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This is to certify that, the entries of NEET-IIB 2019-20 Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written and
verified.
Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature
1. This questions booklet contains 180 Objective Type Questions (Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) in the subjects
of Physics (45), Chemistry (45) & Biology (90).
2. Tile questions paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the
examination.
3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.
4. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Questions Booklet and Answer Sheet and make
the correct entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheet are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK READER
(OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be taken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be taken to fill
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION, SERIAL No. and NEET-IIB-2019-20 Roll . accurately. The candidate must sign on
the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.
5. Read each question carefully.
6. Determine the one correct answer from out of the four available options given for each question,
7. Fill the appropriate circle completely like this , for answering a particular question. Mark with Black ink ball
point pen only.
8. Each question with correct response shall be awarded Four (4) mark. There shall be negative marking. One (1)
mark will be deducted for each wrong response.
No mark shall be granted for marking two or more answers of same question, scratching or overwriting.
09. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.
10. Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answers once marked.
11. Rough work should be done only one the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should not
be done on the Answer Sheet.
12. The required mathematical tables (Log etc.) will be allowed in the examination hall.
13. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over. the Question Booklet and Answer sheet is to be
returned to the invigilator. Confirm that both the candidate and invigilator have signed on question booklet and
Answer Sheet.
14. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of examination.
Roll No. Question Booklet Sr. NoQuestion Booklet Version
4320(Write this number on
your Answer Sheet)P
Mark720
GroupPCB
Date : 26/03/2020Time : 3 Hours PCB MAJOR TEST - 01
0
NEET 2019-20THINK NEET THINK IIB
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EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION! THINK NEET THINK IIB
THINK NEET THINK IIB
Section ‘A’ : Physics
PHYSICS
01. A cannon after firing recoils due to
(1) Conservation of energy
(2) Backward thrust of gases produced
(3) Newton's third law of motion
(4) Newton's first law of motion
02. The linear momentum P of body varies with time
and is given by the equation P = x + yt2 where
x and y are constants. The net force acting on
the body for a one dimensional motion is
proportional to
(1) t2 (2) a constant
(3) 1
t(4) t
03. Two b locks of masses M1 and M
2 a re
connected to each other through a light spring
as shown in figure. If we push mass M1 with
force F and cause acceleration a1 in mass M
1,
what will be the magnitude of acceleration in
M2 ?
(1) F / M2
(2) F / (M1 + M
2)
(3) a1
(4) (F – M1a
1) / M
2
04. A 60 kg body is pushed horizontally with just
enough force to start it moving across a floor
and the same force continues to act afterwards.
The coefficient of static friction and sliding
friction are 0.5 and 0.4 respectively. The
acceleration of the body is (g = 10m/s2)
(1) 6 m/s2
(2) 4.9 m/s2
(3) 3.92 m/s2
(4) 1 m/s2
05. A smooth block is released at rest on a 45o
incline and then slides a distance d. The time
taken to slide is n times as much to slide on
rough incline then on a smooth incline. The
coefficient of friction is
(1) k 2
11
n (2) k 2
11
n
(3) s 2
11
n (4) s 2
11
n
06. If the overbridge is concave instead of being
convex, then the thrust on the road at the lowest
position will be
(1) 2mv
mgr
(2) 2mv
mgr
(3) 2 2m v g
r(4)
2v g
r
07. A suspended simple pendulum of length is
making an angle with the vertical. On
releasing, its velocity at lowest point will be
(1) 2g (1 cos ) (2) 2g sin
(3) 2g (1 cos ) (4) 2g
08. A gramophone record is revolving with an
angular velocity . A coin is placed at a distance
r from the centre of the record. The static
coefficient of friction is . The coin will revolve
with the record if
(1) 2
gr
(2) 2r g
(3) 2
rg
(4) 2
gr
09. A force 2F kx acts on a particle at an angleof 60o with the x-axis. The work done indisplacing the particle from x
1 to x
2 will be
(1) 2kx
2
(2) 2 22 1
kx x
2
(3) 3 32 1
kx x
6
(4) 3 32 1
kx x
3
10. The mass of a bucket full of water is 15 kg. It
is being pulled up from a 15m deep well. Due
to a hole in the bucket 6 kg water flows out of
the bucket. The work done in drawing the
bucket out of the well will be (g = 10m/s2)
(1) 900 Joule (2) 1500 Joule
(3) 1800 Joule (4) 2100 Joule
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EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION! THINK NEET THINK IIB
THINK NEET THINK IIB
PHYSICS
11. A ball of mass 0.5 kg moving with a speed of
1.5 m/s on a horizontal smooth surface, collides
with a nearly weightless spring of force constant
k = 50 N/m. The maximum compression of the
spring would be
(1) 0.12 m (2) 1.5 m
(3) 0.5 m (4) 0.15 m
12. A body of mass m starting from rest from origin
moves along x-axis with constant power (P).
Calculate relation between velocity and
distance
(1) 1/2x v
(2) 2x v
(3) x v
(4) 3x v
13. A particle moves on a rough horizontal ground
with some initial velocity say v0. If
3
4 of its
kinetic energy is lost due to friction in time t0
then coefficient of friction between the particleand the ground is
(1) 0
0
v
2gt (2) 0
0
v
4gt
(3) 0
0
3v
4gt (4) 0
0
v
gt
14. A block of mass m is on an inclined plane of
angle . The coefficient of friction between the
block and the plane is and tan>. Theblock is held stationary by applying a force P
parallel to the plane. The direction of force
pointing up the plane is taken to be positive.
As P is varies from P1 = mg (sin – cos) to
P2 = mg (sin + cos), the friction force f
versus P graph will look like
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
15. A rope is used to lower vertically a block of
mass M by a distance x with a constant
downward acceleration g/2. The work done by
the rope on the block is
(1) Mgx (2) 21
Mgx2
(3) 1
Mgx2
(4) 2Mgx
16. A block of mass m is attached with a massless
string. The block is placed over a rough
inclined surface for which the coefficient of
friction is = 3/4. The minimum value of M
required to move the block up the plane is
(Neglect mass of string and pulley and friction
in pulley)
(1) 6
m5
(2) 4
m5
(3) 2 m (4) 3
m2
17. The work done in bringing a unit positive charge
from infinity distance to a point at distance X
from a positive charge Q is W. When, the
potential V at that point is
(1) WQ
X(2) W
(3) W
Q (4) WQ
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EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION! THINK NEET THINK IIB
THINK NEET THINK IIB
PHYSICS
18. A charge Q is placed at each corner of a cube
of side a. The potential at the centre of the cube
is
(1) 0
8Q
a (2) 0
4Q
4 a
(3) 0
4Q
3 a (4) 0
2Q
a
19. The electric field and the potential of an electric
dipole vary with distance r as
(1) 2
1 1and
r r(2) 2
1 1and
rr
(3) 2 3
1 1and
r r(4) 3 2
1 1and
r r
20. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken
as fundamental units, then the dimensions of
mass are
(1) [F V T–1]
(2) [F V T–2]
(3) [F V–1 T–1]
(4) [F V–1 T]
21. In the equation 2
aP
V
(V – b) = constant,
the unit of a is
(1) dyne × cm5 (2) dyne × cm4
(3) dyne / cm3 (4) dyne × cm2
22. Write the dimensions of a × b in the relation2b x
Eat
, where E is the energy, x is the
displacement and t is time
(1) 2ML T
(2) 1 2 1M L T
(3) 2 2ML T
(4) 2MLT
23. A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0, starts
moving along with the positive x-direction with
a velocity 'v' that varies as x. The
displacement of the particle varies with time as
(1) t2 (2) t
(3) t1/2 (4) t3
24. A ball is dropped vertically from a height dabove the ground. It hits the ground bouncesup vertically to a height d/2. Neglectingsubsequent motion and air resistance its velocityv with the height h above the ground as
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
25. From the top of a building 40 m tall, a boy
projects a stone vertically upwards with an
initial velocity 10 m/s such that it eventually falls
to the ground. After how long will the stone
strike the ground ? Take g = 10 m/s2.
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s (3) 3 s (4) 4 s
26. A capacitor of 2F is charged as shown in the
diagram. When the switch S is turned to
position 2, the percentage of its stored energy
dissipated is
(1) 0% (2) 20% (3) 75% (4) 80%
27. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C
is connected to a cell of emf V and then
disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of
dielectric constant K, which can just fill the air
gap of the capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which
of the following is incorrect ?
(1) The energy stored in the capacitor
decreases K times
(2) The change in energy s to red is
21 1CV 1
2 K
(3) The charge on the capacitor is not
conserved.
(4) The potential difference between the plates
decreases K times.
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EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION! THINK NEET THINK IIB
THINK NEET THINK IIB
PHYSICS
28. Electric charges are distributed in a small
volume. The flux of the electric field through a
spherical surface of radius 1 m surrounding the
total charge is 100 V-m. The flux over the
concentric sphere of radius 2 m will be
(1) 25 V-m
(2) 50 V-m
(3) 100 V-m
(4) 200 V-m
29. Two bu lbs of 500 W and 200 W are
manufactured to operate on 220 V line. The
ratio of heat produced in 500 W and 200 W,
in two cases, when firstly they are connected
in parallel and secondary in series will be
(1) 5 2
:2 5
(2) 5 5
:2 2
(3) 2 5
:5 2
(4) 2 2
:5 5
30. In the below circuit the current in each
resistance is
(1) 0.5A (2) 0 A
(3) 1 A (4) 0.25 A
31. A water fountain on the ground sprinkles water
all around it. If the speed of water coming out
of the fountain is v, the total area around the
fountain that gets wet is
(1)
4
2g
(2)
4
22 g
(3)
2
2g
(4)
2
g
32. Two balls are projected at an angle and
(90 ) to the horizontal with the same speed.
The ratio of their maximum vertical heights is
(1) 1 : 1
(2) tan :1
(3) 1: tan
(4) 2tan :1
33. A charged particle with velocity 2 × 103 m/s
passes undeflected through electric and
magnetic field. Magnetic field is 1.5 Tesla. The
electric field intensity would be
(1) 2 × 103 N/C
(2) 1.5 × 103 N/C
(3) 3 × 103 N/C
(4) 4/3 × 103 N/C
34. Two particles X and Y having equal charge,
after being accelerated through the same
potential difference enter a region of uniform
magnetic field and describe circular paths of
radii R1 and R
2 respectively. The ratio of the
mass of X to that of Y is
(1) 1
2
R
R (2)
2
2
1
R
R
(3)
2
1
2
R
R
(4) 2
1
R
R
35. A bar magnet of length 'l ' and magnetic dipole
moment 'M' is bent in the form of an arc as
shown in figure. The new magnetic dipole
moment will be
(1) 2
M
(2) M
2
(3) M
(4) 3
M
36. Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of
radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a
uniform frequency f Hz. The magnitude of
magnetic induction at the centre of the ring is
(1) 0qf
2 R
(2) 0qf
2R
(3) 0q
2fR
(4) 0q
2 fR
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EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION! THINK NEET THINK IIB
THINK NEET THINK IIBPHYSICS
37. An arrangement of three parallel straight wires
placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying
same current 'I along the same direction is
shown in fig. magnitude of force per unit length
on the middle wire 'B' is given by
(1) 2
02 i
d
(2)
202 i
d
(3) 2
0i
2 d
(4)
20i
2 d
38. A current of 3 A is flowing in a linear conductor
having a length of 40 cm. The conductor is
placed in a magnetic field of strength 500 gauss
and makes an angle of 30o with the direction of
the field. It experiences a force of magnitude.
(1) 3 × 10–4 N
(2) 3 × 10–2 N
(3) 3 × 102 N
(4) 3 × 104N
39. The total power dissipated in watts in the circuit
shown here is
(1) 4W (2) 16W
(3) 40W (4) 54W
40. A body which is initially at rest at a height R
above the surface of the earth of radius R, falls
freely towards the earth. Find out its velocity
on reaching the surface of earth.
(Take g = acceleration due to gravity on the
surface of the Earth.)
(1) 2gR (2) 3
gR2
(3) gR (4) 1
gR2
41. Which of the following represents the time
period of the planet moving around the sun. [R
= semi major axis of the path]
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
42. The resistance of an ammeter is 13 and its
scale is graduated for a current upto 100 A.After an additional shunt has been connected
to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure
currents upto 750 A by this meter. The value
of shunt resistance is
(1) 20 (2) 2
(3) 0.2 (4) 2k
43. In the motorcycle stunt called "the well of
death" the track is a vertical cylindrical surface
of 18 m radius. Take the motorcycle to be a
point mass and 0.8. The minimum angular
speed of the motorcycle to prevent him from
sliding down should be
(1) 6/5 rad/s
(2) 5/6 rad/s
(3) 25/3 rad/s
(4) none of these
44. A body is dropped from a certain height. When
it loses U amount of its energy it acquires a
velocity 'v'. The mass of the body is
(1) 2U/v2
(2) 2v/U2
(3) 2v/U
(4) U2 / 2v
45. When a proton and an electron are brought
nearer, potential energy of the system
(1) Increase
(2) Decreases
(3) Remain same
(4) Can't say
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EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION! THINK NEET THINK IIB
THINK NEET THINK IIB
CHEMISTRY
Section ‘B’ : Chemistry
46. The electronic configuration of an element is1 s2,2 s2, 2 p6, 3 s2, 3 p6, 3 d10, 4 s2, 4 p6, 4 d10, 5 s2,
5 p3. From which group of the periodic table it
belongs?
(1) 2nd (2) 5th
(3) 3rd (4) 7th
47. An element has electronic configuration 1 s2, 2 s2, 2p6, 3 s2, 3 p4. Predict their period, group and block
(1) Period = 3rd, block = p, group = 16
(2) Period = 5th, block = s, group = 1
(3) Period = 3rd, block = p, group = 10
(4) Period = 4th, block = d, group = 12
48. The isoelectronic pair is
(1) CO, N2
(2) O2, NO
(3) C2, HF
(4) F2, HCl
49. A plot of the kinetic energy (1/2 m υ 2) of ejectedelectrons as a function of the frequency ( ) of inci-dent radiation of four alkali metals (M
1, M
2, M
3, M
4)
is shown below :
The alkali metals M1, M
2, M
3 and M
4 are respec-
tively
(1) Li, Na, K and Rb
(2) Rb, K, Na and Li
(3) Na, K, Li and Rb
(4) Rb, Li, Na and K
50. According to the Bohr Theory, which of the follow-ing transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise tothe least energetic photon ?
(1) n = 6 to n = 1
(2) n = 5 to n = 4
(3) n = 6 to n = 5
(4) n = 5 to n = 3
51. Principal, azimuthal and magnetic quantum numbersare respectively related to
(1) size, orientation and shape
(2) size, shape and orientation
(3) shape, size and orientation
(4) none of these
52. Which of the following molecules have three bondpairs but different shapes ?
1. BCl3 2. H
2S 3. PH
3 4. AsF
5
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3
(3) 1 and 3 (4) 3 and 4
53. Both NH3 and H
2O molecules have distored tetra-
hedral geometries but the bond angle in water is lessthan that of ammonia. This is because
(1) NH3 contains only one lone pair on N-atom to
repel the bond pairs whereas in H2O, there are two
lone pairs on O-atom to repel the bond pairs
(2) NH3 contains three bond pairs whereas H
2O
contains only two bond pairs
(3) NH3 is pyramidal whreas H
2O has V-shape
(4) N in NH3 is less electronegative than O in H
2O
54. The magnetic moment of KO2 at room temperature
is .............BM.
(1) 1.41 (2) 1.73
(3) 2.23 (4) 2.64
55. The increasing order of bond orders of
2 2 2 2O ,O ,O and O is
(1) 2 2 2 2O ,O ,O ,O (2) 2 2 2 2O ,O ,O ,O
(3) 2 2 2 2O ,O ,O ,O (4) 2 2 2 2O ,O ,O ,O
56. Highest viscosity is exhibited by
(1) glycerol (2) ethylene glycol
(3) ethanol (4) water
57. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is found in
(1) o-nitrophenol (2) m-nitrophenol
(3) p-nitrophenol (4) phenol
58. In the following reaction,
4P + 3 KOH + 3 H2O 3 KH
2PO
2 + PH
3
(1) P is only oxidised
(2) P is only reduced
(3) P is both oxidised as well as reduced
(4) none
59. The conversion of PbO2 to Pb(NO
3)
2 is
(1) oxidation
(2) reduction
(3) neither oxidation nor reduction
(4) both oxidation and reduction
60. How many peroxy linkages are present in CrO5 ?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
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EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION! THINK NEET THINK IIB
THINK NEET THINK IIBCHEMISTRY
61. The volume of oxygen evolved at STP by decom-position of 0.68 g 20 volume hydrogen peroxidesolution is
(1) 2.24 mL (2) 22.4 mL
(3) 224 mL (4) 2240 mL
62. The molarity of pure water at 277 K is
(1) 55.5 M (2) 1 M
(3) 2.5 M (4) 5 M
63. A gas expands isothermally and reversibly.
The work done by the gas is
(1) Zero (2) Maximum
(3) Minimum (4) Cannot be determined
64. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded iso-thermally from initial volume of 1 L to 10 L. The
E for the process is ( R = 2 cal mol-1 K-1)
(1) 163.7 cal (2) zero
(3) 138.1 cal (4) 9 L atm
65. A thermodynamic system is taken from state A to Balong ACB and is brought back to A along BDA asshown in the P-V diagram. The net work done dur-ing the complete cycle is given by the area
(1) P1ACBP
2P
1(2) ACBB
1A
1A
(3) ACBDA (4) ADBB1A
1A
66. The heat of combustion of yellow P and red P are
- 9.91 kJ mol-1 and -8.78 kJ mol-1 respectively.
The heat of transition of yellow P red P is
(1) - 18.69 kJ
(2) + 1.13 kJ
(3) + 18.69 kJ
(4) - 1.13 kJ
67. 2 1HA OH H O A q kJ
+2 2H OH H O q kJ
The enthalpy of dissociation of HA is
(1) (q1 + q
2)
(2) (q1-q
2)
(3) (q2 - q
1)
(4) - (q1+ q
2)
68. The heat of combustion of solid benzoic acid at con-stant volume is - 321.30 kJ at 270C . The heat ofcombustion at constant pressure is
(1) -321.30- 300 R
(2) -321.30 + 300 R
(3) -321.30 - 150 R
(4) -321.30 + 900 R
69. There is no S-S bond in
(1) 2-2 4S O
(2) 2-2 5S O
(3) 2-2 3S O
(4) 2-2 7S O
70. The xenon compound(s) that are iso-structural with
-2IBr and 3BrO respectively are
(1) linear XeF2 and Pyramidal XeO
3
(2) bent XeF2 and Pyramidal XeO
3
(3) bent XeF2 and planar XeO
3
(4) linear XeF2 and tetrahedral XeO
3
71. Which of the following is the correct order of acidicstrength ?
(1) Cl2O
7 > SO
2 > P
4O
10
(2) CO2 > N2O
5 > SO
3
(3) Na2O > MgO > Al
2O
3
(4) K2O > CaO > MgO
72. The hybride state of phosphorous atom in each PCl5
and PBr5 in gaseous phase are sp3d. But, in solid
PCl5, Phosphorous shows sp3d and sp3 hybrid states.
while, P in PBr5 is in sp3 hybrid state. this is because
(1) PCl5 in solid form exists as 6 4PCl PCl
(2) PBr5 in solid form exists as 4 6PBr PBr
(3) PCl5 in solid form exists as 4PCl Cl
(4) PBr5 in solid form exists as 4PBr Br
73. An inorganic salt (A) is decomposed at about 523
K to give products (B) and (C). Compound (C) is
liquid at room tempearature and is neutral to litmus
paper while oxide (B) on burning with white Phos-
phorous given, a dehybrating agent (D). Compound
(A), (B), (C) and (D) will be identified as
(1) NH4NO
3, N
2O, H
2O, P
2O
5
(2) NH4NO
2, K
2O, H
2O, P
2O
5
(3) CaCO3, CaO, H
2O, CaCl
2
(4) CaCO3, CaO, H
2O, Ca (OH)
2
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EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION! THINK NEET THINK IIB
THINK NEET THINK IIB
CHEMISTRY
74. 2 2
4
N .Δ H O
CuSO(colourlessgas) TX Y Z
(blue colour)
Then, substances Y and T are
(1) Y = Mg3N
2 and T = CuSO
4. 5H
2O
(2) Y = Mg3N
2 and T = CuSO
4. 4NH
3
(3) Y = Mg(NO3)
2 and T = CuO
(4) Y = MgO and T = CuSO4. 4NH
3
75. The change in the state of hybridization of theasterisked carbon in the following reaction is
2 5P O
3 2 3 2CH C ONH CH C N H O
(1) sp3 to sp2
(2) sp2 to sp
(3) sp to sp2
(4) sp2 to sp3
76. Which is the most stable compound among the
following
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All are equally stable
77. Most stable radical is
(1) (2)
(3) 2 2CH CH C H
(4) 2CH C H
78. In which of the following conformation of cyclohexene,
flagpole flagpole interaction is present ?
(1) Chair
(2) Boat
(3) Twist boat
(4) Half chair
79. 2, 3-Dimethyl-2-butene when reacted with bromineforms a compound which upon heating with alco-holic KOH produces the following major product
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
80. Observe the following reactions and predict the
nature of A and B
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
81. What is the correct order of reactivity of alcohols in
the following reaction ?
2ZnCl2R OH HCl R Cl H O
(1) 10 > 20 > 30
(2) 10 < 20 < 30
(3) 30 > 20 > 10
(4) 30 > 10 > 20
82. Which one is the most acidic compound ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION! THINK NEET THINK IIB
THINK NEET THINK IIB
CHEMISTRY
83. Identify A and predict the type of reaction
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
84. Compounds A and C in following reaction are......
3 2 4
2
(i) CH MgBr H SO .3 (ii)H O
Hydroboration oxidation
CH CHO (A) (B)
(C)
(1) identical (2) positional isomers
(3) functional isomers (4) optical isomers
85. The product formed by the reaction of an aldehydewith a primary amine is
(1) Schiff base (2) Ketone
(3) Carboxylic acid (4) Aromatic acid
86. Consider the reactions :-
Indentify A, X, Y and Z
(1) A- Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ehtanoicacid, Z- Semicarbazide
(2) A- Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But - 2- enal, Z -Semicarbazone
(3) A-Ethanol, X- Acetaldehyde, Y - Butanone, Z-Hydrazone
(4) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid, Y-Ac--etate ion, Z-hydrazine.
87. Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product D.
The structure of the product D would be :
(1) C6H
5NHOH (2) C
6H
5NHCH
2CH
3
(3) C6H
5CH
2NH
2(4) C
6H
5CH
2OH
88.
In this reaction [X] will be -
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
89. The product - (C) obtained in the following sequenceof reactions is
(1) (2)
(3) (4) None of tese
90. Which of the following is not fit into the group ?
(1) Nickel tetracarbonyl
(2) Ferrous-ammonium sulphate
(3) Potassium ferrocynide
(4) Haemoglobin
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Section ‘C’ : Biology
91. Some of the cnidarians like corals have a
skeleton composed of
(1) Silica
(2) Spongin fibres
(3) Calcium carbonate
(4) Magnesium carbonate
92. Domain Eukarya includes how many kingdoms
(with respect to six kingdom system) ?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four
93. Genetic material of bacterial viruses is generally
(1) ss RNA
(2) ds RNA
(3) ds DNA
(4) ss DNA
94. Which one of the following is not basis of five
kingdom classification
(1) Cell structure
(2) Body organization
(3) Reproduction
(4) Mode of nutrition.
95. The animals phylum are bilaterally symmetrical,
triploblastic and pseudocoelomates
(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Annelida
(4) Arthropoda
96. Recognise figure and find the correct matching.
(1) (a) Sycon, (b) Euspongia, (c) Spongilla
(2) (a) Euspongia, (b) Spongilla, (c) Sycon
(3) (a) Spongilla, (b) Sycon, (c) Euspongia
(4) (a) Euspongia, (b) Sycon, (c) Spongilla.
97. Which of the following is not a member ofaschelminthes
(1) Round worm
(2) Filarial worm
(3) Tape worm
(4) Hook worm
98. Portuguese-Man-of-War is a
(1) Colonial monomorphic coelenterate
(2) Polymorphic coelenterate
(3) Coral
(4) Sea Anemone
99. Nerve cells are found in
(1) Hydra
(2) Sycon
(3) Paramecium
(4) Amoeba
100. Rhabditoid/ rhabditiform larva occurs in lifecycle of
(1) Liver fluke
(2) Ascaris
(3) Tapeworm
(4) Planaria.
101. Which one belongs to mollusca
(1) Devil Fish
(2) Dog Fish
(3) Silver Fish
(4) Jelly Fish
102. Toxins (Saxitoxins) secreted by somedinoflagellates enter the body of human beingsthrough food chain and result in
(1) Madness
(2) Paralysis
(3) Brain stroke
(4) Unconsciousness
103. Which one is correctly matched ?
(1) Agaricus - Smut
(2) Ustilago - Mushroom
(3) Puccinia - Insectivorous plant
(4) Deuteromycetes - Imperfect fungi.
104. The excretory organ in Balanoglossus is
(1) Mantle cavity
(2) Malpighian tubules
(3) Nephridia
(4) Proboscis gland
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105. An animal devoid of anus is
(1) Unio
(2) Fasciola
(3) Pheretima
(4) Periplaneta.
106. Collar cells occur in
(1) Scypha
(2) Hydra
(3) Sandworm
(4) Star fish
107. Internal bud for overcoming unfavourableconditions in Spongilla is
(1) Budding
(2) Regeneration
(3) Gemmule
(4) Parenchymula.
108. Cyanophyceae has got
(1) Definite nucleus and plastid
(2) No definite nucleus but plastid
(3) Neither definite nucleus nor plastid
(4) Definite nucleus but no plastid.
109. The smallest living cells have all knowncharacteristics except
(1) Survive in presence of oxygen
(2) Infect animals and plants
(3) Complete lack of cell membrane
(4) Contains ds DNA as genetic material.
110. Aristottle classified animals in two groups on thebasis of presence or absence of RBC. The groupwhich does not have RBC is
(1) Anaima
(2) Enaima
(3) Ovipara
(4) Vivipara
111. In which of the following groups would you placea plant, which produces spores and embryos butlacks seeds and vascular tissues
(1) Angiosperms
(2) Gymnosperms
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) Bryophytes
112. A fern differs from moss in having
(1) An independent gametophyte
(2) An independent sporophyte
(3) Swimming antherozoids
(4) Archegonia
113. In the moss life cycle, the gametophyte
(1) Is the dependent generation
(2) Is the heart-shaped prothallus
(3) Consists of a foot, a stalk, and a capsule
(4) Consists of leafy green shoots
114. A phylum exclusively marine is
(1) Coelenterata
(2) Porifera
(3) Protozoa
(4) Echinodermata.
115. In gymnosperms, male or female cones are borne
(1) On the same tree
(2) On different trees
(3) On the same tree or on different trees
(4) On the gametophytes
116. In plants, the haploid plant body produces
(1) Spores by mitosis and meiosis
(2) Gametes by meiosis
(3) Spores by mitosis
(4) Gametes by mitosis
117. Maiden Hair Tree is
(1) Araucaria
(2) Thuja
(3) Ginkgo
(4) Pinus
118. Tube feet are locomotory organs of
(1) Cockroach
(2) Star Fish
(3) Cuttle Fish
(4) Cat Fish
119. Which is cold blooded animal
(1) Pigeon
(2) Kangaroo
(3) Shark
(4) Rabbit
120. Find out the wrongly matched pair.
(1) Cnidoblast - Anchorage
(2) Flame cells - Defense
(3) Parapodia - Swimming
(4) Radula - Rasping organ
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121. Which is not a true amphibian animal
(1) Salamander
(2) Toad
(3) Tortoise
(4) Frog
122. Recognise figure and find the correct matching
(1) (a) Nereis, (b) Hirudinaria, (c) Maleroundworm, (d) Female round worm
(2) (a) Hirudinaria, (b) Nereis, (c) Maleroundworm, (d) Female round worm
(3) (a) Male roundworm, (b) Female roundworm, (c) Nereis, (d) Hirudinaria
(4) (a) Female round worm, (b) Maleroundworm, (c) Hirudinaria, (d) Nereis.
123. Male and female gametophytes are independentand free-living in
(1) Pinus
(2) Sphagnum
(3) Mustard
(4) Castor
124. A plant in which sporophytic generation isrepresented by zygote only
(1) Pinus
(2) Selaginella
(3) Ulothrix
(4) Dryopteris
125. Seed habit originated in certain
(1) Bryophytes
(2) Ferns
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Angiosperms
126. Death is the most important regulatory process
on the earth . It avoids
(1) Pollution
(2) Over crowding on earth
(3) Passing of traits
(4) Reproduction.
127. Which of the following promotes similarityamong living things ?
(1) Classification of organisms
(2) Discovery of new organisms
(3) Inheritance from a common ancestor
(4) Homeostatic regulation.
128. Consider the following statements regarding‘Characteristics’ of “living being” and choosethe incorrect statement.
(1) Plants grow througout their life
(2) All living organisms are required to assimilateenergy through metabolism
(3) Living beings are responsive to theirenvironment
(4) Reproduction is a more important aspect ofliving beings as compared to metabolism.
129. Which is not characteristic of all chordates
(1) Dorsal nerve cord
(2) Diaphragm between thorax and abdomen
(3) Coelom
(4) Pharyngeal gill slits.
130. Which is correct ?
(1) Platypus lays eggs
(2) Camel has biconcave RBCs
(3) Rat has cloaca
(4) Bat has feathers.
131. Vertebrates having air sacs are
(1) Birds (2) Amphibians
(3) Reptiles (4) Mammals
132. A cartilaginous fish with an operculum is
(1) Scoliodon
(2) Chimaera
(3) Torpedo
(4) Trygon
133. Psilophytes, lycophytes, horsetails, and ferns are......... palnts.
(1) Multicellular aquatic
(2) Seedless vascular
(3) Haploid dominant
(4) Seed-bearing vascular
134. Which of the following is not correctly matched
(1) Dinoflagellate - Noctiluca
(2) Slime mould - Physarum
(3) Protozoa - Slipper animalcule
(4) Chrysophytes - Autospores
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135. Which of the following hypha can neverparticipate in
gamentangial copulation
(1) +ve septate
(2) -ve aseptate
(3) +ve aseptate
(4) (+ve, -ve) aseptate
136. In bacteria, sexual reproduction throughconjugation is seen in
(1) Diploccus pneumoniae
(2) Escherichia coli
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(4) Nostoc
137. In Brown algae, the gametes are
(1) Pyriform and bear two apically attachedflagella
(2) Pyriform and bear one laterally attachedflagella
(3) Pyriform and bear one apically attachedflagella
(4) Pyriform and bear two laterally attachedflagella
138. Majority of the red algae are ............. withgreater concentrations found in the ......
(1) Fresh water, colder areas
(2) Marine, warmer areas
(3) Marine, colder areas
(4) Fresh water, warmer areas
139. Gambusia is
(1) Parasitic fish
(2) Pest of fishes
(3) Fish predator of mosquito larvae
(4) A mosquito spreading yellow fever.
140. A post-anal tail is found in
(1) Scorpion (2) Earthworm
(3) Snake (4) Lepisma
141. Which one is devoid of coelom or is acoelomate?
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Annelida
(3) Arthropoda (4) Echinodermata
142. Chemo-taxonomy is the
(1) Taxonomy of chemicals
(2) Joint collaboration of chemistry andtaxonomy
(3) Chemistry of taxonomical principles
(4) Application of phytochemistry in planttaxonomy
143. A land plant produces flagellated sperm and thedominant generation is diploid. The plant is mostlikely
(1) Fern (2) Moss
(3) Dicot (4) Conifer
144. Cyanobacteria differ from other photosyntheticbacteria in
(1) Possessing chlorophyll-a
(2) Using H2O as source of hydrogen in
photosynthesis
(3) Performing oxygenic photosynthesis
(4) All the above three
145. One of the following groups includes allexclusively endoparasitic protozoans
(1) Apicomplexa
(2) Mastigophora
(3) Ciliateae
(4) Sarcodina
146. Well developed, septate mycelium is present in
(1) Imperfect fungi
(2) The sac fungi
(3) The club fungi
(4) All of these
147. Division angiosperms is classified into classDicotyledons and class Monocotyledons. In thisclassification
(1) ‘Class’ is a category
(2) ‘Class’ is a taxon
(3) ‘Dicotyledon’ is a category
(4) ‘Division’ is a taxon.
148. “Neo systematic” was introduced by JulienHuxley in
(1) 1940 (2) 1840
(3) 1900 (4) 1890
149. You are apt to find ferns in a moist locationbecause they have
(1) A water-dependent sporophytic generation
(2) Flagellated spores
(3) Swimming sperm
(4) Swimming spores
150. Of the following, the most recent ancestors ofvascular plants were probably
(1) Mosses
(2) Red algae
(3) Horsetails
(4) Green algae
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151. In Penicillium, the female sex organ is called
(1) Archegonium
(2) Ascogonium
(3) Carpogonium
(4) Trichogyne
152. Recognise figure and find the correct matching.
(1) (a) Tape worm, (b) Liver fluke, (c)
Pleurobrachia
(2) (a) Pleurobrachia, (b) Tape worm, (c) Liver
fluke
(3) (a) Liver fluke, (b) Tape worm, (c)
Pleurobrachia
(4) (a) Ctenoplasma, (b) Liver fluke, (c)
Tapeworm
153. The ctenophores commonly known as
(1) Sea snakes
(2) Sea fish
(3) Sea walnuts
(4) Sea groundnut.
154. Structure common among Bryophyta,
Pteridophyta and Gymnosperm is
(1) Antheridium
(2) Motile male gamete
(3) Archegonium
(4) Both antheridia and archegonia
155. Which of the following causes “Sulphur shower”
?
(1) Moss (2) Fern
(3) Pinus (4) Cycas
156. Select the correct statement with respect to
chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
(1) Majority of them are decomposers
(2) Play an important role in recycling nutrients
(3) Helpful in production of antibiotics
(4) More than one option are correct.
157. Exogenously produced asexual spores andendogenously formed sexual spores are foundin
(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Deuteromycetes
(4) Phycomycetes
158. Which of the following structures in Pinus arehaploid
(1) Megaspore, integument, root
(2) Endosperm, megaspore, pollen grain
(3) Pollen grain, leaf, root
(4) Megaspore, endosperm and embryo
159. The megaspore of a conifer, which is neverreleased from the sporangium, divides by mitosisto produce a
(1) Male gametophyte
(2) Female gametophyte
(3) Multicellular embryo
(4) Pollen grain
160. The scientific name of a species ‘X’ was givenby a scientist in 1960 as ‘P’ and another scientistgave the other name to the same species in 1990as ‘Q’. Which is considered as valid name ?
(1) P (2) Q
(3) Both P and Q (4) Neither P nor Q
161. The chart shows the classification of two species
of Crocodile.
Animalia
Chordata
Reptilia
Loricata
Crocodylidae
Crocodylus
Crocodylus niloticus (Nile Crocodile)
Crocodylus porosus (Salt water Crocodile)
To which order do these crocodile belong ?
(1) Chordata (2) Crocodylidae
(3) Loricata (4) Reptilia
162. A biological museum and a herbarium have one
thing in common Identify
(1) Both maintain living specimens
(2) Both preserve dead and stuffed animals
(3) The specimens preserved in both are dead
(4) Each of the above mentioned is common to
both
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163. A phylogenetic system does not depend upon
(1) Morphological criteria
(2) Data from other branches of biology
(3) The study of only one or few characters
(4) The evolutionary sequence of taxa.
164. The chracteristic metal box used for collectingplant specimens from the field is known as
(1) Haversack (2) Vasculum
(3) Polythene box (4) Vascular system.
165. In fungi, the ascospores and basidiospores arecalled sexual spores because
(1) They produce sex organs
(2) They fuse to form zygote
(3) They take part in sexual union
(4) None of the above three
166. Viroids differ from viruses in
(1) Possessing free, naked RNA only
(2) Absence of protein capsid
(3) Never possessing DNA
(4) Each of the above mentioned
167. The Litmus dye used as chemical indicator inlaboratory is obtained from
(1) Blue green bacteria (2) Algae
(3) Fungi (4) Lichen
168. The most distinctive feature of eachinodermswhich helps in locomotion, capture and transportof food and respiration is
(1) Water transport system
(2) Water jelly system
(3) Water vascular system
(4) Canal system
169. Animal of which of the phylum are bilateralsymmetry, triploblastic, metamericallysegmented, organ-system level of bodyorganisation and coelomate animals
(1) Aschelminthes (2) Annelida
(3) Echinodermata (4) Mollusca
170. Actinomycetes differ from fungi because
(1) The former are autotrophic
(2) The later are prokaryotic
(3) The later are autotrophic
(4) The former are prokaryotic
171. Oxygenic photosynthesis takes place in
(1) All photosynthetic bacteria
(2) All photosynthetic eubacteria
(3) All cyanobacteria
(4) All archebacteria
172. In a very few members, the mycobiont in thelichen thallus happens to be
(1) A Deuteromycetes (2) A Basidiomycets
(3) An Ascomycetes (4) A phycomycetes
173. Which of the following is not a taxon but acategory ?
(1) Division (2) Angiosperms
(3) Polypetalae (4) Hibiscus
174. Gymnosperms resemble angiosperms in having
(1) Vessels (2) Archegonia
(3) Ovules (4) Ovary
175. One of the following includes the remaining three.Identify it ;
(1) Taxonomy (2) Nomenclature
(3) Systematics (4) Classification.
176. In the life cycle of moss, which of the followinggenerations is dominant ?
(1) Haploid sporophyte
(2) Diploid gametophyte
(3) Haploid gametophyte
(4) Diploid sporophyte
177. The chemical nature of indicative structures ofreproduction in mycoplasma is
(1) Lipid (2) Protein
(3) Sugar (4) Nucleic acid.
178. Phylogenetic classification is based on
(1) Utilitarian system
(2) Habits
(3) Overal similarities
(4) Common evolutionary descent
179. Of all land plants, bryophytes alone haveindependent ........... and attached, dependent.........
(1) Sporophytes; gametophytes
(2) Rhizoids; zygotes
(3) Gametophytes; sporophytes
(4) Rhizoids; stalked sporangia
180. In pteridophytes spores germinate to give riseto
(1) Conspicuous, small but multicellular,parasitic, thalloid gametophytes called prothallus
(2) Conspicuous, large and multicellular, free-living, mostly photosynthetic thalloidgametophytes called prothallus
(3) Incospicuous, small, unicellular, free-living,mostly photosynthetic thalloid gametophytescalled prothallus
(4) Inconspicuous, small but multicellular, free-living, mostly photosynthetic thalloidgametophytes called prothallus