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IVA01EMI Entrepreneurship and Management of Innovations.docx
IVA02MCS_MANAGEMENT CONTROL SYSTEM.docx
IVA05SMA-SERVICES MARKETING.docx
IVA05WCM_WORKING CAPITAL MANAGEMENT.doc
IVA06IFM INTERNATIONAL FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT .doc
IVA06SHR STRATEGIC HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT.docx
IVA06SMB STRATEGIC MARKETING AND BRAND MANAGEMENT.docx
IVA07GSC Global Supply Chain Management.doc
IVA07IHR INTERNATIONAL HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT.doc
IVA07RMA RETAIL MANAGEMENT.docx
IVA07SFM STRATEGIC FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT MBA.docx
IVA08IMA INSURANCE MANAGEMENT.doc
IVA08MHS MANAGING HOSPITALITY SERVICES.docx
Seat No.__________
GANPAT UNIVERSITY ONLINE M. B. A. SEMESTER- IV REGULAR
EXAMINATION
MAY-JUNE 2020
IVA01EMI Entrepreneurship and Management of Innovations
TIME: 2 HRS. WT.: 40 Marks
Part I MCQ (20 Marks)
1.Which of the following inputs is NOT involved in entrepreneurship?
o Opportunity
o Proactive individual(s)
o Risk
o External locus of control
2.Women-owned businesses may be smaller than those owned by men because they:
o cannot find good quality training programs.
o have a more difficult time finding employees.
o do not have equal access to capital.
o do not have as much management experience as men.
3.In a business plan, the succession plan becomes more of a concern for bankers and investors:
o when there are more than three children involved.
o as the entrepreneur ages.
o when the entrepreneur has no children.
o if a family council exists.
4.The business plan must show consistent, but manageable projected growth because:
o many entrepreneurs fail after expanding too rapidly.
o investors want to see quick growth.
o banks are interested in profits, not expenses.
o bankers and investors prefer small companies.
5.A new business should keep in reserve enough working capital to cover expenses for:
o one to two months.
o six months to one year.
o three to six months.
o two to five years.
6.Two common forms of partnerships are:
o public and private.
o trade and consumer.
o S partnerships and C partnerships.
o general and limited.
7.A legal agreement between two parties to operate for a specific purpose and for a limited
period of time is called a(n):
o joint venture.
o limited partnership.
o general partnership.
o S corporation.
8.If an entrepreneur's business is based on current technology, an uncontrollable risk might be:
o changes in consumer tastes.
o new technology developments.
o the weather.
o fashion trends.
9.The period of business when an entrepreneur must position the venture in a market and make
necessary adjustments to assure survival is called the:
o pre-startup stage.
o startup stage.
o early growth stage.
o later growth stage.
10 Which of the following is a purpose of a business plan?
o to attract financing.
o to inform competitors of plans.
o to discipline the entrepreneur to think of all aspects of the proposed venture.
o to attract financing and to discipline the entrepreneur to think of all aspects of the
proposed venture.
11A recently formed business enterprise that provides goods and/or services for sale is called
a(n) _________.
o nascent operation
o organization
o small business
o new venture
12 In a business plan, risks should be handled by:
o ignoring them.
o a brief description of the steps that will be taken if the uncontrollable risk
actually develops.
o a detailed plan for handling every imaginable uncontrollable risk.
o Stating an awareness of the risks.
13 Which of the following are true, except:
o SMEs often lack scale and scope.
o SMEs often lack financial resources.
o SMEs often lack entrepreneurship, innovation and adaptation.
o SMEs often lack manpower.
14 Name the institution which was set up in 1982 to promote integrated rural development
o NSIC
o NABARD
o SIDBI
o NCEUS
15 A short-term, internal source of funds can be obtained by reducing all of following EXCEPT
o Short-term assets
o Cash
o Fixed Assets
o Inventory
16 The most common form of organization for a small business is:
o Partnerships
o Corporations
o Sole proprietorships
o Limited companies
17 Which of the following is idea generation method that focuses on parameters?
o Brainstorming
o Reverse brainstorming
o Creative problem solving
o Synoptic
18 Innovation can best be defined as:
o the generation of new ideas
o the evolution of new ideas
o the opposite of creativity
o the successful exploitation of new ideas
19 User innovation is:
o less likely than manufacturer innovation
o more difficult to manage than other types of innovation
o when the developer expects to benefit by using it
o when the developer expects to benefit by selling it
20 Strategic entrepreneurial marketing has been summarised as the 4Is: identification of target
markets, interactive marketing methods, informal intelligence gathering and – what is the fourth?
o independence
o interactiveness
o innovation
o Internet
Part II Subjective type questions (20 Marks)
Q # 1 To boost entrepreneurship in micro, small and medium enterprises (MSME), the Small
Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has number of functions to play.
Elaborate on the efforts made by SIDBI in order to promote entrepreneurship.
05
Q # 2 The extraordinary growth of the Reliance Group of companies was based on the vision,
energy and lobbying power of Dhirubhai as well as the willingness and ability of the
Indian government to promote its expansion. The competition now is with major
multinational players whose ability to influence governments in various ways is well
known. Right from the time he suffered his first stroke in 1986, Dhirubhai groomed his
sons Mukesh and Anil Ambani to take care of the day-to-day operations of Reliance. It
was from Dhirubhai that his sons imbibed the quality to think big. Mukesh's skills were
quite evident from his successful management of the Patalganga and Jamnagar projects
and Anil was adept at the finances. Despite their elite education, their most important
training came from Dhirubhai. He provided them with a strategic vision. His sons
always considered themselves as co – builders rather than inheritors of Reliance.
Dhirubhai's words way back in 1993 reflected the immense confidence he restored in his
sons, "Reliance can now run without me." After his demise, Mukesh was appointed the
Chairman and Managing Director of the Reliance group while Anil became the Vice
Chairman.
Explain the advantages to Reliance group of companies by remaining as family
owned business
07
Q # 3 IndiaCo: A Business Incubator with a difference IndiaCo is an investment management
firm listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange. The promoters of IndiaCo have a long
history in India. It was the first company in India to launch a private incubator in 2000. In
2002, this incubator was recognized by the World Bank group and also received support
from the Department of Science & Technology, Government of India. Business
incubation is a business support process that facilitates in the successful development of
start-ups and early growth stage companies by providing entrepreneurs with an array of
resources and services through its network of contacts. A business incubators’ main goal
is to produce successful firms that will leave the project financially viable and self
sustaining. The promoter of IndiaCo aim to provide transparency and regularize a new
model for private equity markets. They invest the capital required to frame the new
business model of the acquired company. IndiaCo has had the experience of working
with incubators across different geographical locations. Based on its experience, the most
common problems that business incubators face in developing countries are the lack of
innovative high-growth projects IndiaCo; non-availability of capital; lack of basic
operating infrastructure; and problems of self-sustenance. Institutional marketing for
incubators is a major challenge in most developing countries.
Since its inception, IndiaCo has been active in the area of incubation and technology
transfer, the key success factors of IndiaCo are the entrepreneurial experience of the
founder; visionary leadership; strategic positioning in the domestic and international
markets; good management teams; and milestone-based e-mentoring. IndiaCo functions
as a “venture creation engine” for high-tech start-ups and early-stage companies. It
provides the infrastructure and network to translate research into innovative products to
support entrepreneurs. The international network at IndiaCo is made available to the
companies even before they graduate from the incubator. The traditional model of
business incubators consist of a group of start-up firms that are located in a common
physical space sharing various resources and mentorship. IndiaCo follows an equity
model unlike most incubators. It deploys its funds and investment directly through the
holding company into portfolio companies. This structure provides the flexibility to
invest in the holding company, a sector of choice, or just the company of choice.
1. Critically examine how IndiaCo enables new venture creation?
2. Why is IndiaCo a business incubator with a difference?
08
Page 1 of 3
Seat No.__________
GANPAT UNIVERSITY ONLINE M. B. A. SEMESTER- IV EXAMINATION
MAY-JUNE 2020
IVA02MCS MANAGEMENT CONTROL SYSTEMS
TIME: 2 HRS. WT.: 40 Marks
Part I MCQ (20 Marks) 1. Following is not the characteristics of a Service Organization.
a. Absence of Inventory Buffer
b. Difficulty in Controlling Quality
c. Labour intensive
d. Continuous process
2. Which one out of the following is the characteristic of a Financial Service Organization?
a. Labor Intensive
b. Quality Control
c. Time period of service delivery
d. Customization
3. High level of professionalism and importance of quality control is very much crucial in which
form of service organization?
a. Financial Services
b. Educational Services
c. Healthcare Services
d. Leg al advisory Services
4. Third party payers are present in
a. Financial services
b. Educational Services
c. Healthcare Services
d. Legal Advisory Services
5. Fund accounting and governance are special characteristics of
a. Law firm
b. Educational service
c. Not for profit firm
d. Architectural firm
6. Which among the followings is not the cultural dimension as per Hofstede?
a. Power Distance
b. Delegation of Authority
c. Individualism
d. Uncertainty Avoidance
7. What refers to as shared values, assumptions, and norms of behaviour?
a. Mission
b. Ethics
c. Culture
d. Motivation
8. Decentralization of decision making and participation in budget preparation is crucial in
a. The dimension of power distance
b. The dimension of Individualism
c. Uncertainty avoidance
d. Masculinity
9. The nations having highly collectivistic culture are,
Page 2 of 3
a. USA, Australia, UK
b. Saudi Arabia, Venezuela, Peru
c. USA, Russia, Saudi Arabia
d. China, UK, India
10. Preference for reward is very important element of management control system in,
a. The dimension of power distance
b. The dimension of Individualism
c. Uncertainty avoidance
d. Masculinity
11. Foreign exchange hedging strategies are used to manage
a. Translation exposure
b. Transaction exposure
c. Transnational exposure
d. Economic exposure
12. The exchange rate prevailing at the time budgets are set is
a. Initial Exchange rate
b. Projected Exchange rate
c. Actual Exchange rate
d. Ending Exchange rate
13. Structure and process of management control systems depend upon various external and
internal factors, known as
a. Goal Congruence
b. Contingency Theory
c. Competency Theory
d. Strategic Management
14. Which one from the following is not the factor influencing control system design:
a. Size
b. Strategy
c. Technology
d. Materials
15. The organizational structure of single industry firm is
a. Functional
b. Business Units
c. Holding Company
d. Matrix
16. When profitability is measured with the total assets employed, it is known as
a. Profit center
b. Expense center
c. Revenue center
d. Investment center
17. The negative aspect of ROI as the measure of performance is,
a. It is easy to calculate
b. It is easy to understand
c. It is Short-sighted
d. It is not used widely
18. EVA is used beyond a control tool as following except,
a. For strategic direction
b. For valuing acquisitions
c. For product discontinuation
d. For Environment scanning
19. It starts with the approval of plan, resource allocation and financing and ends when the
objectives get accomplished/ cancelled.-What are we talking about here?
a. A control system design
b. A performance appraisal
c. A balance scorecard
Page 3 of 3
d. A Project
20. Headquarter management, relieved of day-to-day decision making and can concentrate on
broader issues.- This is a benefit of,
a. Profit center
b. Revenue center
c. Expense center
d. Management control system
Part II Subjective type questions (20 Marks)
Q # 1 Analyze the current situation the world is facing and provide the elements of
Management Control System that the healthcare provider in particular has to incorporate
additionally with its ongoing operation.
5
Q # 2 Why devising a Management Control System is challenging when the case is of
Multinationals? Discuss the crucial elements.
5
Q # 3 In organizations, there are interrelated units where the output of one unit may be the
material used for another. How Management Control Systems comes in question here?
What are the various methods you can use so that it will bring an optimum common
ground for both the units?
5
Q # 4 Explain the need for having different responsibility centers. Why there is a constant
debate on ROI and EVA as better measure of profitability?
5
Page 1 of 4
Seat No.__________
GANPAT UNIVERSITY ONLINE M. B. A. SEMESTER- IV REGULAR EXAMINATION
JUNE 2020
IVA05SMA SERVICES MARKETING
TIME: 2 HRS. WT.: 40 Marks
Part I MCQ (20 Marks) Choose only one option which is most appropriate.
Each question carries one mark.
1. In the Gaps Model of Service Quality, difference between customer expectations and
perceptions refers to
a) Provider gap 1
b) Provider gap 2
c) Provider gap 3
d) Customer gap
2. Products high in search qualities are more difficult to evaluate compared to products high on
credence qualities. This statement is _________
a) True
b) False
c) May be, True
d) May be, False
3. Services cannot be easily patented due to the characteristic of:
a) Heterogeneity
b) Perishability
c) Intangibility
d) Inseparability
4. Which of the following is not an element of physical evidence?
a) Employee Dress
b) Facility design
c) Branding
d) Signage
5. A dominant logic for marketing that suggests that all products and physical goods are valued
for the service they provide. This statements relates to looking at services as
a) Pure services
b) Value-added services
c) Customer services
d) Derived services
Page 2 of 4
6. Customers’ service expectations are bounded by desired and adequate service levels. The
difference between desired service and the level of service considered adequate is called the
____________ .
a) Service encounter
b) Customer-defined standards
c) Moments of truth
d) Zone of tolerance
7. Customer expectations that are driven by another person or group of people is called
________
a) Adequate services expectation
b) Derived service expectation
c) Desired service expectation
d) Perceived service expectation
8. In Service Blueprint, the line separating all service activities that are visible to the customer
from those that are not visible is called _________
a) Line of interaction
b) Line of support processes
c) Line of internal interaction
d) Line of visibility
9. For an airlines company, on-time arrival is example of ____________
a) Hard customer-defined standards
b) Soft customer-defined standards
c) Inadequate customer-defined standards
d) Elastic customer-defined standards
10. Tone of voice on telephone calls while resolving customer complaints is example of
______________
a) Hard customer-defined standards
b) Soft customer-defined standards
c) Inadequate customer-defined standards
d) Elastic customer-defined standards
11. Mass production is difficult. This describes the ___________characteristic of services
a) Intangibility
b) Inseparability
c) Perishability
d) Heterogeneous
12. Which product do you feel is high in credence quality?
a) Clothing
b) Auto repair
c) Vacation
d) Hair cut
Page 3 of 4
13. The second level of relationship strategies for retaining customers and building switching
barriers refers to:
a) Financial bonds
b) Structural bonds
c) Social bonds
d) Customizations bonds
14. The last stage of the new service development process is:
a) Commercialization
b) Market testing
c) Business Analysis
d) Postintroduction evaluation
15. Which service quality dimension captures the notion of flexibility and ability to customize
the service to customer needs?
a) Tangibles
b) Reliability
c) Assurance
d) Empathy
16. Which of the following business could be considered as a pure services?
a) Teaching
b) Fast-food outlets
c) Cosmetics
d) Automobiles
17. Going-rate pricing in services industry is an example of:
a) Competition based pricing
b) Demand-based pricing
c) Cost based pricing
d) Fee based pricing
18. Which of the following could be used to develop a service architecture?
a) Quality function deployment (QFD)
b) Service Blueprinting
c) Both QFD and Service Blueprinting
d) SERVQUAL
19. The pricing strategies when the customer means “Value is the quality I get for the price I
pay” include
a) Prestige pricing
b) Price framing
c) Synchro-pricing
d) Market segmentation pricing
Page 4 of 4
20. A marketing research method in which a customer is asked a short list of questions
immediately after a particular transaction about their satisfaction is known as
a) Complaint solicitation
b) Critical incident studies
c) Trailer calls
d) Cold calls
Part II Subjective questions exam (20 Marks)
Write your subject related information i.e name, enrolment number etc on main page as
instructed in your training and university guidelines.
Write in full scape paper or in A4 size papers.
Write new question on new page.
Upload single scanned pdf file in inpod. Send the same pdf file to instructor via email.
Q # 1 Describe the key differences between customer evaluation of pricing for services and
goods. List the common pricing structures in services and explain the challenges
associated with their use
5
Q # 2 Explain characteristics of an effective service guarantee. Comment on when to not to use
service guarantees as a particular type of recovery strategy. 5
Q # 3 What are customer-defined service standards? Describe how to translate customer
expectations or requirements into behaviors and action that are specific and actionable. 5
Q # 4 "The zone of tolerance varies across customers and expands or contracts with the same
customer". Comment on this statement. Also, explain the factors that influence customer
expectations of services.
5
Page 1 of 3
Seat No.__________
GANPAT UNIVERSITY ONLINE M. B. A. SEMESTER- IV REGULAR EXAMINATION
APRIL-JUNE 2020
IVA05WCM WORKING CAPITAL MANAGEMENT
TIME: 2 HRS. WT.: 40 Marks
Part I MCQ (20 Marks)
1. The risk that the market price of an asset will decline, resulting in a capital loss when sold.
Sometimes referred to as interest-rate risk. It is,
A. Default risk
B. Market risk
C. Political risk
D. Inflation risk
2. The probability that a borrower will fail to meet one or more promised principal or interest
payments on a loan or security is,
A. Market risk
B. Default risk
C. Inflation risk
D. Currency Risk
3. Which one among the following is not the basic ingredient of financial flexibility and profitability?
A. Cost
B. Reserve
C. Amount
D. Time
4. Financial Flexibility is not
A. Stability of earnings
B. Relative debt/equity position
C. Opportunity cost
D. Availability of credit lines
5. Cash management is not concerned with the managing of:
A. cash balances held by the firm at a point of time by financing deficit or investing surplus cash
B. cash flows into and out of the firm,
C. Cash use in inventory and sales
D. cash flows within the firm, and
6. Four Facets of Cash Management do not include
A. Cash planning
B. Optimum cash level
C. Credit granting decision
D. Managing the cash flows
7. Which is considered as Traditional Measures of the liquidity?
A. Quick ratio
B. Assets employed ratio
Page 2 of 3
C. Net margin ratio
D. Market Efficiency ratio
8. Working capital provided by financing activities is all but not,
A. Increase in share capital
B. Sale of finished goods
C. Sale of non current assets
D. Increase in long term liabilities
9. Select among the transactions that decrease working capital are classified as uses of fund
A. Purchase of non current assets
B. Dividends
C. Decrease in long term liabilities
D. Issuance of share capital
10. An increase in current asset balance cause an increase in working capital. The increase may be
due to following except,
A. Issuance of debentures in exchange of current liabilities
B. Issuance of fresh share capital
C. Working capital provided by current operations
D. Purchase of long term assets
11. Model for Optimum Cash Balance under Certainty is
A. Stone Model
B. Modigliani and Miller model
C. The Miller–Orr Model
D. Baumol’s Model
12. The model of Optimum Cash Balance under Uncertainty is
A. Modigliani and Miller model
B. The Miller–Orr Model
C. Stone Model
D. Beranek Model
13. The assumption of Boumol's model is all but not
A. The firm’s cash payments fluctuates over a period of time.
B. The opportunity cost of holding cash is known and it does not change over time
C. The firm will incur the same transaction cost whenever it converts securities to cash
D. The firm is able to forecast its cash needs with certainty.
14.The cash optimization model which talks about the control limits is
A. Baumol's model
B. Beranek model
C. Stone model
D. Miller-Orr model
15.The rationale for the extension of credit does not include
A. Financial motive
B. Contracting Cost Motive
C. Precautionary motive
D. Operating Motive
16.Sources of credit information do not include
A. Trade checking
B. Bank references
Page 3 of 3
C. Customer bureaus
D. Financial statements
17. Five C’s of credit do not include
A. Cost
B. Character
C. Collateral
D. Capital
18. The task of monetary system is all except
A. Mobilising the savings of the community and enlarging the financial savings pool
B. Promoting efficiency in the allocation of the savings of the community to relatively more
productive purposes in accordance with national economic goals
C. Restricting price stability
D. Enabling the resource needs of the major entrepreneur in the country, i.e. the government, to be in
adequate measure
19. Which among the following is not included in Sources of Reserve Money
A. Government’s Currency Liabilities to the Public less Net non-monetary liabilities of RBI
B. RBI credit to Individuals
C. Net Foreign Assets of RBI
D. Net RBI credit to Government
20. Narrow money is denoted as
A. M0
B. M1
C. M2
D. M4
Part II Subjective type questions (20 Marks)
Q # 1 A firm has Rs 800 per year carrying cost on each unit of inventory, an annual usage
rate of 50000 units and an ordering cost of Rs 1500 per order. Ignoring any potential
stock out costs:
1. Calculate the economic order quantity for the firm.
2. What would be the total annual inventory costs of the firm if it orders in this
quantity?
5
Q # 2 In the current COVID-19 crisis, what approach of working capital management you will
follow for the Retail business and Construction business respectively. Substantiate your
answers with sound arguments.
5
Q # 3 "For efficient management of working capital, it is essential to have knowledge about
the existing money market conditions."-Discuss the reasons with the explanation of
Indian Money Market and its functionality.
5
Q # 4 How Discriminant Analysis is different than Heuristics approach? Explain in detail. 5
Page 1 of 4
Seat No.__________
GANPAT UNIVERSITY ONLINE M. B. A. SEMESTER- IV EXAMINATION
MAY-JUNE 2020
IVA06IFM INTERNATIONAL FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
TIME: 2 HRS. WT.: 40 Marks
Part I MCQ (20 Marks)
1. The commonly accepted goal of the MNC is to:
a. maximize short-term earnings.
b. maximize shareholder wealth.
c. minimize risk.
d. maximize international sales.
2. The __________ refers to the orderly relationship between spot and forward currency exchange
rates and the rates of interest between countries.
a. one-price rule b. interest-rate parity c. purchasing-power parity d. exchange-power parity
3. Interest rate swaps are usually possible because international financial markets in different countries
are
a) Efficient b) Perfect c) Imperfect d) both Efficient & Perfect
4. An arbitrageur in foreign exchange is a person who
a) earns illegal profit by manipulating foreign exchange
b) causes differences in exchange rates in different geographic markets
c) simultaneously buys large amounts of a currency in one market and sell it in another market
d) None of the these
5. A floating exchange rate
a) is determined by the national governments involved
b) remains extremely stable over long periods of time
c) is determined by the actions of central banks
d) is allowed to vary according to market forces
6. According to the Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) theory,
a) Exchange rates between two national currencies will adjust daily to reflect price level differences
in the two countries
b) In the long run, inflation rates in different countries will equalize around the world
c) In the long run, the exchange rates between two national currencies will reflect price level
differences in the two countries
d) None of these
7. A simultaneous purchase and sale of foreign exchange for two different dates is called
a) currency devalue b) currency swap c) currency valuation d) currency exchange
8. Example of derivative securities includes
a. swap contract
b. option contract
c. futures contract
d. all of these
Page 2 of 4
9. The forward market is especially well-suited to offer hedging protection against
a. translation risk exposure.
b. transactions risk exposure.
c. political risk exposure.
d. taxation.
10. Which category does external commercial borrowing is categorised as under the balance of payment
(BOP) accounting principles
a. Current account
b. Capital account
c. Official reserve account
d. Exports
11. Which of the following is a credit transaction under the BOP’s accounting principle
a. Imports of goods and service
b. Unilateral transfer (or gifts) made to foreigner
c. Capital inflow
d. None of these
12. Which of the following forecasting techniques would best represent the use of today's forward
exchange rate to forecast the future exchange rate?
a. fundamental forecasting. c. technical forecasting.
b. market-based forecasting. d. mixed forecasting.
13. Which of the following is not true regarding host government attitudes towards foreign direct
investment (FDI)?
a. Host governments may offer incentives to MNCs in the form of subsidies in certain
circumstances.
b. Host governments generally perceive FDI as a remedy to eliminate a country's political
problems.
c. The ability of a host government to attract FDI is dependent on the country's markets and
resources.
d. Some types of FDI will be more attractive to some governments than to others.
14. If inflation in New Zealand suddenly increased while euro area inflation stayed the same, there
would be:
a. an inward shift in the demand schedule for NZ$ and an outward shift in the supply schedule
for NZ$.
b. an outward shift in the demand schedule for NZ$ and an inward shift in the supply schedule
for NZ$.
c. an outward shift in the demand schedule for NZ$ and an outward shift in the supply
schedule for NZ$.
d. an inward shift in the demand schedule for NZ$ and an inward shift in the supply schedule
for NZ$.
15. The primary component of the current account is the:
a. balance of trade.
b. balance of money market flows.
c. balance of capital market flows.
d. unilateral transfers.
16. _____________ are most commonly classified as a direct foreign investment.
a. Foreign acquisitions
b. Purchases of international stocks
c. Licensing agreements
d. Exporting transactions
17. The international Fisher effect (IFE) suggests that:
a. a home currency will depreciate if the current home interest rate exceeds the current
foreign interest rate.
Page 3 of 4
b. a home currency will appreciate if the current home interest rate exceeds the current
foreign interest rate.
c. a home currency will appreciate if the current home inflation rate exceeds the current
foreign inflation rate.
d. a home currency will depreciate if the current home inflation rate exceeds the current
foreign inflation rate.
18. According to the international Fisher effect, if euro investors expect a 5% rate of domestic
inflation over one year, and a 2% rate of inflation in the US, and require a 3% real return on
investments over one year, the nominal interest rate on one-year euro Treasury securities
would be:
a. 2%.
b. 3%.
c. 5%.
d. 8%.
19. Largest number of buyer and seller , greater the
a. Liquidity
b. Speculation
c. Hedging
d. Forward rate 20. Assume you are an exporter and you want to sell USD that you have received as export remittance.
The bank quotes a price of 45.10/ 45.12 for USDINR. At what price can you sell one unit of USD? a. 45.12 b. 45.11 c. 45.09 d. 45.10
Part II Subjective type questions (20 Marks)
Q # 1 1. Suppose that the current spot exchange rate is €1.05/$ and the three-month forward
exchange rate is €1.02/$. The three-month interest rate is 5.6 percent per annum in the
United States and 5.45 percent per annum in France. Assume that you can borrow up to
$1,000,000 or €1,050,000.
a. Show how to realize a certain profit via covered interest arbitrage, assuming that you
want to realize profit in terms of U.S. dollars. Also determine the size of your arbitrage
profit.
b. Assume that you want to realize profit in terms of euros. Show the covered arbitrage
process and determine the arbitrage profit in euros.
5
Q # 2 2. Assume you are a trader with Deutsche Bank. From the quote screen on your computer
terminal, you notice that Dresdner Bank is quoting €1.242/$1.00 and Credit Suisse is
offering SF1.5030/$1.00. You learn that UBS is making a direct market between the
Swiss franc and the euro, with a current €/SF quote of 0.7650. Show how you can make a
triangular arbitrage profit by trading at these prices. (Ignore bid-ask spreads for this
problem.) Assume you have $5,000,000 with which to conduct the arbitrage. What
happens if you initially sell dollars for Swiss francs? What €/SF price will eliminate
triangular arbitrage?
5
Page 4 of 4
Q # 3 A Ltd and B ltd Companies can borrow for a five-year term at the following rates:
A Ltd B Ltd
Fitch’s credit rating AA BAA
Fixed rate borrowing cost 10 % 12.5%
Floating rate borrowing
cost
LIBOR LIBOR+1.5
a. Calculate the quality spread differential (QSD).
b. Develop an interest rate swap in which both A ltd and B ltd have an equal cost
savings in their borrowing costs. Assume A ltd desires floating-rate debt and B ltd
desires fixed-rate debt. No swap bank is involved in this transaction.
5
Q # 4 Putting yourself in the position of an MNC Manager, list out major steps that you
would like to evaluate the feasibility of an overseas project.
5
End of Paper
Page 1 of 4
Seat No.__________
GANPAT UNIVERSITY ONLINE M. B. A. SEMESTER- IV REGULAR EXAMINATION
MAY-JUNE 2020
IVA06SHR STRATEGIC HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT TIME: 2 HRS. WT.: 40 Marks
Part I MCQ (20 Marks)
Q # 1 In Strategic human resource management, HR strategies are generally aligned with
a. Business Strategy
b. Marketing Strategy
c. Finance Strategy
d. Economic Strategy
1
Q # 2 The metrices which explains the value created by employees; provides a means of
productivity and expense analysis
a. Profit per employee
b. Human capital value added
c. HR Expense factor
d. Yield ratio
1
Q # 3 Human Resource Strategy in which focus is mainly on innovation, growth and
decentralized structuring of firm is classified as
a. cost leadership
b. differentiation
c. organisation centralisation
d. competency advantage
1
Q # 4 Immigration regulation against spouse employment is an example of which type of
compensation
a. deferred compensation
b. skill based compensation
c. variable compensation
d. benefits based compensation
1
Q # 5 If a bank is acquiring the majority shares of a manufacturing company then it should
a. push for quick post acquisition integration of HR Systems.
b. push for slow post acquisition integration of HR Systems
c. never try to integrate HR Systems at all
d. engage external consultant to design a common business process
1
Q # 6 Imagine a company is going to lose a few senior managers within a few months on
account of superannuation and needs immediate replacement of those managers.
Then most likely it will
a. seek help of professional employment agencies
b. seek placement cell if academic institutes
c. place professionally designed advertisements in local newspapers
d. go for short-term contract for a few recruits from open market
1
Page 2 of 4
Q # 7 Which is not a type of a career issue in repatriation process
a. Anxiety for the job role
b. Adoption of culture in the organization
c. Family readjustment
d. Adaptation to change
1
Q # 8 Which of the following is not a common HR Metrics
a. Capital asset pricing
b. Training investment factor
c. Turnover costs
d. Yield ratio
1
Q # 9 The metric which explain the value of employee knowledge, skills, and
performance and how much human capital adds increment value to an organization
a. Profit per employee
b. Human capital return on investment
c. Human capital value added
d. Capital return on investment
1
Q # 10 ______________provides some variety by increasing the number of tasks, activities,
or jobs to help alleviate the boredom of highly specialized work.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enlargement
c. Job description
d. Job specification
1
Q # 11 The process of reassigning the supervisory responsibilities to employees
is commonly referred to as
a. Horizontal loading
b. Transactional loading
c. Vertical loading
d. Rotational loading
1
Q # 12 Which of the following a personality dimension not as Personality type in ‘Big Five
Personality’ model
a. extraversion
b. agreeableness
c. conscientiousness
d. ruggedness
1
Q # 13 Which is following is not Judgement error in performance appraisal
a. Halo effect
b. Horn effect
c. Regains effect
d. Stereotyping
1
Q # 14 A Scale in which enlists traits and performance values is called
a. Force distribution
b. Graphic rating scale
c. Management by Objectives
d. alteration ranking method
1
Q # 15 ___________ equity considers employee perceptions of pay differentials among
individuals who hold identical jobs in the same organization
a. Internal equity
1
Page 3 of 4
b. External equity
c. Individual equity
d. Group equity
Q # 16 Which of the following is a short term strategy for managing surplus of employees
a. Offer early retirement
b. Hiring freezing
c. Voluntary leaves
d. Cross training of employees
1
Q # 17 Nalcom, the manager of the sales department at a automotive firm, is in the process
of evaluating his staff's performance. He has determined that 10% of the group will
be identified as high performers, 20% as above average performers, 25% as average
performers, 20% as below average performers, and 25% as poor performers. Which
performance appraisal tool has Malcom chosen to use?
a. behaviorally anchored rating scale
b. management by objectives
c. forced distribution
d. alternation ranking
1
Q # 18 In which of staffing approach the coordination and communication is controlled by
headquarter to the local subsidiary
a. Polycentric
b. Ethnocentric
c. Regio-centric
d. Geocentric
1
Q # 19 The process of bargaining under which the workers and management representative
negotiate on working hours, wages and employment conditions is known as
a. union bargaining
b. distributive bargaining
c. descriptive bargaining
d. collective bargaining
1
Q # 20 The VRIO framework can be used to identify
a. a firm's resources and external opportunities.
b. the organizational structure of multinational firms.
c. a firm's technical resources.
d. a firm's core competencies.
1
Part II Subjective type questions (20 Marks)
Q # 1 How does Strategic HR has evolved in today’s organizational context and it is
differentiable from HRM?
5
Q # 2 A multinational firm operating in India, want to transfer its employees from it
headquarter to its international divisional office located. What kind of training is
required for employees by the HR Department prior going for the assignment?
5
Page 4 of 4
Q # 3 During COVID19, How technology helps the Organization to train their employees at
living spaces and what are its benefits and pitfalls? Illustrate with example?
5
Q # 4 Softcore Technologies is acquired by Fincare Technologies. As a HR Head of Fincare
Technologies, what step do you take to make the smooth transition between both the
companies and how will you reduce the employee stress.
5
Page 1 of 4
Seat No.__________
GANPAT UNIVERSITY ONLINE M. B. A. SEMESTER- IV REGULAR EXAMINATION
MAY-JUNE 2020
IVA06SMB STRATEGIC MARKETING BRAND MANAGEMENT TIME: 2 HRS. WT.: 40 Marks
Part I MCQ (20 Marks)
Q # 1 In Strategic Marketing management, Marketing strategies are generally aligned with
a. Business Strategy
b. HR Strategy
c. Finance Strategy
d. Economic Strategy
1
Q # 2 What does CBBE stands for
a. Customer Branding Based Equity
b. Cluster Based Brand Equity
c. Consumer Based Brand Equity
d. Customer Based Brand Equity
1
Q # 3 Which of the following is not correct about brand equity
a. It is the positive differential effect of the brand name on customer
b. It is the response to the product or service
c. It is the total financial value of the brand
d. Customer show a preference for one product over the other
1
Q # 4 Which of the following is Level 1 of the Kellar’s brand equity model?
a. Brand meaning
b. Brand salience
c. Brand response
d. Brand resonance
1
Q # 5 Which of the following is the total financial value of the brand
a. Brand Positioning
b. Brand Asset
c. Brand equity
d. Brand valuation
1
Q # 6 Attributes or benefits that consumers strongly associate with a brand, positively
evaluate, and believe they could not find to the same extent with a competitive brand is
known as
a. competitive points-of-parity
b. relational points-of-parity
c. correlational points-of-parity
d. point-of-difference
1
Q # 7 In which of the following, two or more well known brands are combined in an offer
a. Co-branding
b. Multi-branding
1
Page 2 of 4
c. Line extension
d. Brand extension
Q # 8 The HUL induced both brand Lux and Lifebouy both the brand in the market is known
as
a. Co-branding
b. Multibranding
c. Line extension
d. Brand extension
1
Q # 9 Arrange the correct order of Strategic Brand Management Process
1. Identifying and developing brand plans
2. Growing and sustaining brand equity
3. Measuring and interpreting brand performance
4. Designing and implementing brand marketing programs
a. 1,2,3,4
b. 1,4,3,2
c. 1,3,4,2
d. 1,2,4,3
1
Q # 10 Which of the following is incorrect about brand?
a. It is a name, term, sign, symbol, design or combination of them
b. It helps to identify the goods and services
c. It is a competitive advantage for the organization
d. It has a validity
1
Q # 11 Which is not one of the key attributes and benefits of Brand performance
a. Price
b. Service Effectiveness
c. Purchase and Usage situations
d. Style and design
1
Q # 12 A product team, which consists of representatives from a number of functional areas
assembled for each product or product line is an example of
a. Line Structure
b. Hierarchical Structure
c. Matrix Structure
d. Horizontal Structure
1
Q # 13 Introducing ‘coupon drops and merchandising deals’ to fight competitor in small
package of times is an example of
a. Guerilla Attack
b. Encirclement
c. Flank Attack
d. Fortress
1
Q # 14 Induce current customers in mass market to replace their current brand with superior
new offering; attract new customers by providing enhanced benefits is the primary
objective of
a. Guerilla Attack
b. Encirclement
c. Flank Attack
d. Leapfrog Attack
1
Page 3 of 4
Q # 15 Which of the following is the strategic advantage to the follower in the market
a. Economies of scale and experience
b. Good market segments and positions
c. Competitive advantage over distributions
d. Advantage of latest technology
1
Q # 16 In the product life cycle, the cash flow in the growth stage are
a. Negative
b. Highly negative
c. Positive
d. Highly Positive
1
Q # 17 The internet helps marketers to reach customer directly, by removing complex
distribution channels is known as
a. collaborative filtering
b. simple syndication
c. mass customization
d. disintermediation
1
Q # 18 Brand Credibility cannot be earned through
a. Brand expertise
b. Brand trustworthiness
c. Brand Likeability
d. Brand Usage
1
Q # 19 In the declining market, Product X of firm ABC ltd. has a competitive advantage in its
segment and the firm has limited resource and concentrating on that segment only.
Which strategy is the firm following
a. Niche
b. Harvest
c Maintenance
d. Profit Survivor
1
Q # 20 Example of Colgate advertisement to brush your teeth thrice a day is an example of
which strategy
a. Increased penetration
b. Extended usage
c. Market Expansion
d. Encirclement
1
Part II Subjective type questions (20 Marks)
Q # 1 Cargo airlines service firm struggling because of the poor customer service and
continuous booming of fuel price in the matured aviation industry in India. what
strategies you can suggest for firm to do in this scenario?
5
Q # 2 Zamoto “a fairly competitive food application’ which had already created its good brand
image in the metro cities, want to launch their services into non-metro market? What kind
of Marketing plan that you design as a Marketing Manager for the brand to be successful
into non-metro markets?
5
Page 4 of 4
Q # 3 Explain how CBBE Pyramid help brand to create strong brand equity and what strategy
firm can adopt at each stage of pyramid?
5
Q # 4 Pepsi and coke are two dominant players in the FMCG industry, explain their positioning
and target market? What are their point of parity and Point of difference?
5
Page 1 of 5
Seat No.__________
GANPAT UNIVERSITY ONLINE M. B. A. SEMESTER- IV REGULAR EXAMINATION
JUNE 2020
IVA07GSC GLOBAL SUPPLY CHAIN MANAGEMENT
TIME: 2 HRS. WT.: 40 Marks
Part I MCQ (20 Marks) Choose only one option which is most appropriate.
Each question carries one mark.
1 Supply chain network design decisions classified as facility location are concerned with
A) what processes are performed at each facility.
B) where facilities should be located.
C) how much capacity should be allocated to each facility.
D) what markets each facility should serve and which supply sources should feed each facility.
b
2 The situation in which fluctuations in orders increase as they move up the supply chain from
retailers to wholesalers to manufacturers to suppliers is known as
A) market fluctuations.
B) the whiplash effect.
C) the bullwhip effect.
D) lack of visibility.
C
3 Firms focusing on responsiveness tend to
A) locate facilities close to the market they serve.
B) locate facilities very far from the market they serve.
C) find the lowest cost location for their manufacturing facilities.
D) select a high-cost location to be able to react slowly.
A
4 Which of the following is not a stage within a typical supply chain?
A) information system
B) Retailers
C) Wholesalers/Distributors
D) Manufacturers
A
5 The cycle view of a supply chain holds that
A) the processes in a supply chain are divided into 2 categories.
B) the processes in a supply chain are divided into a series of activities performed at the interface
between successive stages.
C) all processes in a supply chain are initiated in response to a customer order.
D) all processes in a supply chain are performed in anticipation of customer orders.
B
Page 2 of 5
6 The push/pull view of a supply chain holds that
A) the processes in a supply chain are divided into a series of activities performed at the interface
between successive stages.
B) all processes in a supply chain are initiated in response to a customer order.
C) all responses in a supply chain are performed in anticipation of customer orders.
D) the processes in a supply chain are divided into 2 categories depending on whether they are
initiated in response to or in anticipation of customer orders.
d
7 Mature products with stable demand
A) are usually easiest to forecast.
B) are usually hardest to forecast.
C) cannot be forecast.
D) do not need to be forecast. a
8 The customer order cycle occurs at the
A) customer/retailer interface.
B) retailer/distributor interface.
C) distributor/manufacturer interface.
D) manufacturer/supplier interface.
a
9 The replenishment cycle occurs at the
A) customer/retailer interface.
B) retailer/distributor interface.
C) distributor/manufacturer interface.
D) manufacturer/supplier interface.
B
10 Inventory carried for the purpose of satisfying demand that exceeds the amount forecasted for a
given period is
A) cycle inventory.
B) demand inventory.
C) safety inventory.
D) security inventory.
C
11 Which of the following is not an accurate statement about push processes?
A) May also be referred to as speculative processes.
B) Execution is initiated in anticipation of customer orders.
C) At the time of execution, demand must be forecast.
D) May also be referred to as reactive processes.
D
12 Which of the following is not included in Supply chain macro processes?
A) Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
B) Internal Supply Chain Management (ISCM)
C) Supplier Relationship Management (SRM)
D) inventory
D
Page 3 of 5
13 Supply chain surplus involves what two parts?
A) Manufacturing cost and selling price
B) Customer value and supply chain cost
C) Customer value and high quality products
D) Reliable transportation and supply chain cost
b
14 For any supply chain, the source of revenue is generated by
A) efficient operations.
B) information flows.
C) the customer.
D) product flows.
C
15 Which of the following is NOT a challenge that makes it increasingly difficult for supply chains
to achieve strategic fit?
A) Globalization
B) Changing Technology
C) Shorter Life Cycles
D) Decreasing Product Variety
d
16 Efficient supply chains
A) respond quickly to demand.
B) have higher margins because price is not a prime customer driver.
C) maintain buffer inventory to deal with demand/supply uncertainty.
D) maximize performance at a minimum cost.
D
17 The value chain consists of direct and indirect activities. Which of the following is an indirect
activity for an enterprise?
A) Marketing
B) Distribution
C) Human Resources
D) Service
C
18 Which of the following would be a demand and supply characteristic toward the beginning stages
of a product's life cycle?
A) Demand has become more certain and supply is predictable.
B) Margins are lower due to an increase in competitive pressure.
C) Product availability is crucial to capturing the market.
D) Price becomes a significant factor in customer choice.
C
Page 4 of 5
19 The process by which companies acquire raw materials, components, products, services, and other
resources from suppliers to execute their operations is
A) procurement.
B) sourcing.
C) supplier scoring and assessment.
D) supplier selection.
A
20 Cycle inventory is primarily held to
A) take advantage of diseconomies of scale and increase cost within the supply chain.
B) take advantage of diseconomies of scale and reduce cost within the supply chain.
C) take advantage of economies of scale and increase cost within the supply chain.
D) take advantage of economies of scale and reduce cost within the supply chain.
Answer: D
Part II Subjective questions exam (20 Marks)
Write your subject related information i.e name, enrolment number, signature etc on main page/other
page as instructed in your training and university guidelines.
Write in full scape paper or in A4 size papers.
Write new question on new page.
Upload single scanned pdf file in inpod. Send the same pdf file to instructor via email attachment on
Q # 1 A computer marketing firm that serves its market from one central depot and the
demand observed is 100 PCs per day, with the standard deviation of demand being 30.
The company has a policy of maintaining a service level of 97.8 per cent. Currently it
sources it PCs from Europe via sea route and has to allow six weeks (36 days) of lead
time: 1 week to manufacture at its Europe plant and five weeks for shipping. The
company is exploring the possibility of air lifting the material which will reduce the
lead time to two weeks (12 days). This will result in increase in transportation cost
from Rs 100 to Rs 400 per unit of PC. Inventory carrying cost for PC is Rs 6000 per
unit per year. Assume 300 days in a year. Assume Z value as 2.00. Should a firm
switch over to air lifting?
5
Q # 2 What is saving algorithm? Write the steps to solve the problem with the help of saving
algorithm. In what kind of decisions this algorithm is useful in the supply chain?
5
Q # 3 What is agile supply chain? How this concept can be helpful to supply chain managers to
develop resilient supply chain?
5
Q # 4 Why Decisions related to facilities are considered as one of the drivers for the supply
chain performance? Justify your answer with strong logical arguments.
5
Page 5 of 5
Page 1 of 4
Seat No.__________
GANPAT UNIVERSITY ONLINE M. B. A. SEMESTER- IV REGULAR EXAMINATION
MAY-JUNE 2020
IVA07IHR INTERNATIONAL HUMAN RESOURCE
MANAGEMENT TIME: 2 HRS. WT.: 40 Marks
Part I MCQ (20 Marks)
Q # 1 When an international firm choose only from the nationals of the parent country, is
called
a. polycentric approach
b. geocentric approach
c. ethnocentric approach
d. regiocentric approach
1
Q # 2 When an international firm choose to recruit to the nationalities of the host country
where the branch is located, it is called
a. polycentric approach
b. geocentric approach
c. ethnocentric approach
d. going rate approach
1
Q # 3 Which is not a category of Self-Established Barriers by female for international
assignment.
a. Willingness to relocate
b. Dual-career couple
c. Stereotypes mindset of HR
d. Behaving according to gender based role model
1
Q # 4 Compensation given to expatriate for exceptionally hard working and living conditions
at certain locations is classified as
a. ethnocentric allowance
b. mobility premiums
c. hardship allowance
d. foreign service premiums
1
Q # 5 Whirlpool’s user of a performance management system worldwide is an example of
a. extended management control over employees
b. attempts to increase productivity in its all branches
c. an international HRM policy
d. a policy that has adopted a global village philosophy
1
Q # 6 Which is not type of Family-friendly Policy adopted by HR.
a. Inter-Company networking
b. Bearing all expenses of spouse and child
c. Job-hunting Assistance
d. On-assignment career support
1
Page 2 of 4
Q # 7 When implementing industrial relations practices overseas, an Indian head office
should ensure coordination so that
a. policies are the same as in India
b. practices adhere to and reinforce strategic HRM philosophies and policies and are in
harmony with the desired corporate culture
c. all employees belong to key trade unions in the industry
d. concessions are made in each country so that operations can run smoothly
1
Q # 8 Which of Hofstede’s dimensions of cultural difference identifies cultures based on their
willingness to take risks?
a. Individualism/collectivism
b. Masculinity/femininity
c. Uncertainty avoidance
d. Power distance.
1
Q # 9 When a person feels stressed when seeing the difference between culture from his own
is known as
a. ethnocentrism
b. cultural context
c. world view
d. culture shock
1
Q # 10 Which of the dimensions Hofstede used to define differences between national cultures
refers to the degree to which members of a culture are expected to act independently of
other members?
a. Individualism
b. Power distance
c. Masculinity
d. Uncertainty avoidance
1
Q # 11 In an international HRM context, compensation based on local market rates are
consider as
a. going-rate approach
b. balance sheet approach
c. flexi-rate approach
d. non flexi-rate approach
1
Q # 12 Union which represent all grades of employees in an industry
a. Craft Union
b. Industrial Union
c. Conglomerate Union
d. Craft Guildes
1
Q # 13 In an international Assignment, as a task of an expatriate, ____________ is the
individual who is sent to a foreign subsidiary to analyze and solve operational
problems?
a. Reproducer
b. chief officer
c. trouble shooter
d. operative
1
Q # 14 Gifts and facilitating or grease and payment to agent for getting unfair advantage are
considered as
a. corruption
b. normal business practice
1
Page 3 of 4
c. standard behaviour
d. an ethical dilemma
Q # 15 In Mendanhall, Dunbar and odduo model, techniques like Assement center and field
experiment can be used in
a. affective approach
b. informative approach
c. immersion approach
d. motivational approach
1
Q # 16 Which one of the following is not a component of Pre-departure training program
a. aware employee towards the cross culture
b. arranging short span of visit of the foreign assignment
c. making him learn communication gesture and language
d. giving him guidance for the tourist place he can visit in the foreign location
1
Q # 17 Which one of the following is not a situational criteria for selecting employee for the
international assignment
a. technical ability
b. cultural requirement
c. MNE requirement
d. language know how
1
Q # 18 Which among the following is not a job-related factor in the readjustment of employee
returning from the foreign assignment
a. effect on partner’s career
b. changes in home workplace
c. re-entry positions
d. career progression
1
Q # 19 The ethical approach in which the firm give priority to its own cultural values are
coined as
a. ethical universalist
b. Ethical relativist
c. ethical absolutist
d. normal business practice
1
Q # 20 Arrange the correct order of repatriation process
1. Transition
2. Preparation
3. Physical relocation
4. Readjustment
a. 1,2,3,4
b. 2,3,4,1
c. 2,3,1,4
d. 1,3,2,4
1
Page 4 of 4
Part II Subjective type questions (20 Marks)
Q # 1 In the era of enormous globalization, the need for International HR has grown
tremendously. How international HR practices is differentiate from regular HR practices.
5
Q # 2 A Candidate is selected is for international assignment for 2 years, As a HR you have to
design a training program for the candidate. Please elaborate what techniques do you use
for training.
5
Q # 3 Akash who is the resident of America, working from past 3 years in Singapore, Its
assignment is now completed and it has to shift back to its home country. What are the
factors do you think affect its reentry to its home country.
5
Q # 4 Being the head HR of a mining firm, you have to design a performance appraisal program
for its international operations executives who are working in South Africa. The head
quarter of the firm is located in India.
5
Page 1 of 4
Seat No.__________
GANPAT UNIVERSITY ONLINE M. B. A. SEMESTER- IV REGULAR EXAMINATION
MAY-JUNE 2020
IVA07RMA RETAIL MANAGEMENT
TIME: 2 HRS. WT.: 40 Marks
Part I MCQ (20 Marks)
Q#1 Giant retailers called _____ concentrate on one product category such as (Toys "R" Us)
or home improvement (Home Depot)
(A) Category killers
(B) Variety stores
(C) Supercenters
(D) Box stores
(1)
Q#2 One reason many grocery stores have a policy of prosecuting all shoplifters is because
that policy tends to:
(A) Reduce the amount of theft
(B) Make the store more secure
(C) Make a warning to suppliers
(D) Frighten many employees
(1)
Q#3 Encouraging customers to buy products that they might not otherwise want to buy is
one reason why some businesses __________ products
(A) Display
(B) Market
(C) Promote
(D) Bundle
(1)
Q#4 Which of the following promotional methods is used by many apparel retailers because
it shows consumers the latest fashions at minimum expense to the business:
(A) Radio commercial
(B) Fashion show
(C) Magazine advertising
(D) Newspaper advertising
(1)
Q#5 Channel members' sharing inventory and order-processing information through
databases and computer systems is an example of the use of technology in
(A) Pricing
(B) Planning
(C) Distribution
(D) Promotion
(1)
Q#6 Stockholders, consumers, suppliers, employees, and government are examples of:
(A) a retailer's publics
(B) the uncontrollable variables facing a retailer
(C) target market
(D) market segments
(1)
Q#7 The reduction in prices made on large purchases is classified as
(A) Bargained reduction
(1)
Page 2 of 4
(B) Allowance
(C) Discount
(D) Price segment
Q#8 ________ is a group of retail businesses planned, developed, owned, and managed as a
unit.
(A) Shopping center
(B) Supermarket
(C) Franchise
(D) Hypermarket
(1)
Q#9 _______ carry narrow product lines with deep assortments within those lines.
(A)Chain stores
(B) Specialty store
(C) Discount store
(D)Off-price store
(1)
Q#10 A store that uses ________ creates realistic environments in which customers can try
products before they buy them.
(A) An enhanced service mix
(B) Experiential retailing
(C) Atmosphere control
(D) High-low pricing
(1)
Q#11 E-retailing refers to
(A) Catalog shopping
(B) Computerized store
(C) Retailing and shopping through internet
(D) Sales of electronic items
(1)
Q#12 In which of the following retailers are salespeople ready to assist in every phase of the
locate-compare-select process?
(A) Self-service
(B) Limited service
(C) Full service
(D) Self-service
(1)
Q#13 The correct statement about chain stores is
(A) They offer economic of scale in buying
(B) They can hire good managers
(C) They centralize function
(D) They integrate wholesaling and retailing function
(1)
Q#14 Electronic kiosk is one form of
(A) Non store retailing
(B) Supermarket
(C) Discount retailing
(D) Limited line retailing
(1)
Q#15 The practice of cutting inventories to absolute minimum levels and requiring vendors to
deliver the items as they are needed in the production process is known as:
(A) Next time in (NTI)
(B) Just-in-time (JIT)
(C) It’s about time (IAT)
(D) One-more-time (OMT)
(1)
Q#16 This is where the perception on the part of a channel member is that its goal attainment
is being impeded by another, with stress or tension the result:
(A) Channel conflict
(B) Channel communication
(1)
Page 3 of 4
(C) Customer conflict
(D) Channel relationships
Q#17 Which of the following means placing your product or service in as many outlets or
locations as possible, to maximize the opportunity for customers to find the good or
service?
(A) Intensive distribution
(B) Exclusive distribution
(C) Direct distribution
(D) Selective distribution
(1)
Q#18 Which function gives the “time utility”?
(A) Risk bearing
(B) Financing
(C) Warehousing
(D) Transportation
(1)
Q#19 A nursery, lounge, and benches are part of a store's:
(A) Display space
(B) Non- display space
(C) Customer space
(D) Selling space
(1)
Q#20 A stores physical characteristic that project an image and draw customers make up its:
(A) General interior
(B) Self-concept
(C) Overall retail image
(D) atmosphere
(1)
Page 4 of 4
Part II Subjective type questions (20 Marks)
Q # 1 If a retailer has a new 10-year store lease, does this mean the next time it studies the
characteristics of its trading area should be 5 years from now? Explain your answer.
5
Q # 2 Comment on this statement: “The quality of store maintenance efforts affects consumer
perceptions of the retailer, the life span of facilities, and operating expenses.”
5
Q # 3 Why would a retailer use mystery shoppers rather than other forms of observations? Are
there any instances when you would not recommend their use? Why or why not?
5
Q # 4
Case Study
Star retail India Ltd (SRIL) is now emerging as India’s first hyper market chain. Hyper
markets are essentially discount stores. The SRIL hyper markets stores are expected to
offer the products that are 25-31 percent lesser than the market price. SRIL calls its hyper
markets as Star Bazaar. An ambience that attracts the family as a whole is what SRIL
aims at in the Star Bazaar. Modelled along the lines of global hyper market chains like
Wal-Mart, the star Bazaar will stock several product categories. The present estimate is
that it will stock close to 1.5 lac items across 20 product categories including utensils,
pharmaceuticals, electric items, hardware and food and provisions. SRIL is developing
major shopping malls in Bazaar store was opened sq ft space network of Star Bazaar in
all country. SRIL’s first star in Hyderabad. It has 60000 through its hyper market
endeavor, SRIL is all set run Indian’s biggest retail stores in different cities in terms of
space occupied. All the mall owners now view the SRIL hyper market chain as attractive
anchor tenants for their malls.
Q.1 Do you think hyper markets would be effective in the Indian context? Substantiate.
5
Page 1 of 5
Seat No. _________
GANPAT UNIVERSITY
M.B.A. SEMESTER- IV EXAMINATION
APRIL-JUNE 2020
IVA07SFM STRATEGIC FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
TIME: 2 HRS. Marks: 40
INSTRUCTION:
Right hand side indicates marks.
Give appropriate example when needed
Section I (MCQ) – 20 minutes (20 Marks)
1 Which organization level is responsible for the formulation of a multifunctional
strategy for a single industry or product-market area?
Corporate level
Multifunctional level
Business level
Multi-industrial level
1
2 Which of the following is not included in strategic management?
Providing and organizing the resources required.
Analyzing company’s options by matching its resources with external
environment.
Identifying the most desirable strategy.
Setting long-term objectives.
1
3 What comprises the fundamental ends and means of an organization?
Planning.
Objective.
Strategy.
Staffing.
1
4 Which of the following reveals a firm’s financial risk?
Leverage ratios.
Liquidity ratios.
Activity ratios.
Profitability ratios.
1
5 What is the clear indication of a firm’s ability to satisfy the principal claims and
desires of the employees and stockholders?
1
Page 2 of 5
Profitability.
Liquidity.
Company’s mission statement.
Debt-equity ratio.
6 Which companies have their origin in a country and operate with their
subsidiaries in other countries in a competitive environment?
Global companies.
Multinational companies.
International companies.
Domestic companies.
1
7 In which industry is competition within the industry essentially segmented from
country to country?
Multi-domestic industries.
Multi-national industries.
Global industries.
International industries.
1
8 What brings the organization and external environment together?
Superior customer service.
Research and development.
Advertising.
Marketing.
1
9 Which of the following is not a growth strategy?
Horizontal integration.
Vertical integration.
Divestiture.
All three options
1
10 Which category represents the best long run opportunities in the firm’s
portfolio?
Cash cows.
Stars.
Question marks.
Dogs.
1
11 At which stage is an industry known as the embryonic industry?
Growing stage.
Beginning stage.
1
Page 3 of 5
Mature stage.
Declining stage.
12 How often should strategic-management activities be performed?
Annually.
Daily.
Quarterly.
Continuously.
1
13 The three stages of strategic management are:
Strategy formulation, strategy implementation, and strategy execution
Strategy formulation, strategy implementation, and strategy evaluation
Strategy formulation, strategy execution, and strategy assessment
Strategy assessment, strategy execution, and strategy evaluation
1
14 Which of the following is true? if a company has total assets worth Rs.100 lakh,
financed by means of equity Rs.70 lakh (book value) and 10% debt of Rs.30
lakh (book value) at the end of year 1. In the second year, the company gains
Rs.12 lakh on assets. (Ignore taxes).
The ROA is 11%.
The ROE is 9%.
The ROE is 12.85%.
The ROA is 9%.
1
15 Manager takeover defenses include
Greenmail, poison pills, and white knights
White knights, golden parachutes, and poison pills
Poison pills, dark knights, and golden parachutes
Golden parachutes, greenmail, and poison pills
1
16 Which of the following is not recommended for effective board governance?
Highly diverse background of board members.
Establishment of formal processes for the board’s performance evaluation.
Ensure the CEO is also designated at the position of board chair.
Strengthen internal management and accounting control systems.
1
17 The market required rate of return depends on
The present value of future cash flows
The yield to maturity
The markets perceived level of risk associated with the individual security
The valuation of the financial asset
1
Page 4 of 5
18 A decision tree analysis
Should be the sole input for the decision making process
Is more accurate than simulation technique
Is a form of simulation analysis
Lays out the sequence of decisions and presents a graphical comparison
1
19 A growth firm in a stable industry can normally absorb how much debt
compared to a firm in a cyclical industry?
More debt.
Less debt.
Almost the same amount of debt.
None
1
20 According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) model, all fairly priced
securities have
Positive betas
Positive alphas
Negative betas
Zero alphas.
1
Section II (Descriptive) – 1 hour and 40 minutes (20 Marks)
Q#1 List out different corporate restructuring strategies.
(4)
Q#2 Distinguish between Acquisition, Joint Venture and Strategic Alliances.
(4)
Q#3 Purchase price, stock = Rs.100
Purchase price, Assets = Rs.100
Liabilities of seller = Rs.25
Basis in asset (seller) = 60
Basis in shares (Seller) = Rs.50
Corporate Tax = 40 percent
Individual Tax = 25 percent
Applicable discount factor = 10 percent
If tax benefit spread over 15 years what is PV of that? You are also required to
calculate new proceeds to seller.
(4)
Q#4 Investment Plan = Rs.108 Lakh
Cost of capital = 16 percentage (8)
Page 5 of 5
Cost of debt = 20 percentage
Depreciation rate = 25 percentage
Tax rate = 35 percentage
Alternative-I
Flat rate = 16 percentage
Monthly Installments = 36
Down payment = 20 percentage with SV = Rs. 33 Lakh at the end of 5
years
Alternative-II
Lease rental = Rs.28 ptpm in advance for 5 years period
Method for financial charges is SOYD/EIR
You are required to suggest whether company should go for alternative I or II
for Rs.108 Lakh of investment plan.
END OF PAPER
Page 1 of 4
Seat No.__________
GANPAT UNIVERSITY ONLINE M. B. A. SEMESTER- IV EXAMINATION
MAY-JUNE 2020
IVA08IMA INSURANCE MANAGEMENT
TIME: 2 HRS. WT.: 40 Marks
Part I MCQ (20 Marks)
1. General Insurance policies are issued for a period of
a) 1 year
b) 2 year
c) 10 year
d) 4 year
2. ________ was the first Indian Insurance Company a) Bombay Mutual Assurance Society Ltd.
b) Bombay Insurance Society Ltd.
c) Insurance Regulatory Development Authority
d) General Insurance Corporation
3. Risk in insurance is evaluated on the basis of ________ theory
a) Variability
b) Contingency
c) Probability
d) All
4. .………….are the middlemen in the healthcare delivery chain in insurance
sector.
a) surveyors
b) loss assessors
c) brokers
d) TPAs
5. Which of the following terms matches closest with ‘Foreclosure’?
a) Surrender Value
b) Nominee
c) Death Claim
d) Maturity Claim
6. Compared to the premium for a Whole Life plan, the premium for an
Endowment plan will be ____________ for the same age
a) more
b) less
c) the same
d) double
7. The principle of average applies when the value is _____________ in the
proposal
a) Negligible
b) Understated
c) Overstated
d) Not ascertainable
Page 2 of 4
8. ……………is insurance companies tying up with banks to sell insurance
products.
a) franchising
b) merger
c) bancassurance
d) insuranced linked banking
9. Which of the following insurance contract is not based on the
principle of indemnity.
a) Fire insurance
b) Marine insurance
c) Life insurance
d) All
10. __________ in insurance, is the splitting or spreading of risk among multiple parties.
a) Coinsurance
b) Reinsurance
c) Blanket Bond
d) Blanket Assign
11. …………are those where a part of the premium is charged for the risk cover
and the rest is invested in selected mutual funds as per the choice of the investor.
a) mutual fund insurance
b) unit-linked insurance
c) double insurance
d) partial insurance
12. …………….principle means that the insured is not entitled to make a profit
on his loss.
a) subrogation
b) causa proxima
c) indemnity
d) uberrima fides
13. TPA is licenced by the
a) Insurance company
b) Surveyor
c) Central Government
d) IRDA
14. The non-life insurance business was nationalised and the General Insurance Corporation of India
with its 4 subsidiaries was formed in the year________.
a) 1970
b) 1971
c) 1972
d) 1973 15. Which of the following terms matches closest with ‘Family Floater’?
a) Health insurance
b) Property insurance
c) Accidental injury
d) Consequential loss
16. The Indian Life Assurance Companies Act was passed in which year to regulate life insurance
business in India?
a) 1930
b) 1919
c) 1912
d) 1925
Page 3 of 4
17. A person with expertise in measurement and management of risk and uncertainty in insurance
business is known as ________
a) Actuary
b) Insurer
c) Agent
d) Claimant
18. The Insurance plan under which a number of employees and their dependents are insured under a
single policy is known as____________?
a) Co Insurance
b) Double Insurance
c) Self Insurance
d) Group insurance 19. The Bombay Mutual Assurance Society Ltd. formed in ________
a) 1970
b) 1960
c) 1865
d) 1870
20. ___________is the maximum amount an insurance company will pay if an insured asset is deemed a
total loss.
a) Insurance value
b) actual value
c) replacement value
d) guaranteed replacement cost
Part II Subjective type questions (20 Marks)
Q # 1 Suppose Mr. X had taken insurance for a car and the same car is parked on the roadside
for a sometime and one truck crushed the car due to negligence. Insurance company pays
Mr. X for the loss suffered due to accident. In the court the suit is filed against the truck
owner to recover the loss and proceeding happen on petition. It is proved in the court that
it was negligence on the part of the truck driver so the truck owner is liable for the loss
suffered due to accident. Kindly suggest that who will be eligible to receive the money
from the truck owner? (Mr. X or Insurance company). Justify your answer with
applicable principle of Insurance.
4
Q # 2 Mr. X had taken a life insurance policy on the 1st May 2019 in India. Thus, his renewal
premium was due on 1st May 2020.Now, Mr. X met with an accident on the 5
th May 2020
and expired 6th
May 2020 before he could pay his premium. In this case, will his nominee
get the Sum Assured? Please justify your answer.
4
Page 4 of 4
Q # 3 Shri Suresh was staying with his wife and son. An insurance agent visited him offering
health insurance. Suresh indicated that he wanted to take health insurance for all the
members of his family. He also wanted to take a policy for his good neighbour. Kindly
suggest whether he can take insurance for his good neighbor. Kindly justify your answer
4
Q # 4 “life insurance is insurance against dying to soon and endowment insurance is insurance
against living too long”. Explain
4
Q # 5 Suppose Mr. Y had purchased fire insurance policy of his shop for sum assurance
Rs.30,00,000 on 1st November 2019. Mr. Y sold of his shop to Mr. Z after 4 months of
purchasing fire insurance. Due to short circuit fire broke out in the shop and there is loss
by fire Rs.5,00,000 on 1st May 2020. Under the given situation, who is eligible to receive
money explain.
4
End of Paper
Page 1 of 4
Seat No.__________
GANPAT UNIVERSITY ONLINE M. B. A. SEMESTER- IV REGULAR EXAMINATION
MAY-JUNE 2020
IVA08MHS MANAGING HOSPITALITY SERVICES
TIME: 2 HRS. WT.: 40 Marks
Part I MCQ (20 Marks)
Q#1 A primary reason hospitality employees and businesses join professional or trade
organizations is to:
(A) increase employee productivity
(B) obtain further education and certification.
(C) qualify for additional government funding.
(D) develop promotional efforts and materials
(1)
Q#2 If a hotel is trying to predict future revenue generated for hotel bookings, which of the
following sources of secondary data would be most useful:
(A) Frequent guests' personal income data
(B) Guest surveys about future travel plans
(C) Previous fulfilled hotel reservations
(D) Guest surveys on service quality
(1)
Q#3 One of the reasons why a chain of hotels might analyze and interpret the marketing
information contained in databases is to
(A) Survey guests
(B) Tabular findings
(C) Compare variables
(D) Organize products
(1)
Q#4 Customer relations skills such as courtesy and friendliness should be emphasized
during a business's
(A) facilities design.
(B) Hiring process
(C) Market process
(D) Technology planning
(1)
Q#5 A small, local restaurant has decided to advertise its elegant atmosphere and qualified
wait staff. This approach is an example of __________ marketing
(A) Service
(B) Mass
(C) Product
(D) Target
(1)
Q#6 Wal-Mart, Domino's Pizza, and Avis Rent-a-Car are examples of
(A) Industrial distributors
(B) Agents
(C) Wholesalers
(D) Retailers
(1)
Q#7 A restaurant wants to predict how their customers will react to a new menu. What type
of relationship should the restaurant mine from blogs?
(A) Classes
(B) Clusters
(C) Associations
(1)
Page 2 of 4
(D) Sequential patterns
Q#8 A business that encourages its workers to give input on issues affecting the company is
using
(A) Quality of work life
(B) Motivation
(C) Specialization
(D) Participative decision-making
(1)
Q#9 A hotel restaurant manager was reviewing an invoice from a food supplier and noticed
that the hotel was charged for two cases of ketchup that the restaurant did not order nor
receive. In this situation, the invoice helped the manager identify a(n)
(A) incorrect discount rate.
(B) product-quality issue.
(C) billing error
(D) duplicate order
(1)
Q#10 One way for a hospitality business to obtain current information in a cost-effective and
efficient manner is by
(A) developing a survey
(B) interviewing experts.
(C) accessing an Internet search engine.
(D) reviewing archived journals
(1)
Q#11 The simplest form of distribution channel, providing direct access to tourism suppliers,
would be classified as
(A) two level distribution channel
(B) one level distribution channel
(C) three level distribution channel
(D) traditional distribution channel
(1)
Q#12 Win-win situations for both tourism customers and suppliers are created through a
process called
(A) Global distribution system
(B) Personal selling
(C) Customer relationship management
(D) Dynamic packaging
(1)
Q#13 Domestic tourism embraces those travelling
(A) Outside their own country
(B) Within their own country
(C) To overseas islands
(D) On overseas cruises
(1)
Q#14 Jenna is a social media coordinator for a boutique hotel. What is one task she should be
sure to do every day?
(A) Respond to customer inquiries
(B) Engage with community influencers
(C) Add 1,000 new followers
(D) Define her target audience
(1)
Q#15 ___________________department is responsible for the cleanliness, maintenance, and
aesthetic standard of the hotel.
(A) Food Production
(B) Housekeeping
(C) F&B
(D) Front office
(1)
Q#16 What type of channel power does franchising represent in the hospitality and tourism
industry?
(A) Legitimate
(B) Coercive
(1)
Page 3 of 4
(C) Expert
(D) Reward
Q#17 Two additional variables to explain service marketing along with product marketing are
(A) Physical evidence and process
(B) Placement and packaging
(C) Place and Publicity
(D) Partnership and Positioning
(1)
Q#18 Which one is not part of Guest experience?
(A) Service product
(B) Service setting
(C) Service delivery
(D) Product positioning
(1)
Q#19 Casino Hotels are
(A) Located in the mountains
(B) Hotel with Gambling facilities
(C) Located in downtown or business districts
(D) Located near airports
(1)
Q#20 “Partie” system is an organizational structure for
(A) Dividing the housekeeping department into various sections
(B) Dividing the front office department into various sections
(C) Dividing the food and beverage service department into various sections
(D) Dividing the kitchen into various sections
(1)
Page 4 of 4
Part II Subjective type questions (20 Marks)
Q # 1 When a consumer dines at an upscale restaurant, what factors determine whether the
consumer feels that he or she got a fair value? How does the perception of value differ
when that same consumer dines at a fast food restaurant?
5
Q # 2 What are internal and interactive marketing? Give an example of how a specific firm or
organization might use these concepts to increase effectiveness of its services. How might
these concepts be linked to service differentiation?
5
Q # 3 “Applying yield management improvises the co-ordination between front office and sales
department”. Justify.
5
Q # 4
Case Study
Reorganization in a Multibrand Company When Jon Luther was appointed the new chief executive of Allied Domecq Quick
Service Restaurants (now named Dunkin’ Brands, Inc.), one of the first things that he did
was to change the way that the company was organized to better suit corporate objectives.
Allied Domecq QSR was a division of Allied Domecq PLC, a global food and beverage
company based in the United Kingdom. ADQSR had three concepts for which Luther
oversaw: Dunkin’ Donuts, Baskin-Robbins, and Togo’s. (Togo’s was sold in 2007.) One
of the strengths of the company was the synergies that the different concepts had with
one another since each commands a separate “day part.” Luther was attracted to the new
position, after years with Popeyes, largely because of the portfolio of concepts and the
potential to make them work together as larger units. This has resulted in “combos” or
even “trombos,” where the different brands are situated together. The organizational
changes Luther made were at both the corporate level and among the concepts. At the
corporate level, Luther created a “leadership team” of 15 executives whose
responsibilities it was to oversee ADQSR’s business strategy, operational excellence, and
concept and menu development.1 Among other things, the team was charged with
reenergizing the concepts and growing the company, focusing on new markets. Changes
were also made with the way that the different concepts were managed—from a market-
based organization to a brand-based organization. The company is now divided into
domestic and international divisions, and within each of those there are “concept officers”
for each of the two brands. This latest reorganization reminds us that a company’s form
of organization is, in many ways, a management tool. As such, it is open to change in
order to achieve a particular result. In this case, each brand needs its own development,
so a centralized organization is less appropriate than one that gives the people responsible
for each brand more opportunity to innovate.
Q. Explain salient features of the case.
1. “Allied Domecq Quick Service Restaurants Names Executive Team to Lead Newly Restructured
Organization,” Press Release, September 17, 2003, and www.dunkinbrands.com, December 4, 2009.
5
