Flight Planning Exam 2

Flight Planning Exam 2, 60 questions, 3hrs 1. An aircraft takes off from an airfield at 1500ft amsl and climbs to

FL75. The QNH is 1023mb, assuming 1mb = 30ft, how far does the aircraft climb?

(a) 6300ft (b) 5700ft (c) 7500ft (d) 6000ft

2. An aircraft overhead position A flying at 440kts TAS with a wind

component of +30kts is estimating crossing position B at 1200 UTC. At 1115 UTC, ATC instruct the pilot to cross position B at 1155 UTC. Assuming the pilot makes an immediate speed correction, the required TAS is:

(a) 500kts (b) 380kts (c) 530kts (d) 480kts

3. Referring to Chart ED6, the distance in nautical miles between

OFFENBURG airfield (N4827 E00755) and ERBACH airfield (N4820 E00955) is:

(a) 80nms (b) 92nms (c) 148nms (d) 86nms

4. The still air distance in a descent from FL180 is 30nm and the time

taken is 10 minutes. What is the ground distance covered if the mean wind component during the descent is 30kts tail wind?

(a) 30nm (b) 35nm (c) 25nm (d) 40nm

5. Referring to Chart ED6, the frequency of the MUNICH VORDME

beacon (N4811 E01149) frequency is:

(a) 108.6 (b) 113.6 (c) 112.3 (d) 116.0

Bristol Groundschool Flight Planning Exam 2

6. Utilizing the MRTJ planning chart Fig 4.3.5 (Step climb optimized planning) assuming a sector distance of 2200nm, a mean tailwind component of 50kts and brake release weight of 60000kgs, the sector fuel and time, in ISA conditions, are:

(a) 11200kgs / 5hrs (b) 12400kgs / 5.2hrs (c) 11200kgs / 4.7hrs (d) 11800kgs / 5.5hrs

7. Utilizing the MRTJ planning chart Fig 4.3.5 (Step climb optimized

planning), a 20º C increase in temperature would increase/decrease a 5hr trip time by the following percentage:

(a) 6% increase (b) 6% decrease (c) 8% increase (d) 8% decrease

8. From the simplified flight planning charts for the MRJT, using the

appropriate FIG 4.3, calculate the trip fuel required using the following data:

0.78M cruise at FL 310 Ground distance 2000nms 50kts head wind Landing mass 50000kgs

(a) 14000 kgs (b) 14400 kgs (c) 14700 kgs (d) 13400 kgs

9. The final fuel reserve for a reciprocating engine aircraft should be:

(a) Sufficient to fly for 45 minutes. (b) 5% of trip fuel. (c) Sufficient to fly for 30 minutes (d) An amount of fuel not less than that required to fly for 15

minutes at holding speed at 1500ft above destination airfield.


10. Referring to the Flight Planning manual for the SEP example aircraft, assuming the following data:

Wt 3663lbs before engine start Initial fuel 74 US gal Take off from a sea level aerodrome Full throttle/2300RPM Pressure alt 9000ft ISA

The still air range that could be achieved is:

(a) 860nm (b) 817nm (c) 901nm (d) 876nm

11. Refer to chart ED6, the navigation aid at MEMMINGEN (N4759 E01015) is:

(a) VOR/DME (b) TACAN (c) VOR/NDB (d) VOR

12. Refer to chart ED6, the airfield type and runway surface at

ALLENSTADT (N4750 E01052) are:

(a) Civil / Hard runway (b) Civil / Grass runway (c) Military / Hard runway (d) Military / Grass runway

13. How long before flight should an ATS Flight Plan be submitted for a

scheduled flight under IFR?

(a) 60 mins before block time. (b) 30 mins before block time (c) 60 mins before take off. (d) 30 mins before take off.

14. When submitting an ATS Flight Plan, the letter ‘M’ in ITEM 9 referring

to wake turbulence refers to an aircraft with a maximum certified take-off weight of:

(a) less than 7000 kgs (b) greater than 7000 kgs but less than 136000 kgs (c) greater than 136 000 kgs (d) either b or c


15. When departure of a flight in controlled airspace is delayed, the ATS flight plan must be amended or resubmitted if that delay exceeds:

(a) 30 mins (b) 60 mins (c) Original departure time (d) 120 mins

16. A flight to be made from Bristol to Edinburgh on a repetitive flight plan

is to be re-routed to Glasgow because of weather. The change in details must be made by:

(a) Resubmitting a new flight plan (b) Any means to an appropriate agency, but at least 30mins before

departure (c) Any means to an appropriate agency, but at least 10mins before

departure (d) Canceling the RPL, and submitting a new ATS flight plan

60mins before departure. 17. When completing an ATS Flight Plan, under ITEM 10, standard

COM/NAV equipment ‘S’ includes:

(a) VHF RT (b) VHF and UHF RT (c) VHF, UHF and HF RT (d) UHF RT

18. Under ITEM 15 of an ATS Flight Plan, an intended change of level to

FL350 is planned at N4800 E01000, speed is to remain unchanged at 500kts TAS. This should be entered as:

(a) 4800N1000E/N500FL350 (b) 48N010E/N0500F350 (c) 48N010E/F350 (d) N48E010/N0500FL350

19. The trip time for an IFR flight has been calculated as 2hrs. Trip fuel is

226 US Gallons and taxy fuel is 5 US Gallons. Aircraft Reserve fuel has been calculated as 25% of trip fuel. The endurance that should be entered under ITEM 19 of the ATS Flight Plan is:

(a) 0250 (b) 0230 (c) 0300 (d) 0025

20. When completing an ATS flight plan, under ITEM 13, the departure

time should be the estimated:

(a) Block time. (b) Take off time. (c) Engine start up time. (d) Doors close time.


21. Referring to chart 5AT(HI), the initial true course routing from Sola (N5852 E00538) to Keflavik (N6400 W02240) is 304º T. The initial Grid course is:

(a) 304ºG (b) 307ºG (c) 299ºG (d) 310ºG

22. Referring to chart E(HI)4, the track distance when routing from

Midhurst (N5103 W00037) to Veule (N4951 E00037) is:

(a) 61nm (b) 86nm (c) 64nm (d) 41nm

23. Referring to chart E(HI)5, when flying from ITALY to the UK, for the

section of route from TRAIDINGEN (N4741 E00826) to COULOMMIERS (N4850 E00309), a correct entry in ITEM 15 of the ATS Flight Plan could read:

(a) TRA UG42 LUL UG4 TRO UB37 CLM (b) TRA UG42 HOC UG43 RLP UG400 TRO UB37 CLM (c) TRA UG42 HOC UG43 MOROK UG434 ROLEX UG400 TRO

UB37 CLM (d) TRA UG4 TRO UB37 CLM

24. Referring to the significant weather chart at Annex A, when routing

from overhead Bahrain (N26 E050) to Tehran (N36 E051), the most accurate description of the significant weather to be encountered at FL330 is:

(a) Isolated embedded CB, moderate airframe icing and clear air

turbulence. (b) The flight will pass through a westerly jetstream of 100kts, light

airframe icing. (c) The flight will pass through a westerly jetstream of 130kts, light

clear air turbulence. (d) The flight will pass through a westerly jetstream of 130kts,

moderate occasionally severe clear air turbulence. 25. Referring to the significant weather chart at Annex A, possible flight

hazards in the vicinity of Bangkok (N14 E100) are:

(a) Isolated Cumulus clouds. (b) Isolated CB with associated precipitation. (c) Isolated CB with associated clouds and icing. (d) Isolated embedded CB with Moderate or Severe Turbulence and

Icing.


26. Referring to the significant weather chart at Annex A, when routing from overhead significant weather likely to be encountered overhead Dacca (N23 E 090) to Baghdad (N3300 E04400) the most significant en route weather is:

(a) Moderate, occasionally severe clear air turbulence. (b) Light, occasionally moderate airframe icing. (c) A strong westerly jetstream up to 140kts, initially moderate, but

later occasionally severe clear air turbulence; approaching Baghdad moderate to severe icing and turbulence in isolated embedded CB.

(d) Isolated embedded CB, moderate or severe turbulence and icing. 27. Referring to the significant weather chart at Annex A, overhead

Rangoon (N17 E096), the following statement is true:

(a) The 0ºC isotherm is at 5000ft. (b) The 0ºC isotherm is at 3500ft. (c) The tropopause is at FL500. (d) The tropopause is at FL450 in isolated embedded CB clouds.

28. The forecast for EHRD shown below is valid for a flight landing at the

following time:

EHRD 131049Z 131812 28012KT 9999 FEW015 SCT020 BECMG 1922 27017KT TEMPO 2012 7000 -SHRA FEW008 SCT013CB BKN018 PROB30 TEMPO 2109 28020G30KT 4500 -SHRA SCT008 SCT012CB BKN014=

(a) A flight landing on the 13th at 1049Z. (b) A flight landing on the 13th at 1200Z. (c) A flight landing on the 14th at 1800Z (d) A flight landing on the 14th at 0600Z.

29. Given the following forecast, the most likely cloud and visibility

conditions for an arrival at EHRD on the 13th at 2200 are:

EHRD 131049Z 131812 28012KT 9999 FEW015 SCT020 BECMG 1922 27017KT TEMPO 2012 7000 -SHRA FEW008 SCT013CB BKN018 PROB30 TEMPO 2109 28020G30KT 4500 -SHRA SCT008 SCT012CB BKN014=

(a) Scattered at 800ft, scattered at 1200ft, broken at 1400ft, 4500m (b) Few at 800ft, scattered at1300ft, broken at 1800ft, 7000m (c) Few at 1500ft, scattered at 2000ft, 7000m (d) Few at 1500ft, scattered at 2000ft, better than 10kms


30. Given the following forecast, the worst cloud and visibility conditions forecast for an arrival at EIDW on the 14th at 0400Z are:

EIDW 130400Z 131206 32010KT 9999 SCT020 PROB30 TEMPO 1218 SCT018CB BECMG 0306 VRB03KT PROB30 TEMPO 0406 0300 FG BKN001=

(a) Scattered at 2000ft, better than 10kms. (b) Scattered at 1800ft, 3000m. (c) Broken at 1000ft, 3000m (d) Broken at 100ft, 300m

31. Given the following forecast, the forecast cloud and visibility conditions

for an arrival at EHAM on the 16th at 2100are:

EHAM 161036Z 161812 06015KT 9999 SCT020 BKN045 BECMG 1821 6000 -RADZ SCT010 BKN015 BECMG 2124 3000 RADZ BKN007 BKN010 PROB30 TEMPO 0409 2000 BKN005 BECMG 0810 6000 NSW SCT010 BKN025=

(a) Scattered at 2000ft, broken at 4500ft, better than 10kms (b) Broken at 700ft, broken at 1000ft, 3000m. (c) Scattered at 1000ft, broken at 2500ft, 6000m. (d) Scattered at 1000ft, broken at 1500ft, 6000m.

32. Refer to the following forecast, the most likely wind and visibility

conditions forecast for an arrival at LFPO at 1100Z on the 17th are:

LFPO 161100Z 161812 16008KT 9999 SCT035TCU BKN100 TEMPO 1803 16015G25KT 7000 -SHRA SCT015 BKN030TCU PROB30 TEMPO 1802 5000 -TSRA SCT010 BKN025CB BECMG 0204 SCT030 SCT050 BECMG 0608 20008KT TEMPO 0812 20015G25KT 8000 -SHRA BKN030TCU=

(a) 160º / 08kts, better than 10kms (b) 160º / 15 Gusts 25kts, 7000m (c) 200º / 08kts, better than 10kms. (d) 200º / 15 Gusts 25kts, 8000m

33. Refer to chart E(HI)5, the most likely acceptable available routing

available from overhead MELUN (N4827 E00249) to TORINO (N4455 E00752), on leaving the Paris TMA and climbing to FL 290, is:

(a) MEL UG434 ROLEX UB4 SPR UA1 TOP (b) MEL DCT DIJ UB37 BANKO UA1 TOP (c) MEL UB25 MOU UG32 TOP (d) MEL UB25 MOU UA3 LESPI UB25 TOP


34. Refer to chart E(HI)5, when routing from LESPI (N4607 E00358) to TORINO (N4455 W00752) the ground distance is:

(a) 126 nm (b) 116 nm (c) 178 nm (d) 219nm

35. Referring to chart E(HI)4/5, routing from MIDHURST (N5103 W00037)

to ORTAC (N5000 W00200) on airway UR1, the next available level above FL290 is:

(a) FL310 (b) FL370 (c) FL 330 (d) FL 350

36. Refer to chart E(HI)4/5, the track distance between MIDHURST

(N5103 W00037) and MANTES (N4858 E00129) is:

(a) 124 nm (b) 149 nm (c) 106 nm (d) 86 nm

37. Refer to chart E(HI)5, the navigation aid at OSTIA (N4148 E01214) is:

(a) VOR (b) VOR/DME (c) VOR/DME/NDB (d) VOR/NDB

38. Referring to chart E(LO)1, when routing on airway A25 between

BRECON (N5143 W00316) and WALLASEY (N5323 W00308) the Minimum En-Route altitude (MEA) at 1200Z is:

(a) FL110 (b) FL70 (c) FL80 (d) FL90

39. Referring to the STAR charts for ZURICH, the minimum safe sector

altitude on a CANNE 1Z arrival is:

(a) 4200ft (b) 5300ft (c) 4400ft (d) 8600ft


40. Referring to the SID charts for ZURICH, on a ZUE 7W departure, aircraft should cross ZUE VOR/DME at or above:

(a) FL 80 (b) 6000ft (c) 3500ft. (d) 5000ft.

41. Referring to the ZURICH ILS Rwy 16 and JAA Minimums charts, as

required, the decision altitude for a Rwy 16 LOC only approach is:

(a) 1590 ft (b) 1830 ft (c) 1490 ft (d) 2400 ft.

42. Referring to the PARIS CDG approach charts, the Decision Altitude for

a CAT I ILS Rwy 10 is:

(a) 660 ft (b) 538 ft (c) 571 ft (d) 690 ft

43. Referring to the Paris Charles-De-Gaulle approach charts for an ILS

Rwy 27, the missed approach fix is defined as:

(a) CRL D31.0 / R-289 (b) CRL D26.0 / R-280 (c) CGN R-308 (d) CRL TAC.

44. Referring to the Paris Charles-De-Gaulle approach chart for an ILS

Rwy 09, the TCH 54´ on the Glideslope profile refers to:

(a) Touchdown height of 54ft (b) Missed approach procedure minimum 54ft (c) Threshold crossing height 54ft (d) Touchdown height 54ft above published airport elevation

45. Referring to the Paris Charles-De-Gaulle approach charts for an ILS

Rwy 09, the transition level is:

(a) FL30 (b) 4000ft (c) Notified by Air Traffic Control (d) 3629ft


46. Referring to the Paris Charles-De-Gaulle Radar Guidance Zone chart (10-1R), the minimum altitude at PONTOISE VOR is:

(a) 3500 ft (b) 2500 ft (c) 2000 ft (d) 3000 ft

47. Referring to the MRJT en-route climb tables, the mean TAS and still

air distance taken for a climb from SL to FL 310, assuming a brake release mass of 56000kgs and ISA conditions, are:

(a) 366 kts / 74 nm (b) 374 kts / 79 nm (c) 381 kts / 84 nm (d) 390 kts / 106 nm

48. Referring to the MRJT en-route climb tables, the time and fuel taken in

a climb from an airfield at 5000ft amsl to FL 310, assuming a brake release mass of 58000kgs and ISA+10º, are:

(a) 16 mins / 1400kgs (b) 16 mins / 1250kgs (c) 15 mins / 1300kgs (d) 15 mins / 1175kgs

49. Referring to the MRJT tables, the Long Range Cruise TAS achieved at

FL350, ISA +5º, at aircraft mass of 56000kgs, is:

(a) 430kts (b) 435kts (c) 425kts (d) 438kts

50. Referring to the MRJT Long Range Cruise tables, calculate the fuel

required for a navigation leg of 500nm ground distance, FL330, ISA+10º, mean wind component –30kts, and an aircraft start weight of 52000kgs

(a) 2820kgs (b) 2950kgs (c) 2700kgs (d) 2600kgs

51. Referring to the MRJT planning charts, when operating at Long Range

Cruise, at an altitude that is 8000ft below optimum, the percentage fuel penalty is:

(a) 4% (b) 10% (c) 1% (d) 15%


52. Referring to the MRJT charts, the fuel used and time taken in a descent from FL310 to an airfield at SL, including a straight in approach, assuming a 0.70M/280kts profile, are:

(a) 280kgs / 20 mins (b) 270kgs / 19 mins (c) 260kgs / 17 mins (d) 260kgs / 18 mins

53. Referring to the MRJT planning charts, the ground distance covered in

a descent from FL330 to SL, assuming an economy descent profile, a landing mass of 45000kgs and a mean wind component of –30kts, is:

(a) 89nm (b) 99nm (c) 80nm (d) 109nm

54. Referring to the MRJT planning charts for Critical Fuel Reserves,

assuming the following data,

Distance from Critical Point to diversion airfield 700nm Aircraft mass at Critical Point 50000kgs Mean wind component 50kts tail wind Temperature conditions ISA+10º No anti icing required Standard profile

The critical fuel reserve required is:


55. Referring to the MRJT ‘Area of Operation – Diversion Distance’ chart,

assuming the operator is cleared for 90 mins ETOPS, the furthest distance from a suitable diversion field, assuming still air and a diversion weight of 45000kgs would be:

(a) 590 nm (b) 598 nm (c) 610 nm (d) 630 nm

56. Referring to the MRJT Fuel Price Differential chart, assuming the

surplus fuel burn off figure for a trip is 12.5%, what is the break-even fuel price at destination airport given the fuel price at departure of 110 cents / gallon?

(a) 115 cents / gallon (b) 126 cents / gallon (c) 146 cents / gallon (d) 135 cents / gallon


57. Given the following Mass data, what is the maximum payload that

could be carried?

Dry Operating Mass 35000kgs Maximum Zero Fuel Mass 51300kgs Regulated Take Off Mass 62800kgs Regulated Landing Mass 54900kgs Trip Fuel 8000kgs Diversion and reserve fuel 2800kgs


58. Given the following information,

Leg distance A to B 1200nm TAS 435kts Mean wind component A to B 30kts head wind

What is the time from A at which the Point of Equal Time is passed?

(a) 95 mins (b) 83 mins (c) 105 mins (d) 70 mins

59. Given the following information, what is the distance from G to the

Point of Safe Return?

Leg distance G to H 2250nm Safe Endurance 6hrs 35mins Outbound groundspeed 465kts Homebound groundspeed 380kts

(a) 1125nm (b) 1376nm (c) 1328nm (d) 1432nm

60. Referring to the ZURICH SID charts, what is the maximum range from

the KLO VOR/DME station that the minimum safe sector altitudes apply?

(a) 20 nm (b) 25 nm (c) 30 nm (d) 40 nm


Annex A


Intentionally Blank


Flight Planning Exam 2, 60 questions, 3 hours A B C D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A B C D

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

A B C D 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40


Intentionally Blank


Answers

1 a 21 c 41 b 2 a 22 b 42 b 3 a 23 d 43 b 4 b 24 d 44 c 5 c 25 d 45 c 6 c 26 c 46 c 7 b 27 c 47 b 8 c 28 d 48 b 9 a 29 d 49 b

10 a 30 d 50 a 11 b 31 d 51 b 12 d 32 c 52 b 13 a 33 c 53 a 14 b 34 c 54 d 15 a 35 c 55 c 16 b 36 b 56 b 17 a 37 c 57 c 18 b 38 a 58 a 19 b 39 d 59 b 20 a 40 b 60 b


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Flight Planning Exam 2