphone system5 - Voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker6 - Voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the public address system, if installed
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
200 m
1 000 ft AGL
300 ft
3 months
is procedure B
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the cockpit voice recorder, when required, must start to record automatically:
prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of the flight when the aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own power.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are:
MDH=500 ft and visibility=1600 m
In accordance with JAR OPS 1, the operator shall ensure that:
special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km.
In accordance with JAR OPS 1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category III A approach, the RVR shall not be less than:
According with the "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B", as established in ICAO PANS OPS 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching:
In accordance with JAR-OPS an operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a NDB approach is:
In accordance with JAR-OPS, an operator shall ensure that a copy of the operational flight plan is stored in an acceptable form for at least:
According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO PANS OPS 8168 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in the biggest noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport:
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as commander unless:
he has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
JAR-OPS 1 requires that a co-pilot does not serve at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless:
he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane of the same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used in the preceding 90 days.
75 m
paper, fabric, carpet
1, 2, 3
the fire is no longer detected.
1 megaphone.
2, 3
contaminated.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be:
5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type/class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
In accordance with JAR OPS 1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category III B approach, the RVR shall not be less than:
A hand water fire-extinguisher should be used on a fire of:
A halon fire-extinguisher should be used on a fire of:
1 - paper, fabric, plastic2 - flammable liquids 3 - flammable gases4 - metals
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
On most of the large modern aeroplanes, an engine fire warning system will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle.The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
In accordance with the JAR-OPS, a single deck aeroplane, equipped with an approved seating capacity of 61 seats and carrying passengers, must be equipped with at least:
In accordance with the JAR-OPS 1 and with the exception of amphibians and seaplanes, the carriage of a life jacket for each person on board is compulsory when the aeroplane is:
1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able to return in the case of an engine failure.2. is flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than 50 NM.3. is using departure and arrival paths over water and when a ditching probability exists.4. is flying over a stretch of water at more than 40 NM off shore.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) shall be established by:
the operator and approved by the Authority.
A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:
2
2
1.
12 seconds.
1, 2, 4
a rapid depressurization.
According to JAR-OPS, the minimum number of hand fire-extinguishers to be located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is:
According to JAR-OPS 1, the minimum number of crash axes or crowbars on board an aeroplane, whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is more than 200, is:
The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of:
1. An aerodynamic effect (wing tip vortices).2. The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas exhausts).3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing gear, of the flaps, etc.).
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
An aircraft having undertaken an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the holdover time of the anti-icing fluid:
must undertake a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid before take-off.
The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:
In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain:
1. you increase your approach speed,2. you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose gear,3. you decrease your approach speed,4. you use systematically all the lift dumper devices,5. you land as smoothly as possible,6. you brake energically.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
you descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.
Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:
when outside the aircraft.
2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
During the passenger briefieng for a flight requiring life jackets, the passengers shall be instructed to inflate their life jackets:
In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants should:
1. evacuate women and children first.2. have the passengers embark directly in the life rafts.3. prevent passenger movements which may impede the aircraft's flotation ability.4. ensure the complete evacuation of the aircraft.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:
provide undiluted oxygen to passengers for physiological reasons following a cabin depressurisation.
During a de-icing / anti-icing procedure carried out in two steps, the holdover time starts:
at the beginning of the second step (anti-icing step).
A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for:
1. a paper fire2. a fabric fire3. an electric fire4. a wood fire5. a hydrocarbon fire
The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is:
A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:
1. a paper fire2. a hydrocarbon fire3. a fabric fire4. an electrical fire5. a wood fire
The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is:
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, for a pressurised aircraft, the definition of supplemental oxygen is:
oxygen supplied to the aeroplane occupants in the case of cabin pressurisation failure.
According to JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 10 seats must be equipped with:
one hand fire-extinguisher on the flight deck and one hand fire-extinguisher in the passenger compartment.
1, 3, 5
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
either from the front or the rear.
2, 4
carry out a dry cranking.
A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for:
1. a paper fire2. a hydrocarbon fire3. a fabric fire4. an electrical fire5. a wood fire
The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is:
According to JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 200 must be equipped with:
3 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment.
The complete information regarding the types of goods which the passengers are forbidden from transporting aboard an aircraft is listed in the:
ICAO document "Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air".
The actual protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:
1. the type and intensity of the showers2. the ambient temperature3. the relative humidity4. the direction and speed of the wind5. the temperature of the aircraft skin6. the type of fluid, its concentration and temperature
The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is:
The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce the holdover time considerably:
during strong winds or as a result of other aircraft engines jet blast / propeller blast.
Due to a risk of tyre explosions when the brakes are very hot, the landing gear should be approached:
In the case of overheating of the brakes following the landing, the appropriate action at the parking position is:
1. set parking brake on2. set parking brake off, with chocks in position3. spray water on the brakes4. ventilate the brakes
The combination regrouping of all the correct statements is:
In case of an engine exhaust pipe fire while on the ground, you should abort the starting procedure and:
3 minutes.
1, 4
1, 2
The wake turbulence:
When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with the wind coming from the right side, you adopt, whenever possible:
a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the right of and above its path.
When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with the wind coming from the left side, you adopt, whenever possible:
a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the left of and above its path.
The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
According to JAR-OPS, at least one of the following hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently located on the flight deck:
a halon fire-extinguisher or equivalent.
A crew member is allowed to carry safety matches:
1. on himself2. in his hand baggage3. in his checked baggage4. for his own use
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-icing fluid on an aeroplane, the commander should:
1. avoid positioning the aeroplane in the engine jet blast of the preceding aeroplane2. avoid positioning the aeroplane in the turbo-prop wash of the preceding aeroplane3. position the aeroplane in the engine jet blast of the preceding aeroplane 4. position the aeroplane in the turbo-prop wash of the preceding aeroplane
The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is:
In calm wind conditions, an aircraft at take-off creates tip vortices that:
separate outwards on each side of the runway.
In icing conditions, if you have exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is to:
de-ice the aircraft again, then apply anti-icing fluid.
starts at rotation and stops as soon as the aeroplane's wheels touch the ground.
JAR-OPS 1 applies to:
The shipper.
60 days.
In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at:
low altitude diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals.
According to JAR-OPS, when a flight data recorder is required, it must start automatically to record the data:
prior to the aircraft being capable of moving under its own power.
In accordance with JAR-OPS, when the flight data recorder is required, it must stop automatically to record the data:
after the aircraft is unable to move by its own power.
the operation by a JAA state member of any civil commercial transport aeroplane.
In regards to ICAO Annex 18, when offering dangerous goods for transportation by air, who initially is responsible for compliance with the regulations?
An operator shall ensure that for the duration of each flight or series of flights, relevant information is preserved on the ground. This includes:
mass and balance documentation, if required.
Following an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:
When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on board, the commander:
shall comply within a reasonable period of time.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least:
1 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least:
2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 61 to 200 seats must be equipped with at least:
3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 201 to 300 seats must be equipped with at least:
4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 301 to 400 seats must be equipped with at least:
5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
1, 2, 3, 4.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 401 to 500 seats must be equipped with at least:
6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 501 to 600 seats must be equipped with at least:
7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 600 seats must be equipped with at least:
8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped (including flight deck) with at least:
3 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and less than 200 seats must be equipped with a:
crash axe or a crow-bar on the flight deck.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, for a pressurised aeroplane, during and following an emergency descent, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with a minimum supplemental oxygen quantity:
1. In order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 13000 ft.2. In order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes.3. In no case less than 30 minutes for aeroplanes certificated to fly up to 25000 ft.4. In no case less than 2 hours for aeroplanes certificated to fly over 25000 ft.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, for a pressurised aeroplane, the minimum requirement for supplemental oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers following a cabin pressurisation failure, is:
the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15000 ft, but in no case less than 10 minutes.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if required, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of the entire aeroplane occupants:
in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity.
10000 ft.
13000 ft.
seats by 10 %.
Speed is greater than 129 kt.
Speed is greater than 119 kt.
Speed is greater than 108 kt.
Speed is greater than 98 kt.
Speed is greater than 138 kt.
The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:
80 kt.
frost
In accordance with JAR-OPS, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:
In accordance with JAR-OPS, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:
In accordance with JAR-OPS, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than:
10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, on aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude above 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units shall exceed the number of:
For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as:
from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing.
When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:
beyond the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.
An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:
In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:
State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO.
The holdover time of an anti-icing procedure, for a given ambient temperature, will be longest in weather conditions of:
360°.
Technical Instructions.
150 m.
250 m.
800 m.
The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of the Antarctic regions. A grid, printed over it, is aligned with meridian 180°, the grid North is pointing in the direction of the geographic North (non standard grid).The grid course followed by the aircraft is 280°, the position is 80°S 100°E.The true course followed at this moment is:
A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:
a decision height not lower than 100 ft
The content of the dangerous goods transport document is specified in the:
According to JAR-OPS 3 and assuming the following circumstances:
- for onshore Performance Class 1 operations- a heliport equipped with runway edge lighting, centre line marking and RVR information- an acceptable alternate heliport is available,
the minimum RVR / Visibility required for IFR departure is:
According to JAR-OPS 3 and assuming the following circumstances:
- for offshore Performance Class 1 operations- two pilot operations- an offshore helideck- an acceptable alternate heliport is available,
the minimum RVR / Visibility required for IFR departure is:
According to JAR-OPS 3 and assuming the following circumstances:
- for onshore Performance Class 2 operations- an acceptable alternate heliport is available,
the minimum RVR / Visibility required for take-off is:
The reference document you shall use when a piece of equipment on your helicopter fails during taxy is:
the Operations Manual under the heading "Emergency Procedures".
Freezing rain
operator
dry powder
to put on oxygen masks
According to JAR-OPS 3, when flying VFR navigating by means other than by reference to the visual landmarks, the final reserve fuel should be sufficient to fly for:
30 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
According to JAR-OPS 3, for a VFR flight by day with reference to visual landmarks, the final reserve fuel should be sufficient to fly for:
20 minutes of flight at best range speed.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 3, when an operator's fuel policy includes planning to an isolated heliport flying IFR, for which a destination alternate does not exist, the amount of fuel at departure: should include additional fuel to
fly 2 hours at holding speed, including final reserve fuel.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 3, when an operator's fuel policy includes planning to an isolated heliport flying VFR by day with reference to visual landmarks, for which a destination alternate does not exist, the amount of fuel at departure: is the same as for non-isolated
heliports where an alternate heliport is accessible.
After anti-icing has been completed, a pre-departure inspection reveals presence of frost, ice or snow. The correct action is to:
carry out a new de-icing/anti-icing procedure
For a given ambient temperature and type of anti-icing fluid, in which of the following conditions will the holdover (protection) time be the shortest?
Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:
In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance
A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use is:
An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft . What is the initial action by the operating crew ?
a rate of climb
decreases
24500 ft
15100 ft
10000 ft
32000 ft
13000 ft
substantial
When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:
If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure:
(For this question use annex 071-10644A)Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
(For this question use annex 071-10645A)Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming you don't want the cabin altitude being greater than 10000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
According to JAR-OPS 1, following a decompression, the maximum pressure altitude at which each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty are able to fly with no supplemental oxygen with no flight time limitation is:
Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the "normal" position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ?
The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:
Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the amount of control action that is required is:
In the "worst case" scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to:
increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker is felt and hold at slightly below this angle
7.4 km (4 NM)
9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes
3 minutes
M
3 minutes
A 7500
15 minutes
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a HEAVY aeroplane is following directly behind another HEAVY aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?
Regarding wake turbulence, what are the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and the minimum non-radar separation time for a MEDIUM aircraft behind a HEAVY aeroplane on approach to the same runway?
Regarding wake turbulence, what is the ICAO minimum non-radar separation time for a LIGHT aircraft behind a MEDIUM or HEAVY aeroplane on approach to the same runway?
In accordance with ICAO and PANS-ATM procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg:
Regarding wake turbulence, what is the ICAO minimum separation time for a LIGHT aircraft taking off behind a MEDIUM or HEAVY aeroplane from an intermediate part of the same runway?
Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander shall submit a report to:
both the designated local authority and the Authority in the State of the operator.
According to ICAO Annex 17, following an unlawful interference, who shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft, until their journey can be continued?
The contracting State where the aircraft is located.
Whenever practicable, what transponder code shall be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference:
According to JAR-OPS 1 Subpart K, in an aeroplane with a maximum configuration of more than 19 passengers, the door between the passenger compartment and the flight deck compartment shall have locking means
to prevent passengers from opening it without permission of a member of the flight crew.
In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the specified approach and landing climb performance requirements:
1, 2, 3, 4
English.
1, 2, 3, 4The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is: 24 hours
129 kt
poor
temperature of the brakes.
During the certification flight tests regarding fuel jettisoning it must be shown that:
1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
In accordance with JAR-OPS, where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of a State, which language(s) must be used on the transport document in addition to any other language?
Which of the following items, required to be on board an aircraft for operating reasons in accordance with the relevant JARs, are classified as dangerous goods?
1. Fire extinguishers2. Self-inflating life jackets3. Portable oxygen supplies4. First-aid kits
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur is:
How is the uncleared part of a contaminated runway reported in a SNOWTAM?
In plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM.
A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers including:
2 Halon fire-extinguishers or equivalent.
In accordance with JAR-OPS, the take-off climb procedures for noise abatement to be specified by the operator should be:
for any one aeroplane type, the same for all aerodromes.
Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should pay attention to the:
Operations Manual.
1, 3
15 %
In compliance with JAR-OPS, unless otherwise specified, when carrying dangerous goods on board a public transport aircraft, they must be accompanied by:
a dangerous goods transport document.
Information, instructions and general guidance on the transport of dangerous goods are included in the:
According to JAR-OPS, the commander shall not commence take-off:
unless the external surfaces are clear of any deposit, except as permitted by Aircraft Flight Manual.
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when:1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of water.2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance.3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water.4. it bears stagnant sheets of water.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:
its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.
According to JAR-OPS, when a commercial transport passenger aircraft is equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment area, this door must include:
a locking system to prevent any unauthorised access.
Whenever a potential bird hazard is observed, the commander shall:
immediately inform the local ATS unit.
Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
2, 3, 4
air operator certificate.
operations manual.
The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:
In the JAR OPS, a runway is referred to as contaminated when more than 25 % of the required runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements:
1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway.2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water.3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further).4. ice, including wet ice.5. moist grass.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
The reference document you shall use when a piece of equipment on your aeroplane fails during taxy is:
the Operations Manual under the heading "Abnormal and Emergency Procedures".
According to JAR-OPS, if a piece of equipment on your aircraft becomes inoperative while you are still parked, before making the decision to proceed the reference document used is:
the Operations Manual under the heading "MEL".
The permanent approval for the transport of dangerous goods is specified in the:
According to JAR-OPS, the Minimum Equipment List of an aircraft is found in the:
Wake turbulence should be taken into account when:
a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the same runway, a light crosswind condition exist and all high-lift devices are being used.
To fight a fire in an air-conditioned class E cargo hold, the correct initial action is to:
shut off the ventilating airflow within the affected compartment.
an unavoidable landing or ditching with a reasonable expectancy of no injuries to persons in the aircraft or on the surface.
The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL), if this exists, is established by:
the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
The minimum equipment list (MEL) states the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list shall be established by:
the operator, and inserted in the operations manual
Wind shear is:
a large variation in vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a short distance.
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 3, 4
H2O extinguishers are fit to fight fires on: carbonaceous materials
1, 2, 3
On a pressurised aeroplane, supplemental oxygen is used to:
provide passengers on board with oxygen following a cabin depressurisation
Assuming that an operator is approved by the Authority to transport dangerous goods, the carriage of dangerous goods is allowed provided that:
the operator complies with the Technical Instructions (ICAO DOC 9284).
A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher could be used to fight the fire of:
1- paper, fabric, carpet2- flammable liquids3- electrical equipment4- metals, flammable gases, chemicals
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
The fire extinguisher types which may be used to fight fire on carbonaceous materials are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halon
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
The fire extinguisher types which may be used to fight fire on flammable liquids are:
1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halon
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight fire on:
1 - carbonaceous materials2 - flammable liquids3 - electrical equipment4 - metals
Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:
150 m.
1, 3.
113 kt
According to JAR-OPS 1, for operations under IFR or at night the minimum flight crew is 2 pilots for:
all turbo-propeller aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes
According to JAR-OPS 1 and assuming the following circumstances:
- for a Category A aeroplane- an aerodrome equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting and multiple RVR information- an acceptable alternate aerodrome is available,
the minimum RVR / Visibility required for take-off is:
In accordance with JAR-OPS, which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision approach?
1 - the required RVR2 - the ceiling3 - the minimum descent height (MDH)4 - the decision height (DH)
During an ILS procedure, if the reported RVR/visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond:
the outer marker or equivalent, or 1000 ft above the aerodrome / heliport if there is no outer marker or equivalent.
The aerodrome operating minima for a VOR/DME approach are:MDH = 360 ftRequired RVR = 1500 metres.
Reported RVR is 1800 metres.
According to JAR-OPS, the pilot may continue the final approach:
regardless of the ceiling reported.
The tyre pressure of an aeroplane main landing gear is 10,8 bars. There is a risk of hydroplaning as soon as the speed reaches:
In accordance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes:
no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a noise abatement procedure.
5 NM
Category D.
1 000 ft
climb or descend 500 ft
According to ICAO Doc 4444 , a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m.
According to ICAO Doc 4444, a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft.
In accordance with ICAO Doc 4444, when a MEDIUM aircraft preceeds a LIGHT aircraft using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, the wake turbulence radar separation minima on the approach or departure phases of flight shall be:
According to ICAO Doc 4444, a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to:
LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft.
According to ICAO Doc 4444, a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9.3 km (5.0 NM) shall be applied when a:
LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300m (1 000 ft)
Regarding all weather operations, if VAT is from 141 kt to165 kt, the aeroplane is in:
In airspace where MNPS is applicable, the minimum vertical separation between FL 290 and FL 410 is:
An aircraft flying at FL 370 in MNPS airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance but is able to maintain FL 370. Due to a total loss of communications capability, it is unable obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should offset from the assigned route by 15 NM and:
climb or descend 1 000 ft
at FL410
below FL410
136 000 kg or more.
prior to the flight time stage.
1500 meters
3 months
24 months
19
An aircraft flying above FL 410 in North Atlantic (NAT) Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right of left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and:
In case of total loss of communications, if an aircraft operating in MNPS airspace is unable to continue its flight in accordance with its ATC clearance, it must offset from the assigned route by 15 NM and climb by 1000 ft or descend by 500 ft to a level which differs from those normally used if flying:
An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should offset from the assigned route by 15 NM and climb or descent 500 ft, if:
Wake turbulence category HEAVY refers to aircraft which have a maximum certificated take-off mass of:
Reference shall be made to the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) for equipment found unserviceable at any time:
To conduct a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required by JAR-OPS 1 is:
In accordance with JAR-OPS, the operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period of:
In accordance with JAR-OPS, the operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of:
According to JAR-OPS 1, a public address system is required to operate an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than:
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, in an aeroplane in which fuses are used, the number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be at least:
10 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 3 of each rating, whichever is the greater
25 % with compacted snow
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3
According to JAR-OPS 1, a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation is required at each pilot station to operate an aeroplane with a:
maximum certificated take-off mass of more than 5700 kg
A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered more than:
According to JAR-OPS, the public address system must be audible and intelligible at:1 - all passenger seats2 - toilets3 - cabin crew seats4 - work stations
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
According to JAR-OPS 1, in order to be operated IFR or at night in areas with potentially hazardous weather conditions, an aeroplane must be equipped with an airborne weather radar when the aeroplane is:1 - pressurised2 - non-pressurised with a maximum take-off mass of more than 5700 kg3 - non-pressurised with a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 9 seats4 - non-pressurised regardless of weight or seating configuration
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
If the engine fails in the hover, at 3 ft skid height in still air, in a single engine helicopter, the recommended action is:
counteract yaw with pedals, maintain position with cyclic, cushion touchdown with collective
In some piston-engined helicopters, at high All Up Mass, unintentional over-pitching is more likely to occur:
in a transition to or from the hover.
In the event of an engine failure in a single engine helicopter in the cruise, the recommended sequence of immediate actions is:
lower collective, counteract yaw with pedals, select attitude for appropriate airspeed with cyclic, select landing site, transmit mayday, position helicopter for an into wind landing.
In a helicopter with manual throttle, if the main rotor is overpitched, the corrective action is to:
reduce collective pitch and increase engine power
If ground resonance is encountered in a helicopter during the landing procedure, the correct recovery action is:
to lift-off if rotor RPM sufficient, to shut down and apply rotor brake if rotor RPM insufficient
to reduce the collective pitch.
2 hours
In a helicopter with two main rotor blades, to minimise the dangers of rotor blade sailing and the risk of a tail boom strike in gusty wind conditions:
the start-up and shut-down should be carried out with the helicopter facing slightly out of wind
In the event that a helicopter experiences retreating blade stall, the initial corrective action is
In a helicopter which is more sensitive to ground resonance during landing at an unprepared site, at normal operating rotor RPM ground resonance can be prevented from developing to a critical point, if action is taken early enough, by:
applying collective pitch control and lifting off.
Blade sailing, with the possibility of a blade strike on the tail boom or rear fuselage, is most likely to occur:
during very low rotor RPM conditions, particularly whilst starting or stopping the rotor in gusty wind conditions
Ground resonance occurring when rotor RPM is NOT within operating limits may be stopped by:
shutting down the engine and applying the rotor brake as rapidly as possible
According to JAR-OPS, for a non pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:
required to operate at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft
In accordance with JAR-OPS, for a non pressurised aircraft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft
According to JAR-OPS, for a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft
According to JAR-OPS, for a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, for a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in no case less than:
final reserve fuel remaining.
5% of the planned trip fuel.
of 10% of the planned trip fuel.
performance class 1
3 km
60
3 life rafts of 30-seat capacity.
In accordance with JAR-OPS, a commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in flight is not less than the fuel required to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made with:
If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:
select two destination alternates.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 3, the amount of fuel to be carried by a helicopter for a IFR flight, when no alternate is required, should include a final reserve fuel quantity to fly:
30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the destination, in standard conditions.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 3, the amount of fuel to be carried by a helicopter on a VFR flight navigating by day with reference to visual landmarks, should include a final reserve fuel of quantity to fly :
20 minutes at best range speed.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 3, the amount of fuel to be carried by a helicopter on a VFR flight in a non-hostile environment should include contingency fuel of:
In accordance with JAR-OPS 3, the pre-flight fuel calculation, for a helicopter on an IFR flight should include contingency fuel quantity:
A helicopter with a Maximum take-off mass exceeding 5 700 kg conducting Helicopter Emergency Medical Service shall be operated in accordance with:
As a commander, if you are notified that a package of dangerous goods appears to be damaged, you:
ensure that arrangements are made for its removal.
The minimum visibility required by JAR OPS 1 to commence a special VFR flight is:
Assuming 60 passengers on board a land aeroplane. The intended track will overfly water for a distance of 80 NM from the shore. According to JAR-OPS 1, the minimum number of passenger life jackets to be on board is:
Assuming a multi-engine land aeroplane with 60 persons on board. The cruising speed is 180 kt. The aeroplane is capable of continuing the flight with the critical power-unit becoming inoperative. The track will overfly water for a distance of 380 NM from land which is suitable for making an emergency landing.According to JAR-OPS 1, the minimum number of life rafts shall be:
19
not below 800 ft
2, 3
800 m
10% of the planned trip fuel.
5% of the planned trip fuel.
In accordance with JAR OPS 3, a helicopter must be equipped with a megaphone when operated with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than:
In accordance with JAR OPS 3, EXCEPT for night VMC operations, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate a helicopter unless he has carried out (except when flying under the supervision of a nominated commander), at least:
3 take-offs, 3 circuits and 3 landings as pilot flying in a helicopter (or a flight simulator) of the same type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is NOT to be initiated at less than:
800 ft above aerodrome elevation
According to the recommended "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure" NADP2, established in ICAO Doc 8168, acceleration and flaps/slats retraction is initiated:
According to JAR-OPS 3, to operate a helicopter with a maximum approved passenger configuration of more than 9, along a route where thunderstorms or other potentially hazardous weather conditions are expected, an airborne weather radar equipment is required :
1 - for all day offshore operations2 - at night3 - for IFR flights4 - if MCTOM is more than 3175 kg
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
According to JAR-OPS 3, for Performance Class 2 operations onshore, the commander must operate to take-off minima with an RVR/VIS not lower than:
In accordance with JAR-OPS 3, except if a different value is approved by the authority, the contingency fuel for an IFR helicopter flight should be:
In accordance with JAR-OPS 3, except if a different value is approved by the authority, the contingency fuel for a VFR helicopter flight in a non hostile environment should be:
An operator is permitted to use an aircraft with certain items of equipment out of service if this is permitted in:
the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) or Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)
at the estimated time of arrival.
250 ft
300 ft
250 ft
Category C.
Category B.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 3, when an operator's fuel policy includes planning to an isolated heliport flying VFR and navigating by means other than by reference to visual landmarks, for which a destination alternate does not exist, the amount of fuel at departure: should include additional fuel to
fly 2 hours at holding speed, including final reserve fuel.
According to the JAR-OPS 3, a VFR flight, navigating by means other than by reference to visual landmarks, with no alternate heliport, can be undertaken only if the visual meteorological conditions (VMC) at the destination heliport are effective:
In accordance with JAR OPS 3, the operator shall ensure that:
for the conduct of VFR flights in class B airspace, horizontal distance from clouds is at least 1500 m.
In accordance with JAR-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for an ILS approach without the glidepath (LLZ only) is not lower than:
In accordance with JAR-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR approach is not lower than:
In accordance with JAR-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR/DME approach is not lower than:
For a twin-engine helicopter, if it is not possible to return to the heliport of departure due to meteorological reasons, the commander must select a take-off alternate within:
1 hour flight time at normal cruise speed.
In accordance with JAR OPS, where no outer marker or equivalent position exists, if the reported RVR/Visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond:
1000 ft above the aerodrome / heliport.
In accordance with JAR-OPS, during a VOR procedure, if the reported RVR/visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond:
1000 ft above the aerodrome / heliport on the final approach segment.
Regarding all weather operations, if VAT is from 121 kt to140 kt, the aeroplane is in:
Regarding all weather operations, if VAT is from 91 kt to120 kt, the aeroplane is in:
800 meters
1, 2, 4.
in the cockpit and cargo holds.
1, 2, 3, 4.
Provided the appropriate ATS authority permits use of a flight visibility less than 5 km and the IAS is 140 kt or less, in accordance with JAR-OPS 3 minimum visibilities for VFR operations, helicopters may be permitted to operate down to a flight visibility by day of:
The safety precautions to be taken when using 100% medical oxygen are:
1. refrain from smoking2. avoid sparks3. avoid operation of radio communication equipment4. operate oxygen system shut off valves slowly
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
When there is a risk of hydroplaning the pilot of an aeroplane:
should make a positive landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible
Halon or equivalent fire extinguishers can be used in case of fire fighting in an aeroplane:
During the winter an aircraft is parked overnight prior to an early morning departure. The crew notice a slight glistening ice deposit on top of the wings or blades which appears translucent. Under these conditions:
the aircraft should be sprayed with de-icing fluid of the correct type.
A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure?
Depart runway 09 with a tailwind.
In a helicopter, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts and harnesses provided
1 - during taxying2 - during take-off3 - during landing4 - whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety5 - during other phases of the flight while at his station
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
JAR-OPS 3 applies to:
9
9 seats.
the operation by a JAA state member of any civil commercial transport helicopter.
According to JAR-OPS 3, a helicopter with a passenger compartment seating capacity of 10 seats must be equipped with:
one hand fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and one hand fire-extinguisher in the passenger compartment.
According to JAR-OPS 3, in order to be operated IFR or at night with potentially hazardous weather conditions along the route to be flown, a helicopter must be equipped with airborne weather radar equipment if fitted with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than:
According to JAR-OPS 3, EXCEPT for night VMC operations, the recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on a helicopter by an operator must not be less than:
3 take-offs, 3 circuits and 3 landings as pilot flying on the same type of helicopter or flight simulator, of the helicopter type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
According to JAR-OPS 3, the minimum flight crew is 2 qualified pilots for:
Note: MAPSC=Maximum Approved Passenger Seating Configuration
IFR operations using helicopters with a MAPSC of more than 9 or operations using helicopters with a MAPSC of more than 19
Which of the following statements is correct concerning a take off from a contaminated runway?
In general the performance data for take off has been determined by means of calculation and has not been verified by flight tests.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 3, to operate a helicopter at night in areas with potentially hazardous weather conditions, it must be equipped with an airborne weather radar when the helicopter has a maximum approved passenger configuration of more than:
2, 3, 4
when operating under IFR.
JAR-145
Each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts AND harnesses provided
1 - during taxying2 - during take-off3 - during landing4 - whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety5 - during other phases of the flight, while at their station.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
According to Annex 6, what is the definition of an Air Operator Certificate?
A certificate authorising an operator to carry out specified commercial air transport operations.
According to Annex 6, what is the definition of Required Navigation Performance (RNP)?
A statement of the navigation performance necessary for operation within a defined airspace.
According to Annex 6, 'RNP type' is defined as a containment value expressed as a distance in ...(i)... from the intended position within which flights would be for at least ...(ii)... of the total flying time.
(i) nautical miles(ii) 95%
According to JAR-OPS 1, a Category I operation is a precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height (DH) not lower than ...(i)... and with a runway visual range (RVR) not less than .... (ii).....
(i) 200 ft(ii) 550 m
According to JAR-OPS, which of the following is the correct definition of "wet lease"?
The aircraft is operated under the AOC of the lessor.
According to JAR-OPS, an aircraft must be equipped with an audio selector panel accessible to each required flight crew member:
According to JAR-OPS 1, what minimum navigation equipment is required for operations under IFR, or under VFR over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks?
One VOR receiving system, one ADF system, one DME.
Which JAR prescribes requirements for approved maintenance organisations?
According to JAR-OPS, 'pre-flight inspection' is the inspection carried out:
before flight to ensure that the aircraft is fit for the intended flight. It does not include defect rectification.
18 years of age.
The Operator
RVR according to Cat I.
Under what circumstances may an operator introduce alternative procedures to those prescribed in JAR-OPS Subpart M (maintenance)?
When needed and when an equivalent safety case has first been approved by the Authority and supported by JAA Member Authorities.
According to JAR-OPS, an operator shall ensure that each cabin crew member is at least:
According to JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than ...(i)...., and when carrying ...(ii)... or more passengers, unless at least one cabin crew is included.
(i) 19(ii) one
According to JAR-OPS 1, who is responsible for establishing Aerodrome Operating Minima for each aerodrome planned to be used for commercial purposes?
According to JAR-OPS 1, an operator must select a take-off alternate:
if it would not be possible to return to the aerodrome of departure for meteorological or performance reasons.
According to JAR-OPS 1, the selection of a destination alternate is NOT required when:
the destination is isolated and no adequate destination alternate exists.
According to JAR-OPS 1, an operator must select two destination alternates when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts for the destination, or any combination thereof, indicate that during a period commencing ...(i)... hour(s) before and ending ... (ii)..... hour(s) after the estimated .....(iii)...., the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima.
(i) one(ii) one(iii) time of arrival
According to JAR-OPS 1, planning minima for a destination aerodrome with an applicable precision approach procedure is:
RVR / visibility specified in accordance with JAR-OPS 1.225, Aerodrome Operating Minima.
According to JAR-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT II approach available?
According to JAR-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT I approach available?
Non-precision minima (RVR and the ceiling at or above MDH).
According to JAR-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a non-precision approach available?
Non-precision minima (RVR and the ceiling at or above MDH) plus 200 ft/1000 m.
60
Code 2000
15 minutes
The Operator
60
According to JAR-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination aerodrome, if it is equipped with a non-precision approach only?
RVR / visibility specified in accordance with JAR-OPS 1.225, and the ceiling at or above MDH.
According to JAR-OPS 1, for two-engined aeroplanes in Performance class B or C without an ETOPS approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome is the distance flown in ....(i)... minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed, or...(ii)... nautical miles, whichever is less.
(i) 120(ii) 300
According to JAR-OPS 1, without an ETOPS approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplanes in Performance Class A , with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 20 or more, is the distance flown in .......... minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed.
According to North Atlantic MNPSA Operations Manual, what is the transponder code to be selected continuously 30 min after entry into NAT airspace?
The ICAO procedure designed to collect and disseminate information on bird strikes to aircraft is called:
IBIS (ICAO Bird Strike Information System).
According to JAR 25, if a fuel jettisoning system is required, it must be capable of jettisoning enough fuel within:
According to JAR-OPS 1 terminology, a runway is considered damp when the runway surface is:
not dry, but when the moisture on it does not give it a shiny appearance.
According to JAR-OPS 3, a Category I operation is a precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height (DH) not lower than ...(i)... and with a runway visual range (RVR) not less than .... (ii).....
(i) 200 ft(ii) 500 m
According to JAR-OPS 3, who is responsible for establishing Heliport Operating Minima for each heliport planned to be used for commercial purposes?
According to JAR-OPS 1, without an ETOPS approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplanes in Performance Class A , with a maximum take-off mass of 45360 kg or more, is the distance flown in .......... minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed.
réponseB réponseC réponseD variability
14000 ft (approx. 4200 m) 8000 ft (approx. 2400 m) 12000 ft (approx. 3600 m)
20 hours of its operation. 25 hours of its operation.
the aircraft's weight. the strength of the headwind.
JAA.
a rhumb line. an undetermined track. a spherical flight segment.
345°. 003°. 334°.
+5°. -15°. +15°.
30 minutes or 1 hour of its operation, depending upon the date of the first issue of its individual Certificate of Airworthiness.
the strength of the crosswind.
the UNO document entitled "Dangerous Goods Regulations".
the IATA document entitled "Regulations governing the transportation of dangerous goods by air".
4 1 2
080°. 066°. 085°.
take any Mach number.
276°. 316°. 164°.
298°. 301°. 292°.
ground speed. true airspeed. indicated airspeed.
take the Mach number specified in his initial flight plan.
take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by his airline.
Maximum North-Atlantic Precision System.
Military Network Performance Structure.
Minimum Navigation Positioning System.
Track A Track D Track B
dynamic. rubber reversion. rubber steaming.
+13°. +73.5°. -32.5°.
060°. 110°. 340°.
outside OTS validity hours. at FL 290.
from left or right side. from any side. under no circumstances.
the runway is very smooth and clean.
the runway has a rough surface.
the tyre treads show minor cuts.
request authorisation from Control to track another aircraft.
set a different heading approximately 45° from the previous one.
immediately climb or descend 1 000 ft.
at a Mach number of 0.70 or less.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4 2, 3, 4, 5
The aircraft producer. The owner of the aircraft. The national authority.
1, 4 1, 2, 3, 4 2, 3, 430° North to 90° North. 27° North to 70° North. 30° North to 70° North.
280 and 400. 280 and 390. 275 and 400.
118.800 MHz. 121.800 MHz. 128.800 MHz.
three Inertial Navigation System (INS).
two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS).
two independent Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).
The left wake vortex remains approximately on the runway.
The right and left wake vortices remain approximately on the runway.
The runway will be clear of any wake turbulence.
return to the flight plan route if it is different from the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledged.
join one of the so-called "special" routes.
change the flight level in accordance with predetermined instructions.
The operator. The flight engineer. The airline's dispatcher.
is prohibited.
no approval is required.
1, 2. 1, 3. 2, 3.
start an emergency descent.
two hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed.
one hour flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating.
two hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating.
the planning minima, at the estimated time of arrival.
the aerodrome operating minima, at the estimated time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time.
the aerodrome operating minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome.
is acceptable provided that all the aircraft doors must be completely opened.
is acceptable provided that all flight crew shall remain at their station.
the country where the aircraft was manufactured.
the countries where the aircraft is operated.
prohibit the use of reverse thrust .
apply in case of visual approaches only.
apply in case of instrument approaches only.
determine the origin of the smoke.
cut off all air conditioning units.
1, 2. 1, 3. 2, 3.
The operator. It is not specified.
150% of the seating capacity.
230. 200. 180.
10000 ft. 39000 ft. 41000 ft.
1, 3, 4. 1, 4. 2, 4.
The commander, always using the list of prohibited items.
100% of the seating capacity plus one additional mask per seat block.
100% of the seating capacity plus one additional mask per seat row.
protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases.
protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation.
provide oxygen to 10% of passengers at a cabin altitude exceeding 13000 ft after 30 minutes.
no decision height.
the manufacturer the state of the operator the aircraft state of registry
the operator. the aircraft manufacturer's list. the aircraft state of registry.
the operator. the pilot in command. the handling agent.
2, 3 1, 3 1, 4
2, 3. 1, 3. 1, 4.
1, 4. 2, 3. 2, 4.
1, 4. 2, 3. 2, 4.
a decision height equal to at least 100 ft.
a decision height equal to at least 50 ft.
2, 3. 1, 3. 1, 4.
the number of seats. the number of passengers.
the aircraft reaches FL 100. the aircraft reaches FL 140. the aircraft reaches FL 250.
great circle track rhumb line
the number of passengers by at least 10%.
2 passengers for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude exceeds 8000 ft.
1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude only exceeds 14000 ft.
2 passengers for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude only exceeds 14000 ft.
spherical capable flight segment
45 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. 30 minutes of flight at cruising
speed at FL140.45 minutes of flight at cruising speed at FL140.
30 minutes at normal cruise consumption, including final reserve fuel.
2 hours at holding consumption at 1 500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
30 minutes at holding consumption at 1 500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
2 hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating.
1 hour flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed.
1 hour flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating.
10 000 ft but not exceeding 12 000 ft
11 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft
11 000 ft but not exceeding 12 000 ft
1,2,4,5 2,4,5 2,3,5
13 000 ft 29 000 ft 10 000 ft
1030 UTC to 1900 UTC 1130 UTC to 1800 UTC 0000 UTC to 0800 UTC
1030 UTC to 1900 UTC 0100 UTC to 0800 UTC 0000 UTC to 0800 UTC
5 minutes. 15 minutes. 20 minutes.
30 NM. 90 NM. 120 NM.
10 minutes 15 minutes 20 minutes
return to departure airport land at the nearest airport
within the organised daytime flight track system.
within the organised night-time flight track system.
within the polar track system.
within the organised daytime track system
within the organised night-time track system
within the polar track system
One Global Navigation Satellite System
Three inertial navigation systems.
One inertial navigation system.
descend below the MNPS space
a period of 12 hours a period of 24 hoursa non-precision approach. an indirect approach. a circling approach only.
100 NM 200 NM 400 NM
350 m 800 m 500 m
100 m 250 m 50 m
150 m 250 m 200 m
seat rows in the cabin. passengers in the cabin.
aircraft flying in MNPS airspace
6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aeroplane or approved simulator, of the aeroplane type to be used
6 take-offs and 6 landings during the last 6 months
3 take-offs and 3 landings on this type of aeroplane during the last 6 months
(i) 90 minutes (ii) 300 nautical miles
(i) 45 minutes (ii) 200 nautical miles
(i) 30 minutes (ii) 100 nautical miles
Track Error Angle (TKE) is left (L)
Aircraft is converging towards its ideal course
Aircraft is diverging from its ideal course
Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration
Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
above and downwind from the large aeroplane.
below and downwind from the large aeroplane.
below and upwind from the large aeroplane.
emergency exits in the cabin.
in a polar track system
140°. 70°. 220°.
30 hours of operation. 25 flights. 10 flights.
25 hours of operation. flight. 48 hours of operation.
12 000 ft 11 000 ft 10 000 ft
121.5 MHz. 243 MHz. 118.5 MHz.
On ATC request only.
5° of longitude. 20° of longitude. 15° of longitude.
10° of longitude. 15° of longitude. 5° of longitude.
outside the validity period of the organised track system.
in a day-time organised track system.
within the polar track system.
in a night-time organised track system
outside the validity period of the organised track system
Main Navigation Performance Specification
Maximum Navigation Performance Specification
Magnetic Navigation Performance Specification
As soon as possible after entering the NAT region.
Within 15 minutes after crossing the oceanic airspace boundary.
inserting coordinates as detailed in the NAT track message.
using the abbreviation "OTS" followed by the code letter assigned to the track.
inserting coordinates defining significant points with intervals of 10° of longitude.
minimise its rate of descent while acquiring a 60 NM offset track.
immediatelly descend below FL280 and then acquire a 15 NM offset track.
immediatelly descend below FL280 and then acquire a 60 NM offset track.
5 minutes or more. 10 minutes or more. 2 minutes or more.
Below FL290.
flight manual. journey logbook. operational flight plan.
110° 70° 220°
red light white light red and white flashing light
green steady light white steady light
140° 70° 220°
1.45 1.5 1.15
rhumb line spherical flight segment straight map line
60 NM between all aircraft operating below MNPS airspace.
90 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region.
90 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
60 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
Between FL275 and FL400 inclusive.
Between FL245 and FL410 inclusive.
Flying above 3000 ft above ground.
Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within controlled airspace.
Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within uncontrolled airspace.
in 30 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed.
in 90 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed.
in 120 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed.
Annex 18 to the Chicago Convention.
Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention.
the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.
is forbidden in all circumstances
can be authorised when the aircraft has two long range navigation systems
can be authorised only if the pilot is in communication with the conflicting aircraft pilot
green and white flashing light
grid North magnetic North compass North
grid North for any chart true North for a given chart true North for any chart
independent of the latitude depending on the chart used
is zero at the North pole is zero at the South pole
is zero at the North pole is zero at the South pole
2400 m 1600 m 1500 m
3600 m 1600 m 1500 m
1500 m 3600 m 2400 m
2400 m 1600 m 3600 m
the operations manual
pressurisation total air-conditioning trim air
zero when the aircraft is on the ground
causes an apparent wander on the axis of the directional gyro to the right in the southern hemisphere
causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern hemisphere
during the period commencing 2 hours before and ending 2 hours after the expected time of arrival
during the period commencing 2 hours before and ending 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
during the period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
the operator and approved by the certification authority
the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer
the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)
the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)
the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)
Water may only be used for minor fires.
A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.
Carbon dioxide is only used in the cargo hold.
3, 4 1, 2, 3 2, 3
1, 2, 3 2, 3 1, 4
1, 3, 5 2, 3 3, 5
2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3 1, 4
1, 2, 3, 4 2, 4 1, 2, 3
to climb not to change its trajectory
the take off roll commences. out of ground effect.
17 micro-tesla 38 micro tesla 10 micro-tesla
Pitch angle. Vertical speed. Groundspeed.
A 7600 A 7700 A 7800
tuck under roll rate
Annex 8 Annex 1 Annex 17
the noise pollution of aircraft.
returns to base immediately carries out a holding pattern
FL 270 and FL 400 sea level and FL660 FL 280 and FL 475
1,4 2,3 2,4
heavy at high airspeed. light at low airspeed. light at high airspeed.
to climb or descend, depending on the gust strength
slats and flaps are extended only.
it occurs only at a low altitude (2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane.
it occurs only at a low altitude (2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane.
it can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane.
value of the stall angle of attack
the air transport of live animals.
the technical operational use of aircraft.
keeps flying deviating its course by 30 nautical miles from that of the current flight plan
subject to an optional clearance depending on the type of flight (scheduled or not)
not subject to a clearance, since the flight is already controlled
subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed
the flight is planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly.
the aircraft is sprayed with anti-icing fluid before flight.
the aircraft is sprayed with de-icing fluid before flight.
to set the transponder to 7700 to warn the ATC to comfort your passengers
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 3, 4 2, 5
1, 2, 3, 5, 6. 2, 3, 5. 2, 4, 5.
above 5000 ft. between 2500 and 3500 ft. between 3500 and 5000 ft.
wake turbulence . supercooled water.
under flight level 50 (FL50).
rules issued by the bordering States (Document 6530)
rules common to the bordering States, grouped in document 7050 (North Atlantic Ocean Airspace)
Canadian rules, because this country has the greatest surface area of territorial waters in this airspace
reduce rapidly the selected thrust, maintain on the glide path.
take a level flight attitude to reduce speed, then come back to glide path from above.
reduce rapidly the selected thrust in order to reach 1.2 Vs and try a precision landing.
convection motion of air mass.
in a holding stack, after control clearance.
during final phase of approach.
2, 3 1, 4 2, 4
2, 4, 5 1, 2, 3 2, 3, 5
protection time up to 24 hours.
1, 2, 3, 5, 6 2, 3, 4, 6 2, 4, 5, 6
limited time of protection independent of the outside temperature.
protection against icing for the duration of the flight.
250 m 230 m 300 m
500 ft AGL 1 500 ft AGL 3 000 ft AGL
200 ft 250 ft 350 ft
12 months 15 months 24 months
is procedure A
when the parking brake is released until the termination of flight when the parking brake is set.
when full thrust is applied until the termination of the flight when the aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own power.
prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of flight when the parking brake is set.
MDH=400 ft and visibility=1500 m
MDH=600 ft and visibility=2400 m
MDH=700 ft and visibility=2600 m
for VFR flights conducted in class B airspace, horizontal distance from clouds is at least 1000m.
for VFR flights conducted in class F airspace, vertical distance from clouds is at least 250m .
for VFR flights conducted in class E airspace, flight visibility at and above 3050m (10000ft) is at least 5 km (clear of cloud).
is either procedure A or B, because there is no difference in noise distribution
depends on the wind component
he has carried out at least 3 flights as commander in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
he has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane or an approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding 60 days
he has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days
he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane of the same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used in the preceding 60 days.
he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane in the preceding 90 days.
he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane in the preceding 60 days.
150 m 100 m 50 m
flammable liquids flammable gases metals
1, 2, 3, 4 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 4
2 megaphones. 3 megaphones.
1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2 3, 4
wet. flooded. damp.
3 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type/class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 30 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
the fire shut-off handle has been pulled.
the fire-extinguisher has been triggered.
all the fire-extinguishers connected to this engine have been triggered.
2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board.
the manufacturer and approved by the Authority.
the respective Authority of the operator.
the Civil Aviation Authority of all the European States.
1 3 0
1 3 4
3. 2 and 3. 1, 2 and 3.
30 seconds. 1 minute. 5 minutes.
3, 5 2, 3, 4 1, 4, 5, 6
a slow depressurization. an electrical fire. a plastic fire.
must only undertake a new anti-icing procedure before take-off.
does not require a new anti-icing procedure before take-off.
must only undertake a de-icing procedure before take-off.
you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.
you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization.
you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the aircraft in a clean configuration until the final approach.
immediately on ditching.
2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 4
1, 3, 5 2, 3, 4 2, 4, 5
1, 3, 5 2, 3, 4 2, 4, 5
immediately on the opening of the exits.
as soon as ditching is prepared.
provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection.
supply all the passengers in case of depressurisation.
provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after depressurisation.
at the beginning of the first step (de-icing step).
at the end of the second step (anti-icing step).
a the end of the first step (de-icing step).
oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for physiological reasons.
oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide.
oxygen specifically carried for therapeutic purposes.
one hand fire-extinguisher on the flight deck and two hand fire-extinguishers in the passenger compartment.
three hand fire-extinguishers in the passenger compartment.
two hand fire-extinguishers on the flight deck and two hand fire-extinguishers in the passenger compartment.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 3, 4 2, 4, 5
aircraft's flight manual. JAR-OPS documentation. ICAO Annex 18.
1, 3, 5, 6 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 4, 6
from the outboard side. from any direction. from the inboard side.
1, 3 1, 4 2, 3
carry out a damp cranking.
5 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment.
7 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment.
4 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment.
when the outside temperature is close to 0°C.
when the temperature of the aeroplane skin is close to 0°C.
when the aeroplane is parked facing into wind.
pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-extinguishers.
fight the fire with a water fire-extinguisher.
30 seconds. 1 minute. 10 minutes.
a water fire-extinguisher. a powder fire-extinguisher. a foam fire-extinguisher.
1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 4 2, 3
3, 4 2, 3 1, 4
stagnate on the runway.
de-ice the aircraft.
a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the left of and under its path.
an identical flight path to the one of the preceding aircraft.
a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining behind it and under its path.
a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the right of and under its path.
an identical flight path to the one of the preceding aircraft.
a different flight path form the preceding aircraft, by remaining behind it and under its path.
separate outwards to the right side only.
separate outwards to the left side only.
apply directly anti-icing fluid without conducting previous de-icing procedures.
operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing systems.
starts as soon as the aeroplane commences rolling and stops as soon as it has come to a stop at landing.
starts when the aeroplane reaches a height of 35 ft above the ground and stops when it crosses this height before landing.
starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when retracting the drag devices.
when taking-off. when lining up.
The pilot in command. The station manager. The aerodrome manager.
meteorological information.
30 days. 90 days. 45 days.
can refuse to present them.
low altitude diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals.
high altitude converge on the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals.
low altitude converge on the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals.
when the landing gear is retracted.
when the main gear shock strut compresses when touching the runway.
when the landing gear is extended and locked.
when the aircraft clears the runway.
aeroplanes proceeding from European states or flying over them.
aeroplanes used by police, customs and defence departments.
the operation by a JAA state member of any civil aeroplane.
a copy of the calculated take-off performance.
the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity.
can request a delay of 48 hours.
shall only comply if authorised by the operator.
2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
1, 2. 1, 3, 4. 1, 4.
30 minutes.
plus 10 %. plus 20 %. plus 30 %.
5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
9 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
2 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent.
4 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent.
1 HALON 1211 fire-extinguisher or equivalent.
crash axe and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment.
crash axe on the flight deck and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment.
crow-bar on the flight deck and a crash axe in the passenger compartment.
the entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13000 ft.
the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000ft.
15000 ft. 13000 ft. 14000 ft.
10000 ft. 14000 ft. 15000 ft.
passengers by 10 %. seats by 2 %. passengers by 2 %.
Tail wind is greater than 10 kt. Speed is greater than 95 kt.
Speed is greater than 83 kt.
Speed is greater than 96 kt.
Speed is greater than 127 kt.
Speed is greater than 117 kt.
clockwise. counter clockwise.
40 kt. 60 kt. 20 kt.
freezing fog rain on a cold soaked wing steady snow
14000 ft but not exceeding 15000 ft.
10000 ft but not exceeding 15000 ft.
10000 ft but not exceeding 14000 ft.
Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.
Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.
Cross wind is greater than 10 kt.
Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.
Runway temperature is greater than 40°C.
Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of tyregrooves.
Cross wind is greater than 20 kt.
Water depth is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.
Cross wind is greater than 15 kt.
from the upper side of the wing toward the underwing.
in front of the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.
at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down and on the wind side of the runway .
at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched the ground and on the underwind side of the runway .
State of Registry of the aircraft and the JAA.
State of the operator, the JAAand ICAO.
State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only.
260°. 080°. 100°.
a decision height above 200 ft no decision height
Air Transport Permit. Flight Manual. JAR-OPS documentation.
200 m. 500 m. 800 m.
150 m. 500 m. 800 m.
200 m. 500 m. 150 m.
the JAR OPS 3. the MMEL.
a decision height not lower than 150 ft
the Operations Manual under the heading "MEL".
Steady snow Freezing fog Frost
state of the operator commander
water CO2 (carbon dioxide) foam
disconnect the autopilot transmit a MAYDAY message
30 minutes of flight at best range speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. 20 minutes of flight at best
range speed.
45 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
30 minutes of flight at best range speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
30 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
30 minutes of flight at best range speed.
is the same as for non-isolated heliports where an alternate heliport is accessible.
should include additional fuel to fly 2 hours at best range speed, including final reserve fuel.
should include additional fuel to fly 2 hours at holding speed in addition to the final reserve fuel.
should include additional fuel to fly 2 hours at holding speed, including final reserve fuel.
should include additional fuel to fly 2 hours at best range speed, including final reserve fuel.
should include additional fuel to fly 2 hours at holding speed in addition to the final reserve fuel.
complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility of further contamination
switch on all the aircraft anti-icing and de-icing systems until clear of icing conditions when airborne
complete departure provided that the recommended anti-icing holdover (protection) time for the prevailing conditions and type of fluid used has not been exceeded
state in which the aeroplane is operating
Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt or less
It has a tail wind regardless its magnitude
Tail wind component, including gusts, is less than 4 kt
place the seat belts sign to ON
zero
increases remains constant
22500 ft 27000 ft 29000 ft
5000 ft 12000 ft 15000 ft
13000 ft 15000 ft 8000 ft
25000 ft 14000 ft 8000 ft
14000 ft 15000 ft 25000 ft
small medium null
climb away at Vat + 20 kt reduce speed to V2 and hold
a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm
a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure
attains its maximum permitted operating limit
slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb
9.3 km (5 NM) 11.1 km (6 NM) 3.7 km (2 NM)
11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes
4 minutes 5 minutes 2 minutes
H L S
4 minutes 5 minutes 2 minutes
JAA. The aircraft's operator.
A 7600 A 7700 A 2000
30 minutes 60 minutes 90 minutes
9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes
the designated local authority only.
the Authority in the State of the operator only.
the Authority in the State within which the aircraft was operating at the time of the unlawful interference.
The commander of the aircraft.
capable of being locked only from outside the flight deck compartment.
capable of being remotely locked by cabin crew from outside the flight deck compartment.
capable of being remotely locked from either inside or outside the flight deck compartment.
1, 3, 4 1, 4 2, 3
French. Spanish.
1, 3, 4 1, 3 2, 412 hours 6 hours 3 hours
114 kt 100 kt 80 kt
It is not reported.
unreliable medium good
no Halon fire-extinguisher.
pressure of the hydraulic fluid.
English, French, Spanish, Russian, Chinese or Arabic.
By a four figure group added to item D, which gives the length in metres.
As a percentage of the total length of the runway available as the final item of a SNOWTAM.
1 Halon fire-extinguisher or equivalent.
3 Halon fire-extinguishers or equivalent.
for all aeroplane types, the same for a specific aerodrome.
for all aeroplane types, the same for all aerodromes.
different according to aerodromes and aeroplane types.
temperature of the hydraulic fluid.
pressure of the pneumatic system.
Flight Manual. AIP. Air Operator Certificate.
1, 2, 3 1, 2 4
18 % 20 % 17,6 %
a certificate of compliance issued by IATA.
an approval document issued by the Operator.
an approval document issued by the Customs.
unless the external surfaces are free from any ice contamination greater than 5 mm.
unless the external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid and the aircraft is not to be operated in forecasted icing conditions greater than moderate icing.
even if the ice contamination does not exceed the mass and balance limits.
surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.
it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.
it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.
a device preventing the flight crew from being locked in the cockpit.
distinctive red or yellow coloured markings indicating the access area (in case of a blocked door).
a sealing system which, in case of depressurisation in the compartment area allows the maintenance of the pressure in the cockpit for as long as possible.
inform other aircraft in the vicinity by radio.
inform immediately the bird control unit (BCU) directly by radio.
submit a written hazard bird strike report upon arrival and within 48 hours.
1, 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4 1, 3, 4, 5
the JAR OPS 1. the MMEL.
the JAR OPS. the flight manual.
airworthiness certificate. insurance certificate.
JAR OPS. flight manual. flight record.
confirm visually the fire.
the Operations Manual under the heading "MEL".
the Operations Manual under the heading "Abnormal and Emergency procedures".
certificate of aircraft registration.
when just before the landing a much lighter aeroplane has landed with a strong crosswind on a long runway.
during cruise the vertical separation is reduced to 1000 ft.
a preceding aeroplane has performed low altitude high roll rate rolling manoeuvres over the runway.
discharge the fire extinguishers in the affected compartment.
evacuate the smoke.
a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants.
a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its occupants.
an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board.
the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority
the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer
the manufacturer, and inserted in the operations manual
the operator, and inserted in the flight manual
the manufacturer, and inserted in the flight manual
a variation only in horizontal wind velocity over a short distance.
a variation only in vertical wind velocity over a short distance.
a variation in vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance.
2, 4 3, 4 1, 2, 3
2, 3, 4 1 3, 4
1, 2, 3, 4 2 3, 4
flammable liquids electrical equipment
1, 2, 4 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4
protect the aircrew fighting fires
provide selected passengers with oxygen
assist a passenger with breathing disorders
the dangerous goods transport document is approved by the national authority prior to each flight.
the operator has certified the dangerous goods.
no passengers and dangerous goods are carried on the same flight.
metals, flammable gases, chemical products
200 m. 250 m. 300 m.
1, 4. 1, 2, 3. 1, 2, 4.
the glide slope intersection.
56 kt 87 kt 145 kt
all turbo-propeller aeroplanes and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes
all turbo-propeller aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes
all turbo-propeller aeroplanes and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9
the FAF, or 1500 ft above the aerodrome / heliport if there is no FAF.
the middle marker, or 500 ft above the aerodrome / heliport if there is no middle marker.
if the ceiling reported is higher than 360 ft.
if the ceiling reported is higher than 240 ft.
if the ceiling reported is higher than 240 ft during the day and 360 ft at night.
turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the aeroplane has reached and can maintain throughout the turn a height of no less than 100 m above terrain and the highest obstacle.
turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 20° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)
turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 28° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)
4 NM 3 NM 2 NM
Category B. Category C. Category E.
500 ft 2000ft 1 500 ft
climb or descent 1 000 ft
to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold.
to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross.
between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilising an opposite-direction runway for take-off.
MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m.
LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway.
LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft.
LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway).
LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway.
MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft.
LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300m (1 000 ft)
HEAVY aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300m (1 000 ft)
MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300m (1 000 ft)
climb or descent 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft
climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft
climb or descent 500 ft
above FL410 below FL410 at FL430
at FL410 above FL410 at FL430
186 000 kg or more. 146 000 kg or more.
prior to the aircraft take-off. during the flight.
3000 meters 2500 meters 5000 meters
1 month 6 months 1 year
3 months 15 months 12 months
30 9 61
climb 1 000 ft or descent 500 ft
climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft
between 136 000 kg and 186 000 kg.
from engine start-up until the aircraft has come to a complete stop at the end of the flight.
5 % of the number fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater
10 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater
20 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 2 of each rating, whichever is the greater
10 % with ice 20 % with melted snow 15 % with melted snow
1, 2 1 1, 2, 3
1, 4 1, 2 4
when commencing a flare.
maximum certificated take-off mass of more than 15000 kg
maximum approved passenger configuration of more than 9 seats
maximum approved passenger configuration of more than 6 seats
use rudder to prevent yaw, hold cyclic steady, lower collective briefly then raise to cushion landing
counteract yaw with pedals, use cyclic to raise tail rotor, lower collective slightly to maintain rotor RPM
use left rudder to prevent yaw, push cyclic forward for touchdown, lower collective to cushion landing
as a result of excessive cyclic movement.
after attaining effective translational lift.
correct yaw with pedals, lower collective, transmit mayday, select landing site, use cyclic and collective to position for landing.
flare with cyclic, counteract yaw with pedals, establish descent with collective, select landing site, adjust collective for range, land into wind, transmit mayday.
select airspeed, lower collective, adjust yaw pedals, transmit mayday, autorotate to open ground, adjust speed for landing.
reduce both engine power and collective pitch
increase engine power and collective pitch
reduce engine power and leave collective pitch constant
to shut down immediately, regardless of rotor RPM
to apply pitch for take-off immediately, regardless of rotor RPM
to increase rotor RPM to take-off power and get airborne
to increase the collective pitch.
during an autorotative descent
30 minutes 1 hour 10 minutes
the start-up and shut-down should be carried out facing downwind
flapping restrictors, if fitted, should be withdrawn before start-up or shut-down
ensure that rotor RPM during start-up or shut-down are increased or decreased as slowly as possible
to push forward the cyclic control, to increase speed.
to pull back the cyclic control and lower the collective lever in a flare manoeuvre.
engaging the autopilot or the stability augmentation system, if fitted.
compensating for helicopter movement with cyclic control.
avoiding any control input until all vibration has ceased.
whilst hovering in strong winds
only when carrying out extreme manoeuvres
applying collective pitch and lifting off
compensating for helicopter movement with cyclic control
avoiding any control input until all vibration has ceased
available for supply to passengers for physiological reasons
used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide
therapeutical oxygen specially carried for certain passengers
the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft
the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft
the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft
the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft
the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft
the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft
the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft
the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft
the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft
15 minutes of remaining fuel.
10% of the planned trip fuel.
of 5% of the planned trip fuel.
performance class 1 or 2
1.5 km 5 km 2.5 km
66 0
2 life rafts of 30-seat capacity.
fuel to hold 30 minutes at 1500 ft above the aedrodrome.
fuel to fly 20 minutes at best range speed.
take extra fuel to fly two hours at holding speed.
take extra fuel to fly one hour at holding speed, 1500 ft above the alternate aerodrome.
not take-off until obtaining destination meteorological forecast.
20 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the destination, in standard conditions.
30 minutes at best range speed.
20 minutes at best range speed.
30 minutes at best range speed.
20 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the destination heliport.
30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the destination heliport.
quantity to fly 20 minutes at best range speed.
quantity to fly 30 minutes at best range speed.
to fly 20 minutes at best range speed.
to fly 30 minutes at best range speed.
performance class 1 at night, 1 or 2 by daylight
any class of performance due to the emergency situation
mention it on the Notification to Captain.
accept it after a visual inspection.
mention it on the shipper's declaration.
None if equipped with life rafts
1 life raft of 30-seat capacity and 2 life rafts of 20-seat capacity.
none, distance being less than 400 NM.
13 9 10
not below 1 000 ft at 3 000 ft at 1 500 ft
1, 2, 3, 4 3, 4 1, 3, 4
1500 m 600 m 500 m
5% of the planned trip fuel.
10% of the planned trip fuel.
JAR-OPS Subpart M.
6 take-offs, 6 circuits and 6 landings in a helicopter (or a flight simulator) of the same type to be used, in the previous 3 calendar months
3 take-offs, 3 circuits and 3 landings as pilot flying in a helicopter (or a flight simulator) of the same type to be used, in the previous 3 calendar months
6 take-offs, 6 circuits and 6 landings as commander in a helicopter ( or a flight simulator) of the same type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
1 000 ft above aerodrome elevation
1 500 ft above aerodrome elevation
2 000 ft above aerodrome elevation
an amount of fuel sufficient for 15 minutes flying at long range speed.
an amount of fuel sufficient for 30 minutes flying at long range speed.
an amount of fuel sufficient for 15 minutes flying at long range speed.
an amount of fuel sufficient for 15 minutes flying at holding speed.
the Maintenance Schedule, in the Approval Specifications Section.
the approval conditions for return to service following maintenance.
200 ft 300 ft 350 ft
200 ft 250 ft 350 ft
200 ft 300 ft 350 ft
the FAF. the middle marker. the glide slope intersection.
the final path intersection.
Category D. Category E. Category B.
Category C. Category D. Category E.
is the same as for non-isolated heliports where an alternate heliport is accessible.
should include additional fuel to fly 2 hours at best range speed, including final reserve fuel.
should include additional fuel to fly 2 hours at holding speed, in addition to the final reserve fuel.
during the period commencing 2 hours before and ending 2 hours after the expected time of arrival.
during the period commencing 2 hours before and ending 1 hour after the expected time of arrival.
during the period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the expected time of arrival.
for the conduct of VFR flights in class C airspace, horizontal distance from clouds is at least 1000 m.
for the conduct of VFR flights in class F airspace, vertical distance from clouds is at least 250 m .
for the conduct of VFR flights in class E airspace, flight visibility at and above 3050 m (10000 ft) is at least 5 km and clear of cloud.
30 minutes at best range speed with one engine inoperative.
30 minutes at normal cruise speed.
1 hour at best range speed with one engine inoperative.
the FAF, or 1500 ft above the aerodrome / heliport if there is no FAF.
the middle marker, or 500 ft above the aerodrome / heliport if there is no middle marker.
1500 meters 2000 meters 3000 meters
1, 2, 3. 2, 3, 4. 1, 3, 4.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 3, 4 2, 3, 4, 5
should use maximum reverse thrust, however should start braking below the hydroplaning speed
should use normal landing-,braking- and reverse technique
must wait for landing until the risk for hydroplaning is no longer existing
in the fuel tanks and in the cargo holds.
in the wheel bays and lavatories.
in the avionics bay and the wheel bays.
there is no risk of further ice accretion.
the take off performance of the aircraft will not be affected.
a longer starting procedure will be necessary to warm up the aircraft.
Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion.
Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible.
Take-off is not possible under these conditions.
19 6 15
All IFR operations
6 seats. 4 seats. 7 seats.
helicopters proceeding from European states or flying over them.
helicopters used by police, customs and defence departments.
the operation by a JAA state member of any civil helicopter.
one hand fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and two hand fire-extinguishers in the passenger compartment.
three hand fire-extinguishers in the passenger compartment.
two hand fire-extinguishers in the cockpit and two hand fire-extinguishers in the passenger compartment.
6 take-offs, 6 circuits and 6 landings as pilot flying on the same type of helicopter or flight simulator, of the helicopter type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
6 take-offs and 6 landings during the last 6 months
3 take-offs and 3 landings on this type of helicopter during the last 6 months
IFR operations using helicopters with a MAPSC of more than 6 or operations using helicopters with a MAPSC of more than 9
All IFR operations and VFR operations using helicopters with a MAPSC of more than 9
As the amount of contamination increases at constant take off weight, V1 should decrease to compensate for decreasing friction.
The performance corrections for contamination should be applied with any kind of measurable contamination.
The take off from a contaminated runway is forbidden.
1, 2, 3, 4 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 5
JAR-66 JAR-AMO JAR-25
A certificate needed to carry out specified commercial international air transport operations, but not for domestic commercial flights.
A certificate the crew will present to immigration officers, stating that all passengers on board fulfil the visa requirements needed.
A certificate automatically authorising an operator to carry out domestic air services in any ICAO contracting State.
A statement of the navigation performance required during a pilot skill test.
A statement of the navigation performance necessary during flight tests for a new aircraft type.
A statement of the navigation performance required when installing a new navigation aid on the ground.
(i) nautical miles(ii) 90%
(i) kilometers(ii) 95%
(i) kilometers(ii) 90%
(i) 100 ft(ii) 350 m
(i) 200 ft(ii) 350 m
(i) 100 ft(ii) 550 m
The aircraft is operated under the AOC of the lessee.
The aircraft is operated overseas.
The aircraft is leased from a non-JAA operator.
at all times when carrying passengers.
when operating under IFR, or under VFR over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks.
when operating in controlled airspace.
One VOR receiving system, one ADF system.
One VOR receiving system, one DME.
One VOR receiving system, one ADF system, two DMEs.
before flight to ensure that the aircraft is fit for the intended flight including defect rectification.
by the caterer to ensure that the aircraft is prepared with meals and beverages necessary for the flight.
by the fuel company to ensure that the aircraft is prepared for refuelling.
21 years of age. 17 years of age. 20 years of age.
The Commander The State Authority
Non-precision minima.
Non-precision minima. Circling minima.
RVR according to Cat I. Circling minima.
RVR according to Cat I. Circling minima.
When needed and when an equivalent safety case has been established. No prior approval is needed from the Authority.
When needed to expedite maintenance procedures.
Never. Subpart M is mandatory and may not be modified.
(i) 9(ii) one
(i) 15(ii) five
(i) 9(ii) five
The designated local aerodrome authority
when conducting a flight over water of more than 2 hours or 400 NM, whichever is the lesser.
when the flight duration exceeds 6 hours.
for an IFR flight with a single-engine aeroplane.
the destination aerodrome has an ILS approach for each runway.
the duration of the planned flight does not exceed 8 hours and the weather forecast calls for VMC conditions at the destination aerodrome.
you have an adequate take-off alternate.
(i) two(ii) two(iii) time of arrival
(i) one(ii) one(iii) time of departure
(i) two(ii) two(iii) time of departure
RVR / visibility and ceiling at or above DH specified in accordance with JAR-OPS 1.225, Aerodrome Operating Minima.
Non-precision minima plus 200 ft /1000 m.
Non-precision minima plus 200 ft/1000 m.
Non-precision minima plus 200 ft/1000 m.
Non-precision minima (RVR and the ceiling at or above MDH).
Circling minima.
120 90 30
Code 7000 Code 7500
30 minutes 45 minutes 60 minutes
The Commander The State Authority
120 90 30
RVR / visibility specified in accordance with JAR-OPS 1.225.
Non-precision minima (RVR and the ceiling at or above MDH) plus 200 ft/1000 m.
(i) 60(ii) 300
(i) 60(ii) 200
(i) 120(ii) 200
The last assigned code prior to entry into NAT airspace
IBHA (ICAO Bird Hazard Annex).
IBSA (ICAO Bird Safety Alert).
IBSR (ICAO Bird Strike Report).
not dry, and the surface appears reflective.
covered with water up to 1 mm deep.
covered with water up to 3 mm deep.
(i) 100 ft(ii) 350 m
(i) 200 ft(ii) 350 m
(i) 100 ft(ii) 500 m
The designated local heliport authority
knowledge check mark significance prov n° code date subj chairman ia n° ez n°
7/8/1994
8/17/1994
8/19/1994
8/19/1994
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
1/6/1995
8/23/19958/23/1995
8/23/1995
8/23/1995
8/23/1995
4/20/1995
4/20/1995
4/20/1995
4/20/1995
4/20/1995
4/20/1995
4/20/1995
4/20/1995
4/20/1995
4/21/1995
5/18/1995
5/18/1995
5/18/1995
5/18/1995
5/18/1995
8/31/1995
8/31/1995
8/31/1995
8/31/1995
8/31/1995
8/31/1995
8/31/1995
8/31/1995
8/31/1995
9/19/1995
9/19/1995
9/19/1995
1/30/1996
1/30/1996
1/30/1996
1/30/1996
3/4/1996
3/4/1996
3/4/1996
1/19/1996
1/19/1996
1/19/1996
1/19/1996
1/19/1996
1/19/1996
1/19/1996
1/19/1996
1/30/1996
1/30/19961/30/1996
1/30/1996
1/30/1996
1/30/1996
1/30/1996
1/30/1996
1/30/1996
2/12/1996
2/12/1996
2/12/1996
7/11/1995
3/4/1996
3/4/1996
3/4/1996
3/4/1996
3/4/1996
3/4/1996
3/4/1996
5/15/1995
5/15/1995
5/15/1995
5/15/1995
5/15/1995
5/15/1995
5/15/1995
5/15/1995
5/15/1995
5/15/1995
5/15/1995
5/23/1996
5/23/1996
5/28/1996
8/6/1996
8/6/1996
8/6/1996
8/6/1996
8/6/1996
8/7/1996
8/7/1996
8/7/1996
8/7/1996
8/7/1996
8/7/1996
8/7/1996
8/12/1996
8/12/1996
8/12/1996
8/12/1996
8/12/1996
8/28/1996
8/28/1996
5/7/2003
5/7/2003
7/1/1997
7/1/1997
7/1/1997
7/1/1997
7/1/1997
10/24/1996
10/24/1996
12/5/1996
12/5/1996
5/7/2003
1/21/1997
1/31/1997
1/31/1997
1/31/1997
1/31/1997
1/31/1997
1/31/1997
1/31/1997
1/31/1997
2/20/1997
3/20/1997
3/20/1997
5/9/1997
5/9/1997
5/9/19975/9/1997
5/9/1997
5/9/1997
5/9/1997
5/9/1997
5/9/1997
6/2/1997
6/2/1997
7/1/1997
7/1/1997
7/1/1997
7/1/1997
7/1/1997
7/2/1997
7/2/1997
7/2/1997
7/3/1997
7/3/1997
7/3/1997
6/27/1997
6/27/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
6/30/1997
7/1/1997
7/1/1997
7/1/1997
7/21/1997
7/21/1997
7/21/1997
7/21/1997
7/21/1997
7/21/1997
7/22/1997
9/3/1997
9/3/1997
9/3/1997
9/3/1997
9/3/1997
9/3/1997
9/3/1997
9/3/1997
9/3/1997
9/4/1997
9/4/1997
9/4/1997
9/4/1997
9/4/1997
9/4/1997
9/4/1997
9/4/1997
9/4/1997
9/4/1997
9/4/1997
9/4/1997
9/4/1997
9/5/1997
9/5/1997
9/5/1997
9/25/1997
9/24/1997
1/6/1995
1/30/1996
5/21/1996
4/22/2004
4/22/2004
4/22/2004
4/22/2004
4/22/2004
4/22/2004
4/22/2004
4/22/2004
9/24/1997
9/24/1997
9/24/1997
9/24/1997
9/24/1997
9/24/1997
9/24/1997
9/24/1997
9/24/1997
9/24/1997
9/24/1997
9/24/1997
9/24/1997
9/24/1997
9/24/1997
9/25/1997
9/25/1997
9/25/1997
9/25/1997
9/25/1997
9/25/1997
9/25/1997
9/25/1997
9/25/1997
9/26/1997
9/26/1997
9/26/1997
9/26/19979/26/1997
9/26/1997
9/26/1997
9/26/1997
10/6/1997
10/6/1997
10/6/1997
10/6/1997
10/6/1997
10/6/1997
10/6/1997
10/6/1997
10/6/1997
10/6/1997
10/6/1997
10/6/1997
10/6/1997
10/6/1997
10/6/1997
10/6/1997
5/7/2003
5/7/2003
4/28/1998
4/28/1998
4/28/1998
4/28/1998
4/28/1998
4/28/1998
4/28/1998
4/28/1998
4/28/1998
4/28/1998
4/28/1998
4/28/1998
4/28/1998
4/28/1998
4/28/1998
4/28/1998
4/28/1998
8/12/1998
8/13/1998
8/13/1998
8/13/1998
8/13/1998
8/13/1998
8/14/1998
8/14/1998
8/17/1998
8/17/1998
8/17/1998
8/17/1998
8/17/1998
7/20/1999
7/20/1999
7/20/1999
7/20/1999
7/20/1999
7/20/1999
7/20/1999
7/20/1999
7/21/1999
7/21/1999
5/23/2001
5/23/2001
5/23/2001
6/4/2001
6/6/2001
6/6/2001
6/11/2001
6/11/2001
6/11/2001
6/14/2001
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
1/8/2003
8/19/1994
4/22/2004
4/22/2004
4/22/2004
4/22/2004
4/22/2004
4/22/2004
4/22/2004
4/22/2004
4/22/2004
4/22/2004
4/22/2004
4/22/2004
5/18/1995
11/4/2003
11/4/2003
3/7/2004
3/7/2004
6/30/2004
6/30/2004
7/1/2004
7/2/2004
7/2/2004
7/2/2004
11/4/2003
11/16/2003
11/16/2003
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
10/18/2004
12/8/2004
12/8/2004
12/8/2004
ass doc kind ass doc ref_annex suf_annex_a suf_annex_b suf_annex_c suf_annex_d
2070 A
2083 A
10644 A
10645 A
suf_annex_e kind_ass_doc_a kind_ass_doc_b kind_ass_doc_c kind_ass_doc_d
kind_ass_doc_e validation type catchword application_ATPLA length_atpla score_atpla
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 5 1
1 1 4 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 5 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 5 1
1 1 3 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 5 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 4 1
1 1 3 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 11 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 11 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 11 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 2
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 2 2
1 1 2 2
1 1 2 2
1 1 2 2
1 1 2 2
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 3 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 11 1 1 1
1 1 2 2
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 3 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 2 2
1 1 2 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 2 1
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 2 1
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 2 1
1 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
1 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 2 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 0 0 0
1 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
application_ATPLH length_atplh score_atplh application_ATPLHIR length_atplhir
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 10 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 00 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 01 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 10 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 3 1 1 3
1 2 1 1 2
1 1 1 1 1
1 2 1 1 2
1 2 1 1 2
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 2 1 1 2
1 2 1 1 2
1 2 1 1 2
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 1 1
0 0 0 0 0
score_atplhir application_CPLA length_cpla score_cpla application_CPLH length_cplh
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 10 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 1 1 1 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 1 1 1 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
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1 1 1 1 1 1
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1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
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1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
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0 1 1 1 0 0
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1 1 1 1 1 1
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1 1 1 1 1 1
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1 1 1 1 1 1
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1 1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0 01 1 1 1 1 1
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0 1 1 1 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
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0 1 1 1 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
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0 1 1 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 1 2 1 0 0
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1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
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1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
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1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
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1 1 1 1 1 1
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1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 1 1 1 0 0
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1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 10 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 2 2 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
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1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0 0
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1 1 1 1 1 1
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1 1 1 1 1 1
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1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 1 1 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 1 1 1 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
0 1 2 1 0 0
1 1 3 1 1 3
1 1 2 1 1 2
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 2 1 1 2
1 1 2 1 1 2
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 1 1 1 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 1 2 1 0 0
1 0 0 0 1 1
1 0 0 0 1 1
1 0 0 0 1 1
1 0 0 0 1 1
1 0 0 0 1 1
1 0 0 0 1 1
1 0 0 0 1 1
1 0 0 0 1 1
1 0 0 0 1 1
1 0 0 0 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 2 1 1 2
1 1 2 1 1 2
1 1 2 1 1 2
0 1 1 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
0 1 2 1 0 0
1 0 0 0 1 1
1 0 0 0 1 1
0 1 1 1 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
2 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 1 1 1 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 1 1 1 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
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0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
score_cplh application_IRA length_ira score_ira application_IRH length_irh score_irh
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
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1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
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0 0 0 0 0 0 0
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0 0 0 0 0 0 0
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0 0 0 0 0 0 0
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1 0 0 0 0 0 0
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0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 01 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
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0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
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0 0 0 0 0 0 0
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1 0 0 0 0 0 0
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1 0 0 0 0 0 0
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1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
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1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
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1 0 0 0 0 0 0
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0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 00 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 0
application_PPLA length_ppla score_ppla application_PPLH length_pplh score_pplh
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
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0 0 0 0 0 0
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0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 00 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
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0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
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0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 00 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
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0 0 0 0 0 0
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0 0 0 0 0 0
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0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
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0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
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0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
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0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0
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application_SEE application_GPL application_VLAPL application_CPL_PARA
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application_PPL_PARA application_P_PHOTO flag_epac lot remarks wording_national
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answerA_national answerB_national answerC_national answerD_national flag_delete
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