CCIE Routing & Switching Written Exam v4

Cisco.Lead2Pass.350-001.v2012-12-10.by.Spike.489qCCIE Routing & Switching Written Exam v4.0
Number: 350-001 Passing Score: 790 Time Limit: 170 min File Version: 13.59
http://www.gratisexam.com/
350-001 CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam v4.0
Sections 1. ACLs 2. BGP 3. Drag->Drop 4. EIGRP 5. IP Routing 6. IP Services 7. IPv6 8. MPLS 9. Multicast 10.OSPF 11.QOS 12.Security 13.STP 14.Switching 15.TShoot 16.VLAN & VTP
Exam A
QUESTION 1 In order to maintain security, with which hop count are IPv6 neighbor discovery packets sent?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 255 D. 256
Correct Answer: C Section: IPv6 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2 Which command will define a VRF with name 'CCIE' in IPv6?
A. ip vrf CCIE B. ipv6 vrf CCIE C. vrf definition CCIE D. ipv6 vrf definition CCIE
Correct Answer: C Section: QOS Explanation
QUESTION 3 For which routes does LDP advertise a label binding?
A. all routes in the routing table B. only the IGP and BGP routes in the routing table C. only the BGP routes in the routing table D. only the IGP routes in the routing table
Correct Answer: D Section: BGP Explanation
QUESTION 4 Which command can be used on a PE router to connect to a CE router (11.1.1.4) in VRF red?
A. telnet 11.1.1.4 /vrf-source red B. telnet 11.1.1.4 source /vrf red C. telnet 11.1.1.4 /source vrf red D. telnet 11.1.1.4 /vrf red E. telnet 11.1.1.4 vrf red
Correct Answer: D Section: QOS Explanation
QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit. This is an MPLS VPN network with OSPF as the PE-CE routing protocol. Which statement is correct?
A. The routing inside the VPN RED will never work correctly. B. The routing inside the VPN RED can be enabled by configuring virtual links between the PE routers. C. The routing inside the VPN RED can be enabled by configuring area 0 inside the VRF on the PE routers. D. The routing inside the VPN RED will work without any special OSPF configuration. E. The routing inside the VPN RED will work if the PE routers have a full mesh of sham-links configured for
VRF RED.
QUESTION 6 Which two statements are correct about Nonstop Forwarding? (Choose two.)
A. It allows the standby RP to take control of the device after a hardware or software fault on the active RP. B. It is a Layer 3 function that works with SSO to minimize the amount of time a network is unavailable to users
following a switchover.
C. It is supported by the implementation of EIGRP, OSPF, RIPv2, and BGP protocols. D. It synchronizes startup configuration, startup variables, and running configuration. E. The main objective of NSF is to continue forwarding IP packets following a switchover. F. Layer 2 802.1w or 802.1s must be used, as 802.1d cannot process the Layer 2 changes. G. Routing protocol tuning parameters must be the same as the NSF parameters, or failover will be
inconsistent.
QUESTION 7 Which three fields are optional in an OSPFv3 external LSA? (Choose three.)
A. Forwarding Address B. External Route C. Reference Link-State ID D. Option E. Prefix Options
Correct Answer: ABC Section: OSPF Explanation
QUESTION 8 On a router, interface S0 is running EIGRPv6, and interface S1 is running OSPFv3. A redistribution command is issued under OSPFv3, redistribute EIGRP 1 metric 20 under ipv6 router ospf 1. What will happen after applying this redistribution command?
A. All routes showing up as D and D EX in the routing table will be redistributed into OSPFv3. B. All routes showing up as D, D EX, and C in the routing table will be redistributed into OSPFv3. C. All routes showing up as D and D EX in the routing table and the S0 interface will be redistributed into
OSPFv3. D. All routes showing up as D in the routing table will be redistributed into OSPFv3. E. All routes showing up as D EX in the routing table will be redistributed into OSPFv3.
Correct Answer: A Section: OSPF Explanation
http://www.gratisexam.com/
QUESTION 9 Which type of domains is interconnected using Multicast Source Discovery Protocol?
A. PIM-SM B. PIM-DM C. PIM-SSM D. DVMRP
Correct Answer: A Section: Multicast Explanation
QUESTION 10 Which two multicast address ranges are assigned as source-specific multicast destination addresses and are reserved for use by source-specific applications and protocols? (Choose two.)
A. 232.0.0.0/8 B. 239.0.0.0/8 C. 232.0.0.0/4 D. FF3x::/32 E. FF2x::/32 F. FF3x::/16
Correct Answer: AD Section: Multicast Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Source-specific multicast (SSM) is a method of delivering multicast packets in which the only packets that are delivered to a receiver are those originating from a specific source address requested by the receiver. By so limiting the source, SSM reduces demands on the network and improves security.
SSM requires that the receiver specify the source address and explicitly excludes the use of the (*, G) join for all multicast groups in RFC 3376, which is possible only in IPv4's IGMPv3 and IPv6's MLDv2. Source-specific multicast is best understood in contrast to any-source multicast (ASM). In the
ASM service model a receiver expresses interest in traffic to a multicast address. The multicast network must 1. discover all multicast sources sending to that address, and 2. route data from all sources to all interested receivers.
This behavior is particularly well suited to groupware applications where 1. all participants in the group want to be aware of all other participants, and 2. the list of participants is not known in advance. The source discovery burden on the network can become significant when the number of sources is large.
In the SSM service model, in addition to the receiver expressing interest in traffic to a multicast address, the receiver expresses interest in receiving traffic from only one specific source sending to that multicast address. This relieves the network of discovering many multicast sources and reduces the amount of multicast routing information that the network must maintain. SSM requires support in last-hop routers and in the receiver's operating system. SSM support is not required in other network components, including routers and even the sending host. Interest in multicast traffic from a specific source is conveyed from hosts to routers using IGMPv3 as specified in RFC 4607. SSM destination addresses must be in the ranges 232.0.0.0/8 for IPv4 or FF3x::/96 for IPv6.
Reference http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Source-specific_multicast
QUESTION 11 How is RPF used in multicast routing?
A. to prevent multicast packets from looping B. to prevent PIM packets from looping C. to instruct PIM where to send a (*,G) or (S,G) join message D. to prevent multicast packets from looping and to instruct PIM where to send a (*,G) or (S,G) join message
Correct Answer: D Section: Multicast Explanation
QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit. What does the incoming interface of the above (*,G) entry indicate?
A. the interface closest to the source, according to the unicast routing table B. the interface where an IGMP join has been received C. the interface with the highest IP address D. the last interface to hear a PIM (*,G) join E. the interface closest to the RP, according to the unicast routing table
Correct Answer: E Section: Multicast Explanation
QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit. Which interface(s) will show ip rpf 1.1.1.2 indicate as RPF interface(s)?
A. Ethernet 1/0 B. Ethernet 0/0 C. Both Ethernet 0/0 and Ethernet 1/0 D. RPF will fail
Explanation/Reference: When troubleshooting multicast routing, the primary concern is the source address. Multicast has a concept of Reverse Path Forwarding check (RPF check). When a multicast packet arrives on an interface, the RPF process checks to ensure that this incoming interface is the outgoing interface used by unicast routing to reach the source of the multicast packet. This RPF check process prevents loops. Multicast routing does not forward a packet unless the source of the packet passes a reverse path forwarding (RPF) check. Once a packet passes this RPF check, multicast routing forwards the packet based only upon the destination address.
Reference
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk828/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094b55.shtml
QUESTION 14 Apart from interdomain multicast routing, what else is MSDP used for?
A. Source Specific Multicast and IGMPv2 B. Announcing multicast sources to BGP speakers C. Anycast RP D. Intradomain multicast routing
Correct Answer: C Section: Multicast Explanation
QUESTION 15 Which IGMPv2 message contains a non-zero "Max Response Time"?
A. Membership Query B. Membership Report C. Membership Delay D. Backward Compatible IGMPv1 Report Message
QUESTION 16 Refer to the exhibit. Which IGMPv2 message is displayed in the output of the packet capture?
A. General Query B. Membership Report C. Membership Query D. Membership Delay
Correct Answer: B Section: Multicast Explanation
QUESTION 17 What is Phantom RP used for?
A. it is used for load balancing in bidirectional PIM B. it is used for redundancy in bidirectional PIM C. it is used for redundancy in PIM-SM D. it is used for load balancing in PIM-SM
Correct Answer: B Section: Multicast Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Phantom RP In Bidirectional PIM (Bidir-PIM), the RP does not have an actual protocol function. The RP acts as a routing vector in which all the traffic converges. The RP can be configured as an address that is not assigned to any particular device called a Phantom RP.
This means that the RP address does not need to reside on a physical router interface, but can just be an address in a subnet. The RP can also be a physical router, but it is not necessary.
Reference http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/iosswrel/ps6537/ps6552/whitepaper_c11-508498.html
QUESTION 18 Which three statements are true about TACACS+? (Choose three.)
A. It is a Cisco proprietary protocol. B. It runs on TCP port 59. C. Authentication and authorization are done at different stages. D. TACACS+ encrypts the entire body of the packet, but leaves a standard TACACS+ header. E. It is an industry standard protocol. F. TACACS+ encrypts both the entire body of the packet and the TACACS+ header.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: Security Explanation
QUESTION 19 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The hexadecimal value of the number of packets that hit the access list is 0x723E6E12. B. The access list has logging enabled. C. The packet was discarded. D. The command ip access-list logging hash-generation is enabled. E. The Telnet connection is successfully set up.
Correct Answer: BD Section: ACLs Explanation
QUESTION 20 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is correct?
A. This configuration is not valid. B. Control Plane Policing is configured; however you cannot determine on which interface it is configured. C. NTP is not configured on the router. D. Telnet traffic will be dropped.
Correct Answer: C Section: IP Services Explanation
QUESTION 21 What does Cisco recommend when you are enabling Cisco IOS IPS?
A. Do not enable all the signatures at the same time. B. Do not enable the ICMP signature. C. Disable the Zone-Based Policy Firewall because it is not compatible with Cisco IOS IPS. D. Disable CEF because it is not compatible with Cisco IOS IPS.
Correct Answer: A Section: Security Explanation
QUESTION 22 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is correct?
A. OSPF peers are using Type 1 authentication B. OSPF peers are using Type 2 authentication C. Authentication is used, but there is a password mismatch D. The OSPF peer IP address is 172.16.10.36
Correct Answer: B Section: OSPF Explanation
QUESTION 23 Which two statements are true about Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding Loose Mode? (Choose two.)
A. It is used in multihome network scenarios. B. It can be used with BGP to mitigate DoS and DDoS. C. It does not need to have CEF enabled. D. It is enabled via the interface level command ip verify unicast reverse-path. E. It cannot be used with "classification" access lists.
Correct Answer: AB Section: QOS Explanation
QUESTION 24 Refer to the exhibit. What would be the security risk when you are using the above configuration?
A. The locally configured users would override the TACACS+ security policy. B. It would be impossible to log in to the router if the TACACS+ server is down. C. The default login policy would override the TACACS+ configuration. D. If the TACACS+ server failed, no authentication would be required.
Correct Answer: D Section: Security Explanation
QUESTION 25 Which three protocols should be explicitly managed by using a CoPP policy on an Internet border router? (Choose three.)
A. SMTP B. ICMP C. BGP D. SSH E. RTP F. BitTorrent G. VTP
Correct Answer: BCD Section: QOS Explanation
QUESTION 26 What is true about IP Source Guard with port security?
A. Binding should be manually configured. B. It is not supported if IEEE 802.1x port-based authentication is enabled C. The DHCP server must support option 82, or the client is not assigned an IP address. D. It filters based on source IP address only.
Correct Answer: C Section: Security Explanation
QUESTION 27 Refer to the exhibit. Which option best describes how the virtual MAC address is composed?
A. based on a randomly generated number B. based on the burned-in MAC address of the router C. based on a number manually configured by the administrator D. based on the configured standby group number
Correct Answer: D Section: IP Routing Explanation
QUESTION 28 Which two commands are required to enable multicast on a router, knowing that the receivers only supports IGMPv2? (Choose Two)
A. IP PIM RP-address B. IP PIM ssm C. IP PIM Sparse-mode D. IP PIM Passive
Correct Answer: AC Section: Multicast Explanation
QUESTION 29 A branch router is configured with an egress QoS policy that was designed for a total number of 10 concurrent VOIP Calls. Due to Expansion, 15 VOIP Calls are now running over the link, but after the 14th call was established, all calls were affected and the voice quality was dramatically degraded. Assuming that there is enough bandwidth on the link for all of this traffic, which part of the QOS configuration should be updated due to the new traffic profile?
A. Increase the shaping rate for the priority queue. B. Remove the policer applied on the priority queue. C. Remove the shaper applied on the preiority queue. D. Increase the policing rate for the priority queue.
QUESTION 30 A new Backup Connection is being deployed on a remote site router. the stability of the connection has been a concern. in order to provide more information to EIGRP Regarding this interface, You wish to incorporate the "Reliability" cost metric in the EIGRP Calculation with the command
metric weights 1 0 1 0 1.
What impact will this modification on the remote site router have for other existing EIGRP neighborships from the same EIGRP Domain?
A. Existing Neighbors will immediately begin using the new metric. B. Existing Neighbors will use the new metric after clearing the EIGRP Neighbors. C. Existing Neighbors will resync, maintaining the neighbor relationship D. All ecisting neighbor relationships will go down
Correct Answer: D Section: EIGRP Explanation
QUESTION 31 Refer to the exhibit. R1 has an EBGP session to ISP 1 and an EBGP session to ISP 2. R1 receives the same prefixes through both links. Which configuration should be applied so that the link between R1 and ISP 2 will be preferred for outgoing traffic (R1 to ISP 2)?
A. Increase local preference on R1 for routes received from ISP2. B. Decrease local preference on R1 for routes received from ISP2. C. Increase MED on ISP 2 for routes received from R1. D. Decrease MED on ISP 2 for routes received from R1.
Correct Answer: A Section: BGP Explanation
QUESTION 32 When you are troubleshooting duplex mismatches, which two errors are typically seen on the fullduplex end? (Choose two.)
A. runts B. FCS errors C. interface resets D. late collisions
Correct Answer: AB Section: TShoot Explanation
QUESTION 33 Which two options are contained in a VTP subset advertisement? (Choose two.)
A. followers field B. MD5 digest C. VLAN information D. sequence number
Correct Answer: CD Section: VLAN & VTP Explanation
QUESTION 34 Which two statements are true about traffic shaping? (Choose two.)
A. Out-of-profile packets are queued. B. It causes TCP retransmits. C. Marking/remarking is not supported. D. It does not respond to BECN and ForeSight Messages. E. It uses a single/two-bucket mechanism for metering.
Correct Answer: AC Section: QOS
Explanation
QUESTION 35 Which three options are features of VTP version 3? (Choose three.)
A. VTPv3 supports 8K VLANs. B. VTPv3 supports private VLAN mapping. C. VTPv3 allows for domain discovery. D. VTPv3 uses a primary server concept to avoid configuration revision issues. E. VTPv3 is not compatible with VTPv1 or VTPv2. F. VTPv3 has a hidden password option.
Correct Answer: BDF Section: VLAN & VTP Explanation
QUESTION 36 Which three options are considered in the spanning-tree decision process? (Choose three.)
A. lowest root bridge ID B. lowest path cost to root bridge C. lowest sender bridge ID D. highest port ID E. highest root bridge ID F. highest path cost to root bridge
Correct Answer: ABC Section: STP Explanation
QUESTION 37 Refer to the exhibit. A small enterprise connects its office to two ISPs, using separate T1 links. A static route is used for the default route, pointing to both interfaces with a different administrative distance, so that one of the default routes is preferred. Recently the primary link has been upgraded to a new 10 Mb/s Ethernet link. After a few weeks, they experienced a failure. The link did not pass traffic, but the primary static route remained active. They lost their Internet connectivity, even though the backup link was operating. Which two possible solutions can be implemented to avoid this situation in the future? (Choose two.)
A. Implement HSRP link tracking on the branch router R1 B. Use a track object with an IP SLA probe for the static route on R1. C. Track the link state of the ethernet link using a track object on R1 D. Use a routing protocol between R1 and the upstream ISP
Correct Answer: BD Section: IP Routing Explanation
QUESTION 38 Why would a rogue host that is running a DHCP Server on a Campus LAN network present a security risk?
A. It may allocate IP addresses from an unknown subnet to the users B. all Multicast traffic can be sniffer y using the DHCO Multicasr capabilities C. the CPU utilization of the first hop router can be overloaded by exploiting DHCP Relay open ports D. A potential Man-in-the-middle Attack can be used against the clients.
QUESTION 39 Which Statement is true about TCN (802.1D) Propagation?
A. The originator of the TCN immediately floods this information through the network B. the TCN propagation is a two step process C. A TCN is generated and sent to the root bridge D. the root bridge must flood this information throught the network
Correct Answer: C Section: STP Explanation
QUESTION 40 Which statement is true about loop guard?
A. Loop Guard only operates on interfaces that are considered point-to-point by the spanning tree. B. Loop Guard only operates on root ports. C. Loop Guard only operates on designated ports D. Loop Guard only operates on edge ports
Correct Answer: A Section: Security Explanation
QUESTION 41 Which two are effects of connecting a network segment that is running 802.1D to a network segment that is running 802.1w? (Choose Two.)
A. the entire network switches to 802.1D and generates BPDUs to determine root bridfe status. B. A migration delay of three seconds occurs when the port that is connected to the 802.1D bridge comes up C. The entire network reconverges and a unique root briddge for the 802.1D segment, and a root bridge for the
802.1W segment, is chosen D. the first hop 802.1w switch that is connected to the 802.1D runs entirely in 802.1D compatibility mode and
converts the BPDUs to either 802.1D or 802.1W segments of the network E. Classic 802.1D timers, Such as forward Delay and Max-age, will only be used as a backup, and will not be
necessary if point-to-point links and edge prots are properly identified and set by the administrator.
Correct Answer: BE Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Lhttp://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml
QUESTION 42 Which command is used to enable Etherchannel hashing for layer 3 IP and Layer 4 Port-based CEF?
A. mpls ip cef B. port-channel ip cef C. mpls ip port-channel cef D. port-channel load balance E. mpls ip load-balance F. ip cef etherchannel channel-id XOR L4 G. ip cef connection exchange
Correct Answer: D Section: Switching Explanation
QUESTION 43 In 802.1s, how is the VLAN to instance mapping represented in the BPDU?
A. The VLAN to instance mapping is a normal 16-byte field in the MST BPDU. B. The VLAN to instance mapping is a normal 12-byte field in the MST BPDU. C. The VLAN to instance mapping is a 16-byte MD5 signature field in the MST BPDU. D. The VLAN to instance mapping is a 12-byte MD5 signature field in the MST BPDU.
Correct Answer: C Section: VLAN & VTP Explanation
QUESTION 44 Which three combinations are valid LACP configurations that will set up a channel? (Choose three.)
A. On/On B. On/Auto C. Passive/Active D. Desirable/Auto E. Active/Active F. Desirable/Desirable
Correct Answer: ACE Section: Switching Explanation
QUESTION 45 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is correct about the prefix 160.0.0.0/8?
A. The prefix has encountered a routing loop. B. The prefix is an aggregate with an as-set C. The prefix has been aggregated twice, once in AS 100 and once in AS 200. D. None of these statements is true.
Correct Answer: B Section: BGP Explanation
QUESTION 46 Which two options does Cisco PfR use to control the entrance link selection with inbound optimization? (Choose two.)
A. Prepend extra AS hops to the BGP prefix. B. Advertise more specific BGP prefixes (longer mask). C. Add (prepend) one or more communities to the prefix that is advertised by BGP. D. Have BGP dampen the prefix.
Correct Answer: AC Section: BGP Explanation
QUESTION 47 Refer to the exhibit. What is the potential issue with this configuration?
A. There is no potential issue; OSPF will work fine in any condition. B. Sub-optimal routing may occur since there is no area 1 adjacency between the ABRs. C. This is a wrong OSPF configuration because all routers must be in area 0 only. D. This is a wrong OSPF configuration because /30 requires 0.0.0.3 wild card.
QUESTION 48 Refer to the exhibit. What triggered the first SPF recalculation?
A. changes in a router LSA, subnet LSA, and external LSA B. changes in a router LSA, summary network LSA, and external LSA C. changes in a router LSA, summary network LSA, and summary ASBR LSA D. changes in a router LSA, summary ASBR LSA, and external LSA
Explanation/Reference: R - router link change N - network link change SN - summary network link change SA - ASBR summary change X - external change
Reference http://routingfreak.wordpress.com/2008/03/04/shortest-path-first-calculation-in-ospf-and-is-is/
QUESTION 49 Which two orders in the BGP Best Path Selection process are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Higher local preference, then lowest MED, then eBGP over iBGP paths B. Higher local preference, then highest weight, then lowest router ID C. Highest weight, then higher local preference, then shortest AS path D. Lowest origin type, then higher local preference, then lowest router ID E. Highest weight, then higher local preference, then highest MED
Correct Answer: AC Section: BGP Explanation
QUESTION 50 What is the first thing that happens when IPv6 is enabled on an interface on a host?
A. A router solicitation is sent on that interface. B. There is a duplicate address detection on the host interface. C. The link local address is assigned on the host interface. D. A neighbor redirect message is sent on the host interface.
Correct Answer: B Section: IPv6 Explanation
QUESTION 51 What is the flooding scope of an OSPFv3 LSA, if the value of the S2 bit is set to 1 and the S1 bit is set to 0?
A. link local B. area wide C. AS wide D. reserved
Correct Answer: C Section: OSPF Explanation
QUESTION 52 How will EIGRPv6 react if there is an IPv6 subnet mask mismatch between the Global Unicast addresses on a point-to-point link?
A. EIGRPv6 will form a neighbor relationship. B. EIGRPv6 will not form a neighbor relationship. C. EIGRPv6 will form a neighbor relationship, but with the log MSG: "EIGRPv6 neighbor not on a common
subnet." D. EIGRPv6 will form a neighbor relationship, but routes learned from that neighbor will not be installed in the
routing table.
QUESTION 53 Which two tunneling techniques support IPv6 multicasting? (Choose two.)
A. 6to4 B. 6over4 C. ISATAP D. 6PE
E. GRE
QUESTION 54 Which two OSPF LSA types are new in OSPF version 3? (Choose two.)
A. Link B. NSSA external C. Network link D. Intra-area prefix E. AS domain
Correct Answer: AD Section: OSPF Explanation
QUESTION 55 Refer to the exhibit. How will traffic be split between the routers, assuming that there are many hosts on this subnet?
A. All traffic will be sent to the primary router (10.1.1.100). B. Traffic will be split equally between the two routers (10.1.1.100 and 10.1.1.101). C. Traffic will be split 25% (10.1.1.101) / 75% (10.1.1.100) between the two routers. D. Traffic will be split 75% (10.1.1.101) / 25% (10.1.1.100) between the two routers.
Correct Answer: D Section: IP Routing Explanation
QUESTION 56 Refer to the exhibit. A packet from RTD with destination RTG, is reaching RTB. What is the path this packet will take from RTB to reach RTG?
A. RTB - RTA - RTG B. RTB - RTD - RTC - RTA - RTG C. RTB - RTF - RTE - RTA - RTG D. RTB will not be able to reach RTG since the OSPF configuration is wrong.
Explanation/Reference: RTB#traceroute 5.5.5.2 source 1.1.1.5
Type escape sequence to abort. Tracing the route to 5.5.5.2
1 4.4.4.5 16 msec 48 msec 8 msec 2 7.7.7.2 44 msec 20 msec 36 msec 3 4.4.4.1 20 msec 20 msec 36 msec 4 5.5.5.2 56 msec * 60 msec RTB#
QUESTION 57 Refer to the exhibit. Which path is selected as best path?
A. path 1, because it is learned from IGP B. path 1, because the metric is the lowest C. path 2, because it is external D. path 2, because it has the higher router ID
QUESTION 58 What action will a BGP route reflector take when it receives a prefix marked with the community attribute NO ADVERTISE from a client peer?
A. It will advertise the prefix to all other client peers and non-client peers. B. It will not advertise the prefix to EBGP peers. C. It will only advertise the prefix to all other IBGP peers. D. It will not advertise the prefix to any peers.
Correct Answer: D Section: BGP Explanation
QUESTION 59 Refer to the exhibit. R1 is not learning about the 172.16.10.0 subnet from the BGP neighbor R2 (209.165.202.130). What can be done so that R1 will learn about this network?
A. Disable auto-summary on R2. B. Configure an explicit network command for the 172.16.10.0 subnet on R2. C. Subnet information cannot be passed between IBGP peers. D. Disable auto-summary on R1.
QUESTION 60 Refer to the exhibit. After a link flap in the network, which two EIGRP neighbors will not be queried for alternative paths? (Choose two.)
A. 192.168.1.1 B. 192.168.3.7 C. 192.168.3.8 D. 192.168.3.6 E. 192.168.2.1 F. 192.168.3.9
Correct Answer: BC Section: EIGRP Explanation
QUESTION 61 Refer to the exhibit. Why is AS 65333 in parentheses?
A. It is an external AS. B. It is a confederation AS. C. It is the AS of a route reflector. D. It is our own AS. E. A route map has been applied to this route. F. The BGP next hop is unreachable.
QUESTION 62 Refer to the exhibit. Which action would make the router the active VRRP router?
A. Recover interface Serial 1/0. B. Increase priority in the configuration to 100. C. Change the interface tracking priority to 100.
D. Recover interface Serial 1/1.
Correct Answer: A Section: IP Routing Explanation
QUESTION 63 Refer to the Exhibit. The displayed QoS configuration has been configured on a router. IPv6 is being implemented on the router, and it is required to convert the QoS policy to support both IPv4 and IPv6 on the same class. Which alternative configuration would allow matching DSCP AF41 for both IPv4 and IPv6 on the same class map?
A. Class-map match-all CLASS1 Match dscp af41
B. Class-map match-all CLASS1 Match ip dscp af41 Match ipv6 dscp af41
C. Class-map match-any CLASS1 Match ip dscp af41 Match ipv6 dscp af41
D. Class-map match-any CLASS1 Match qos-group af41
Correct Answer: A Section: QOS Explanation
QUESTION 64 Voice quality is bad due to high delay and jitter on a link. Which two actions will improve the quality of voice calls? (Choose two.)
A. Increase the queue size of the voice class. B. Guarantee bandwidth during congestion to the voice class with a bandwidth command. C. Increase the tx-ring of the egress interface. D. Implement LLQ for the voice class. E. Decrease the rx-ring of the egress interface. F. Decrease the queue size of the voice class.
Correct Answer: DF Section: QOS Explanation
QUESTION 65 Refer to the exhibit. On what will the config class-map VOICE match?
A. only on UDP traffic between port ranges 16384 and 32767 B. only on DSCP EF traffic C. on UDP traffic between port ranges 16384 and 32767, and on DSCP EF traffic D. only on EF traffic that is UDP and within the UDP range of 16384 and 32767
QUESTION 66 Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing protocol for this network is EIGRP, if the link between R1 and R3 failed, what would R4 receive from R3?
A. R4 would receive an update noting R3's higher cost to reach 172.30.1.0/24. B. R4 would not receive any updates or queries, since R3 would simply move to the path through R2. C. R4 would receive a query, since R3 would mark 172.30.1.0/24 as active when the link between R1 and R4
failed. D. R4 would not receive any packets, since R3 is not using the link to R1 to reach 172.30.1.0/24.
Correct Answer: A Section: EIGRP Explanation
QUESTION 67 Which three statements accurately describe a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Each router sends routing information to all nodes in the flooding domain. B. Each router sends all or some portion of its routing table to neighboring routers. C. Each router individually builds a picture of the entire flooding domain. D. Each router has knowledge of all other routers in the flooding domain. E. Each router is only aware of neighboring routers. F. Each router installs routes directly from the routing updates into the routing table.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: IP Routing Explanation
QUESTION 68 Refer to the exhibit. What is true about the configuration in this exhibit?
A. It is an invalid configuration because it includes both an application layer match and and a Layer 3 ACL. B. It will create a class map that matches the content of ACL 101 and the HTTP protocol, and will then create
an inspection policy that will drop packets at the class map. C. It will create a class map that matches the content of ACL 101 and the HTTP protocol, and will then create
an inspection policy that will allow packets at the class map. D. It will create a class map that matches the content of ACL 101 or the HTTP protocol (depending on the zone
of the interface), and will then create an inspection policy that will drop packets at the class map. E. It will create a class map that matches the content of ACL 101 or the HTTP protocol (depending on the zone
of the interface), and will then create an inspection policy that will allow packets at the class map. F. It is an invalid configuration because the class map and policy map names must match.
Correct Answer: B Section: QOS Explanation
QUESTION 69 Refer to the exhibit. Users that are connected to switch SWD are complaining about slow performance when they are doing large file transfers from a server connected to switch SWB. All switches are running PVST+. Which option will improve the performance of the file transfers?
A. Reconnect the clients from switch SWD to switch SWA. B. Reconnect the clients from switch SWD to switch SWC. C. Change PVST+ to RSTP. D. Change the STP root switch from switch SWA to switch SWB. E. Configure an EtherChannel between switch SWB and switch SWC.
Correct Answer: D Section: STP Explanation
QUESTION 70 Refer to the exhibit. Clients in VLAN 10 complain that they cannot access network resources and the Internet. When you try to ping the default gateway from one of the affected clients, you get ping timeouts. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. VLAN 10 is only enabled on trunk interfaces. B. VLAN 10 is not created in the switch database. C. STP is not running on the switch. D. IP routing is disabled on the switch. E. The switch CAM table is corrupted.
Correct Answer: B Section: VLAN & VTP Explanation
QUESTION 71 While you are troubleshooting network performance issues, you notice that a switch is periodically flooding all unicast traffic. Further investigation reveals that periodically the switch is also having spikes in CPU utilization, causing the MAC address table to be flushed and relearned. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. a routing protocol that is flooding updates B. a flapping port that is generating BPDUs with the TCN bit set C. STP is not running on the switch D. a user that is downloading the output of the show-tech command E. a corrupted switch CAM table
Correct Answer: B Section: STP Explanation
QUESTION 72 Your network is suffering from regular outages. After troubleshooting, you learn that the transmit lead of a fiber uplink was damaged. Which two features can prevent the same issues in the future? (Choose two.)
A. root guard B. loop guard C. BPDU guard D. UDLD E. BPDU skew detection
Correct Answer: BD Section: TShoot Explanation
QUESTION 73 Refer to the exhibit. You are trying to police down to 100 Mb/s. While testing, you notice that you rarely exceed 70-80 Mb/s. What do you need to change in your MQC configuration to allow for 100 Mb/s speeds?
A. Change the CIR value from 100 Mb/s to 200 Mb/s. B. Change the Bc value to allow for a large enough burst. C. Change the QoS queue from default to priority. D. Change the exceed-action to transmit.
QUESTION 74 Which feature would prevent guest users from gaining network access by unplugging an IP phone and connecting a laptop computer?
A. IPSec VPN B. SSL VPN C. port security D. port security with statically configured MAC addresses E. private VLANs
QUESTION 75 Refer to the exhibit. Clients that are connected to Fa0/0 of RTA are only allowed to connect to the Internet and networks, but not the networks on Fa1/0, Fa2/0, Fa3/0 and Fa4/0. To achieve this, you have configured an ACL on RTA and applied it on the incoming direction of interface Fa0/0. After you apply this ACL, you learn that some of these networks are still accessible for clients that are connected to the 10.10.10.0/24 network. What is the
correct ACL configuration to solve this issue?
A. access-list 101 deny ip any 10.1.0.0 0.0.1.255 access-list 101 permit ip any any
B. access-list 101 permit ip any 10.1.0.0 0.0.1.255 access-list 101 deny ip any any
C. access-list 101 deny ip any 10.1.0.0 0.0.252.255 access-list 101 permit ip any any
D. access-list 101 deny ip any 10.1.0.0 0.0.3.255 access-list 101 permit ip any any
Correct Answer: D Section: ACLs Explanation
QUESTION 76 After applying a new ACL on a device, its CPU utilization rose significantly and many messages starting with
"%SEC-6-IPACCESSLOG"
appeared on the Syslog server. What can be done to resolve this situation?
A. Increase memory allocation for ACLs. B. Remove all entries from the ACL and use a single permit ip any any statement. C. Remove the log keyword from each ACL entry. D. Reboot the device after the ACL has been applied.
Correct Answer: C Section: ACLs Explanation
QUESTION 77 You are the network administrator of a medium-sized company, and users are complaining that they cannot send emails to some organizations. During your troubleshooting, you notice that your DNS MX record is blacklisted by several public blacklist filters. After clearing these listings for your IP address, and assuming that your email server has the right virus protection in place, what are two possible solutions to prevent this from happening in the future? (Choose two.)
A. Change your Internet provider. B. Change your public IP address. C. Allow the email server to send traffic only to TCP port 25. D. Put your email server in a DMZ. E. Use a separate public IP address for your email server only.
Correct Answer: CE Section: Security Explanation
QUESTION 78 Refer to the exhibit. What can be done to remove the summary routes to Null0 on R3?
A. Configure the EIGRP routing subcommand no auto-summary on 209.165.202.155. B. Configure the EIGRP routing subcommand no auto-summary on 209.165.202.24. C. Configure the EIGRP routing subcommand no auto-summary on both 209.165.202.155 and
209.165.202.242. D. Configure the EIGRP routing subcommand no auto-summary on R3.
Correct Answer: D Section: EIGRP Explanation
QUESTION 79 Refer to the exhibit. R4 is configured as a receive-only EIGRP stub, and is adjacent with 209.165.202.139 (R3). However, R4 is not learning about network 209.165.201.0/27 from R3. What could be the cause of this issue?
A. R4 should learn this route from 209.165.200.242, and not from R3. B. R3 is configured as a receive-only EIGRP stub. C. R3 and R4 may be using different EIGRP process numbers. D. R3 and R4 are asymmetrically adjacent neighbors.
Correct Answer: B Section: EIGRP Explanation
QUESTION 80 Refer to the exhibit. R4 is a remote office router that is running EIGRP; the decision has been made to change EIGRP to use static EIGRP adjacencies. However, once the configuration change was applied, the adjacency between R4 and 209.165.202.139 (HQ) seems to disappear. What could be the cause of this issue?
A. Static EIGRP neighbor configuration is symmetric; it causes the interface to stop processing inbound multicast packets and stop sending multicast packets.
B. Static EIGRP neighbors are not displayed with the show ip eigrp neighbors command. C. A distance (internal 90 or external 170) must also be configured for the static neighbor. D. The neighbor 209.165.202.139 should be changed to run under EIGRP autonomous system 0.
Explanation/Reference: R1#sh ip eigrp neigh R1#sh ip eigrp neighbors IP-EIGRP neighbors for process 100 H Address Interface Hold Uptime SRTT RTO Q Seq (sec) (ms) Cnt Num 0 209.165.202.139 Fa1/0 10 00:03:14 208 1872 0 7 R1#
R1#conf t Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z. R1(config)#router eigrp 100 R1(config-router)#neighbor 209.165.202.139 fa1/0 R1(config-router)# *Mar 1 00:31:42.343: %DUAL-5-NBRCHANGE: IP-EIGRP(0) 100: Neighbor 209.165.202.139 (FastEthernet1/0) is down: Static peer configured R1(config-router)#
R1# *Mar 1 00:31:49.051: %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by console R1#sh ip eigrp neighbors IP-EIGRP neighbors for process 100 R1#
QUESTION 81 Refer to the exhibit. What problem does the debug ip ospf event output from R3 indicate?
A. 209.165.202.140 and R3 are not both configured as OSPF stubs. B. 209.165.202.140 and R3 are not configured in the same OSPF area. C. 209.165.202.140 is configured as a no-summary stub. D. Transit area OSPF hello packets are not processed by design.
QUESTION 82 Refer to the exhibit. R4 is configured as an OSPF stub; however, R4 should still be learning the OSPF LSA type 3 interarea routes from 209.165.202.130. Which action will solve this issue?
Exhibit:
A. Remove any route maps from R4 that are filtering the incoming OSPF updates. B. Enable sending summary LSA's by removing no-summary from the stub command on the ABR. C. Enable sending summary LSA's by removing no-summary from the stub command on the ASBR. D. Control of interarea route propagation is best handled with EIGRP.
Explanation/Reference: By default the no-summary command should NOT be enabled on the ABR as this would make Area 20 a Totally Stubby Area not a Stub area. And R4 should receive routes fro 209.165.202.130 as it is directly connected to Area 0 based off of the exhibit. This would mean that Answer A would actually be the most correct. However, if the exhibit is off and if Area 20 is a Totally stubby area than answer B would be correct. As the question is specific to OSPF LSA Type 3 routes we must assume that latter is correct and option B is the correct answer as Route Maps would more than likely not just filter Type 3 LSA's unless configured specifically for each Type 3 LSA Address.
QUESTION 83 Refer to the exhibit. An OSPF virtual link is configured between R4 and R3. Based upon the show command output, why is the virtual-link down?
A. Virtual links cannot transit area 0. B. The cost of the virtual link needs to be configured as 1. C. The timer intervals for virtual links need to be aggressive (2, 8, 8, and 1). D. The virtual interface VL1 is shut down.
QUESTION 84 Refer to the exhibit. An OSPF virtual link is configured between RTB and RTA. Based upon the exhibit, why is the virtual link on RTB down?
A. The cost on each end of the OSPF virtual link must be identical. B. There is a unidirectional physical layer issue from RTB to RTA. C. The OSPF virtual link neighbor IP address on RTB is incorrect. D. The virtual link state on FastEthernet0/0 of RTA must be point-to-multipoint.
QUESTION 85 Refer to the exhibit. Router 1 has three OSPF neighbors, but none of them have routes to the 10.10.10.0 network. Why?
A. A metric is not defined on the redistribute statement. B. Redistribution cannot be done in a non-zero area. C. The subnets keyword should not be used. D. Area 1 is a stub area. E. Area 1 is a not-so-stubby area. F. A route map must be used on the redistribute statement to permit the 10.10.10.0/24 route.
Correct Answer: D Section: OSPF Explanation
QUESTION 86 When troubleshooting the issue, you notice the election of a new root bridge with an unknown MAC address. Knowing that all access ports have the PortFast feature enabled, what would be the easiest way to resolve the issue without losing redundant links?
A. Enable bpduguard globally. B. Enable rootguard. C. Enable loopguard. D. Enable spanning tree. E. Enable UDLD.
Correct Answer: A Section: STP Explanation
QUESTION 87 You are the network administrator of a small Layer 2 network with 50 users. Lately, users have been complaining that the network is very slow. While troubleshooting, you notice that the CAM table of your switch is full, although it supports up to 12,000 MAC addresses. How can you solve this issue and prevent it from happening in the future?
A. Upgrade the switches
B. Configure BPDU guard C. Configure VLAN access lists D. Configure port security E. Configure Dynamic ARP inspection
QUESTION 88 On a router that is configured with multiple IP SLA probes, which command can be used to manage the CPU load that was created by the periodic probing?
A. ip sla monitor low-memory B. ip sla group schedule C. ip sla reaction-trigger D. ip sla enable timestamp
Correct Answer: B Section: TShoot Explanation
QUESTION 89 Which configuration would make an IP SLA probe use a precedence value of 3?
A. ip sla 1 icmp-echo 1.1.1.1 tos 12
B. ip sla 1 icmp-echo 1.1.1.1 tos 96
C. ip sla 1 icmp-echo 1.1.1.1 precedence 3
D. ip sla 1 icmp-echo 1.1.1.1 dscp 12
QUESTION 90 Refer to the exhibit. When would the EEM applet be triggered?
A. every time that the input packet per second counter is below 10,000 B. every time that the input packet per second counter has increased by 1,000 C. every time that the input packet per second counter is above 10,000 D. every time that the input packet per second counter has decreased by 1,000
Correct Answer: C Section: TShoot Explanation
QUESTION 91 Refer to the exhibit. Which of the following options will trigger the applet?
A. an external Cisco IOS event B. a manually run policy event C. a preconfigured timer D. an automated RPC call
QUESTION 92 Refer to the exhibit. Which output will the EEM applet in the exhibit produce?
A. The output of show version will be executed every 5 hours. B. The output of show log will be executed every 5 hours. C. The output of show log will be executed every 5 days. D. The output of show log will be executed every 5 minutes.
Correct Answer: C
Section: TShoot Explanation
Explanation/Reference: event_register_timer Create a timer and register for a timer event as both a publisher and a subscriber. Use this keyword when there is a need to trigger a policy that is time specific or timer based. This event timer is both an event publisher and a subscriber. The publisher part indicates the conditions under which the named timer is to go off. The subscriber part identifies the name of the timer to which it is subscribing.
Note Both the CRON and absolute time specifications work on local time.
Syntax event_register_timer watchdog|countdown|absolute|cron [name ?] [cron_entry ?] (for cron timer) [time ?] (for other types of timer) [priority low|normal|high] [maxrun ?] [nice 0|1]
Arguments
Reference http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_3t/12_3t14/feature/guide/w_eempol.html
QUESTION 93 Which NetFlow version should be used to collect accounting data for IPv6 traffic?
A. version 1 B. version 5 C. version 7 D. version 8 E. version 9
Correct Answer: E Section: TShoot Explanation
QUESTION 94 To troubleshoot network issues more accurately, milliseconds should be included in the syslog of the router. Which command will achieve this?
A. service timestamps log datetimec msec B. logging timestamps msec C. syslog timestamps hour minute second miliseconds D. service logging timestamp msec E. logging service timestamp msec
Correct Answer: A Section: TShoot Explanation
QUESTION 95 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the above commands, when will the output of the show log command be saved?
A. Each time the total CPU utilization goes below 50 percent B. Each time the total CPU utilization goes above 80 percent C. Every 5 minutes while the total CPU utilization is above 80 percent D. Every 5 seconds while the total CPU utilization is above 80 percent E. Every 5 minutes while the total CPU utilization is below 50 percent F. Every 5 seconds while the total CPU utilization is below 50 percent
Correct Answer: F Section: TShoot Explanation
QUESTION 96 What is the purpose of an explicit "deny any" statement at the end of an ACL?
A. none, since it is implicit B. to enable Cisco IOS IPS to work properly; however, it is the deny all traffic entry that is actually required C. to enable Cisco IOS Firewall to work properly; however, it is the deny all traffic entry that is actually required D. to allow the log option to be used to log any matches E. to prevent sync flood attacks F. to prevent half-opened TCP connections
Correct Answer: D Section: ACLs Explanation
QUESTION 97 Which of these is mandatory when configuring Cisco IOS Firewall?
A. Cisco IOS IPS enabled on the untrusted interface B. NBAR enabled to perform protocol discovery and deep packet inspection C. a route map to define the trusted outgoing traffic D. a route map to define the application inspection rules E. an inbound extended ACL applied to the untrusted interface
Correct Answer: E Section: Security Explanation
QUESTION 98 Which statement correctly describes the disabling of IP TTL propagation in an MPLS network?
A. The TTL field from the IP packet is copied into the TTL field of the MPLS label header at the ingress edge LSR.
B. TTL propagation cannot be disabled in an MPLS domain. C. TTL propagation is only disabled on the ingress edge LSR. D. The TTL field of the MPLS label header is set to 255. E. The TTL field of the IP packet is set to 0.
Correct Answer: D Section: MPLS Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Time-to-Live (TTL) is a 8-bit field in the MPLS label header which has the same function in loop detection of the IP TTL field. Recall that the TTL value is an integer from 0 to 255 that is decremented by one every time the packet transits a router. If the TTL value of an IP packet becomes zero, the router discards the IP packet, and an ICMP message stating that the “TTL expired in transit” is sent to the source IP address of the IP packet. This mechanism prevents an IP packet from being routed continuously in case of a routing loop. By default, the TTL propagation is enabled so a user can use “traceroute” command to view all of the hops in the network. We can disable MPLS TTL propagation with the “no mpls ip propagate-ttl” command under global configuration. When entering a label-switched path (LSP), the edge router will use a fixed TTL value (255) for the first label. This increases the security of your MPLS network by hiding provider network from customers.
QUESTION 99 Two routers configured to run BGP have been connected to a firewall, one on the inside interface and one on the outside interface. BGP has been configured so the two routers should peer, including the correct BGP session endpoint addresses and the correct BGP session hop-count limit (EBGP multihop). What is a good first test to see if BGP will work across the firewall?
A. Attempt to TELNET from the router connected to the inside of the firewall to the router connected to the outside of the firewall. If telnet works, BGP will work, since telnet and BGP both use TCP to transport data.
B. Ping from the router connected to the inside interface of the firewall to the router connected to the outside interface of the firewall. If you can ping between them, BGP should work, since BGP uses IP to transport packets.
C. There is no way to make BGP work across a firewall without special configuration, so there is no simple test that will show you if BGP will work or not, other than trying to start the peering session.
D. There is no way to make BGP work across a firewall.
Correct Answer: C Section: BGP Explanation
QUESTION 100 Spanning Tree Protocol IEEE 802.1s defines the ability to deploy which of these?
A. one global STP instance for all VLANs B. one STP instance for each VLAN C. one STP instance per set of VLANs D. one STP instance per set of bridges
Correct Answer: C Section: VLAN & VTP Explanation
QUESTION 101
Which two of these are used in the selection of a root bridge in a network utilizing Spanning Tree Protocol IEEE 802.1D? (Choose two.)
A. Designated Root Cost B. bridge ID priority C. max age D. bridge ID MAC address E. Designated Root Priority F. forward delay
Correct Answer: BD Section: STP Explanation
QUESTION 102 If a port configured with STP loop guard stops receiving BPDUs, the port will be put into which state?
A. learning state B. listening state C. forwarding state D. root-inconsistent state
Explanation/Reference: Loop Guard protects a switch trunk port from causing loops. It prevents switch ports from wrongly moving from a blocking to a forwarding state when a unidirectional link exists in the network. Unidirectional links are simply links for which one of the two transmission paths on the link has failed, but not both. This can happen as a result of miscabling, cutting one fiber cable, unplugging one fiber or other reasons. Let’s consider an example.
The network consists of 3 switches without Loop Guard feature. Switch 1 is the root switch. A port on Switch 3 is in blocking state, other ports are forwarding normally.
Suppose that Switch 3 does not receive BPDUs (Hellos) from Switch 2 due to unidirectional link failure on the link between switch 2 and switch 3. Switch 3 then transitions to forwarding state, and now all trunks on all switches are forwarding. Well, we have a loop!
With Loop Guard feature turned on, the blocking port on switch 3 will not transition to forwarding state but will fall into an STP loop-inconsistent state (same as blocking state).
(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094640.shtml & CCIE Routing and Switching Official Exam Certification)
QUESTION 103 What is the purpose of the STP PortFast BPDU guard feature?
A. enforce the placement of the root bridge in the network B. ensure that a port is transitioned to a forwarding state quickly if a BPDU is received C. enforce the borders of an STP domain
D. ensure that any BPDUs received are forwarded into the STP domain
QUESTION 104 When STP UplinkFast is enabled on a switch utilizing the default bridge priority, what will the new bridge priority be changed to?
A. 8192 B. 16384 C. 49152 D. 65535
QUESTION 105 Which of these best describes the actions taken when a VTP message is received on a switch configured with the VTP mode "transparent"?
A. VTP updates are ignored and forwarded out all ports. B. VTP updates are ignored and forwarded out trunks only. C. VTP updates are made to the VLAN database and are forwarded out trunks only. D. VTP updates are ignored and are not forwarded.
QUESTION 106 Refer to the exhibit. In this network, R1 has been configured to advertise a summary route, 192.168.0.0/22, to R2. R2 has been configured to advertise a summary route, 192.168.0.0/21, to R1. Both routers have been configured to remove the discard route (the route to null created when a summary route is configured) by setting the administrative distance of the discard route to 255. What will happen if R1 receives a packet destined to 192.168.3.1?
A. The packet will loop between R1 and R2. B. It is not possible to set the administrative distance on a summary to 255. C. The packet will be forwarded to R2, where it will be routed to null0. D. The packet will be dropped by R1, since there is no route to 192.168.3.1.
Explanation/Reference: Indeed, when you change the administrative distance of the discard route to 255, this prevents the route to be installed in the routing table but this does not prevent the route to be advertised to the other peer!
From the Cisco website: "You can configure a summary aggregate address for a specified interface. If there are any more specific routes in the routing table, EIGRP will advertise the summary address out the interface with a metric equal to the minimum of all more specific routes"
And don't forget YOU HAVE a directly connected route 192.168.1/24 in R1 and .4/24 in R2.
Then your summary is advertised, and the packet loop between R1 and R2. If you do the test with GNS3, you will see via "show ip eigrp topology" that you FD of your local subnet 192.168.1.0/24 in R1 become the metric of the summary route "192.168.0.0/22 advertise to R2 ! And viceversa. Numerically, an administrative distance is an integer from 0 to 255. In general, the higher the value, the lower the trust rating. An administrative distance of 255 means that the routing information source cannot be trusted at all and should be ignored. http:// www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_3/iproute/command/reference/ip2_c1g.html A route with an AD of 255 would never be installed in the RIB. It is much better for the router to forward a packet to null0 following the default route than for the router to find out it has no route to destination, drop the packet and probably to send an ICMP unreachable message back to the source of that packet.
https://supportforums.cisco.com/thread/192416 You should not use the ip summary-address eigrp summarization command to generate the default route (0.0.0.0) from an interface. This causes the creation of an EIGRP summary default route to the null 0 interface with an administrative distance of 5. The low administrative distance of this default route can cause this route to displace default routes learned from other neighbors from the routing table. If the default route learned from the neighbors is displaced by the summary default route, or if the summary route is the only default route present, all traffic destined for the default route will not leave the router, instead, this traffic will be sent to the null 0 interface where it is dropped.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_0/np1/configuration/guide/1ceigrp.html#wp4937
QUESTION 107 Refer to the exhibit. In this network, R1 is configured not to perform autosummarization within EIGRP.
What routes will R3 learn from R2 through EIGRP?
A. 172.30.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24; EIGRP only performs autosummarization at the edge between two major networks.
B. 172.30.0.0/16 and 10.1.2.0/24; R2 will perform autosummarization, although R1 will not. C. Since R2 is configured without autosummarization, it will not propagate the 172.30.1.0/24 route. D. 172.30.0.0/8 and 10.0.0.0/8.
Explanation/Reference: Explanation: R1 is not configured for auto-summary but R2 is configured for auto-summary as auto-summary is enabled by default. Therefore although 172.30.1.0 is not summarized by R1 it will be summarized by R2 when R2 advertises this route to R3. However, both of R2's interfaces are on the 10.x.x.x network and so is R3's single interface. As auto summary is performed based on classful network boundaries R2 will advertise the classless network addresses of both interfaces to R3. Auto-Summarization EIGRP performs an auto-summarization each time it crosses a border between two different major networks. For example, in Figure 13, Router Two advertises only the 10.0.0.0/8 network to Router One, because the interface Router Two uses to reach Router One is in a different major network.
Reference http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cb7.shtml#summarization
QUESTION 108 The classic Spanning Tree Protocol (802.1D 1998) uses which sequence of variables to determine the best received BPDU?
A. 1) lowest root bridge id, 2) lowest sender bridge id, 3) lowest port id, 4) lowest root path cost B. 1) lowest root path cost, 2) lowest root bridge id, 3) lowest sender bridge id, 4) lowest sender port id C. 1) lowest root bridge id, 2) lowest sender bridge id, 3) lowest root path cost 4) lowest sender port id D. 1) lowest root bridge id, 2) lowest root path cost, 3) lowest sender bridge id, 4) lowest sender port id
Configuration bridge protocol data units (BPDUs) are sent between switches for each port. Switches use a fourstep process to save a copy of the best BPDU seen on every port. When a port receives a better BPDU, it stops sending them. If the BPDUs stop arriving for 20 seconds (default), it begins sending them again.
Step 1 Lowest Root Bridge ID (BID) Step 2 Lowest Path cost to Root Bridge Step 3 Lowest Sender BID Step 4 Lowest Port ID
QUESTION 109 Which three port states are used by RSTP 802.1w? (Choose three.)
A. Listening B. Learning C. Forwarding D. Blocking E. Discarding F. Disabled
Correct Answer: BCE Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Rapid Spanning Tree (RSTP) 802.1w is a standards-based, non-proprietary way of speeding STP convergence. Switch ports exchange an explicit handshake when they transition to forwarding. RSTP describes different port states than regular STP as described below:
QUESTION 110 Refer to the exhibit. Catalyst R is the root bridge for both VLAN 1 and VLAN 2. What is the easiest way to load-share traffic across both trunks and maintain redundancy in case a link fails, without using any type of EtherChannel link-bundling?
A. Increase the root bridge priority (increasing the numerical priority number) for VLAN 2 on Catalyst D so that port D2 becomes the root port on Catalyst D for VLAN 2.
B. Decrease the port priority on R2 for VLAN 2 on Catalyst R so that port D1 will be blocked for VLAN 2 and port D2 will remain blocked for VLAN 1.
C. Decrease the path cost on R2 on Catalyst R for VLAN 2 so that port D1 will be blocked for VLAN 2 and port D2 will remain blocked for VLAN 1.
D. Increase the root bridge priority (decreasing the numerical priority number) for VLAN 2 on Catalyst R so that R2 becomes the root port on Catalyst D for VLAN 2.
QUESTION 111 Refer to the exhibit. In the diagram, the switches are running IEEE 802.1s MST. Which ports are in the MST blocking state?
A. GE-1/2 and GE 2/1 B. GE-1/1 and GE-2/2 C. GE-3/2 and GE 4/1 D. no ports are in the blocking state E. There is not enough information to determine which ports are in the blocking state.
Correct Answer: D Section: STP
Explanation
QUESTION 112 Refer to the exhibit. In the diagram, the switches are running IEEE 802.1w RSPT. On which ports should root guard be enabled in order to facilitate deterministic root bridge election under normal and failure scenarios?
A. GE-3/1, GE-3/2 B. FE-2/1, FE-3/2 C. GE-1/1, GE-1/2 D. GE-4/1, GE-4/2 E. GE-2/1, GE-2/2 F. GE-3/1, GE-3/2, GE-4/1, GE-4/2, FE-2/1, FE-3/2
Correct Answer: F Section: STP Explanation
QUESTION 113 Loop guard and UniDirectional Link Detection both protect against Layer 2 STP loops. In which two ways does loop guard differ from UDLD in loop detection and prevention? (Choose two.)
A. Loop guard can be used with root guard simultaneously on the same port on the same VLAN while UDLD
cannot. B. UDLD protects against STP failures caused by cabling problems that create one-way links. C. Loop guard detects and protects against duplicate packets being received and transmitted on different
ports. D. UDLD protects against unidirectional cabling problems on copper and fiber media. E. Loop guard protects against STP failures caused by problems that result in the loss of BPDUs from a
designated switch port.
QUESTION 114 Refer to the exhibit. Voice traffic is marked "precedence 5." How much bandwidth is allocated for voice traffic during periods of congestion?
A. a minimum of 48 kb/s B. a maximum of 48 kb/s C. a minimum of 48% of the available bandwidth D. a maximum of 48% of the available bandwidth
QUESTION 115 Refer to the exhibit. Which of these is applied to the Bearer class?
A. WRED B. traffic shaping C. packet marking D. packet classification
E. FIFO queuing within the class
Correct Answer: E Section: QOS Explanation
Explanation/Reference: The default mechanism on most interfaces is First In First Out (FIFO). Some traffic types have more demanding delay/jitter requirements. Thus, one of the following alternative queueing mechanisms should be configured or is enabled by default:
Weighted Fair Queueing (WFQ) Class-Based Weighted Fair Queueing (CBWFQ) Low Latency Queueing (LLQ), which is in fact CBWFQ with a Priority Queue (PQ) (known as PQCBWFQ) Priority Queueing (PQ) Custom Queueing (CQ)
Reference http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk543/tk545/technologies_q_and_a_item09186a00800cdfab.shtml
QUESTION 116 Refer to the exhibit. What is the overall type of queuing being used on the outgoing data for interface Ethernet0/1?
A. LLQ B. FIFO C. CBWFQ D. priority queuing E. weighted fair queuing F. IP RTP priority queuing
QUESTION 117 Which two of these are differences between traffic policing and traffic shaping? (Choose two.)
A. with traffic shaping, a router stores excess traffic in packet buffers until bandwidth is available again
B. with policing you can tune the buffer usage for traffic exceeding the specified CIR C. with shaping you can tune the buffer usage for traffic exceeding the specified CIR D. shaping should only be applied for ingress traffic, policing only for egress E. policing uses a token bucket algorithm, shaping uses an SPD algorithm
Correct Answer: AC Section: QOS Explanation
QUESTION 118 Which of these is a valid differentiated services PHB?
A. Guaranteed PHB B. Class-Selector PHB C. Reserved Forwarding PHB D. Discard Eligible PHB E. Priority PHB
Explanation/Reference: Differentiated Services Definition Differentiated Services is a multiple service model that can satisfy differing QoS requirements. With Differentiated Services, the network tries to deliver a particular kind of service based on the QoS specified by each packet. This specification can occur in different ways, for example, using the 6-bit differentiated services code point (DSCP) setting in IP packets or source and destination addresses. The network uses the QoS specification to classify, mark, shape, and police traffic and to perform intelligent queuing.
Differentiated Services is used for several mission-critical applications and for providing end-to- end QoS.
Typically, Differentiated Services is appropriate for aggregate flows because it performs a relatively coarse level of traffic classification.
DS Field Definition A replacement header field, called the DS field, is defined by Differentiated Services. The DS field supersedes the existing definitions of the IP version 4 (IPv4) type of service (ToS) octet (RFC 791) and the IPv6 traffic class octet. Six bits of the DS field are used as the DSCP to select the Per-Hop Behavior (PHB) at each interface. A currently unused 2-bit (CU) field is reserved for explicit congestion notification (ECN). The value of the CU bits is ignored by DS-compliant interfaces when determining the PHB to apply to a received packet.
Per-Hop Behaviors RFC 2475 defines PHB as the externally observable forwarding behavior applied at a DiffServ- compliant node to a DiffServ Behavior Aggregate (BA). With the ability of the system to mark packets according to DSCP setting, collections of packets with the same DSCP setting that are sent in a particular direction can be grouped into a BA. Packets from multiple sources or applications can belong to the same BA.
In other words, a PHB refers to the packet scheduling, queueing, policing, or shaping behavior of a node on any given packet belonging to a BA, as configured by a service level agreement (SLA) or a policy map.
The following sections describe the four available standard PHBs:
Default PHB Class-Selector PHB (as defined in RFC 2474) Assured Forwarding PHB (as defined in RFC 2597) Expedited Forwarding PHB (as defined in RFC 2598) For more information about default PHB, see RFC 2474, Definition of the Differentiated Services Field (DS Field) in the IPv4 and IPv6 Headers. Class-Selector PHB To preserve backward-compatibility with any IP precedence scheme currently in use on the network, DiffServ has defined a DSCP value in the form xxx000, where x is either 0 or 1. These DSCP values are called Class- Selector Code Points. (The DSCP value for a packet with default PHB 000000 is also called the Class-Selector Code Point.) The PHB associated with a Class-Selector Code Point is a Class-Selector PHB. These Class- Selector PHBs retain most of the forwarding behavior as nodes that implement IP Precedence- based classification and forwarding. For example, packets with a DSCP value of 11000 (the equivalent of the IP Precedence-based value of 110) have preferential forwarding treatment (for scheduling, queueing, and so on), as compared to packets with a DSCP value of 100000 (the equivalent of the IP Precedence-based value of 100). These Class-Selector PHBs ensure that DS-compliant nodes can coexist with IP Precedence-based nodes.
For more information about Class-Selector PHB, see RFC 2474, Definition of the Differentiated Services Field (DS Field) in the IPv4 and IPv6 Headers.
Reference http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/qos/configuration/guide/qcfdfsrv_ps1835_TSD_Produc ts_Configuration_Guide_Chapter.html#wp998695
QUESTION 119 An expanding company is deploying leased lines between its main site and two remote sites. The bandwidth of the leased lines is 128kb/s each, terminated on different serial interfaces on the main router. These links are used for combined VOIP and data traffic. The network administrator has implemented a VOIP solution to reduce costs, and has therefore reserved sufficient bandwidth in a low latency queue on each interface for the VOIP traffic. Users now complain about bad voice quality although no drops are observed in the low latency queue. What action will likely fix this problem?
A. mark VOIP traffic with IP precedence 6 and configure only 'fair-queue' on the links B. configure the scheduler allocate 3000 1000 command to allow the QoS code to have enough CPU cycles C. enable class-based traffic shaping on the VoIP traffic class D. enable Layer 2 fragmentation and interleaving on the links E. enable Frame Relay on the links and send voice and data on different Frame Relay PVCs
QUESTION 120 You are the network administrator of an enterprise with a main site and multiple remote sites. Your network carries both VOIP and data traffic. You agree with your service provider to classify VOIP and data traffic according to the different service RFCs. How can your data and VOIP traffic be marked?
A. data marked with DSCP AF21, VOIP marked with DSCP EF B. data marked with DSCP AF51, VOIP marked with DSCP EF C. data marked with the DE-bit, VOIP marked with the CLP-bit D. data marked with DSCP EF, VOIP marked with DSCP AF31
E. data marked with IP precedence 5, VOIP marked with DSCP EF
Explanation/Reference: Expedited Forwarding RFC 2598 defines the Expedited Forwarding (EF) PHB: "The EF PHB can be used to build a low loss, low latency, low jitter, assured bandwidth, end-to-end service through DS (Diffserv) domains. Such a service appears to the endpoints like a point-to- point connection or a "virtual leased line." This service has also been described as Premium service." Codepoint 101110 is recommended for the EF PHB, which corresponds to a DSCP value of 46. Vendor- specific mechanisms need to be configured to implement these PHBs. Refer to RFC 2598 for more information about EF PHB. DSCP was designed to be more granular and more scalable than IP precedence BUT with backward compatibility.
The priority field (or type of service, ToS) was originally 3 bits, giving it the IP prec values 0-7 (0 being the lowest priority, 7 the highest). DSCP has an 8 bit field, of which 6 bits are used for markings (the 6th bit is always 0). This gives it a larger number of values (both for per hop behavior, or PHB, and drop precedence. More on this later) The last 2 bits are used for ECN or explicit congestion notification. This is a brand new feature (as of Windows Vista) and is purportedly going to revolutionize internetwork traffic flow.
With the 6 bits allotted to DSCP, the first three (left to right) are used for Major Class, or Per Hop Behavior. These match up with the old IP Prec values of 0-7. The second 3 bits identify the drop precedence. Higher = more likely to be dropped. This means that a DSCP marking of AF21 (major class 2, drop precedence of 1) will be preferred over AF22 or AF23. An AF3x will beat any AF1x or AF2x–the major class of 3 is higher than the major class, or PHB, of 2.
It is important to note the drop precedence is only used on classes 1-4. (Here is a table from Wikipedia) A marking of 0 indicates ‘best effort’
The notation DSCP xx is the bit notation. Eg AF12 = 001 100 which is a decimal value of 12. Here’s another one. AF43 = 100 110 (38) EF, which it equal to IP Prec of 5 is assigned a major class of 5 and a drop precedence of 3 (this is odd, I don’t know why this was done) The decimal value for EF is DSCP 46 or 101 110.
QUESTION 121 Refer to the exhibit. When applying this hierarchical policy map on the on the tunnel1 interface, you measure high jitter for traffic going through class 1234. What is the most likely cause of this jitter?
A. The configuration of a hierarchical policy map on a tunnel interface is not supported. B. Class 5555 and class 5554 are both taking up 100% of the bandwidth, leaving nothing for class 1234. C. The burst size for the traffic shaping is wrongly configured to 15000; this would require an interface capable
of sending at 150Mb/s. D. The burst size for the traffic shaping has been wrongly configured; it should be set as low as possible. E. The burst size for the traffic shaping has been wrongly configured; it should be set as high as possible.
QUESTION 122 Refer to the exhibit. When applying this policy map on the tunnel1 interface, you see packet loss for the TCP class starting at around 100000 b/s, instead of the configured 150000 b/s. What is the most likely cause of the discrepancy?
A. The violate-action command should not be configured. B. The current configuration of the load-interval command on the tunnel interface is preventing proper policing
calculations. C. The burst size is too low. D. Policing on tunnel interfaces is not supported. E. The CIR keyword is missing in the policer.
Explanation/Reference: Configuration Tasks See the following sections for configuration tasks for the Configuring Burst Size in Low Latency Queueing feature. Each task in the list is identified as optional or required.
Configuring the LLQ Bandwidth (Required) Configuring the LLQ Burst Size (Required) Verifying the LLQ Burst Size (Optional)
Configuring the LLQ Bandwidth To configure the LLQ bandwidth, use the following command in policy-map class configuration mode:
Configuring the LLQ Burst Size To configure the LLQ burst size, use the following command in policy-map class configuration mode:
Verifying the LLQ Burst Size To verify the LLQ burst size, use one of the following commands in EXEC mode:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_1t/12_1t3/feature/guide/dtcfgbst.html#wp1015329
QUESTION 123 Refer to the exhibit. As a network administrator, you have configured a dual-rate, dual-bucket policer in accordance with RFC 2698 on the serial interface of you router, connecting to your provider. The SLA with your provider states that you should only send AF31 (limited to 150 kb/s), AF32 (limited to 50 kb/ s)and AF33 (best effort). Your service provider claims you are not conforming to the SLA. Which two things are wrong with this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The configuration of a service policy on half-duplex Ethernet interfaces is not supported. B. The class class-default sub-command of the policy-map limit command should be set to the DSCP default. C. The violate action is wrong. D. This policer configuration is not implementing RFC 2698 dual-bucket, dual-rate. E. The policer is configured in the wrong class.
Correct Answer: CE Section: QOS Explanation
QUESTION 124 Refer to the exhibit. You have noticed that several users in the network are consuming a great deal of bandwidth for the peer-to-peer application Kazaa2. You would like to limit this traffic, and at the same time provide a guaranteed 100 kb/s bandwidth for one of your servers. After applying the configuration in the exhibit, you notice no change in the bandwidth utilization on the serial link; it is still heavily oversubscribing the interface. What is the cause of this problem?
A. CEF needs to be enabled for NBAR. B. In class Kazaa2, you should configure a policer instead of a drop command. C. The server class should have a priority of 100. D. The bandwidth parameter on serial 0/0 is wrong. E. Kazaa2 is not a valid protocol.
Explanation/Reference: You need to enable Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) in order to use NBAR. How do you configure Cisco IOS NBAR?
Keep in mind that in its simplest form NBAR is a traffic identification and marking system. What you do with the marked packets is up to you. For example, you could choose to drop them or choose to give them a higher quality of service.
Configuring and using NBAR to identify and block traffic is actually very easy. Let's walk through the steps.
Step 1 Make sure that CEF is on using the following command: Router(config)# ip cef
Step 2 Create a class-map, identifying the traffic you want to block. Here's an example that would stop any HTTP or MIME e-mail that contains the Readme.exe program:
Router(config)#class-map match-any bad-traffic Router(config-cmap)# match protocol http url "*readme.exe*" Router(config-cmap)# match protocol http mime "*readme.exe*"
I want to stress here that HTTP is just one of the many applications that NBAR can identify. For list of NBAR applications recognized with IOS version 12.3, use the following commands: Router(config)#class-map match-all nbar Router(config-cmap)#match pro ?
Step 3 Create a policy to mark the traffic. Here's an example: Router(config)# policy-map mark-bad-traffic Router(config-pmap)# class bad-traffic Router(config-pmap)# set ip dscp 1
Step 4 Apply the policy to the interface that faces the Internet or the source of the traffic that you want to block. This marks the traffic when it enters the router. Here's an example: Router(config)# interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#service-policy input mark-bad-traffic
Step 5 Create an access control list (ACL) that denies the marked traffic. Here's an example: Router(config)# access-list 190 deny ip any any dscp 1 Router(config)# access-list 190 permit ip any any
Step 6 Deny the marked traffic as it's about to exit your router by applying the ACL to an interface. Here's an example: Router(config)# interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip access-group 190 out When you've finished applying the configuration, you can check to see if the router marked and dropped any traffic that met this criteria. To do this, use the show access-lists command. Summary NBAR is a very powerful application-layer firewall that you may already have installed on your Cisco router.
While traditional firewalls can only recognize traffic based on IOS Layers 3 or 4, Cisco's NBAR can go all the way to Layer 7.
Reference http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/routers/ps359/products_tech_note09186a00800fc176.shtml http://www.techrepublic.com/blog/networking/what-can-ciscos-network-based-application- recognition-nbar- dofor-you/399 http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps6616/products_ios_protocol_group_home.html
QUESTION 125 All of these are fundamental building blocks of a differentiated services Traffic Conditioner Block except which one?
A. dropper B. classifier
QUESTION 126 Refer to the exhibit. You would like to guarantee 7 Mb/s for FTP traffic in your LAN, as it seems that peer-to-peer traffic is taking up a large amount of bandwidth. When testing the configuration, you notice that FTP traffic doesn't reach 7 Mb/s. What is the problem?
A. The Ethernet interface should have keepalives enabled. B. The duplex settings are wrong on the Ethernet interface. C. The qos pre-classify command should be removed from the tunnel interfaces. D. the priority queue for the voice class is probably taking all the bandwidth E. there are probably not enough interface buffers; they should be tuned.
QUESTION 127 Which types of prefixes will a router running BGP most likely advertise to an IBGP peer, assuming it is not configured as a route reflector?
A. prefixes received from any other BGP peer and prefixes locally originated via network statements or redistributed
B. all prefixes in its routing table C. prefixes received from EBGP peers and prefixes locally originated via network statements or redistributed D. prefixes received from EBGP peers and prefixes received from route reflectors E. prefixes received from other IBGP peers, prefixes received from EBGP peers, and prefixes redistributed to
BGP F. prefixes received from other IBGP peers and prefixes received from route reflectors
Correct Answer: C Section: BGP Explanation
QUESTION 128 You have two EBGP peers connected via two parallel serial lines. What should you do to be able to load-balance between two EBGP speakers over the parallel serial lines in both directions?
A. nothing, BGP automatically load-balances the traffic between different autonomous systems on all available links
B. peer between the eBGP speaker's loopbacks, configuring eBGP multihop as required, and use an IGP to load-share between the two equal-cost paths between the loopback addresses
C. configure a loopback as update source for both EBGP peers and have on each AS an IGP to introduce two equal-cost paths to reach the EBGP peer loopback address; it is also necessary to use the next-hop-self command
D. use the ebgp-load-balance command on the neighbor statement on both sides E. configure a loopback as update source for both EBGP peers and have on each AS an IGP to introduce two
equal-cost paths to reach the peer loopback address; it is also necessary to use the ebgp-multihop and next-hop-self commands
Explanation/Reference: eBGP Multihop (Load Balancing)
RTA# int loopback 0 ip address 150.10.1.1 255.255.255.0 router bgp 100 neighbor 160.10.1.1 remote-as 200 neighbor 160.10.1.1 ebgp-multihop neighbor 160.10.1.1 update-source loopback 0 network 150.10.0.0 ip route 160.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 1.1.1.2 ip route 160.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 2.2.2.2
RTB# int loopback 0 ip address 160.10.1.1 255.255.255.0 router bgp 200 neighbor 150.10.1.1 remote-as 100 neighbor 150.10.1.1 update-source loopback 0 neighbor 150.10.1.1 ebgp-multihop network 160.10.0.0 ip route 150.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 1.1.1.1 ip route 150.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 2.2.2.1
This example illustrates the use of loopback interfaces, update-source, and ebgp-multihop. The example is a workaround in order to achieve load balancing between two eBGP speakers over parallel serial lines. In normal situations, BGP picks one of the lines on which to send packets, and load balancing does not happen. With the introduction of loopback interfaces, the next hop for eBGP is the loopback interface. You use static routes, or an IGP, to introduce two equal?cost paths to reach the destination. RTA has two choices to reach next hop 160.10.1.1: one path via 1.1.1.2 and the other path via 2.2.2.2. RTB has the same choices.
QUESTION 129 Which three of these statements about penultimate hop popping are true? (Choose three.)
A. It is used only for directly connected subnets or aggregate routes. B. It can only be used with LDP. C. It is only used when two or more labels are stacked. D. It enables the Edge LSR to request a label pop operation from its upstream neighbors. E. It is requested through TDP using a special label value that is also called the implicit-null value. F. It is requested through LDP using a special label value that is also called the implicit-null value.
Correct Answer: ADF Section: MPLS Explanation
Explanation/Reference: In order to implement penultimate hop popping, the edge LSR requests a label pop operation from its upstream neighbor via LDP or TDP using a special implicit-null label. This label has a value of 3 for LDP and 1 for TDP.
QUESTION 130 Which of these best identifies the types

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