Mid-Term Exam Review

Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. What groups of organisms are most in danger of extinction?

a. those with small populations and

reproduce rapidly

c. those with large populations that

reproduce quickly

b. those that migrate or need special habitats

and small populations

d. those with large populations that

reproduce slowly

____ 2. What human activities have influenced recent extinction events?

a. habitat destruction, poaching and

overeating

c. introducing exotic species, habitat

destruction and poaching

b. poaching, overeating and introducing

exotic species

d. poaching only

____ 3. Reasons for preserving biodiversity include all of the following except

a. preventing natural evolution. c. isolating unique genetic material so it can

be incorporated into existing crops.

b. increasing the chances of discovering

organisms with medicinal value.

d. finding new plants that can supplement the

world’s food supply.

____ 4. How many species are estimated to be living on Earth?

a. between 10,000 and 1,000,000 c. between 1 and 5 million

b. between 500,000 and 1 million d. between 10 and 50 million

____ 5. Where are many critical biodiversity hotspots located?

a. cities and developed areas of the world c. desert and polar environments

b. islands, tropical rain forests, and coastal

areas

d. temperate forests

____ 6. Preserving entire ecosystems rather than individual species is a good conservation strategy because

a. only endangered species will be saved. c. developers will have greater access to

land.

b. more than one species can be saved. d. it will not be necessary for

environmentalists to study the ecosystem.

____ 7. Where are some of the unique ecosystems of the United States?

a. Pacific Northwest, California, Florida

Everglades and Hawaii

c. Pacific Northwest, Florida Everglades and

Hawaii

b. Florida Everglades, Hawaii and

California

d. Pacific Southwest, California, Florida

Everglades and Hawaii

____ 8. An endangered species is

a. a species that has disappeared entirely. c. an organism brought to a place where it

has not lived before.

b. a plant growing on public land. d. a species in danger of extinction.

____ 9. Which would be most effective in slowing the loss of biodiversity?

a. freezing fertilized eggs of endangered

animals in case these species become

extinct in the wild

c. creating large parks/preserves in

biodiversity hotspots

b. setting aside small plots of land in a

variety of ecosystems such as forests,

grasslands, and marshes

d. requiring every country to maintain a seed

bank

____ 10. In what part of the world are the greatest number of extinctions occurring?

a. in the Arctic c. in tropical rain forests

b. in deserts d. in Europe and the United States

____ 11. Which of the following would not be illegal under the Endangered Species Act?

a. capturing a wild animal listed as a

threatened species for exhibition in a zoo,

provided the animal was well cared for

c. digging up an endangered plant in your

backyard and selling it

b. destroying the habitat of an endangered

plant during the building of

a federal highway

d. having a permit to capture an endangered

species for research

____ 12. The percent of prescription drugs used in the US that are derived from plants is

a. 30% c. 20%

b. 35% d. 25%

____ 13. An example of a keystone species is

a. kelp c. sea urchin

b. sea otter d. sea water

____ 14. The variety of habitats, communities and ecological processes within and between ecosystems can be

described as

a. ecosystem diversity c. ecosystem balance

b. ecosystem necessity d. ecosystems

____ 15. The process if increasing concentrations of contaminants through the food chain is referred to as:

a. biomultiplication c. bioincreasification

b. biomapification d. biomagnification

____ 16. A species that could be considered at the top of the food chain is

a. bald eagle c. red snapper

b. turkey d. phytoplankton

____ 17. Organisms that cannot make their own food are

a. heterotrophs c. producres

b. autotrophs d. herbivores

____ 18. Organisms that return energy to the environment are

a. producers c. decomposers

b. consumers d. disgusting

____ 19. Term for non-living things

a. abiotic c. biotic

b. so sad d. too bad

____ 20. Relying on one important crop can cause

a. a new crop variety if a new species is

introduced

c. disease if the crop came from wild plants

b. hybrids if the crop mixes with another

population

d. famine if the crop is wiped out

____ 21. Which of the following is not a reason why coral reefs are beneficial to humans.

a. food c. tourism revenue

b. great biodiversity d. coastal protection

____ 22. Coastal areas serve wildlife by

a. providing warm water and sand to play in c. providing migration routes and links to

land ecosystems

b. not providing food and place to spend the

night

d. providing nothing they really need

____ 23. What level of biodiversity is most commonly equated with the overall concept of biodiversity?

a. genetic diversity c. ecosystem diversity

b. community diversity d. species diversity

____ 24. How does preserving biodiversity come into conflict with human interests?

a. additional land for agriculture/housing in

response to decreased population growth

and species may represent food or a

source of income

c. additional land for agriculture/housing in

response to increased population and

species may not represent food or a source

of income

b. species may represent food or a source of

income and reduced land for

agriculture/housing in response to

increased population

d. additional land for agriculture/housing in

response to increased population and

species may represent food or a source of

income

____ 25. How do people not benefit from biodiversity?

a. aesthetic or personal enjoyment c. source of new products

b. variety of food sources d. source of trees and animals

____ 26. The major human causes of extinction today are:

a. hunting, destroying habitats, polluting c. hunting, destroying habitats, polluting,

introducing non-native species

b. polluting, introducing non-native species d. polluting, introducing non-native species

____ 27. The past 5 mass extinctions are thought to be caused by

a. humans c. volcanoes

b. global climate change d. floods

____ 28. An example of an introduced or non-native species that is causing problems is

a. zebra c. poison ivy

b. clown fish d. zebra mussel

____ 29. An overall indicator of biodiversity is the number of ________ an area has.

a. endemic species c. epidemic species

b. non-native species d. episodic species

____ 30. Long term effects and lasting abilities of chemicals may not be known. An example of one such chemical is

a. DPT c. TNT

b. DDT d. PDD

____ 31. Larger plots of land generally

a. have greater species diversity and is less

vulnerable to local extinction.

c. have greater species loss and is more

vulnerable to population explosion.

b. have less species diversity and is more

likely to experience local extinction.

d. have more overall disturbances to species

diversity that does not affect populations.

____ 32. John Muir wrote “When we try to pick out anything by itself, we find it hitched to everything else in the

universe”. What does the word hitched refer to?

a. fixed c. tied

b. cut off d. loosen

____ 33. Farmland may not become desertified if

a. Domestic animals are allowed to

overgraze the land.

c. Too few crops are grown on the land and

the land may gradually lose its fertility.

b. Too many crops are grown on the land and

the land gradually loses its fertility.

d. As a result of erosion, there is no fertile

soil left to grow plants.

____ 34. Land where it is possible to grow crops is called

a. Organic land c. Vegetative land

b. Arable land d. Happy land

____ 35. One potential way to deal with the problem of seafood over harvesting is by intensifying _____ efforts.

a. Genetic engineering c. aquaculture

b. Subsistence farming d. integrated pest management

____ 36. DDT is harmful to the environment because it

a. does break down quickly into harmless

chemicals

c. causes some birds not to lay eggs so they

cannot sit on them

b. concentrates in the bodies of animals high

in the food chain

d. enables species to reproduce

____ 37. All of the following factors can cause famines except:

a. The failure of food production to keep

pace with population growth.

c. New higher-yield crops.

b. Distribution problems caused by political

turmoil.

d. Crop failure brought on by sustained

drought.

____ 38. Soil formation

a. Is a quick process. c. Is hindered by frequent temperature

changes.

b. Occurs more quickly in dry regions. d. Involves the decomposition of bedrock.

____ 39. Pest populations that damage plants

a. Breed more slowly in hot climates c. Include only insects and small rodents.

b. Become resistant to pesticides via natural

selection.

d. Attack wild plants with greater success

than crops.

____ 40. Biological mechanisms of pest control include all of the following except

a. Making male insects infertile with X rays. c. Breeding plants with natural defenses.

b. Releasing a bacterium to control insect

larvae.

d. Applying a phosphate chemical.

____ 41. Products obtained from livestock include

a. Leather, wool, eggs, meat, and manure. c. Wood and plastic.

b. Cotton, linen, and nylon. d. Cotton, leather, wool, eggs, meat.

____ 42. Erosion is more likely to occur when the soil is

a. Bare and exposed to wind and rain. c. Covered with grass.

b. Plowed along the contour of the land. d. Planted to forest.

____ 43. Malnutrition can be caused by all of the following except:

a. A lack of employment c. A lack of amino acids

b. A lack of carbohydrates d. A lack of enough calories

____ 44. Which of the following statements is a disadvantage to using chemical pesticides?

a. Pesticides kill beneficial insects

c. Humans do not have to be bothered by

insects.

b. Farmers can grow larger crops more

quickly

d. They eliminate pests very quickly

____ 45. This layer of soil contains a large amount of organic matter, living organisms, & rock particles

a. bedrock c. subsoil

b. topsoil d. surface litter

____ 46. This layer of soil is very hard and cannot support life.

a. bedrock c. subsoil

b. topsoil d. surface litter

____ 47. This layer of soil is a mix of organic matter, rocks, and some inorganic compounds

a. bedrock c. subsoil

b. topsoil d. surface litter

____ 48. Which of the following is an abiotic component of soil?

a. humus c. minerals

b. earthworms d. bacteria

____ 49. Which of the following would lead to an outbreak of Pfeisteria?

a. Over harvesting plants c. Use of too much fertilizer on cropland

b. Overgrazing of animals d. Use of conventional plowing on cropland

____ 50. In order to stop the over harvesting of fish some governments have:

a. Banned fishing permanently c. Created temporary no-fishing zones

b. Forced fisherman to open fish farms d. Created banned temporary fishing zones

____ 51. Salmon ranches and oyster farms are an example of all of the following except:

a. Controlled environments for aquatic

organisms

c. Aquaculture practices

b. Aqueduct practices d. Over harvesting solutions

____ 52. An example of a cud chewing domesticated mammal would be:

a. cattle c. pigs

b. salmon d. chicken

____ 53. In which east coast state was the organism Pfeisteria discovered?

a. South Carolina c. Virginia

b. North Carolina d. Maryland

____ 54. Malnutrition generally does not occur because of:

a. protesting struggles c. transportation problems

b. war and political struggle d. poverty

____ 55. Soil layers, listed from the surface down, include

a. Topsoil, surface litter, bedrock, leaching

zone, and subsoil.

c. Surface litter, topsoil, leaching zone,

subsoil, and bedrock.

b. Surface litter, subsoil, topsoil, bedrock,

and leaching zone.

d. Bedrock, topsoil, surface litter, subsoil,

and leaching zone.

____ 56. Which livestock population has increased by the greatest percentage over the last 40 years?

a. cattle c. goats

b. chickens d. pigs

____ 57. Traditional agriculture typically depends upon

a. manual/animal plowing and organic

fertilizers.

c. synthetic fertilizers alone.

b. organic fertilizers and machinery. d. manual/animal plowing and synthetic

fertilizers.

____ 58. Salinization may be caused by

a. crop rotation. c. high rainfall.

b. long-term irrigation. d. nutrient depletion

____ 59. Earth’s available arable land is being reduced by

a. fast-growing human populations. c. climate change in the tundra

b. reforestation d. decomposition

____ 60. The amount of a crop produced per hectare (or acre) is called the

a. Livestock c. Yield

b. Pay load d. Produce

____ 61. A modern method of controlling pests on crops that seeks to reduce but not eliminate pest populations is

called _______________________.

a. Genetic Engineering c. Traditional Pest Management

b. Regular Pest Management d. Integrated Pest Management

____ 62. The name for a widespread food shortage that results in many people not having enough food is called a(n)

____________________.

a. famine c. nutritious

b. arable d. pest

____ 63. The diets of people in developed countries tend to be higher in ____________________ than diets of people

in developing countries.

a. Carbohyrates c. starches

b. Proteins & Fats d. sugars

____ 64. Goats, sheep, cattle and other ____________________ are cud-chewing mammals with multi-chambered

stomachs.

a. livestock c. ruminants

b. gross d. domesticated

____ 65. Soil-retaining terraces and contour farming are both examples of _____.

a. Soil Conservation c. Fertile Soil

b. Topsoil d. Poor Management

____ 66. Agriculture that is ____________________ would likely depend on mules for plowing, fertilizer such as

manure, and irrigation through ditches.

a. Silly c. Back Breaking

b. Traditional d. Modern

____ 67. The technology of _________________________ allows desirable traits in crop plants to be transferred

through the direct manipulation of genes for those traits.

a. Integrated Management c. Genetic Mutating

b. Genetic Engineering d. Sustainable Engineering

____ 68. Earth's available arable land is being reduced by

a. fast growing human populations c. desertification

b. soil erosion, fast growing human

populations

d. fast growing human populations,

desertification, soil erosion

____ 69. In order for a food to be labeled “organic” it must contain ____ percent of organically produced ingredients.

a. 95 c. 85

b. 100 d. 90

____ 70. Corn is originally derived from the wild grass known as _______________.

a. maize c. tecnoline

b. teostine d. corn grass

____ 71. ______________ is the food chain which uses only natural fertilizers, as well as natural bug and weed

control.

a. Wholefood c. Organic

b. Natural d. Unrefined

____ 72. Concentrated Animal Feeding Operations (CAFO) is more commonly know as what?

a. cattle feeds c. cattle pens

b. cornfeeds d. feedlot

____ 73. Which of the following is not a reason so much corn is produced in the U.S.

a. variety of its uses c. use of its chemical components

b. high retail value for farmer d. able to produce large amounts

____ 74. According to Michael Pollan the ___________________ is largely based on corn production, whether it is

eaten directly, fed to livestock, or processed into chemicals such as glucose, often in the form of high-fructose

corn syrup, and ethanol.

a. industrial food chain c. industrial agriculture

b. mass food production d. fast-food industry

____ 75. What is the name of the farm that is organic where nearly everything that happens is natural, and where every

plant and animal has a purpose and nothing goes to waste.

a. Polyface c. Polyganic

b. Organic d. Naturalized

____ 76. What other item is being used more and more in combination with corn in the food production chain.

a. lima beans c. alfalfa

b. soy beans d. wheat

____ 77. The majority of the corn that is produced in the U.S. is used for what purpose?

a. bio-fuel c. exportation to other countries

b. animal feed d. high fructose corn syrup

____ 78. What is the name for chemical preparations that are developed to destroy plant, fungal, or animal pests.

a. pesticales c. pheromones

b. pesticides d. vegticides

____ 79. The majority of corn that is grown in the U.S. and is different from the corn that humans consume (such as

corn on the cob) is known as what?

a. number 2 field corn c. number 3 field corn

b. number 4 field corn d. number 1 field corn

____ 80. From where does Teosinte originate?

a. Asia c. Central America

b. Antarctica d. Europe

____ 81. What was corn originally called?

a. Maize c. Grains

b. Corn d. Husked Wheat

____ 82. What does Teosinte mean?

a. Lots of corn c. Father of Corn

b. Mother of corn d. Corn God

____ 83. What is the most common product produced from corn?

a. Glucose syrup c. Msg

b. Fructose corn syrup d. Modified starch

____ 84. Corn is only cheap if you don’t count ______________. For example, the cost of pollution from chemical

fertilizers.

a. Hidden Costs c. Money

b. Corn d. Pollution

____ 85. After WWII, the government had an excessive amount of ammonium nitrate, so scientists discovered that it

can help in _________________.

a. factories c. fertilizing farmland

b. decreasing growth of crops d. the creation of bombs

____ 86. Large businesses that provide seeds, tools, and fertilizers to corn farmers are called?

a. Big Businesses c. Industrial Businesses

b. Agri-businesses d. Warehouse Businesses

____ 87. One-third of corn production is used for what?

a. Seed c. Beverage Alcohol

b. Exports d. Feeding Livestock

____ 88. What does CAFO stand for?

a. Concentrated Agricultural Food Operation c. Concentrated Animal Feeding Operation

b. Contained Agricultural Feeding Operation d. Collected Animal Feces Operation

____ 89. Why are cattle in CAFOs forced to eat corn?

a. It is healthier than grass for them to eat. c. It helps them grow much faster

b. It is healthier for the people that consume

them

d. The cows prefer it to grass

____ 90. When fed a corn based diet, the average age of a cow that is ready for slaughter is?

a. 4 - 5 years old c. 10 years old

b. 2 -3 years old d. 14 - 16 months old

____ 91. Cattle raised on __________ develop at a slower rate.

a. Corn c. Grass

b. Barley d. Peas

____ 92. Why do soft drink companies use HFCS instead of sugar?

a. It tastes better c. It smells better

b. It’s cheaper d. It makes the color look better

____ 93. Who created “super sized” food items?

a. David Wallerstein c. Dave Thomas

b. Ray Crock d. Mrs. Blackwell

____ 94. Monoculture farms grow

a. more than 3 crops c. corn only

b. only one crop d. mononucleosis

____ 95. The family who owns Polyface farm is?

a. Johnsons c. Salatins

b. Smiths d. Adams

____ 96. Animals that are allowed to range and forage with relative freedom are called_____.

a. free-roaming c. caged

b. free-moving d. free-range

____ 97. Which of the following best defines what a monoculture farm is?

a. A farm with only one type of animal and

crop to raise

c. A farm that grows and cultivates a single

crop on it

b. A single farm possessed by one

organization

d. A farm with one type of culture

____ 98. In the industrial food chain most food travels

a. 1500 miles c. 500 miles

b. 2480 miles d. 1000 miles

____ 99. The term used to describe a person who only consumes fish

a. ovoteriarian c. pollotarian

b. pescetarian d. lactoterian

____ 100. How can hunting effect an environment?

a. maintain a species population c. provide food for others

b. species evolution d. provide food for others and species

evolution

____ 101. The study of fungi is called

a. biology c. fungology

b. mycology d. dermology

____ 102. How much of Earth’s water is fresh water?

a. 1 percent c. 77 percent

b. 3 percent d. 97 percent

____ 103. Which of the following does not make up part of Earth’s surface water?

a. wetlands c. aquifers

b. rivers d. lakes

____ 104. Which of the following statements helps to explain why fresh water is a limited resource?

a. most of Earth’s water is salt water. c. most of Earth’s fresh water is not liquid

water usable by humans.

b. most of Earth’s water is salinated and

frozen.

d. only 71% of Earth is covered by water.

____ 105. Surface water becomes groundwater when it

a. moves below the water table c. filters into the recharge zone of an aquifer

b. condenses to form drops of liquid water d. flows into the ground through a spring

____ 106. A rock’s ability to allow the flow of water through it is called

a. permeability c. recharge

b. porosity d. distribution

____ 107. Which of the following activities accounts for the greatest percentage of fresh water used worldwide?

a. drinking c. manufacturing

b. washing d. irrigating crops

____ 108. Water treatment involves:

a. adding chlorine c. adding pathogens

b. adding mercury d. removing fluoride

____ 109. Water diversion projects may involve the movement of water to dry regions using

a. sprinklers c. reservoirs

b. dams d. canals

____ 110. Which of the following would be the best way for a desert farmer to reduce water loss from evaporation and

seepage and thus conserve water?

a. dig deeper wells c. install a drip irrigation system

b. recycle cooling water and wastewater d. install low-flow toilets

____ 111. Industrial water use includes which of the following activities?

a. irrigation c. drinking

b. power generation d. car washing

____ 112. Point-source pollution and nonpoint-source pollution differ in

a. the kind of biological agents causing the

pollution

c. the number of sources that caused the

pollution (one vs. many)

b. whether the source of pollution is

agricultural or industrial

d. whether the pollutants are chemical or

physical agents

____ 113. Fertilizers are classifies as which kind of water pollutant?

a. organic chemicals c. heavy metals

b. inorganic chemicals d. physical agents

____ 114. One reason polluted groundwater is difficult to clean is that

a. it can easily be polluted again c. it can easily be polluted againwater can be

treated underground-only when we pull it

out

b. pollutants are absorbed by the materials

that make up aquifers

d. water treated underground is rarely used.

____ 115. Sources of ocean pollution include all of the following except:

a. oil spills from tankers c. activities on land

b. vacationers to bikini bottom d. direct dumping of wastewater

____ 116. When neighborhood residents noticed a large number of dead fish in a local creek, they traced the problem to

a nearby gas station. It turned out that a gasoline tank had developed a leak. This is an example of

a. point-source pollution c. thermal pollution

b. nonpoint-source pollution d. groundwater pollution

____ 117. Which of the following causes the greatest amount of ocean pollution?

a. pollutants carried into the oceans by rivers

from cities and towns

c. oil spills from tankers and offshore oil rigs

b. sewage sludge dumped directly into the

oceans

d. ships dumping garbage into the ocean

____ 118. Most large cities get water for households and industries from

a. deep wells c. pumps connected to springs

b. rivers, lakes, or reservoirs d. removing salt from seawater

____ 119. An inexpensive solution to providing more fresh water is

a. desalination c. water conservation

b. attempt to thaw icebergs d. build more dams

____ 120. Sewage sludge

a. is the solid matter that clogs storm drains c. is not hazardous

b. is the residue left after water is treated and

released into rivers

d. is inexpensive to dispose of for cities and

towns

____ 121. Which of the following might occur as a result of plastic trash accumulating in the ocean?

a. turtles mistake clear plastic bags for

jellyfish and poop it out

c. sea mammals such as seals become

appalled by clear plastic fishing lines and

drown

b. sea birds are strangled by plastic six-pack

rings

d. turtles never mistake clear plastic bags for

jellyfish and die of intestinal blockage

____ 122. Seventy-seven percent of the world’s freshwater resources are found as

a. fresh water c. icecaps and glaciers

b. salt water d. groundwater

____ 123. Most of the pollutants in the ocean come from

a. commercial boats and personal watercraft c. activities on land from towns and cities

b. spills from oil tankers d. leaking underground storage facilities

____ 124. A river system is

a. a flowing network of rivers and streams c. a term describing how much water is in a

river

b. an area of land that drains into a river d. a structure that controls the flow of a river

____ 125. Groundwater is stored in which of the following:

a. sediment and rock formations c. wells

b. underground storage tanks d. above the ground

____ 126. The term used to describe how saturated the ground is with water is:

a. watershed c. river system

b. groundwater d. water table

____ 127. Which of the following terms would control how quickly an aquifer can recharge or refill?

a. permeability c. not this answer

b. porosity d. not this answer either

____ 128. Which of the following terms would control how much water an aquifer can store?

a. porosity c. still not this answer

b. permeability d. and still not this one

____ 129. Which of the following is not a use for a reservoir

a. swimming c. source of drinking water

b. fishing d. collection pond for waste products

____ 130. Which of the following is not a problem with water diversion projects?

a. land behind the dam could flood c. the dam could prevent seasonal flooding

that destroys homes

b. no silt is deposited on farms and the land

becomes less fertile

d. the dam can break or burst

____ 131. Which of the following is not a way that you can help conservation projects in your own home?

a. leave the water running while brushing

your teeth

c. have timed sprinklers for your lawn

b. take shorter showers d. find a use for “gray” water in your home

____ 132. Which of the following is not a type of pollution that can degrade water quality?

a. chemical pollution c. biological pollution

b. nutrient cycle pollution d. physical pollution

____ 133. Pollution from leaking underground storage tanks, mine shafts, and unlined landfills would be calssified as:

a. non point source pollution c. don’t pick this

b. point source pollution d. don’t pick this either

____ 134. Pollution from salt runoff from highways, litter and debris, and gasoline leaks from boats would be classified

as:

a. point source pollution c. NO!

b. non point source pollution d. DON’T!

____ 135. Wastewater can be treated and recycled because:

a. counties have systems that store the water

until the waste settles out

c. it is just as clean as drinking water

b. most wastewater is biodegradable and can

be broken down

d. counties have expensive systems that

purify the water

____ 136. Artificial eutrophication can be caused by:

a. a buildup of wastes like decaying leaves

and animal wastes

c. bacteria breaking down waste

b. large amounts of chemicals like nitrogen

and phosphorous

d. fish eating too many plankton

____ 137. Instrument used to dtermine turbidity is a

a. Secki disk c. Sushi disk

b. Secchi disk d. Sacki disk

____ 138. Which of the following is not a reason for increased turbidity?

a. soil erosion c. urban runoff

b. plant growth d. heavy rain

____ 139. Measure of water’s clarity is

a. clearness c. cleanliness

b. dirtiness d. turbidity

____ 140. Dissolved substances in water is generally measured in what units?

a. pps c. ppm

b. ppb d. ppt

____ 141. Water temperature effects all of the following except

a. rate of photosynthesis c. amount of dissolved minerals water can

hold

b. survivability of organisms d. amount of oxygen water can hold

____ 142. A minimum of ______ dissolved oxygen is required to support aquatic life.

a. 5-6 ppm c. 3-5 ppm

b. 4-7 ppm d. 7-9 ppm

____ 143. Measure of acidity or alkalinity of water is

a. PH c. Hp

b. ph d. pH

____ 144. Devided thorax, two tails

a. mayfly c. crayfish

b. stonefly d. mayfly

____ 145. Gills on abdomen, 3 tails

a. stonefly c. crayfish

b. mayfly d. scud

____ 146. Flattened body, no segments, eyespots

a. leech c. earthworm

b. flatworm d. sawbug

____ 147. Benthic macroinverterbrate

a. bottom dwlling insect with a backbone,

large enough to be seen without help

c. free swimming insect wihtout a backbone,

large enough to be seen wihtout help

b. free swimming insect without a backbone,

large enough to be seen without help

d. bottom dwelling insect without a

backbone, large enough to be seen without

help

____ 148. The three important indicator species are?

a. caddisfly, stonefly, mayfly c. mayfly, stronefly, crayfish

b. stonefly, caddisfly, scud d. caddisfly, flatworm, mayfly

____ 149. Which of the following statements regarding water quality is least correct?

a. an increasing population may place

unacceptable demands on our fresh water

resources.

c. wildlife is dependent on good quality

water for many of the reasons humans are.

b. since three quarters of the earth’s surface

is covered by oceans, it’s not likely we

will ever run out of water for all of our

needs.

d. although we may have plently of good

quiality water for our needs now, we

shoulnd’t assume that will always be the

case.

____ 150. In the jar shown, a sample of soil was mixed with water and then allowed to

settle for 24 hours. The jar serves as a model for what process?

a. Evaporation of water from a muddy pond c. Deposition of sediment in a lake bed

b. Formation of soil from parent material d. Erosion of rock particles by water

____ 151. Which of these describes the area immediately below a water table?

a. Zone of aeration c. Recharge zone

b. Capillary zone d. Zone of saturation

____ 152. Most water leaves the ocean through evaporation and returns to the ocean

through —

a. surface runoff c. transpiration

b. ground water d. precipitation

____ 153. Rivers, springs, and aquifers are all -

a. frozen in winter c. located above ground

b. human-made structures d. sources of fresh water

____ 154. Why does water move very slowly downward through clay soil?

a. clay soil is composed of low-density

minerals

c. clay soil has large pores

b. clay soil is composed of very hard

particles

d. clay soil has very small particles

____ 155. A soil sample with a high percentage of open spacce between grains must

a. have low permeability c. be porous

b. have mixed grain sizes d. show a high amount of capillary

____ 156. Apartment buildings and parking lots completely cover an area that was once an open, grass covered field.

What factor most likely increased because of this construction?

a. capillarity c. infiltration into the ground

b. runoff d. the level of the local water table

____ 157. How will the quality of the environment most likely be affected by the continued dumping of large amounts

of industrial waste into a river?

a. the environment will be unaffected c. major damage could occur downstream

from the industrial plant

b. minor, temporary disruptions will occur

only near the industrial plant

d. the environment will always adjust

favorably to any changes caused by

industrial waste

____ 158.

According to this simplified water cycle, the process of transpiration is the process that —

a. causes photosynthesis in plants c. speeds the evaporation of water

b. releases water vapor from plants d. increases the rate of the water cycle

____ 159. Approximately 99.7% of all water on Earth is found in oceans, seas, ice, and the atmosphere. Based on this

information, which statement is most accurate?

a. The Earth’s freshwater supply is c. Humans are not dependent on ocean

infinite. water.

b. Less than 0.3% of Earth’s water is

drinkable.

d. The water cycle returns all usable water to

the sea.

____ 160.

At what point will the trail be the steepest?

a. W c. Y

b. X d. Z

____ 161.

According to the above diagram, the water supply will be most consistent in well —

a. 1 c. 3

b. 2 d. 4

____ 162.

The river shown on the topographic map flows fastest at point —

a. 1 c. 3

b. 2 d. 4

____ 163.

On the topographic map provided, what is the elevation of point III?

a. 1260 feet c. 1300 feet

b. 1280 feet d. 1360 feet

____ 164. During droughts, lack of rain can lead to wells drying up. This is because the drought has lowered the —

a. water table c. zone of aeration

b. water trough d. zone of porosity

____ 165.

The picture above shows that one of the main pollution problems associated with sinkholes is that —

a. they can destroy roadways c. homes can be damaged by them

b. tractors can fall into them d. they can connect directly to the water

table

____ 166. Ocean --> Evaporation --> Condensation

Which of these would come next in the water cycle?

a. Aeration c. Deposition

b. Sedimentation d. Precipitation

____ 167. Fungi, such as mushrooms and molds, get their nutrition primarily by —

a. producing food by chemosynthesis c. preying on other organisms

b. decomposing dead organic matter d. parasitic relationships with plants

____ 168. Why is genetic diversity within a population important?

a. so the population is less susceptible to

disease and can survive when the

environment changes

c. so museums can have more realistic

collections

b. so individuals of the population can

survive when the environment changes

d. for medicinal purposes

____ 169. The region of the world where more living species live than any other place is the

a. grassland c. tropical rain forest

b. deciduous forest d. temperate rain forest

____ 170. Buying an item made from material from an endangered species

a. has no relevance to protecting the species. c. contributes toward its extinction

b. shows good taste d. keeps some poor peasant from starving to

death

____ 171. Why would the fragmentation of land lead to extinction?

a. A population may fail to breed if it falls

below a critical number

c. Some birds can't fly over roads

b. Fragmentation should not harm

populations

d. The land is altered in such a way that all

the trees are cut in half

____ 172. The organisms that account for the greatest number of species are

a. mammals c. birds

b. plants d. insects

____ 173. A species introduced into an area from somewhere else is called a/an ________ species.

a. wild c. exotic

b. natural d. native

____ 174. Which graph best illustrates the relationship between lake water pollution and human population density near

the lake?

a.

c.

b.

d.