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NEET Practice SET Section Total Qs Total Marks Time -ve Mark

Biology 90 360 3 Hrs

¼ negative marking

Chemistry 45 180

Physics 45 180

Biology 1. Artificial system of classification was first used by (a) Linnaeus (b) De Candolle (c) Pliny the Edler (d) Bentham and Hooker 2. First life on earth was (a) Cyanobacteria (b) Chemoheterotrophs (c) Autotrophs (d) Photoautotrophs 3. The main difference in Gram (+)ve and Gram (–)ve bacteria resides in their (a) cell wall (b) cell membrane (c) cytoplasm (d) flagella 4. Protists obtain food as (a) photosynthesisers, symbionts and holotrophs (b) photosynthesisers (c) chemosynthesisers (d) holotrophs 5. Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another in the transduction process is through (a) Conjugation (b) Bacteriophages released from the donor bacterial strain (c) Another bacterium (d) Physical contact between donor and recipient strain 6. Viruses are no more “alive” than isolated chromosomes because (a) both require the environment of a cell to replicate (b) they require both RNA and DNA (c) they both need food molecules

(d) they both require oxygen for respiration 7. Single-celled eukaryotes are included in: (a) Protista (b) Fungi (c) Archaea (d) Monera 8. Evolutionary important character of Selaginella is (a) heterosporous nature (b) rhizophore (c) strobili (d) ligule 9. The plant body of moss (Funaria) is (a) completely sporophyte (b) completely gametophyte (c) predominantly sporophyte with gametophyte (d) predominantly gametophyte with sporophyte 10. Which of the following plants produces seeds but not flowers? (a) Maize (b) Mint (c) Peepal (d) Pinus 11. Read the following five statements (A - E) and answer the question. (A) In Equisetum the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte. (B) In Ginkgo male gametophyte is not independent. (C) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed than that in Polytrichum. (D) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous. (E) The spores of slime molds lack cell walls. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) One 12. Flight muscles of birds are attached to (a) clavicle (b) keel of sternum (c) scapula (d) coracoid 13. Adult Culex and Anopheles can be distinguished with the help of (a) mouth parts/colour (b) sitting posture (c) antennae/wings (d) feeding habits

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14. Besides annelida and arthropoda, the metamerism is exhibited by (a) cestoda (b) chordata (c) mollusca (d) acanthocephala 15. Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach and crab are (a) Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton (b) Green gland and tracheae (c) Book lungs and antennae (d) Compound eyes and anal cerci 16. Match the name of the animal (column I), with one characteristics (column II), and the phylum/class (column III) to which it belongs : Column I -- Column II -- Column III (a) Ichthyophis -- terrestrial -- Reptilia (b) Limulus -- body Pisces covered by chitinous -- exoskeleton (c) Adamsia -- radially Porifera -- symmetrical (d) Petromyzon-- ectoparasite -- Cyclostomata 17. Tetradynamous stamens are found in family (a) Malvaceae (b) Solanaceae (c) Cruciferae (d) Liliaceae 18. Replum is present in the ovary of flower of (a) Lemon (b) Mustard (c) Sun flower (d) Pea 19. Which one yields fibres? (a) Coconut (b) Oak (c) Teak (d) Sisso

20. At maturity which of the following is enucleate? (a) Sieve cell (b) Companion cell (c) Palisade cell (d) Cortical cell 21. The chief water conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms are: (a) vessels (b) fibres (c) transfusion tissue (d) tracheids 22. Vitamin K is required for (a) formation of thromboplastin (b) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin (c) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin (d) synthesis of prothrombin 23. Which one of the following correctly describes the location of some body parts in the earthworm Pheretima? (a) Four pairs of spermathecae in 4 - 7 segments. (b) One pair of ovaries attached at intersegmental septum of 14th and 15th segments. (c) Two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segments. (d) Two pairs of accessory glands in 16 - 18 segments. 24. Ribosomes were discovered by (a) Golgi (b) Porter (c) De Robertis (d) Palade 25. Lysosomes have a high content of (a) hydrolytic enzymes (b) lipoproteins (c) polyribosomes (d) DNA ligases 26. Plasmodesmata are: (a) locomotary structures (b) membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma (c) connections between adjacent cells (d) lignified cemented layers between cells 27. A nucleotide is formed of (a) Purine, pyrimidine and phosphate (b) Purine, sugar and phosphate (c) Nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate (d) Pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate

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28. Minor changes at gene level are described as (a) Point mutations (b) Chromosomal mutations (c) Reverse mutations (d) Forward mutations 29. Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the absorption of substances like: (a) amino acids and glucose (b) glucose and fatty acids (c) fatty acids and glycerol (d) fructose and some amino acids 30. If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into? (a) Metaphase (b) Telophase (c) Anaphase (d) Prophase 31. In guard cells when sugar is converted into starch, the stomatal pore (a) closes completely (b) opens partially (c) opens fully (d) remains unchanged 32. Guard cells help in: (a) transpiration (b) guttation (c) fighting against infection (d) protection against grazing 33. Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus is brought about by: (a) Bradyrhizobium (b) Clostridium (c) Frankia (d) Azorhizobium 34. The first carbon dioxide acceptor in C4-plants is (a) Phosphoenol-pyruvate (b) Ribulose 1, 5-diphosphate (c) Oxalo-acetic acid (d) Phosphoglyceric acid 35. Which enzyme is most abudantly found on earth? (a) Catalase (b) Rubisco

(c) Nitrogenase (d) Invertase 36. Importance of day length in flowering of plants was first shown in (a) lemna (b) tobacco (c) cotton (d) petunia 37. Maximum amount of energy/ATP is liberated on oxidation of (a) fats (b) proteins (c) starch (d) vitamins 38. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation proposes that adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed because: (a) high energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial proteins (b) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the intermembrane space (c) a proton gradient forms across the inner membrane (d) there is a change in the permeability of the inner mitochondrial membrane toward adenosine diphosphate (ADP) 39. Dwarfness can be controlled by treating the plant with (a) cytokinin (b) gibberellic acid (c) auxin (d) antigibberellin 40. Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green plants takes place due to (a) indole acetic acid (b) cytokinins (c) gibberellins (d) ethylene 41. Vitamin K is required for (a) change of prothrombin to thrombin (b) synthesis of prothrombin (c) change of fibrinogen to fibrin (d) formation of thromboplastin 42. Which set is correct? (a) Corpus callosum — Grafian follicle

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(b) Sebum — Sweat (c) Bundle of His — Pace maker (d) Vitamin B7 — Niacin 43. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an otherwise normal human, may lead to (a) Indigestion (b) Jaundice (c) Diarrhoea (d) Vomiting 44. Breakdown product of haemoglobin is (a) Bilirubin (b) Iron (c) Biliverdin (d) Calcium 45. Which of the following is not a granulocyte? (a) Lymphocyte (b) Eosinophil (c) Basophil (d) Neutrophil 46. Compared to blood our lymph has: (a) plasma without proteins (b) more WBCs and no RBCs (c) more RBCs and less WBCs (d) no plasma 47. In the renal tubules the permeability of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct to water is controlled by (a) Vasopressin (b) Aldosterone (c) Growth hormone (d) Renin 48. Which one of the following characteristics is common to both in humans and adult frogs? (a) Four - chambered heart (b) Internal fertilization (c) Nucleated RBCs (d) Ureotelic mode of excretion 49. Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans: (a) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation (b) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae. (c) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint

(d) The decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people 50. Characteristic feature of human cornea (a) Secreted by conjunctiva and glandular (b) It is lacrimal gland which secretes tears (c) Blood circulation is absent in cornea (d) In old age it becomes harden and white layer deposits on it which causes cataract 51. Occurrence of Leydig’s cells and their secretion is (a) ovary and estrogen (b) liver and cholesterol (c) pancreas and glucagon (d) testes and testosterone 52. Mainly which type of hormones control the menstrual cycle in human beings? (a) FSH (b) LH (c) FSH, LH, estrogen (d) Progesteron 53. The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the hormone: (a) calcitonin (b) prolactin (c) adrenaline (d) melatonin 54. Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of: (a) stamen and carpel of the same plant (b) upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant (c) upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant (d) antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant 55. Ovule is straight with funiculus, embryo sac, chalaza and micropyle lying on one straight line. It is (a) Orthotropous (b) Anatropous (c) Campylotropous (d) Amphitropous 56. Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from (a) Synergids (b) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule (c) Antipodal cells (d) Diploid egg

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57. Test tube baby is one who (a) is born out of artificial insemination (b) has undergone development in a test tube (c) is born out of the technique of fertilization in vitro (d) h a s b e e n d e v e l o p e d w i t h o u t fertilization 58. Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct? (a) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA (b) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote (c) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote (d) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote 59. The stage transferred into the uterus after induced fertilization of ova in the laboratory is (a) Zygote (b) Embryo at 4 blastomere stage (c) Embryo at 2 blastomere stage (d) Morula 60. Segregation of Mendelian factors (no linkage, no crossing over) occurs during (a) anaphase I (b) anaphase II (c) diplotene (d) metaphase I 61. Barr body in mammals represents (a) all the heterochromatin in female cells (b) Y-chromosomes in somatic cells of male (c) all heterochromatin in male and female cells (d) one of the two X-chromosomes in somatic cells of females 62. How many base pairs are found in one genome of man? (a) 7 × 104 (b) 2.8 × 107 (c) 3 × 109 (d) 4 × 109 63. The linkage map of X-chromosome of fruit fly has 66 units, with yellow body gene (y) at one end and bobbed hair (a) gene at the other end. The recombination frequency between these two genes (y and b) should be (b) 100%

(c) 66% (d) > 50% 64. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you expect in F1 generation? (a) 9: 1 (b) 1: 3 (c) 3: 1 (d) 50 :50 65. Genetic variation in a population arises due to (a) Mutations only (b) Recombination only (c) Mutations as well as recombination (d) Reproductive isolation and selection 66. An environmental agent, which triggers transcription from an operon, is a (a) regulator (b) inducer (c) depressor (d) controlling element 67. Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types of amino acid. It is called (a) degeneracy of genetic code (b) overlapping of gene (c) wobbling of codon (d) universility of codons 68. A sequential expression of a set of human genes (a) messenger RNA (b) DNA sequence (c) ribosome (d) transfer RNA. 69. Humming bird and Hawk illustrate (a) Convergent evolution (b) Homology (c) Adaptive radiation (d) Parallel evolution 70. In the evolution of man, several changes occured in the ancestral characters. Which one of the following changes is irrelevant in this context? (a) Loss of tail from body (b) Increase in the ability to communicate with others and develop community behaviour (c) Change of diet from fruits, hard nuts and roots to softer food

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(d) Perfection in the structure and working of hand for tool-making 71. According to fossils discovered up to present time origin and evolution of man was started from (a) France (b) Java (c) Africa (d) China 72. The concept of chemical evolution is based on (a) interaction of water, air and clay under intense heat (b) effect of solar radiation on chemicals (c) possible origin of life by combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions (d) crystallization of chemicals. 73. Analgesic drugs (a) form tissues (b) relieve pain (c) relieve fatigue (d) cause pain 74. During blood typing agglutination indicates that the (a) RBC carry certain antigens (b) Plasma contains certain antigens (c) RBC carry certain antibodies (d) Plasma contains certain antibodies 75. To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes, belong? (a) Cytokine barriers (b) Cellular barriers (c) Physiological barriers (d) Physical barriers 76. Identify the site where Wuchereria bancrofti is normally found on human body (a) Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs (b) Muscles of the legs (c) Blood vessels of the thigh region (d) Skin between the fingers 77. What is the best pH of soil for cultivation of plants? (a) 3.4 – 5.4 (b) 6.5 – 7.5 (c) 4.5 – 8.5 (d) 5.6 – 6.5

78. Which one of the following proved effective for biological control of nematodal disease in plants? (a) Pisolithus tinctorius (b) Pseudomonas cepacia (c) Gliocladium virens (d) Paecilomyces lilacinus 79. A common biocontrol agent for the control of plant diseases is (a) Baculovirus (b) Bacillus thuringiensis (c) Glomus (d) Trichoderma 80. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in: (a) Spectrophotometry (b) Tissue culture (c) PCR (d) Gel electrophoresis 81. The most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of ethanol is (a) corn meal (b) soya meal (c) ground gram (d) molasses 82. Sunken stomata is the characteristic feature of (a) hydrophyte (b) mesophyte (c) xerophyte (d) halophyte 83. The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show? (a) The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season (b) Its population growth curve is of J-type (c) The population of its predators increases enormously (d) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect. 84. Which of the following does not have stomata? (a) hydrophytes (b) mesophytes (c) xerophytes (d) submerged hydrophytes 85. About 70% of total global carbon is found in

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(a) grasslands (b) agroecosystems (c) oceans (d) forests 86. Minerals and metals are (a) biodegradable resources (b) renewable (c) non-renewable (d) renewable and non-renewable resources 87. One of the most important functions of botanical gardens is that (a) they provide a beautiful area for recreation (b) one can observe tropical plants there (c) they allow ex-situ conservation of germ plasm (d) they provide the natural habitat for wildlife 88. Major aerosol pollutant in jet plane emission is (a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Carbon monoxide (c) Methane (d) Fluorocarbon 89. Which of the following is the use of lichens in case of pollution? (a) They treat the polluted water (b) They act as bioindicators of pollution (c) They promote pollution (d) Lichens are not related with pollution 90. Montreal protocol aims at (a) Biodiversity conservation (b) Control of water pollution (c) Control of CO2 emission (d) Reduction of ozone de pleting substances

Chemistry 1. Ametal oxide has the formula Z2O3. It can be reduced by hydrogen to give free metal and water. 0.1596 g of the metal oxide requires 6 mg of hydrogen for complete reduction. The atomic weight of the metal is (a) 27.9 (b) 159.6 (c) 79.8 (d) 55.8 2. Number of moles of MnO4 required to oxidize one mole of ferrous oxalate completely in acidic medium will be:

(a) 0.6 moles (b) 0.4 moles (c) 7.5 moles (d) 0.2 moles 3. Uncertainty in position of an electron (mass = 9.9 × 92–08 g) moving with a velocity of 3 × 924 cm/s accurate upto 2.229% will be (use h/4 π) in uncertainty expression where h = 6.606 ×92–07 erg-second) (a) 1.93 cm (b) 3.84 cm (c) 5.76 cm (d) 7.68 cm 4. If n = 6, the correct sequence for filling of electrons will be: (a)

(b) (c) (d) 5. Which of the following statements is true? (a) Silicon exhibits 4 coordination number in its compound (b) Bond energy of F2 is less than Cl2 (c) Mn(III) oxidation state is more stable than Mn(II) in aqueous state (d) Elements of 15th group shows only +3 and +5 oxidation states 6. Which structure is linear? (a) SO2 (b) CO2 (c) CO3-2

(d) SO4-2

7. Which one of the following has the pyramidal shape? (a) CO3 2– (b) SO3 (c) BF3 (d) PF3 8. The angular shape of ozone molecule (O3 )consists of: (a) 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds (b) 2 sigma and 2 pi bonds (c) 1 sigma and 1 pi bonds (d) 2 sigma and 1 pi bonds

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9. In vander Waal's equation of state for a non-ideal gas, the term that accounts for intermolecular forces is:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 10. Three moles of an ideal gas expanded spontaneously into vacuum. The work done will be: (a) Zero (b) Infinite (c) 3 Joules (d) 9 Joules 11.

(a) –357 kJ (b) –731 kJ (c) –773 kJ (d) –229 kJ 12.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 13.

(a) Ag2 S> HgS> CuS (b) Ag2 S> CuS> HgS (c) HgS> Ag2 S> CuS (d) CuS> Ag2 S> HgS 14. Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer? (a) NaOHand NaCl (b) HNO3 and NH4NO3 (c) HCl and KCl (d) HNO2 and NaNO2 15. At 100° C the Kw of water is 55 times its value at 25°C. What will be the pHof neutral solution? (log 55 = 1.74) (a) 6.13 (b) 7.00 (c) 7.87 (d) 5.13 16. When H2O2 is oxidised the product is (a) OH– (b) O2 (c) O2– (d) HO2 – 17. Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point? (a) CaCl2 (b) CaBr2 (c) CaI2 (d) CaF2 18. Which of the following possesses a sp-carbon in its structure? (a) CH2 = CCI– CH= CH2 (b) CCl2 = CCl2 (c) CH2 = C= CH2 (d) CH2 = CH– CH= CH2. 19. Which of the following will exhibit chirality? (a) 2-Methylhexane (b) 3-Methylhexane (c) Neopentane (d) Isopentane

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20. Which of the following pairs of compounds are enantiomers? (a) CH3 CH3 HHOHOHand CH3 CH3 HOHHHO (b) CH3 CH3 HHOHOHand CH3 CH3 HOHHHO (c) CH3 CH3 HHOHOHand CH3 CH3 HOHHHO (d) CH3 CH3 HHOHOHand CH3 CH3 HOHOHH 21. Given are cyclohexanol acetic acid (II), 2, 4, 6 – trinitrophenol (III) and phenol (IV). In these the order of decreasing acidic character will be: (a) III> II> IV> I (b) II> III> I> IV (c) II> III> IV> I (d) III> IV> II> I 22. Which one of the following reactions is expected to readily give a hydrocarbon product in good yields?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 23. Which one of the following statements regarding photochemical smog is not correct? (a) Carbon monoxide does not play any role in photochemical smog formation. (b) Photochemical smog is an oxidising agent in character. (c) Photochemical smog is formed through photochemical reaction involving solar energy. (d) Photochemical smog does not cause irritation in eyes and throat. 24. Percentage of free space in a body centred cubic unit cell is: (a) 30% (b) 32%

(c) 34% (d) 28% 25. Which of the following colligative property can provide molar mass of proteins (or polymers or colloids) with greatest precision? (a) Osmotic pressure (b) Elevation of boiling point (c) Depression of freezing point (d) Relative lowering of vapour pressure 26.

(a) Na+ (b) Li+ (c) Ba2+ (d) Mg2+ 27. Kohlrausch’s law states that at: (a) finite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte. (b) infinite dilution each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte depending on the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte. (c) infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to conductance of an electrolyte whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte. (d) infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contirubtion to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte. 28.

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(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 29. Activation energy (Ea) and rate constants (k1 and k2) of a chemical reaction at two different temperatures (T1 and T2) are related by:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 30. Identify the alloy containing a non-metal as a constituent in it. (a) Invar (b) Steel (c) Bell metal (d) Bronze 31. When chlorine is passed over dry slaked lime at room temperature, the main reaction product is (a) 2 2 Ca(ClO) (b) CaCl2 (c) CaOCl2 (d) 2 Ca(OCl) 32. The correct order of acid strength is: (a) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO (b) HClO< HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 (c) HClO4 < HClO< HClO2 < HClO3 (d) HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO 33. The composition of ‘golden spangles’ is (a) PbCrO4 (b) PbI2 (c) As2S3 (d) BaCrO4

34. Which one of the following characteristics of the transition metals is associated with their catalytic activity? (a) Variable oxidation states (b) High enthalpy of atomization (c) Parmagnetic behaviour (d) Colour of hydrated ions 35. An example of double salt is (a) Bleaching powder (b) K4[Fe(CN)6] (c) Hypo (d) Potash alum 36. Which of the following is considered to be an anticancer species?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 37. Which is diamagnetic? (a) [Fe(CN)6] 3– (b) [Co(F6 )]3– (c) [Ni(CN)4] 2– (d) [NiCl4] 2– 38. Propene, CH3CHCH2 can be converted into 1-propanol by oxidation. Indicate which set of reagents amongst the following is ideal to effect the above conversion? (a) KMnO4 (alkaline) (b) Osmium tetraoxide (OsO4 /CH2Cl2) (c) B6H6 and alk. H2O2 (d) O3 /Zn

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39. Among the following ethers, which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot concentrated HI?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 40.

(a) C6H5COOC2H5 (b) C2H5COOC6H5 (c) H3COCH2COC6H5 (d) p— H3CO— C6H4 — COCH3 41. The product formed in Aldol condensation is (a) a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy ketone (b) an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone (c) an alpha, beta unsaturated ester (d) a beta-hydroxy acid 42. Aniline is reacted with bromine water and the resulting product is treated with an aqueous solution of sodium nitrite in presence of dilute hydrochloric acid. The compound so formed is converted into a tetrafluoroborate which is subsequently heated dry. The final product is (a) 1,3, 5-tribromobenzene [1998] (b) p-bromofluorobenzene (c) p-bromoaniline (d) 2,4, 6-tribromofluorobenzene 43. Chemically considering digestion is basically (a) Anabolism [1994] (b) Hydrogenation (c) Hydrolysis (d) Dehydrogenation.

44. The hormone that helps in the conversion of glucose to glycogen is (a) Cortisone (b) Bile acids (c) Adrenaline (d) Insulin

45. (a) 2-methylpropene (b) Styrene (c) Propylene (d) Ethene

Physics 1. Dimensional formula of self inductance is (a) [MLT–2A–2] (b) [ML2T–1A–2] (c) [ML2T–2A–2] (d) [ML2T–2A–1] 2. Which two of the following five physical parameters have the same dimensions? (A) Energy density (B) Refractive index (C) Dielectric constant (D) Young’s modulus (E) Magnetic field (a) (B) and (D) (b) (C) and (E) (c) (A) and (D) (d) (A) and (E) 3. The displacement of a particle is represented by the following equation: 3t3 + 7t2 + 5t + 8 where s is in metre and t in second. The acceleration of the particle at t = 1s is (a) 14 m/s2 (b) 18 m/s2 (c) 32 m/s2 (d) zero 4. Abus is moving on a straight road towards north with a uniform speed of 50 km/hour turns through 90°. If the speed remains unchanged after turning, the increase in the velocity of bus in the turning process is (a) 70.7 km/hour along south-west direction (b) zero (c) 50 km/hour along west (d) 70.7 km/hour along north-west direction.

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5. Aboat which has a speed of 5 km/hr in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest possible path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the river water in km/hr is (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) √21 (d) 1 6.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 7. Alift weighing 1000 kg is moving upwards with an accelertion of 1 m/s2. The tension in the supporting cable is (a) 980 N (b) 10800 N (c) 9800 N (d) 8800 N 8. A body of mass m moving with velocity 3 km/h collides with a body of mass 2 m at rest. Now the coalesced mass starts to move with a velocity (a) 1 km/h (b) 2 km/h (c) 3 km/h (d) 4 km/h 9. A ball moving with velocity 2 m/s collides head on with another stationary ball of double the mass. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, then their velocities (in m/s) after collision will be: (a) 0, 1 (b) 1, 1 (c) 1, 0.5 (d) 0, 2 10. Angular momentum is (a) vector (axial) (b) vector (polar) (c) scalar (d) none of the above

11. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg-m2 about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm about this axis. The torque which can stop the wheel’s rotation in one minute would be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 12. A circular platform is mounted on a frictionless vertical axle. Its radius R= 2 m and its moment of inertia about the axle is 200 kgm2. It is initially at rest. A 50 kg man stands on the edge of the platform and begins to walk along the edge at the speed of 1 ms–1 relative to the ground. Time taken by the man to complete one revolution is:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 13. The potential energy of a satellite, having mass m and rotating at a height of 6.4 × 106 m from the earth surface, is (a) – mgRe (b) – 0.67 mgRe (c) – 0.5 mgRe (d) – 0.33 mgRe 14. The compressibility of water is 4 × 10–5 per unit atmospheric pressure. The decrease in volume of 100 cm3 of water under a pressure of 100 atmosphere will be (a) 0.4 cm3 (b) 4 × 10–5 cm3 (c) 0.025 cm3 (d) 0.004 cm3

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15. If λm denotes the wavelength at which the radiative emission from a black body at a temperature T K is maximum, then (a) λm ∝ T–1 (b) λm ∝ T4 (c) λm is independent of T (d) λm ∝ T 16. Which of the following is not thermodynamical function? (a) Enthalpy (b) Work done (c) Gibb's energy (d) Internal energy 17.

(a) 2 PV (b) 4 PV (c) 1/2 PV (d) PV 18. A particle, with restoring force proportional to displacement and resistve force proportional to velocity is subjected to a force F sin ω0. If the amplitude of the particle is maximum for ω = ω1 and the energy of the particle is maximum for ω = ω2, then (a) ω1 = ω0 and ω2 ≠ ω0 (b) ω1 = ω0 and ω2 = ω0 (c) ω1 ≠ ω0 and ω2 = ω0 (d) ω1 ≠ ω0 and ω2 ≠ ω0 19. A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion of amplitude a. Its potential energy is maximum when the displacement from the position of the maximum kinetic energy is (a) 0 (b) ±a (c) ±a/ 2 (d) – a/2

20. If the amplitude of sound is doubled and the frequency is reduced to one fourth, the intensity of sound at the same point will be (a) increasing by a factor of 2 (b) decreasing by a factor of 2 (c) decreasing by a factor of 4 (d) unchanged 21. A cylindrical resonance tube open at both ends, has a fundamental frequency, f, in air. If half of the length is dipped vertically in water, the fundamental frequency of the air column will be (a) 2f (b) 3f/2 (c) f (d) f/2 22. A transverse wave is represented by y = A sin (ωt–kx). For what value of the wavelength is the wave velocity equal to the maximum particle velocity? (a) πA/2 (b) πA (c) 0πA (d) A 23.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 24. A capacitor is charged to store an energy U. The charging battery is disconnected. An identical

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capacitor is now connected to the first capacitor in parallel. The energy in each of the capacitor is (a) U/ 2 (b) 3U/ 2 (c) U (d) U/ 4 25. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field E in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is d and area of each plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 26. If nearly 105 coulombs liberate 1 gm-equivalent of aluminium, then the amount of aluminium (equivalent weight 9), deposited through electrolysis in 20 minutes by a current of 50 amp. will be (a) 0.6 gm (b) 0.09 gm (c) 5.4 gm (d) 10.8 gm 27. A 5–ampere fuse wire can withstand a maximum power of 1 watt in the circuit. The resistance of the fuse wire is (a) 0.04 ohm (b) 0.2 ohm (c) 5 ohm (d) 0.4 ohm 28.

(a) –1V

(b) + 2V (c) –2V (d) + 1V 29.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 30. A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It: (a) will become rigid showing no movement (b) will stay in any position (c) will stay in north-south direction only (d) will stay in east-west direction only 31. A current of 2.5 A flows through a coil of inductance 5 H. The magnetic flux linked with the coil is (a) 2 Wb (b) 0.5 Wb (c) 12.5 Wb (d) Zero 32. An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and an inductor Lin series. If Rand the inductive reactance are both equal to 3 Ω, the phase difference between the applied voltage and the current in the circuit is (a) π /6 (b) π /4 (c) π /2 (d) zero 33. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity H0 and permeability P0 is given by

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(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 34. Light enters at an angle of incidence in a transparent rod of refractive index n. For what value of the refractive index of the material of the rod the light once entered into it will not leave it through its lateral face whatsoever be the value of angle of incidence?

(a)

(b)

(c) (d) 35. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance between the objective and eyepiece is 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are: (a) 10 cm, 10 cm (b) 15 cm, 5 cm (c) 18 cm, 2 cm (d) 11 cm, 9 cm 36. A parallel beam of light of wavelength O is incident normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction pattern is formed on a screen placed perpendicular to the direction of the incident beam. At the second minimum of the diffraction pattern, the phase difference between the rays coming from the two edges of slit is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 37. Which of the following moving particles (moving with same velocity) has largest wavelength of matter waves? (a) Electron

(b) D-particle (c) Proton (d) Neutron 38. A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of wavelength 0.6 µm. Assuming it to be 25% efficient in converting electrical energy to light, the number of photons of yellow light it emits per second is (a) 1.5 × 1020 (b) 6 × 1018 (c) 62 × 1020 (d) 3 × 1019 39. In which of the following systems will the radius of the first orbit (n = 1) be minimum? (a) Hydrogen atom (b) Doubly ionized lithium (c) Singly ionized helium (d) Deuterium atom 40. Which of the following statements is true for nuclear forces? (a) they obey the inverse square law of distance (b) they obey the inverse third power law of distance (c) they are short range forces (d) they are equal in strength to electromagnetic forces. 41. Half-lives of two radioactive substances A and Bare respectively 20 minutes and 40 minutes. Initially, the samples of A and B have equal number of nuclei. After 80 minutes the ratio of remaining numbers of A and B nuclei is (a) 1: 16 (b) 4: 1 (c) 1: 4 (d) 1: 1 42.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 43. When n-type semiconductor is heated

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(a) number of electrons increases while that of holes decreases (b) number of holes increases while that of electrons decreases (c) number of electrons and holes remain same (d) number of electrons and holes increases equally. 44. The cause of the potential barrier in a p-n diode is (a) depletion of positive charges near the junction (b) concentration of positive charges near the junction (c) depletion of negative charges near the junction (d) concentration of positive and negative charges near the junction 45. Application of a forward bias to a p–n junction (a) widens the depletion zone [2005] (b) increases the potential difference across the depletion zone (c) increases the number of donors on the n side (d) increases the electric field in the depletion zone 1. c 2. b 3. a 4. a 5. b 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. d 10. d 11. a 12. b 13. b 14. b 15. a 16. d 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. a 21. d 22. d 23. c 24. d 25. a 26. c 27. c 28. a 29. a 30. a 31. a 32. a 33. c 34. a 35. b 36. b 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. c 41. b 42. c 43. a 44. b 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. d 49. a 50. c 51. d 52. c 53. d 54. c 55. a 56. b 57. c 58. a 59. d 60. a 61. d 62. c 63. b 64. d 65. c 66. b 67. a 68. b 69. c 70. a 71. c 72. c 73. b 74. a 75. c 76. a 77. b 78. c 79. d 80. d 81. d 82. c 83. b 84. d 85. c 86. d 87. c 88. d 89. b 90. d 1. d 2. b 3. a 4. a 5. b 6. b 7. d 8. d 9. c 10. a 11. b 12. c 13. d 14. d 15. a 16. b 17. c 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. c 22. a 23. a 24. b 25. a 26. d 27. d 28. d 29. b 30. b 31. c 32. b 33. b 34. a 35. d 36. c 37. c 38. c 39. b 40. a 41. a 42. d 43. c 44. b 45. a 1. c 2. c 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. d 12. c 13. c 14. a 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. b 20. c 21. c 22. c 23. b 24. a 25. c 26. c 27. a 28. d 29. d 30. b 31. c 32. b 33. c 34. a 35. c 36. d 37. a 38. a 39. b 40. c 41. c 42. d 43. d 44. d 45. c