Animal  Science  II  Final  Study  Guide    

Leadership/SAE    1. Content and composition of the speech is determined: A. After the speech is given. B. Before the speech is given. C. During the questioning time. D. During the oral speech. 2. Voice, stage presence, power of expression, response to questions and general effect are factors used to evaluate the: A. Audience. B. Judges. C. Oral delivery. D. Written speech. 3. When planning a speech, the speaker should consider the purpose, the occasion and the: A. Audience. B. Cost of clothes. C. Fee for speaking. D. Temperature. 4. The component of a high school agriculture education program that provides a part-time job for students to gain work experience to help in career planning is: A. Adult education. B. Classroom instruction. C. FFA. D. Supervised Agricultural Experience. 5. The leadership trait that gives the energy to do a job and the inspiration to encourage others is called: A. Courage. B. Enthusiasm. C. Honesty. D. Tact. 6. The component of the animal science instructional program that gives students an opportunity to explore interests and gain work experience is the: A. Classroom. B. FFA. C. State FFA Convention. D. Supervised Agriculture Experience. 7. A beef cattle farmer using people, resources and processes to reach a goal is: A. Managing. B. Owning. C. Planning. D. Selling.

8. Participating in FFA public speaking, extemporaneous public speaking, creed speaking, parliamentary procedure, and agricultural sales career development events and oral reasons for livestock, dairy and poultry career development events each help students develop: A. Animal science technical skills. B. Communication skills. C. Interest in animal science. D. Plant science technical skills. 9. A speech about Hereford cattle given at the annual meeting of purebred Angus cattle breeders would be inappropriate because of the: A. Audience. B. Length of the speech. C. Location. D. Speaker. 10. Placing the desires and welfare of others above yourself is a leadership quality called: A. Enthusiasm. B. Parliamentary procedure. C. Tact. D. Unselfishness. 11. The purpose of a speech that convinces people to believe or to do something is to: A. Entertain. B. Inform. C. Introduce. D. Persuade. 12. The purpose of a speech that gives knowledge or information to the audience is to: A. Entertain. B. Express anger. C. Inform. D. Persuade. 13. The leadership quality that means reliable support for an individual, group or cause is: A. Enthusiasm. B. Loyalty. C. Tact. D. Unselfishness. 14. The MOST effective way for animal science students to develop leadership qualities is through: A. Participation in FFA activities. B. Studying animal science. C. Trips to livestock farms. D. Watching videos. 15. The leadership quality of honesty is called: A. Courage. B. Enthusiasm. C. Integrity. D. Knowledge.

16. The leadership quality that causes animal science workers to be willing to proceed under difficult conditions is: A. Courage. B. Integrity. C. Public speaking. D. Tact. 17. During a meeting, one tap of the gavel: A. Calls the meeting to order. B. Calls members to stand up. C. Signifies the meeting is adjourn. D. Signifies that the members should be quiet and orderly. 18.What is the book of authority on parliamentary law? A. Career Development Events Handbook B. FFA Student Handbook C. Official FFA Manual D. Robert’s Rules of Order 19. If a member wants to improve a main motion by adding words, substituting words or striking out words, the member would move to: A. Adjourn the meeting. B. Amend the main motion. C. Refer to a committee. D. Take from the table. 20. Suzy is attending an FFA meeting and hears the gavel tap twice. This signifies: A. The meeting is adjourned. B. Get ready the meeting was called to order. C. Be quiet and orderly. D. Be seated. 21. To assure that all sides of an issue are treated fairly and that everyone has on opportunity to discuss and vote is known as: A. Parliamentary law. B. Quorum. C. Simple majority. D. Secret ballot. 22. If a member wants a small group of members to gather more information about a main motion before a vote is taken, the members, during debate on the motion, would move to: A. Amend the motion. B. Lay the motion on the table. C. Reconsider the motion. D. Refer to a committee. 23. If a member believes that a parliamentary error has been made, the member should: A. Call for a division of the assembly. B. Move to adjourn the meeting. C. Move to suspend the rules. D. Rise to a point of order.

24. The group would like to delay a motion to allow members to attend to more urgent buiness. The correct parlimentary procedure ability to use would be to: A. Lay on the table. B. Suspend the rules. C. Point of Order. D. Main motion. 25.Various numbers of taps of the gavel have different meanings, but overall the gavel is the symbol of: A. Authority. B. FFA. C. Voting. D. Weakness. 26.Voice, rising, secret ballot and roll call are the four common methods of: A. Debating motions. B. Introducing motions. C. Referring motions. D. Voting. 27.What vote is required when a motion will limit the rights of a member? A. Simple majority B. Two-thirds majority C. Unanimous favorable D. Voice 28. The type of SAE that involves exploring careers through short times spent observing, shadowing or helping is: A. Entrepreneurship. B. Placement. C. Improvement. D. Exploratory. 29. The type of SAE that requires planning, implementing, operating and assuming financial risk is: A. Entrepreneurship. B. Placement. C. Improvement. D. Experimental. 30. The type of SAE that involves a series of activities that improve the value or appearance of the place of employment, home or community is: A. Entrepreneurship. B. Placement. C. Improvement. D. Exploratory.

31. Considering one's interests, abilities, and other personal characteristics is the FIRST step in developing a: A. Career plan. B. Job application. C. Job interview. D. Resume. 32. A type of SAE that places students in jobs outside the regular school day is: A. Entrepreneurship. B. Placement. C. Improvement. D. Exploratory. 33. The type of SAE that involves planning and conducting an agricultural experiment using the scientific method is: A. Entrepreneurship. B. Placement. C. Improvement. D. Experimental. 34. One major reason for early career planning is to: A. Be in classes with your friends. B. Get early release from school. C. Take easy high school courses. D. Take the right high school courses. 35. For a school-to-work employment plan to help a student, the plan must be: A. Complex. B. Implemented C. Signed by the principal. D. Simple. 36. Because the first career choice may NOT work out, students should: A. Get angry. B. Plan for alternative careers. C. Quit school or college. D. Refuse to work. 37. After a student has evaluated his or her own interests and has narrowed the field of jobs, then the student should: A. Apply for a job. B. Complete a job application. C. Go for a job interview. D. Study the requirements of the job. 38. Mortgages that are not due this year are entered on a financial statement as: A. Current assets. B. Current liabilities. C. Non-current assets. D. Non-current liabilities.

39. If a swine producer has a $500,000 mortgage on his land and buildings, and he owes Farm Credit Service $60,000 for this year’s mortgage payment, what amount should be entered on the current liability line of the financial statement? A. $60,000.00 B. $440,000.00 C. $500,000.00 D. $560,000.00 40. On a financial statement, items that can be quickly converted to cash or that will be sold within 12 months are: A. Current assets. B. Current liabilities. C. Equity. D. Net worth. 41. On a net worth statement, net worth is the same as: A. Current assets. B. Equity. C. Inventory. D. Total liabilities. 42. If a business has $10,000 cash on hand, $25,000 in a checking account and land valued at $300,000, on which line of a financial statement should the $335,000 total be entered? A. Current assets B. Net worth C. Total assets D. Total liabilities 43. Cash and things that are owned by the individual or the business for which a financial statement is being prepared are listed as: A. Assets. B. Equity. C. Liabilities. D. Working capital. 44. If a beef farmer’s inventory shows 100 cattle worth $400 each, medicine and supplies worth $1,000 and land valued at $200,000, what amount should be entered on the non- depreciable inventory line of the financial statement? A. $400.00 B. $41,000.00 C. $200,000.00 D. $241,000.00 45. If a swine farmer’s financial statement shows total liabilities of $300,000 and a net worth of $100,000, the debt-to-equity ratio is: A. 1:1 B. 2:1 C. 3:1 D. 4:1

46. On a financial statement net worth is: A. Current assets minus current liabilities. B. Current liabilities plus current assets. C. Total assets minus total liabilities. D. Total assets plus total liabilities. 47. The part of a net worth statement that shows all debts is: A. Current liabilities. B. Debt-to-equity ratio. C. Inventory. D. Total liabilities. 48. If a poultry farm has total assets of $500,000 and total liabilities of $300,000, what number would be the correct entry on the net worth line of a financial statement? A. $200,000.00 B. $300,000.00 C. $500,000.00 D. $800,000.00 49. If a beef cattle producer has a $250,000 mortgage on his farm, and he owes Farm Credit Service $30,000 for this year’s payment, what amount should be entered on the non-current liability line of the financial statement? A. $30,000.00 B. $220,000.00 C. $250,000.00 D. $280,000.00 Anatomy/Physiology 1. Which type of tissue in the animal's body holds various tissue together such as bone? A. Muscle. B. Fluid. C. Nerve. D. Connective. 2. The major muscle that is a part of the circulatory system of animals is the: A. Heart. B. Liver. C. Pancreas. D. Stomach. 3. In addition to the functions they do in livestock, which groups of body parts supply most of the food that humans eat from livestock? A. Bones B. Internal organs C. Muscles D. Nerves

4. Which livestock part is made up of involuntary muscles? A. Ham B. Heart C. Round D. Shoulder 5. Muscles in livestock are classified as: A. Internal or external. B. Pectoral or pelvic. C. Tendons or ligaments. D. Voluntary or involuntary. 6. The type of muscle that makes up the majority of meat consumed by humans is: A. Striated. B. Smooth. C. Tendons. D. Cardiac. 7. What part of the respiratory system is responsible for the actual exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen? A. Nostrils. B. Trachea. C. Pharynx. D. Alveoli. 8. What part of the circulatory system carries blood from the heart to organs in the animal's body? A. Veins. B. Capillaries. C. Arteries. D. Heart. 9. What should an animal science student label the two large spongy organs that are part of a cow’s respiratory system? A. Arteries B. Kidneys C. Lungs D. Ovaries 10. If an animal science student were labeling a picture of a beef cattle skeleton, where would that student find the scapula? A. Front foot B. Rear foot C. Shoulder blade D. Tail 11. If an animal science student is labeling the parts of a pig’s nervous system, what is the name of the part in the center of the vertebral column that is also connected to the brain? A. Cerebellum B. Cerebrum C. Somatic nerve D. Spinal cord

12.What type of nerves allow for voluntary responses to stimuli? A. Central. B. Somatic. C. Autonomic. D. Brain. 13.What should an animal science student label the funnel-shaped, hollow, muscular organ that is the pump for the circulatory system of a cow? A. Brain B. Heart C. Liver D. Ovary 14. The group of bones that make up the front legs of livestock is called the: A. Axial skeleton. B. Cranial anatomy. C. Pectoral limb. D. Pelvic limb. 15. The group of bones that make up the rear legs of livestock is called the: A. Axial skeleton. B. Pectoral limb. C. Pelvic limb. D. Ulna. 16.Which type of bone in the animal's body provides support and is cylindrical shaped? A. Short. B. Pneumatic. C. Flat. D. Long. 17. The specialized cells that transform cartilage to bone are called: A. Tendons. B. Osteocytes. C. Ligaments. D. Oocytes. 18. Energy for muscle contractions comes from: A. Deoxyribonucleic acid. B. Adenosine triphosphate. C. Sensory neurons. D. Hormones. 19.Which animal system has the function of responding to the five senses? A. Circulatory B. Endocrine C. Nervous D. Respiratory

20. Temperature control and voice or making sounds are functions of the: A. Circulatory system. B. Hormones. C. Nervous system. D. Respiratory system. 21.Which animal system has the function of supplying oxygen to tissues and removing carbon dioxide from the body? A. Circulatory B. Endocrine C. Muscular D. Respiratory 22. The internal organ of livestock which filters waste products from the blood is the: A. Brain. B. Heart. C. Kidney. D. Stomach. 23.What part of the heart sends oxygenated blood to the various parts of the body? A. Aorta. B. Lungs. C. Pulmonary Veins. D. Left atrium. 24.Which animal system secretes hormones into the blood to travel to and stimulate certain organs to perform their specific functions? A. Circulatory B. Endocrine C. Muscular D. Skeletal 25.Which livestock system is responsible for supplying body tissues with nourishment and collecting waste materials through blood? A. Circulatory B. Endocrine C. Nervous D. Respiratory 26. The cells that conduct impulses in the nervous system are called: A. Hormones. B. Veins. C. Neurons. D. Receptors. 27.What chemical substance in the endocrine system travels through the bloodstream? A. Glands. B. Cells. C. Hormones. D. Lymph.

28. Blood from the lower part of the animal's body enters the heart through the: A. Caudal vena cava. B. Alveoli. C. Cranial vena cava. D. Lungs. 29.Which animal system plays an important role in the body functions of growth, fattening and reproduction? A. Endocrine B. Nervous C. Respiratory D. Skeletal Reproduction/Digestion 1. Accurate heat detection in cows is important because the average length of heat or estrus is about: A. 1 hour. B. 16 to 18 hours. C. 6 days. D. 10 days. 2. What structure located on an ovary is the site where ova develop? A. Corpus luteum. B. Infundibulum. C. Follicle. D. Uterus. 3. If no sperm are present during ovulation, prostaglandin stops the production of which hormone? A. Estrogen. B. Progesterone. C. Follicle Stimulating Hormone. D. Lutenizing Hormone. 4. The BEST indication that a cow is in standing heat and is ready to be bred is: A. Allowing other cows to mount. B. A marked increase in feed intake. C. An increase in milk production. D. A tendency to separate from other cows. 5. Which hormone is primarily repsonsbile for a cow displaying signs of heat? A. Estrogen. B. Progesterone. C. Follicle Stimulating Hormone. D. Lutenizing Hormone.

6. The placenta and other membranes that are expelled by the mother after the baby animal is born and will cause the mother to become sick if not expelled is called the: A. Afterbirth. B. Breach birth. C. Umbilical cord. D. Uterus. 7. What stage of parturition involves the actual birth of the fetus? A. Cleaning. B. Expulsion. C. Preparatory. D. Retention. 8. Ovulation is necessary for the animal to: A. Become pregnant. B. Digest roughages. C. Eat food. D. Resist diseases. 9. The average length of the estrus cycle for both cattle and swine is: A. 1 day. B. 21 days. C. 28 days. D. 114 days. 10.Which hormone is primarily repsonsbile for maintaining pregnancy in the animal? A. Lutenizing hormone. B. Progesterone. C. Follicle Stimulating Hormone. D. Estrogen. 11.What term describes the beginning of the digestive process when the animal graps feed to bring it into the mouth? A. Villi. B. Mastication. C. Prehension. D. Rumination. 12.What yellowish green fluid produced by the liver acts of fats and fatty acids? A. Chyme. B. Bile. C. Enzymes. D. Villi. 13. The disease ruminant animals suffer from when they swallow foreign objects such as nails or wire is called: A. Tetanus. B. Rabies. C. Hardware. D. Metallic.

14.What part of the nonruminant's digestive system is the primary site for nutrient absorption? A. Small intestine. B. Stomach. C. Large intestine. D. Esophagus. 15. Gas produced in the ruminant animal's digestive system must be expelled to prevent the animal from: A. Ruminating. B. Bloating. C. Chewing. D. Grinding. 16.Which enzyme in the stomach acts on proteins? A. Gastric lipase. B. Salivary amylase. C. Pepsin. D. Maltase. 17. The process of forcing food back up the esophagus so it can be chewed again is called: A. Mastication. B. Prehension. C. Digestion. D. Rumination. 18. If your laboratory has a pig’s internal organ that contains feed and some liquids in it, what label would you put on that organ? A. Heart B. Lungs C. Stomach D. Uterus Rations 1. Since feed costs make up about 75 percent of the total cost of raising livestock, rations should be the highest quality possible at: A. Any cost. B. High cost. C. Low cost. D. No cost. 2. Using the Pearson Square method, how many parts of 8.9 percent protein corn would be mixed with 6.1 parts of 45.8 percent protein soybean oil meal to make a 15 percent protein ration? A. 6.1 B. 15 C. 30.8 D. 100.5

3. Using the Pearson Square method, how many parts of 8.9 percent protein corn and 45.8 percent protein soybean oil meal are needed to make a 14 percent protein ration? A. 5.1 parts corn and 31.8 parts soybean oil meal B. 5.1 parts soybean oil mean and 31.8 parts corn C. 8.9 parts corn and 45.8 parts soybean meal D. 14 parts corn and 14 parts soybean oil meal 4. Using the Pearson Square method, how many pounds of 10 percent protein corn and 45.2 percent protein cotton seed meal would be mixed together to make 2000 pounds of a 15 percent protein feed? A. 10 corn and 45.2 cotton seed meal. B. 15 corn and 15 cotton seed meal. C. 1716 corn and 284 cotton seed meal. D. 2000 corn and 0 cotton seed meal. 5. Which general principle of balancing a ration most affects whether the animal will eat the feed? A. Nutrients in the ration should be balanced. B. The ration should be economical. C. The ration should be palatable. D. The ration should be slightly laxative. 6. From the table below, which nutrient requirement is NOT met by this ration? A. Bromegrass hay B. Calcium C. Corn D. Phosphorus 7. From the table below, which nutrient requirement is provided in the exact amount needed from the ration? A. Corn. B. Lysine. C. Phosphorus. D. Soybean oil meal. 8. From the table below, which nutrient requirement will have to be supplemented by a feed additive because the ration provides less than the animal needs? A. Calcium. B. Corn. C. Phosphorus. D. Soybean oil meal. 9. The rule of thumb is that a poultry ration is about: A. 1 percent of body weight. B. 5 percent of body weight. C. 10 percent of body weight. D. 25 percent of body weight.

10. A ration can have all the nutrients the animal needs in the correct quantities and proportions and still be a poor ration UNLESS it is: A. Dry. B. Expensive. C. Palatable. D. The right color. 11. Using the Pearson Square method, how many pounds of 8.9 percent protein corn and 45.8 percent protein soybean oil meal would be mixed together to make 2000 pounds of a 13 percent protein feed? A. 8.9 corn and 45.8 soybean oil meal. B. 13 corn and 13 soybean oil meal. C. 1778 corn and 222 soybean oil meal. D. 1954.2 corn and 45.8 soybean oil meal. 12.Which general principle of balancing a ration most affects the functioning of the digestive system and satisfies hunger? A. Nutrients in the ration should be balanced. B. The ration must contain dry matter or bulk. C. The ration should be economical. D. The ration should be slightly laxative. 13. From the table below, which nutrient requirement is NOT provided in a sufficient amount from the ration? A. Corn. B. Lysine. C. Phosphorus. D. Soybean oil meal. 14. Data on feed composition calculated on the basis of the average amount of moisture in the feed as it is used on the farm is: A. 100 percent dry matter basis. B. As-fed basis. C. Balanced rations. D. Feed additives. 15. From one-third to one-half of the ration fed to livestock is used for: A. Growth. B. Maintenance. C. Reproduction. D. Work. 16.Which general principle of balancing a ration makes it easier to balance nutrients? A. The ration should be bulky. B. The ration should be economical. C. The ration should be slightly laxative. D. The ration should contain a variety of feeds.

17. The rule of thumb for feeding fattening cattle is less than two pounds of air-dried roughage and two pounds of concentrates: A. Every other day. B. Per 100 pounds of body weight. C. Per cow per day. D. Twice a day. 18. Using the Pearson Square method, how many parts of 45.8 percent protein soybean oil meal would be mixed with 32.8 parts of 8.9 percent protein corn to make a 13 percent protein ration? A. 4.1 B. 13 C. 32.8 D. 45.8 19. Being bulky and succulent and containing a variety of feeds are general principles of a good ration that also affect whether the ration is: A. Balanced. B. Economical. C. Laxative. D. Palatable. 20. The first general principle of balancing rations is that the ration should: A. Contain a variety of feeds. B. Be dry. C. Be economical. D. Meet the nutritional needs. 21. The rule of thumb for feeding swine is that compared to market hogs, pigs weighing less than 50 pounds and sows that are nursing pigs require: A. Higher percent protein. B. Lower percent protein. C. More roughages. D. The same percent protein. 22.Which class of feeds has the highest percent of fiber? A. Concentrates B. Minerals C. Roughages D. Water 23. Hay, silage and pasture grasses are classified as: A. Concentrates. B. Minerals. C. Roughages. D. Vitamins. 24. From the table below, which nutrient requirement is provided in surplus from the ration? A. Calcium. B. Corn. C. Phosphorus. D. Soybean oil meal.

25. Corn and other grains are classified as: A. Concentrates. B. Feed additives. C. Minerals. D. Roughages. 26.When compared to as-fed basis, the weight of 100 percent dry matter basis will be: A. 100 percent higher. B. About the same. C. Less. D. More. 27. A ration that has all the nutrients the animal needs in the right proportions and amounts is a: A. Balanced ration. B. Dry ration. C. High protein ration. D. Maintenance ration. 28. Molding or heating may occur if feed materials are stored at: A. High moisture content. B. Low moisture content. C. No moisture content. D. Proper moisture content. 29. From the table below, which nutrient is provided in the exact amount needed from the ration? A. Calcium. B. Corn. C. Phosphorus. D. Soybean oil meal. 30. Data on feed composition calculated on the basis of all moisture removed from the feed is: A. 0 percent dry matter basis. B. 100 percent dry matter basis. C. As-fed basis. D. Balanced basis. 31. Using the Pearson Square method, how many pounds of 8.9 percent protein corn and 45.8 percent protein soybean oil meal would be mixed together to make 2000 pounds of a 14 percent protein feed? A. 0 corn and 2000 soybean oil meal. B. 0 soybean oil meal and 2000 corn. C. 276 corn and 1724 soybean oil meal. D. 1724 corn and 276 soybean oil meal. 32.Which general principle of balancing a ration considers the price per pound of energy and digestible protein? A. The ration should be economical. B. The ration should be palatable. C. The ration should be slightly laxative. D. The ration should be suited to the animal.

33.When beef cattle are put on spring pasture grass or are fed grain, Poloxaline can be used to: A. Calm animals. B. Prevent bloat. C. Prevent parasites. D. Treat worms. 34.Which rule summarizes many of the rules and procedures for properly mixing medicated feeds? A. Clean the mixer B. Keep records C. Read and follow the label D. Store additives properly 35. A major health concern of using antibiotics at low levels in livestock feed is that disease- causing microorganisms may become: A. Extinct. B. Resistant. C. Sick. D. Weak. 36. Care should be taken to prevent crushing hormone transplant pellets because crushed pellets may result in: A. Long period of effectiveness. B. Loss of implant. C. Too rapid absorption. D. Too slow absorption. 37. Great care should be taken to clean all medicated feed from the feed mixer to: A. Avoid drug contamination. B. Avoid extra feed costs. C. Keep feeder from rusting. D. Reduce odors. 38. Hitting a vein when implanting hormones can result in: A. Crushed pellets. B. Diseases. C. Loss of implant. D. Overdoses. 39.Which feed additive will suppress estrus in beef cattle heifers? A. Melengestrol (MGA) B. Monensin (Rumensin) C. Neomycin D. Tylosin (Tylan) 40.Which is an antibiotic feed additive for swine? A. Aureomycin B. MGA C. Ralgro D. Tranquilizers

41. The Federal Food and Drug Administration (FDA) requires any feed with any drug in it to be labeled as a: A. Feed additive. B. Hormone implant. C. Medicated feed. D. Poisonous substance. 42. Materials that are put in animal rations in small amounts to improve feed efficiency, promote faster gains, improve health or increases production of animal products are: A. Concentrates. B. Feed additives. C. Hormone implants. D. Roughages. 43. Uniformly mixing additives in livestock feed is necessary for all animals to: A. Get the correct amount. B. Get well. C. Grow at the same rate. D. Have parasite control. 44. The hormone implanting instrument should be pointed toward the animal’s: A. Back. B. Feet. C. Head. D. Tail. 45. In hormone implants, a dull or bent needle can cause: A. Crushed pellets. B. Diseases. C. Infections. D. Overdoses. 46. Using antibiotics and antibacterials at a lower level than would be used to treat sick animals is: A. Concentrated use. B. Subtherapeutic use. C. Supertherapeutic. D. Therapeutic use. 47. In addition to implanting, hormones can be given to animals as: A. Feed additives. B. Salt blocks. C. Vaccinations. D. Water additives. 48. The needle and the implantation site on the animal’s ear should be cleaned with alcohol to prevent: A. Crushed pellets. B. Diseases. C. Infections. D. Vein punctures.

49. On beef cattle, the hormone implanting location is on the backside of the ear in the: A. Bone tissue. B. Cartilage. C. Middle one-third of the ear. D. Largest vein. 50. The feed additive that should be selected for use when there is NO specific known disease is: A. Broad-spectrum antibiotics. B. Coccidiostats. C. Hormones. D. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics. 51. Placing the hormone implant in the ear cartilage may cause encapsulation resulting in: A. Faster-than-normal absorption. B. Loss of the implant. C. Normal absorption. D. Slower-than-normal absorption. 52. Feed additives and hormone transplants are: A. Illegal in the U.S. B. Nutrients. C. Performance inhibitors. D. Performance stimulants. 53. The PRIMARY reason for using feed additives and hormones in livestock is to: A. Decrease parasites. B. Increase profits. C. Increase reproductive performance. D. Increase selling price. 54. Organic materials inserted under the skin of a beef animal’s ear to improve performance are: A. Antibiotics. B. Feed additives. C. Hormone implants. D. Vitamins. 55.Which feed additive should be used to control worms in beef cattle or swine? A. Antibiotics B. Anthelmintics C. Hormones D. Tranquilizers 56. To prevent coccidiosis, coccidiostats are included as feed additives for: A. Beef cattle. B. Dairy cattle. C. Poultry. D. Swine.

57.Withdrawing the hormone implant needle too rapidly can result in: A. Artery punctures. B. Crushed hormone pellets. C. Infections. D. Vein punctures. 58. The greatest economic return from the use of antibiotics in swine feeds is from: A. Boars. B. Market weight hogs. C. Pigs. D. Sows. 59. How many pounds of roughage and concentrates should be fed to a 1200 lb steer that is on alfalfa hay and a corn concentrate mix once a day? A. 12 lbs roughages, 24 lbs concentrates B. 11.65 lbs roughages, 18 lbs concentrates C. 15.6 lbs roughages, 12 lbs roughages D. 18 lbs roughages, 24 lbs concentrates Evaluation 1. Raising hogs in confinement on concrete has increased the importance of: A. Breed character. B. Grazing ability. C. Loin eye area. D. Structural soundness. 2. A four-pound ready-to-cook broiler that has all the skin removed, all bones broken and both wings and the tail missing would be Grade: A. AA. B. A. C. B. D. C. 3. If a hen’s abdomen is soft and pliable and the vent is moist, bleached and enlarged, the hen is: A. About ready to start laying eggs. B. Currently laying eggs. C. NOT currently laying eggs. D. Unable to lay eggs. 4. As determined by candling, the USDA quality grade for an egg with a clean and unbroken shell, clear and firm white, yolk free of defects and air cell 1/8 inch or less is: A. AA. B. A. C. B. D. Leaker.

5. If laying hen one has pigment in the vent, hen two in the rear of the shanks, hen three in the front of the shanks and hen four on the tops of the toes, which hen has been laying the longest? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four 6. If laying hen one has pigment in the vent, hen two in the beak, hen three in the front of the shanks and hen four in the eye ring, which hen has been laying the longest? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four 7. Live broilers should be healthy and well fleshed with normal confirmation and only slight defects so that they will be Grade: A. A. B. B. C. C. D. D. 8. Although the selection of broiler chicks is an important management decision for broiler production, basically no broiler producers make this decision because: A. Broilers are grown on contract. B. Producers do not know how. C. There are no broiler chick hatcheries. D. Transporting chicks is too difficult. 9. Beef cattle characteristics such as body structure, muscling, frame size and breed character are evaluated by: A. Pedigree. B. Performance. C. Visual appraisal. D. Weight per day of age. 10. As Cheyenne evalutes a group of breeding gilts she notices an animal with a hock joint that is excessively straight. What conformation fault does this animal display? A. Post legged. B. Sickle hocked. C. Buck kneed. D. Cow hocked. 11. Compared to purebred breeders, commercial livestock producers place more emphasis on: A. Breed character. B. Color. C. Pedigree. D. Performance records.

12. A ready-to-cook 16-pound turkey has the same USDA Grade requirements as a 4-pound broiler EXCEPT the discoloration and non-breast and non-leg exposed flesh areas can be: A. Disregarded for broilers. B. Disregarded for turkeys. C. Less for turkeys. D. More for turkeys. 13. A 16-pound ready-to-cook turkey that has the wing tips and the second wing joint on both wings missing can be no higher than USDA Grade: A. A. B. B. C. C. D. D. 14.Which selection category do purebreed livestock breeders emphasize the most? A. Backfat B. Pedigree C. Performance D. Visual characteristics 15.When laying hens are evaluated, the relationship of pigment to egg laying is: A. Less pigment, less eggs. B. Less pigment, more eggs. C. More pigment, more eggs. D. No relationship. 16. As Alison evaluates an animal from the rear view, she notices the hock joints are set too close together and the hooves point away from one another. What conformation fault does this animal display? A. Post legged. B. Sickle hocked. C. Buck kneed. D. Cow hocked. 17. The exterior quality grade of eggs with foreign material sticking on the egg shells is: A. AA. B. A. C. B. D. Dirty. 18.What conformation trait from the Unified Dairy Scorecard evaluates the skeletal parts? A. Frame. B. Dairy Strength. C. Udder. D. Feet and legs.

19. The maximum missing parts that a four-pound ready-to-cook broiler can have and still be Grade A are: A. Both whole wings and tail. B. One whole wing and tail. C. Second wing joints and tail. D. Wing tips and tail. 20. Using the Punnet Square, what percent of the offspring would be white if a dominant white homozygous (WW) boar is bred to a black recessive homozygous (ww) sow? A. 0 B. 25 C. 75 D. 100 21. The gene in a pair that hides the effect of the other gene is a: A. Dominant gene. B. Homozygous gene pair. C. Punnett square. D. Recessive gene. 22. Using the Punnet Square, what percent of the offspring would be black if a white heterozygous (Ww) boar is bred to a white heterozygous (Ww) sow? A. 0 B. 25 C. 50 D. 100 23. If a polled cow bred to a polled bull produces a calf with horns, the parents’ genotypes are: A. Dominant. B. Heterozygous. C. Homozygous. D. Purebred. 24. For a cow to have horns, the gene pair must be: A. Crossbred. B. Dominant. C. Heterozygous and dominant. D. Recessive and homozygous. 25. The appearance of a new trait in the biological offspring that is NOT in the genetic makeup of the parents is a: A. Dominant gene. B. Mutation. C. Recessive gene. D. Sex-linked trait. 26. In livestock, sex-linked traits are often recessive and are covered up by: A. Dominant genes. B. Female hormones. C. Male hormones. D. Recessive genes.

27. Using the Punnet Square, what percent of calves would have horns if a homozygous polled (PP) bull were crossed with a homozygous polled (PP) cow? A. 0 B. 25 C. 75 D. 100 28. A gene pair that carries two genes for the same trait is: A. Bloodtyping. B. Expected progeny difference. C. Heterozygous. D. Homozygous. 29. A polled bull bred to a polled cow that produces a calf that has horns is an example of: A. Meiosis. B. Mitosis. C. Purebreeding. D. Recessive genes. 30. If black is dominant over red and white faces are dominant over colored faces in cattle, what color offspring would come from crossing a purebred black Angus bull with a purebred white faced red Hereford cow? A. Black all over B. Black with white face C. Red all over D. Red with white face 31. A gene pair that carries two different genes that affect a trait is: A. Bloodtyping. B. Heterozygous. C. Homozygous. D. Purebreeding. 32. After meiosis, one half the sperm carry an X chromosome, one half carry a Y chromosome and all the ova carry an X chromosome. The chromosome combination that produces a male offspring in mammals is: A. X. B. XX. C. XY. D. YY. 33. The gene in a pair that is hidden by the other gene is a: A. Dominant gene. B. Homozygous gene pair. C. Phenotype gene. D. Recessive gene.

34. The situation in which one gene does NOT completely hide the effect of the other gene in a gene pair is: A. Dominant. B. Homozygous. C. Incomplete dominance. D. Recessive. 35. The tendency for genes that are located close together on the chromosome to stay together and pass traits in groups is: A. Crossover. B. Incomplete dominance. C. Linkage. D. Mutation. 36. Based on the Punnet Square, what percent of calves would have horns if a bull with homozygous dominant genes for polled (PP) were mated with a cow with homozygous recessive genes for horned (pp)? A. 0 B. 25 C. 50 D. 100 37. Based on the Punnet Square, what percent of the calves would have horns if a bull with heterozygous genes for horns (Pp) were mated with a cow with heterozygous genes for horns (Pp)? A. 0 B. 25 C. 75 D. 100 38. The traits on the portion of the Y chromosome which does NOT link with the X chromosome in livestock are transmitted only from: A. Father to daughter. B. Father to son. C. Mother to daughter. D. Mother to son. 39.Which performance data is a measure of reproductive performance for beef cows? A. Calf crop percentage weaned B. Weaning weights adjusted to 205 days C. Weight per day gain D. Yearling 365 day weights 40.Which performance data is a measure of sow productivity? A. Adjusted backfat at 230 pounds B. Adjusted days to 230 pounds C. Number of live pigs born per litter D. Pounds of feed per pound of gain

41. In poultry performance data, a breeding test or a progeny test to determine the ability of a bird to transmit genes for desired characteristics to most of its progeny is an example of: A. Future performance. B. Past performance. C. Present performance. D. Rate of gain performance. 42.When the performance information used to select poultry breeders is the pedigree, the type of record used is: A. Future performance. B. Past performance. C. Present performance. D. Rate of gain performance 43. If the percent heritability of calving interval for a female beef cow is 10 percent, selecting females whose mother has outstanding calving interval records would affect calving intervals of the herd: A. Very fast. B. Very little. C. Very much. D. Very slowly. 44.Which performance data is a measure of sow productivity that combines numbers of pigs weaned and milk production? A. Adjusted 21 day litter weaning weight B. Adjusted backfat at 230 pounds C. Adjusted days to 230 pounds D. Number of live pigs born per litter 45. If four bulls have the same pedigree and look the same but their Expected Progeny Differences (EDP) for weaning weight are 34.2, -18.0 +10.5 and +36.9, the bull with which EDP should be selected as the sire to most improved calf weaning weight in the herd? A. -34.2 B. -18 C. 10.5 D. 36.9 46. The formula that includes number of pigs born alive and adjusted 21-day litter weight for individual sows compared to a contemporary group of sows is the: A. General Gilt Index. B. Growth Rate Index. C. Heritability Estimates Index. D. Sow Productivity Index. 47. The EPD trait that predicts the average size of calves is: A. Maternal milk. B. Yearling weight. C. Weaning weight. D. Birth weight.

48.Which performance data is a measure of reproduction performance for beef cows? A. Birth Weight Related to calving difficulty B. Carcass grade C. Efficiency of gain D. Ribeye area 49. A bull with an Estimated Breeding Value (EBV) of +60 pounds for yearling weight would have an Expected Progeny Difference (EPD) of +30 pounds because: A. All this trait comes from the mother. B. Half the trait comes from the mother. C. Percent heritability is 30 percent. D. Percent heritability is 50 percent. 50. If each bird in the flock is a high performer, the most effective present performance selection method for breeding stock is: A. Culling. B. Family selection. C. Individual selection. D. Pedigree. 51.Which performance data is a record of the animal’s ancestry? A. Adjusted backfat B. Pedigree C. Pounds of gain per day on feed D. USDA Grade 52. If four bulls are on the same performance test, which average daily gain ratios (ADG Rat.) is the BEST? A. 108 B. 102 C. 100 D. 97 53.Which performance data is a measure of growth rate in swine? A. Adjusted days to 230 pounds B. Number of live pigs born per litter C. Number of pigs weaned per litter D. USDA Grade 54. The only sure way to determine the ability of an individual bird to transmit genes for a desired characteristic to most of its sons and daughters is a: A. Culling test. B. Feeding test. C. Mortality test. D. Progeny test.

55. Scrotum circumference is part of the performance data provided in advertisement information for: A. Boars. B. Bulls. C. Heifers. D. Steers. 56.Which performance data is a measure of growth and gain performance for beef cattle? A. Calf crop percentage born B. Calving interval C. Conception rate D. Weaning weights 57. If the percent heritability for birth weight is 40, weaning weight is 30, tenderness is 60 and ribeye area is 70 in beef cattle, which trait can be improved the most through selective breeding? A. Birth weight B. Ribeye area C. Tenderness D. Weaning weight 58. For superior individuals and outstanding performers in a pedigree to really have any meaning, they should be: A. Close up in the lineage. B. Four generations removed. C. Named fancy names. D. Several generations back in the lineage. Processing 1. What federal act governs poultry meat inspection? A. Humane Methods of Livestock Slaughter Act. B. Egg Products Inspection Act. C. Federal Meat Inspection Act. D. Poultry Products Inspection Act. 2. The MAIN purpose of carcass inspection is to detect irregular and contaminated meat and to: A. Package it. B. Remove it. C. Sell it. D. Stamp it. 3. The final step in carcass inspections in meat processing plants is for the meat to be condemned or to be: A. Bled. B. Eviscerated. C. Passed. D. Suspected.

4. Which method is NOT recommended to prevent foodborne illness: A. Use a disposable towel to clean surfaces. B. Defrost food at room temperature. C. Refridgerate leftovers within 2 hours. D. Wash hands and surfaces. 5. What common food borne illness is contracted by eating contaminated eggs? A. Camphyobacter. B. Coccidiosis. C. E. coli. D. Salmonella. 6. What phase of meat inspection involves checking animals before they are slaughtered? A. Postmortem inspection. B. Worker sanitation inspection. C. Ante mortem inspection. D. Plant sanitation inspection. 7. What source of foodborne bacterial contamination involves the transfer of bacteria when hands are not washed thoroughly? A. Animal. B. Soil. C. Water. D. Humans. 8. When USDA inspectors check livestock for diseases or other problems before slaughter and find the animals unfit for human consumption, the animal is marked with: A. U.S. condemned. B. U.S. diseased. C. U.S. No. 2. D. U.S. No. 3. 9. What source of foodborne bacterial contamination involves the transfer of bacteria through saliva when food is not cooked properly? A. Animal. B. Soil. C. Water. D. Humans. 10.Which animals’ carcasses are chilled in ice water after they have been slaughtered? A. Beef cattle B. Broilers C. Hogs D. Sheep 11. During the slaughtering process, broilers and turkeys are bled by: A. Cutting the jugular vein. B. Removing the heart. C. Removing the gizzard. D. Sticking.

12. The purpose of sticking beef cattle and hogs during the slaughtering process is for: A. Bleeding. B. Eviscerating C. Inspecting. D. Stunning. 13.Which method of stunning livestock involves asphyxiation? A. Mechanical. B. Chemical. C. Exsanguinate D. Electrical. 14. Before slaughter animals are hoisted by their rear legs and stuck for bleeding, federal regulations require that all animals be: A. Condemned. B. Given pain medicine. C. Insensible to pain. D. Killed. 15. During the slaughtering process, turkeys and broilers are scalded to remove the: A. Diseases. B. Feathers. C. Hair. D. Skin. 16. During the slaugher process the internal organs are removed. This process is known as: A. Evisceration B. Exsanguination. C. Ante mortem inspection. D. Postmortem inspection. 17. During the slaughtering process, the Federal Humane Slaughter Act permits mechanical, chemical and electrical methods of: A. Inspecting. B. Skinning. C. Sticking. D. Stunning. 18. The stunning process causes an animals: A. Senses to shut down. B. Heart to stop beating. C. Brain to separate from spinal cord. D. Tongue to swell.