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National Board Dental Examinations
TEST PACKET f-fL4 Compiled, released items from approximately 1998-2005
2 1 1 East Cl~jcago Avenue Chicago, Illi~~ois 6061 I 3 12-440-2795 Fax: 3 12-440-2820 E-Mail: [email protected] Website: v,rw\v.ASDAnet.org
TEST PACKET I-M
National Board Dental Examination Part I (Compiled, released items from
approximately 1998-2005)
Con tents Page
Randornly ordered test items ........................................................... 3
Answer Key .................................................................................... 22
1 VVhich of the iollowing nerves innervates the 6 Which of the following muscles participates in
11-~ferior buccal n-iucose of tl-ie floor of tlie oral flexion at tile gleno-liurneral and the huriiero-ulliai
cavity? joints?
A Facial B. Trigeminal C Lir~gual D. Mylohyoid E Hypoglossal
A Deltoid B. BI-achialis C Biceps brachii D. Triceps brachii E. Coracobrachialis
2 . Each of the follov~ing structures increases the 7 . Cell bodies of sympathetic f~bers ~n the nerve of
surface area of the small intestine EXCEPT one. the pterygo~d canal come from which of the
Whicl? one is the EXCEPTION? following?
A. Villi B. Rugae C. Microvilli D Brush border E. Circular folds
A. Facial nerve B. Superior cervical ganglion C. Greater petrosal nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve E. Otic ganglion
3. The ~nferior parathyroid gland develops from which 8 In the upper limb, which of the following represents of the following structures? a hallmark of lymphatic vessels?
A. Second pharyngeal arch B. Fourth pharyngeal arch C. Fifth pharyngeal arch D. Third pharyngeal pouch E. Fourth pharyngeal pouch
4. Which of the following controls parathyroid gland function?
A. Thyroxin 0. Calcitonin C. Blood levels of calcium D. Blood levels of magnesium E. Thyroid stimulating hormone
5. The splenic artery is a branch of which of the following arteries?
A. Celiac B. Lefl hepatic C. Left gastric D. Musculophrenic E. Superior mesenteric
A. Contain valves B. Follow the veins C. Always travel in pairs D. Only found on the anterior surface of the
limb E. Contain fenestrations to allow passage of
fluids into the interstitiurn
9. Which of the following nerves is associated witti the second pharyngeal arch?
A. Vagus B. Glossopharyngeal C. Accessory D. Mandibular E. Facial
10. The nluscles of facial expression are derived from which of the following?
A. Frontonasal process B. First arch C. Second arch D. Third arch E. Fiflh arch
11 Eact~ of the following cranial nerves is associated wttl-I the cavernous sinus EXCEPT one. Whiclh one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Facial B. Abducens C. Trochlear D. TI-igeniinal E. Oculoniotor
12. Which of the following nerves innervates the taste buds of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
A. Vagus B. Facial C. Trigeminal D. Hypoglossal E. Glossopharyngeal
13. A deviation of the tongue, when protruded, away from the midline results from damage to which of the following cranial nerves?
A. V B VII C. X D. XI E. XI1
14 . Which of the following exhibits phagocytic activity in the central nervous system?
A. Ependymal cell B. Microglial cell C. Oligodendrocyte D. Fibrous astrocyte E. Protoplasmic astrocyte
i 5 Each of the following cell layers is derived from oral epithelium EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Dental follicle G . Stellate reticulum C. Stratum intermediuni D. Inner enamel epitheliurn E. Outer enamel epithelium
16. The nerves of the inter11al thoracic wall lie immediately deep to which layer of the wal!?
A External intercostal B. Internal intercostal C. Transversus thoracis D. Parietal pleura E. Subcostals
17. Whicti of the following represents the condition in which a radiograph of a 10-year-old patient's maxilla shows that two succedaneous teeth are absent?
A. Mesiodens E. Gemination C. Dens in dente D. Latent odontogenesis E. Partial anodontia (hypodontia)
18. Where is the channel of communication between the maxillary sinus and the nasal cavity situated?
A. In the superior nasal meatus E. In the sphenoethmoidal recess C. In the middle nasal meatus, at the semilunar
hiatus D. At the anterior extremity of the inferior nasal
meatus E. At the posterior extremity of the inferior nasal
meatus
19. In the temporomandibular joint, a very dense collection of organized elastic fibers is found in which of the following areas of the articular disc?
A. Anterior band B. Posterior band C. Intermediate band D. Posterior-inferior lamina of the bilaminar
zone E. Posterior-superior lamina of the bilarninar
zone
20. Which of the following represents a muscle that might assist in depressing the mandible?
A. Masseter B. Stylohyoid C. Teniporalis D. Geniohyoid E. Medial pterygoid
21. The organic cotnponent of denlil-I IS comprised
prin~arily of
P,. keratin. E. reticular fil~ers. C. type I collagen. D type ll and Ill collage11 E, oxytalan f~bers.
22 Each of the following structures leaves the cranium by way of the jugular foramen EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Cranial nerve IX B. Cranial nerve X C. Cranial nerve XI D. Cranial nerve XI1 E Sigmoid sinus - internal jugular vein
23. Each of the following venous channels has direct connections with the pterygoid venous plexus EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Maxillary vein B. Vertebral vein C. Deep facial vein D. lnfraorbital vein E. Posterior superior alveolar vein
24. Stimulation of the lesser petrosal nerve in an adult causes secretion by which of the following glands?
A. Parotid B Lacrimal C. Sublingual D. Submandibular E. Glands of the hard palate
25. Ameloblasts will not differentiate from preameloblasts unless they
A. contact dentin 8. are touched by odontoblast processes C. are touched by stratum intermedium D. contact stellate reticulum E, contact neural CI-est mesoderm
26. Cells that will form file veriebrae have their origin
in wlhicl-I oi ttie followirig?
A Notocliord B. Neural arch C Derniamyotome D Two pairs of soniites E Intermediate mesoder~nal plale
27. The nasolacrinial duct drains into which of the
following?
A. Middle meatus B. Inferior meatus C. Superior meatus D. Sphenoethmoidal recess
28. The carotid sheath encloses each of the following structures EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Vagus nerve B. External carotid C. Internal jugular vein D. Common carotid artery
29. Following eruption and initial occlusal contact in the oral cavity, a tooth will continue to erupt in order to compensate for occlusal wear. In response to this continuous eruption, which of the following is deposited at the apex of the root?
A. Primary dentin B. Secondary dentin C. Reparative dentin D. Cellular cementum E. Acellular cementum
30. Which of the following cells is most likely to be engaged in mitosis at any given time?
A. Osteocyte B. Macrophage C Plasma cell D. Chondrocyte E. Basal keratinocyte
31. Ftbrocarlrlage nornially occurs III
A. epiglottis 6. external ear. C. eprpliyseal plate. D interverlebral d~scs. E. C-shaped rlngs in the wall of the trachea
32 There is a distinct change in the type of surface epithelium at the junction of the
A. oropliarynx and esophagus B. esophagus and stomach. C. fundus and pylorus. D. duodenum and jejunum. E. ileum and colon.
33. In which of the following would fenestrated capillary plexi be found?
A. Predentin 6. Dental pulp C. Cellular cementum D. Periodontal ligament E. Reduced enamel epithelium
34. Submucosal glands are usually located in the
A. fundus of stomach. B. duodenum. C. appendix, D. jejunum. E. colon.
35. Difficulty in raising the shoulder might be the result of damage to which of the following cranial nerves?
A. V 8. VII C. X D. XI E. XI1
36. A stab wound creating a pneuniothorax on the left side will usually result in collapse of which of the
following?
37. Sl iarpe)~ '~ f~bers from the periodontal ligament
inserl into which of the following structures?
A. Bundle bone and dentin B. Cortical plates and denti11 C. Bundle bo11e and cen-~entur?? D. Cortrcal plates and cementum E. Havers~an bone and cementum
38. In an adult, a Babinski sign indicates damage to
A the dorsal horn. B, lower motor neurons. C. upper motor neurons. D. the lateral spinothalamic tract. E. the dorsal spinocerebellar tract
39. Cell bodies of neurons mediating proprioception from the periodontal ligament of the maxillary frrst molar lie primarily in the
A. semilunar ganglion. B. motor nucleus of V. C. spinal nucleus of V. D. chief sensory nucleus of V. E. mesencephalic nucleus of V.
40. In hydrocephalus, excess cerebral spinal fluid is found within which of the following?
A. Ventricle B. Subdural space C. Cisterna rnagna D. Subarachnoid space E. Superior sagittal sinus
41. Intelligence and sensory-motor functions of a patienl appear to be intact. However, the patient lacks self-discipline and has exhibited anti-social behavior. He is unable to plan for the future or to organize behaviors into logical sequences. A lesion in which of the following areas is likely?
A. Frontal lobe 8. Occipital lobe C. Internal capsulc D. Temporal lobe E. Parietal lo l~e
A. The lefl lung only B. The right lung only C. Both lungs D The rib cage on the left side E 7he lefl lung and pericardial sac
42. The neurons of the central nervous systeni that 47. Mucosa of the anterior two-th~rds of the tongue
iriiiervate rnuscles derived fror-1.1 branr:Iiia! arches develops prrniarily from are found 111 which of the following nuclei?
A. Rathke's pouch. A Nucleus arnbiguus B. tuberculum inipar. B iiypoglossal nucleus C. foregut endoderni. C Dorsal motor nucleus of X D, tiypobranchial eminence D Nucleus of Edinger-Westphal E. lateral lingual swellings. E. Superior salivatory nucleus
48. Initially, the developing hear1 is 43. Wt-iich of the following represents the basis for the
topical application of fluorides in dental caries
prevention?
A. Fluoride penetrates the enamel through the lamellae.
B Keratin content of the enamel is made more insoluble.
C Fluoride coats the tooth forming a uniform protective barrier.
D, The primary cuticle, being less calcified, absorbs the fluoride.
E. Acid solubility of the surface enamel is reduced by the fluoride.
44. Which of the following represents the primary mineral component of alveolar bone in the periodontiurn?
A. Osteoid B Elastin C. Collagen D. Hydroxyapatite E. Ground substance
A induced by the notochord. B, positioned posterior to the notochord. C. positioned anterior to the prochordal plate. D. between the prochordal plate and the
notochord.
49. Melanocytes migrate to the lamina propria of the oral mucosa from which of the following?
A. Myotome B. Dermatome C. Sclerotome D. Neural crest E. Rathke's pouch
50. Blood from the cephalic vein drains into which of the following veins?
A. Basilic B. Braciocephalic C. Axillary D. Internal thoracic E. Superior vena cava
45. Which of the following represents the primary function of cementum? 51. Coupled respiration requires each of the following
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A Attach Sharpey's fibers B. Protect the root from caries A. ADP C. Repair traumatic injuries of the root B. Oxygen D Supply nutrition to the periodontal ligament C. Carbon dioxide E. Maintain the width of the periodontal D. Electron donor
ligament E. Inorganic phosphate
46. The junction between the 100th surface and the 52. If the anticodon on transfer-RNA is 5'ACG3', then
crevicular ep~thelium is composed of which of the which of the following is its corresponding codon
following? on messenger-RNA?
A. Cementoid B. T~gtit junction C. Intermediate filaments D. Basal lar-nina-like structure E. Interstitial crevicular fluid
A. 5' CGT 3' 6. 5' CGU 3' C. 5' TGC 3' D. 5' UAG 3' E . 5' UGC 3'
53 Wllicl? of the following is the nlajor storage forrn of 58. Eacl.1 of the following is an anticoagcilant EXCEPT irori iri the body? one. Which one is 1I1e EXCEPTIOId?
A Transferrir? B. Wemosider~n C Apoferritir-r D. Hen?ogIohin E Ferrilin
54. When a mammaliar? red blood cell is placed in 0.3 5 9 per cent sodium chlor~de; water moves across the cell membrane by which of the following processes?
A. Osmosis B. Hernolysis C. Pinocytosis D, Active transport E. Diffusion
55. Free fatty acids in plasma are
A, metabolically inert. B. mainly bound to [beta]-lipoproteins. C . independent of epinephrine secretion. D. mainly associated with serum albumin
P,. Heparin B. Vitamin K C. Dicurnarol D. Sodium citrate E. Any antithrombin substance
The characteristic of the aorta that is n~ost responsible for the maintenance of diastolic blood pressure is its
A. wide lumen. 0. elastic distensibility. C. proximity to the heart. D. great peripheral resistance E. active contraction.
60. Colloid osmotic pressure of the blood is important because it
A. nourishes blood cells. B. aids in blood clotting. C. prevents loss of erythrocytes from the blood. D. prevents excess loss of fluid from capillaries. E. prevents entrance of tissue fluid into
capillaries.
56. Each of the following is required for normal blood dot formation EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? 61. VVhich of the following is most likely to promote
depolymerization of extracellular matrix? A. ~ a + + 6. Plasmin C. Thrombin D. Vitamin K E. Proteolysis
A. Cortisone B. Collagenase C. Chymotrypsin D. Hyaluronidase
57. Which of the following combines with heparin to 62. Which porlion of the nervous system contains the
inhibit blood clotting? cardiac, vomiting, and vasomotor centers?
A. Anti-thrombin I l l B Platelets C. Fibrinogen D. Plasminogen E . Thr-ombin
A. Medulla B. Thalamus C. Cerebrum D. Cervical region of the spinal cord
63 The concentration of wliich of the following anill-lo 68. Prior to surgery. an anxious patrent has a higher
acids L ~ I - I be used to dcter~i-line whether or not systolic blood pressure than previously noted.
dentrn has contan7inaled a purif~ed enamel Which of the following represents the most likely preparation? reason?
A. Lysirie B. PI-oline C. Hydroxyproline D. Phosphotyrosine E. Phosphoserine
A Cardiac shock B. Anaphylactrc shock C. Atrial f~brillation D. Ventricular f~brillation E. Decreased arterial compliance
64 Calcium is transported in the blood in combination 69. Reduced renal blood flow can cause hypertensiori with which of the following? by which of the following?
A. Albuniin B. Citrate C. Hemoglobin D. Beta-globulin
A. Release of renin B. Reflex vasoconstriction C. Retention of potassium in blood D. Increased output of epinephrine
65. Sympathetic stimulation most likely produces which 70. Which of the following describes the effect of a of the following? drug that inhibits renal carbonic anhydrase?
A. Glycogen synthesis B. Bronchial dilation C. Decreased mental activity D. Decreased metabolic rate E. lncreased blood flow to the skin
A. It decreases urea clearance. B. It increases the Tm for glucose. C. It increases the acidity of the urine. D. It decreases sodium reabsorption in the
proximal tubule.
66. Which of the following is the same value for 71. The composition of plaque is most similar to which intracellular and interstitial fluid? of the following?
A. [Na+]
s. [CI-1
c. [K+] D. Colloid osmotic pressure E. Total osmotic pressure
A. Bone B. Enamel C. Calculus D. Oral bacteria E. Saliva
72. Which of the following substances is the 67. Which of the following explains why an increased predominant source of ATP at MODERATE levels
illllng of the ventricle during diastole causes a (for greater than 60 minutes) of activity? more forceful hear1 beat? The increased ventricular volume A. Amino acids
B. Fatty acids A. din~inishes the refractory period of the C. Carbohydrates
ventricle D. Proteins B. increases end-diastolic fiber length. C. facilitates conduct~on in the heart. D. produces a less than opi~mal load.
73 Which of the follov~ing substances has a clear-aric~ ratr: that IS greater than the glomcrular iiitration rate (GFR)'?
/A. Para-aniinohippuric acid (PAtI) B Potassiunl C. Glucose D. Urea
74 What is the biological significance of the extensive degeneracy of the genetic code?
A. Alters the amino acid sequence of proteins encoded by the DNA
B. Mrnirnizes the deleterious effect of mutations C. Maximizes the beneficial effect of mutations D. Increases chain termination E Leads to active proteins
75. Which of the following types of blotting can be used to identify DNA restriction fragments?
A Eastern B. Southern C. Northern D. Western
76. The catabolism of which of the following results in no energy production in the form of ATP?
A . Lipid 8. Protein C. Nucleotide D. Carbohydrate
77. Which of the following substances is released by blood platelets and causes platelets to stick together?
A. Thrombin B. Fibrinogen C. Phospholipids D. Thromboxane A2 E. Prostacyclin 12 (Pg12)
7 8 . Peptide horniones generally exerl iheir e f f e ~ i
It-iroi~yi-I wthicfr of the foliovdrr-iy?
A. Intracellular receptors and stin-~ulatirig proteit-i synthesis
B. Receptors on the cell nien?brar?e arid stimulating protein synthesis
C. Intr-acellular receptors and altering the specif~c activity of certair? enzymes
D. Receptors on the cell membrane and altering the specifrc activity of certain enzymes
79. During the period of isovolurnetric contractiori, which of the following happens?
A. The semilunar valves are open. B. The leR ventricular pressure is rising rapidly. C. The aortic pressure is slightly less than the
left ventricular pressure. D. The right ventricular pressure is greater than
the left ventricular pressure.
80. Glucose reabsorption in the nephron is usually completed in which of the following?
A. Distal tubule B. Loop of Henle C. Collecting duct D. Proximal tubule
81. Which of the following represents the correct size and characteristic of the nerve fibers that conduct sensory input of pain from the oral-facial region?
A. Large diameter, myelinated B. Small diameter, myelinated C. Large diameter, unmyelinated D. Small diameter, unn~yelinated E. Intermediate diameter, myelir-iated
82. As blood flows through the periodontal niembrane. tr-emendous pressures occur in response to forceful occlusion. Blood flow is temporal-ily reduced, but platelets do not aggregate because of the presence of
A. ~ a " . B. ADP. C. thrombin. D. throniboxane A2. E. prostacyclin (Pg12).
8:: I417 exampit: of synergism is the effectc of
1 % . ir-isul~i-~ arid glucagot? on blood glucose. B. estroger-r a n d progesterone- on uterilie
mot~irty. C, growth tiornior~e arid tliyr-oxrrie on skeletal
g rov\lt h D. antidiuretic hornlone and aldoster-one on
potassrum excr-etrori
84. The jaw jerk reflex is an exaniple of which of the following reflexes?
A. Load 0. Flexor C. Withdraviiai D. Dynamic stretch
85 The stretch reflex 1s an example of whrch of the foilowing reflexes?
A. Withdrawal 8. Nociceptive C. Polysynaptic D. Monosynaptic
86. A patient bites down rapidly on an unexpected hard surface while chewing. Cessation of motor unit recruitment in jaw closing muscles is caused by stimulation of
A. rnuscle spindles. 6. mucosai mechanoreceptors. C. periodontal mechanoreceptors. D. nociceptors in the dental pulp.
87. Which of the following statements about norepinephrine is cor-rect?
A. Causes cardiac acceleration 6. Causes general vasodilation C. Causes vasodilation In vessels of the skin D. Has a negative inotropic effect on the heart E Is the preganglionic sympathetic
neurotransmitter
88. \r\lhic.h of ltle followirtg n-rolecules causes the
activaiiur I of 17-ryosir-I kirlase 3 rd the coi.liraclio~-I oi st?-tooth n-iuscle'i
A. Actir-I B. Tropor-tin C. Caln-ioduliri D. Calcitonin E. Cholecalcifer.ol
89. Which of the following is the primary difference between juxtameduliary and cortical nephrons?
A. Renal plasma flow B. Filtration fraction C. Length of the distal tubule D. Length of the proximal tubule E. Length of the thin segment of the loop of
Henie
90. Which of the following is an essential element
found in all cytochromes?
A. Co B. Cu C. Fe D. Mg E. Zn
91. Acute cyanide poisoning would most likely lead to which of the following?
A. lncreased oxygen concentration in arteriai blood
8. lncreased carbon dioxide concentration in venous blood
C. Decreased oxygen extraction by peripheral tissues
D. lncreased oxygen exir-action by peripheral tissues
E. Decreased carbon dioxide concentration in arterial blood
92. Chondroitin sulfate is a major component of vdliich of the following?
A. Hair 0. Mucin C. Cartilage D. Bacterial ceil walls E. Blood group substance
93. \riltiich of It-IC followirrg cliaracter~zes botli active transporl and facilitated diffusion?
A. Hydrolysis of ATP B. Conipetitive inhibition C Transport bidirectional D Transport against a concentration gradient
94. Wh~ch of the following has the most etlect in stiniulating respiration?
A Increase in blood pH B. Decrease in arterial p02
C. Increase in arterial pC02
D. Decrease in blood pH E. Decrease in arterial pC02
95. Which of the following proteins is involved with bacterial aggregation and subsequent elimination from the oral cavity?
A. Gustin 0. Statherin C. Lactoferrin D. Secretory IgA
96. Thyroid hormones are synthesized from which of the following amino acids?
A. Tyrosine B. Dopamine C. Histidine D. Threonine E. Tryptophan
97. Which of the following enzymes is responsible f o ~ inactivating catecholamines?
A. Phosphodiesterase B. Monoamirie oxidase C. Amino decarboxylase D. Tyrosine hydroxylase
98. Protein and RNA synthesis occur in each of the following phases of the cell cycle EXCEPT one. Wliich one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Go
B. GI
C . S D. G2 E. M
99. Wt-iicti niain product of protein riitroger? metabolisnl
is lourid ill human urine'?
A. Urea B. Ammonia C. Creatine D. Uric acid E. Creatin~ne
100. Each of the following is expected to be active during fatty acid biosynthesis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Tricarboxylic acid cycle B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase C. Amino acid catabolism D. Beta oxidation E. Glycolysis
101. Which of the following statements best describes the roots of a maxillary first molar?
A. The mesiofacial root usually tips mesially in its apical one-third.
B. The palatal root has a concave facial surface.
C. The palatal root is flattened and concave on its mesial and distal surfaces.
D. The distofacial root is flattened and concave on its facial surface.
102. Which of the following represents the location of the lingual height of contour on the crown of the mandibular second premolar?
A. Middle third B. Occlusal third C. Same third as that tooth's buccal height of
contour D. Same third as the lingual height of contour
on the crown of the maxillary premolars E. Same third as the lingual height of contour
on ttie crown of the mandibular first premolar
103. When viewed from the facial aspect, the crown of the mandibular first premolar has an occlusal outline that nornially exhibits which of the iollowing characteristics?
A. Cusp tip which is offset to ttie distal B. Cusp tip which is centered mesiodislally C. Disto-occlusal slope which is longer than ttie
niesio- occlusal slope D. Mesio-occlusal slope which is longer than
the disto- occlusal slope
904. ?-vdo pulp carials are most cornrnonly found in the
A. rool of a mandibular cer-itral incisor. B, facial root of a maxillary f~rst premolar. C drstal root of a mandibular f~rst molar. D mesial root of a mandibular frrst molar. E rnesiofacial rool of a n-~axillary first molar.
105. In the triangle formed by the projection of the orifrces of the canals of a maxillary first n~olar, the
A. line connecting mesial with lingual is longest. B. line connecting distal w ~ t h lingual is longest. C. line connecting mesial with distal is longest. D. angle at the distolingual canal is obtuse. E. angle at the mesiofacial canal is obtuse.
106 Which of the following attaches the root surface to the alveolar bone?
A. Cementum B. Attached gingiva C. Dentinal tubules D. Periodontal ligament E. Cementoenamel junction
107. Which of the following anatomic structures is found just lingual to the maxillary central incisors?
A. Incisive foramen B. Canine eminence C. Maxillary tuberosity D. External oblique ridge E. Greater palatine foramen
108. Which of the following papillae would normally be found in the buccal vestibule?
A. Parotid 6. incisive C. Fungiform D. Interdental E. Circumvallate
109. The bulk of a tooth consists of
A. pulp. B. crown. C. dentin. D. enamel. E. cernentuni
110 The part of the tooth w~liich. at a given mon-rent, is
exposed to the oral cavity 1s
A. the anatomic crown. B the clinical crown. C. the functional clrnical crown and root. D. measurably larger r r i young persons than irn
older persons. E, not effected by periodontal health.
111. The anatomic crown IS that portion of a tooth that is
A. in occlusion. B. exposed to oral fluids. C. coronal to the cervical line. D. occlusal to the gingival margins.
112. A patient has an extremely wide, notched tooth in the mandibular left central incisor position. Clinical and radiographic examinations reveal 28 teeth have erupted, but four third molars have not erupted. Which of the following conditrons exists?
A. Fusion B. Dens in dente C. Concrescence D. Dilaceration E. Gemination
113. When compared to a maxillary first molar, the roots of a maxillary second molar
A. are longer. B. are more divergent. C. are fewer in number. D. have less potential for fusion. E. are greater in distal inclination
114. Which of the following teeth is the most likely to have a bifurcated root?
A Maxillary central incisor B. Maxillary lateral incisor C. Mandibular lateral incisor D. Maxillary canine E. Mandibular canine
115. Which of the following primary teeth does a second prernolar replace when it erupts into the oral cavity?
A. Canine B. First premolar C. Second premolar D. First molar E. Second molar
I VVIircli of ti-lc followirng describes the contact I elatior->st-lip between a rnaxillar-y cer lira1 irncisor a1 16 a maxillary lateral rnclsor?
A Contact is offset to the lingual. B Contact is centered irncisocervically. C. Lingual embrasure is larger than the facial
embrasure. D lncisal embrasure is the largest of all the
embrasures.
1'17. In the horizontal plane, as the mandible moves it1 a lateral excursion, the midline of the mandible nioves
A. straight anteriorly. B straight posteriorly. C. straight laterally. D. anteriorly and laterally. E. posteriorly and laterally.
118. A patient presents with symptoms of an acute abscess on the maxillary left lateral incisor. There are no clinical signs of decay or restoration. Radiographically, which of the following will most likely be shown as the cause of the abscess?
A. Agenesis 3. Dilaceration C. Concrescence D. Dens in dente E. Enamel pearls
119. Each of the following can be found in the dental pulp EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Nerve tissue B. Blood vessels C, Cementoblasts D. Lymph vessels
120. Which of the following molar roots is wide faciolingually and concave on both mesial and d~stal surfaces?
A. Distofacial of a maxillary flrst B. Lingual of a maxillary frrst C Mesial of a mandibular flrst D Distal of a mandibular frrst
121. The d~stolingual cusp of which of the following molar-s might be absent?
A. Maxillary frrst B. Mandibular f~rs l C Mandibular third D. Maxillary third
'122. 11.) a right virorkirig ~nioven-rent, thc Ilngual cusp of a maxiliar-y rrght second premolar passes througt-I wlhich of the following mandibular structures?
A. Facral gr-oove of the right first molar B. Lingual groove of t!ie right frrst molar C. Ernbrasure between the right firsf premolar
and the right second prernolar D. Embrasure between the right second
premolar and the right flrst n~olar
123. The proximal contact areas between anterior teeth are incisal to the middle third of the teeth. Which of the following is an EXCEPTION to this rule?
A. The mesial contact of a maxillary canine B. The distal contact of a maxillary canine C. The mesial contact of a maxillary lateral
incisor D. The mesial contact of a mandibular lateral
incisor
124. When the mandible performs a laterotrusive movement, the laterotrusive-side condyle moves primarily about which of the following axes?
A. Vertical 6. Sagittal C. Horizontal D. Transverse
125. During a visual examination of a patient who has a severe clenching habit, which muscle would one expect to see enlarged?
A. Masseter 8. Temporalis C. Medial pterygoid D. Lateral Pterygoid
126. From the occlusal aspect, which of the following represents the most frequently seen form of a maxillary second molar?
A. Round 8. Square C. Trapezoidal D. Rhomboidal E. Hearl-shaped
127. Initiat~on of calciflcat~on for- the mandibular centr-a1 incisor normally occurs a1
A. 3-4 months of age 8. 1 year of age. C. 2-3 years of age. D. 4-5 years of age. E. 6-7 years of age.
121: The oblique ridge of the rnaxillal-y molar-s extends Ijt-tweerl wt-~icli two cusps?
A Mes~oiacial and distofacial B Mesiolingual and distolingual C Ivlesiolrngual and distofacial D Mesiofacial and inesiolingual E Mesiofacial and distolingual
129. A! age 8, the maxillary first molar has
A a mesial contact with the primary frrst molar. B a distal contact with the second molar. C, no mesial contact. D, no distal contact. E . not yet erupted.
130. Of the primary maxillary teeth, the c e ~ i c a l ridge would stand out most prominently as a distinct entity on which surface of which molar?
&r Surface
A, First Distofacial B. First Mesiofacial C. Second Distofacial D. Second Mesiolingual E. Second Distolingual
131. Which groove of the mandibular first molar does the maxillary mesiolingual cusp pass through in a lateral excursive movement on the working side?
A. Buccal B Lingual C. Central D. Distobuccal
132. Which of the following premolars frequently has only one pulp horn?
A Maxillary first B Mandibular first C. Maxillary second D. Mandibular second
133. Tlhe incisal embrasure is the snlallest between wlilch of the following two teeth?
A. Maxillary central incisors B Mandibular central incisor-s C. Maxillary central and lateral incisors D. Maxillary lateral incisor and canine E Mandibular lateral Incisor and central incisor
134. V\k~er-t in its norn.ral posilioi? relative to tihe arc11 fo~rl-I the cro\yr-I of a rrrar-ldibular frrct rntolar ir-tcli~rler-
A. drstally and facially. B niesially and facially. C. mesially and lingually D distally and lingually.
135. Which of the following teeth might possess three cusps?
A. Maxillary second pr-eniolar and maxillary frrst molar
B Maxillary second premolar and mandibular flrst premolar
C. Maxillary first molar and mandibular second molar
D. Maxillary second molar and mandibular f~rst premolar
E. Maxillary second molar and mandibular second premolar
136. Each of the following grooves originates in the central pit of the maxillary second molar (four cusp type) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Buccal B. Central C. Distolingual D. Transverse grooves of oblique ridge
137. When the mandible moves from maximum intercuspal position distally, any tooth contacts that occur are called
A. retrusive contacts. B. protrusive contacts. C. mediostrusive side contacts. D. laterotrusive side contacts. E. lateral protrusive contacts.
138. Between which of the following permanent teeth is the lingual ernbr-asure smaller than the facial embrasure?
A. Maxillary frrst premolar and maxillary second premolar
6. Maxillary second molar and maxillary thir-d molar
C. I\/iandibular first molar 2nd mandibular second molar
D. Mandibular f~rst prenlolar and mandibular second premolar
139 On a mandibular frst molar, the dlstofacial groove serves as an esc;apeway for the niesiolir?gual cus l~ of tile rr-~axillary first molar durirlg which of the following mandil~ular movernents?
A. Working B Non-working C. Protrusive D. Centric slide
140. Which of the following primary grooves uniting in the distal pit on the occlusal surface of the mandibular second molar represents the one that normally has no counterparl in the distal pit of the f~rst molar?
A. Distolingual B. DF triangular C. DL triangular D. Distal marginal E. Distal portion of the central
141. Which of the following best describes the cervical margin on the facial crown surface of the maxillary first molar?
A. Straight B. Evenly convex toward the apex C. Evenly convex toward the occlusal D. Irregularly convex toward the apex E. Irregularly convex toward the occlusal
142. Which of the following represents the most common type of root anomaly on the mandibular f~rst premolar?
A. Dwarfing B. Elongation C. Bifurcation D. Concrescence E. Trifurcation
143. Which of the following teeth represents the one most likely to present with three roots?
A. Mandibular central incisor B. Mandibular second premolar C. Mandibular canine D. Maxillary f~rst preniolai- E. Maxillary second premolar
144. Wliicli of the followirig represents the slructure in the I-r-iaxillary alveolar bone that n~axillary premolar roofs occasionally penetrate?
A. Antrum B. Nasal septum C. Frontal sinus D. Zygomatic arch E. Mandibular fossa
145. Which of the following jaw positions is determined almost exclusively by tooth contact?
A. Rest position B. Terminal hinge C. Maximum opening D. Maximum protrusive E. lntercuspal positlon
146. In a CUSP TO FOSSA contacting relationship in intercuspal position, the maxillary first premolar is most likely to articulate with which of the following mandibular teeth?
A. Lateral incisor B. Lateral incisor and canine C. First premolar D. Canine and first premolar E. First premolar and second premolar
147. Which of the following is least likely to contribute to or affect stability of the dental arch form?
A. Periodontal health B. Plane of occlusion C. Occlusal contact forces D. Interproximal contact form E. Forces exerted by the lips and tongue
148. When viewed from the frontal plane and progressing posteriorly, the axial inclination of the crowns of maxillary posterior teeth
A. remains vertical. 0. inclines lingually. C. inclines distally. D. inclines mesially. E. inclines buccally.
149. When viewed from the sagittal plane, the axial inchnation of Ihe anterior teeth
A. rernains vertical. B. inclines facially. C. inclines mesially. D. inclines distally. E. inclines lingually.
150 Ti-~e presence of n?snielor-is on a 19-year-old patlent suggests whict? of the follovdiiig condilioris'?
A Fluorosis B. li/ialforniat~o~.r C. Malnutritiori D. Delayed el-uption E. Anterior open bite
151. In osteonialacia, bones are weak because of the failure o i
A. remodeling of bone. B. bone matrix formation. C. osteoblast proliferation D. bone matrix calcification. E. interstitial growth of cartilage
152. Which of the following is the most common location for an atherosclerotic induced aneurysm?
A. Thoracic aorta B. Abdominal aorta C. Coronary arterles D. Arch of the aorta E. Common iliac arteries
153. Each of the following statements about poliovirus infections is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Most infections are subclinical. B. Paralysis is an uncommon outcome of
infection. C . There are 3 types of poliovirus, making 3
infections possible. D. V~rus is predominantly shed from the body
and transmitted in respiratory secretions. E. Some damaged neurons may be repaired,
restoring lost functions.
154. Which of the following can result if an individual having reactivation of latent varicella zoster virus transmits virus to a seronegative individual?
A. Shingles B Chickenpox C. lierpes labialis D. Infectious mononucleosis E. Iierpetic gingivostoniatitis
155. Which of the following conditions might be an initial manifestation of early, acute l i lV infection?
A. Kaposi's sarcoma B. Wasting syndrome C. Oral hairy leukoplakia D. Mononucleosis-like syndrome E Pneumocyslis carin~i pneumonia
156, VVhicti of the following pathogetis is tl-re single rnosi coninion cause of sexcially trarisniitted disease it? the U.S.?
A. Treponenia pallidurn B. Haeniophilus ducreyi C. Chlaniydra trachomatis D. Herpes simplex virus E. Huniari immunodeficiency virus
157. Which of the following represents the mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin?
A. Activates CAMP B. Causes cytolysis C. Inhibits translation D. Inhibits transcriptron E. Inhibits DNA replication
158. Each of the following fluids is considered one that can transmit HIV EXCEPT one. Which one IS the EXCEPTION?
A. Semen B. Serum C. Saliva D. Amniotic fluid E. Breast milk
159. Which of the following represents the anaerobic organism that is cultured from gingival scrapings and that forms black colonies on hemin-containing culture media?
A. Sarcina lutea B. Bacillus anthracis C. Veillonella alcalescens D. Porphyromonas gingivalis E. Alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
1 GO. Beta 1-4 linkages connect N-acetyl glucosamine and N-acetyl muraniic acid. The resulting polymer is found in bacterial
A. flagella. B. capsules. C. cell walls. D. metachroniatic granules
161. Rough pneuniococci that are grown in the presence of DNA from smooth pneuniococci develop capsules. This process IS termed
A. translation. B. transduction. C. transformation D. conjugation.
I During a17 outbreak of gastroenteritis caused by Salriionella; a strairi of the species sudder-~ly appears to be resistanl to several anlil~ioiics. VVliich of the following best explains why?
A. Parent strain has undergone several mutations
B Parent strairi has acqulred a plasmid. C. There are several specres of Salmonella
present, each resistant to one antibiotic. 0. New strain is a species of Escherichia coli,
which has acquired virulence by mutation.
163. Which of the following karyotypes is found in Turner syndrome?
A. 45, XO B. 45, YO C. 46 ,XX D. 47,XXY E. 47. XYY
164. Which of the following viruses are frequently associated with eye infections?
A. Mumps and measles viruses B. Parainfluenza and rubella viruses C. Coxsackievirus and rhinoviruses D. Adenoviruses and reoviruses E. Herpes simplex virus and adenoviruses
165. In humans, the mumps virus is transferred by
A. food. B. feces. C. flies. D. saliva.
166. Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) Class I molecules are found on which of the following?
A All nucleated celis B. CD4+ T cells only C. Epithelial cells only D. HLA Class 11-1- cells only E. Mesenchymal cells only
167. Soft and hard tissue necrosis char-acterizes wliicli of the following fungal diseases?
A. Mucormycosis B. Cryptococcosis C. Histoplasmosis D. Coccidioidomycosis E. Cand~diasis
168. Nongor~ococcal uretl-iritis is oiler-I caused by microorganisms 01 which of the followiriy genera?
A. Chlamydia B. Treponerna C Neisseria D. Hemophilus
169. Which of the following is least likely to ~ ~ r o d u c e acute abdominal symptoms?
A. Cliolelithiasis B. Acute pancreatitis C. Ampulla of Valer cancer D. Carcinoma of the tail of the pancreas
170. Which of the following represents the arthritis that is usually associated with aging?
A. Osteoarthritis B. Gouty arthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Psoriatic arthritis
171. Multiple, lytic lesions of bone characterize each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Multiple myeloma 6. Metastatic carcinoma C. Osteogenesis imperfects D. Hyperparathyroidism E. Langerhans (eosinophilic) granulomatosis
172. Osteoporosis can be associated with each of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Prolonged coriicosteroid administration B. Prolonged immobilization C. Chronic malnutrition D. Hypervitaminosis D E. Advanced age
173. In general, enzyme-deficiency diseases are inherited by which of the following modes?
A. Polygenic 8. X-linked dominant C. Auioson-iai recessive D. Autosornal dominant
174 Wtiict-i of the follovi/ing anemias results Iron? drug- ~ridi lced bone mar-row supl~~essiorr?
k Aplastic El Sickle cell C Pernicious D Hemolytic. E. Myelophthisic
175 Multiple drug resistance is associated with
A. plasmids. B. recombination. C. point mutations. D. specialized transducing phages. E. generalized transducing phages
176. Which of the following statements best describes bacterial transformation?
A. DNA coding for RNA synthesis B. RNA coding for protein synthesis C. Acquisition of an inheritable trait by bacteria
mediated by DNA D. Acquisition of an inheritable trait by bacteria
mediated by RNA E. Binding of 30s and 7 0 s ribosomes
177. Plasmid-mediated antibiotic resistance has been observed in diseases caused by each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Strepfococcus pyogenes 8. Staphy/ococcus aureus C. Neisseria gonor~hoeae D. Bordefella pe~tussis E. Haeri70pt7ilus influenzae
178. Each of tlie following can produce a genotypic change EXCEPT one. Which is tlie EXCEPTION?
A. Conjugation 6. Lysogenizat~on C. Transformation D. Exposure to tetracycline
179. The human imn~unodef~ciency virus preferentially infects which of thc follov\iing ceils7
A. NK B. Helper T C. Cytotoxic T D. Suppressor 7
180 Wliich of the following vir-uses IS most likely l o be isolated front feces?
A. Rubella B. Hepatitis C C. Influenza A D. Coxsackievirus E. Herpes simplex
181. Cellular tropisnl by viruses is dependent on which of the following?
A. Host cell DNA homology to viral DNA B. Temperature of host cell incubation C. Gamma-interferon production D. Cell surface receptors E. V~ral enzyme synthesis
182. A 5-year-old child with vesicular lesions limited to the palate and the posterior oropharyngeal mucosa
has an oral temperature of 10I0F (38OC). The most probable diagnosis is
A. chickenpox. B. herpangina. C. recurrent oral herpes. D. herpetic gingivostomatitis. E. hand-foot-and-mouth disease
183. Which of the following cells are the most radiosensitive?
A. Neurons B. Fibroblasts C. Lymphocytes D. Chondrocyles E. Epithelial cells
184. During repair, which of the following substances is essential for precollagen fibers to transform into collagen fibers?
A. Corlisone B. Carotene C. Ascorbic acid D. Prothrombir? E. Thromboplastin
185. Which of the follovding conditions represents ari iritox~cation rather- than an infection?
A Anthrax B. Botulisni C. Chancroid D. Bacteroidosis E. Salmonellosis septicemia
186 7-he tensile strengtil of a I-iealing n?ucosal wound deperids on wl-iich of the followirig?
A. Wound hormones B Epithelial regeneration C. For-n~atior-I of collagen frbers D. Act~vation of frbrir~olysis E. Formation of elastic frbers
187. The chemotactic accumulation of leukocytes at the site of immune complex deposition is a result of
A. steroids. B histamine. C. complement. D, antihistamines.
188. Which of the following has the least ability to regenerate?
A. Bone B. Liver C. Striated muscle D. Collagen E. Smooth muscle
189. Healing is retarded by each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Trauma B. Immobilization C. Infection D. Hemorrhage E. Ischemia
190. Escape of plasma from capillaries into an area of inflammation is favored by an increase in which of the following?
A Hyaluronidase B Leukocyte migration C. Vascular permeability D. Osmotic pressure of plasma E. Number of endothelial junctions
191. Each of the following conditions predisposes a patient to develop cancer EXCEPT one. Which one is thc EXCEPTION?
A. Asbestosis 0. Anthracosis C. Hepatitis C D. Gardner's syndrorne E. ulcerative colitis
192. Metastatic calcif~cations are n?osl likely to be the result of
A. gallstones. B atherosclerosis. C. hyperparathyroidisni. D, osteogenic sarcoma. E. lymphatic spread of lung cancer.
193. Difficulty in swallowing refers to
A. dyspnea. B. achalasia. C. dysphagia. D. hemetemesis.
194. Each of the following viruses is potentially capable of causing cell transformation EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Retrovirus B. Herpesvirus C. Picornavirus D. Hepatitis B virus E. Human papillomavirus
195. Which of the following terms refers to the presence of digested blood in the stool?
A. Hemosiderosis B. Hemochromatosis C. Hematoma D. lcterus E. Melena
196. Chlamydia trachoniatis might cause each of the following diseases EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Trachoma B. Lymphogranuloma venereuni C. Inclusion conjunctivitis D. Non-gonococcal urethritis E. Primary atypical pneumonia
197. Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with acute pancreatit~s?
A. Chronic alcohol abuse B. Diabetes ~nellitus C. Physical trauma D. Viral infection E. Hypercalcernia
198 Each of ttie following is attributable to hepatic failure EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A TI-emor B Gynecomastia C. Mallory bodies D. Hypoalburninemia E. Spider telangectasra
199. Red hepatization refers to which of the following?
A. Early stage of acute hepatitis B. Late stage of acute hepatitis C. Cirrhosis caused by hemochromatosis D Congestion of the liver caused by chronic
right sided heart failure E. Stage of lobar pneumonia
200 Acute passive congestion often accompanies which of the following?
A. Edema B. Inflammation C. Contusion D. Hematoma
NATIONAL BOARD PART I RELEASED ITEM KEY ITEMS 101 -200
NATIONAL BOARD PART I RELEASED ITEM KEY ITEMS 1-100
The above key may be used to determine correct and incorrect answers; however, for this itern set, it is not possible to convert a raw score number correct to a standard score or-
associated passlfail status.
