Biology 112 Introduction to Ecology Session: Summer 2014 ... 112/BIOL 112 SM... · Biology 112 – Introduction to ... BIOL 112 SM 2014 Midterm Exam 2 QA ... found in humans and typically

Biology 112 – Introduction to Ecology

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Page 1 of 45 BIOL 112 SM 2014 Midterm Exam 2 QA Practice 140707.2

Raven, Berg, Hassenzahl: Environment, 7th Edition

Chapter 7 Human Health and Toxicology

1. Which of the following action(s) may unintentionally contribute to outbreaks of infectious disease?

a) global travel

b) social factors

c) disruption of natural environments

d) crowding of people in cities

e) All of these choices are correct

Answer: e

2. The body mass index (BMI) is used to determine the health status of your weight for a person of your height. Imagine you have a BMI of 35.7. Doctors would diagnose you as:

a) malnourished.

b) underweight.

c) healthy weight.

d) overweight.

e) obese.

Answer: e

3. Acute toxicity:

a) is only caused by synthetic chemicals.

b) is poorly understood by toxicologists.

c) may mimic symptoms of chronic diseases.

d) produces an effect within a short period of a single exposure.

e) always results in death.

Answer: d

4. Endocrine disrupters:

a) do not include DDT

b) only affect the reproductive capability of females

c) affect the reproduction of fishes, birds, reptiles and mammals

d) only affect the reproduction of humans

e) are still often used in the US

Answer: c


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5. Pollutants that interfere with the normal functioning of hormones are called:

a) radioisotopes.

b) synergists.

c) stimulants.

d) endocrine disrupters.

e) carcinogens.

Answer: d

6. The _________ and __________ were amended in response to the need to test chemicals for their potential to disrupt the endocrine system.

a) Endangered Species Act and Fishery Act

b) Food Quality Protection Act and Safe Drinking Water Act

c) 2002 Conservation Act and 2005 Management Act

d) Assessment of Risk Act and Human Protection Act

e) Food and Drug Administration Act and Environmental Protection Act

Answer: b

7. The large number of children being driven to school rather than walking has led to which of the following:

a) Increased fossil fuel burning by vehicles

b) A decrease in the child’s exercise

c) Reduced interaction of children with their environment

d) Increased risk of childhood obesity


Answer: e

8. All of the following are true of red tides EXCEPT:

a) they are caused by certain species of harmful algae that grow in large concentrations

b) they frequently cause the water to appear orange red or brown

c) they produce toxins that attack the nervous system of some sea life

d) observed in association with phases of the moon

e) no one knows what triggers them

Answer: d

9. The three leading causes of death in the United States today are cardiovascular disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and:

a) pneumonia.

b) cancer.

c) influenza.

d) tuberculosis.

e) diarrhea.


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Answer: b

10. What has prevented polio from becoming eradicated on a global basis?

a) knowledge of what causes polio

b) the development of an effective polio vaccine

c) public fear and suspicion of the safety of the polio vaccine

d) availability of the polio vaccine to developing countries

e) global suspension of the polio vaccine

Answer: c

11.Two indicators of human health in a given country are

a) BMI and life expectancy

b) mortality rate and BMI

c) emerging diseases vs. reemerging diseases

d) health care and mortality rate

e) infant mortality and life expectancy

Answer: e

12. Emerging diseases are

a) infectious diseases that were not previously found in humans and typically jump from an animal host to humans.

b) infectious diseases that existed in the past but for a variety of reasons are increasing in incidence.

c) infectious diseases that were previously found in humans and typically jump from a human host to animals.

d) non-infectious diseases that have transformed into infectious diseases.

e) hidden diseases that are finally being detected through technology.

Answer: a

13. A dose that is represented as LD50 is a dose that

a) is administered to 50% of the population.

b) causes 50% of a population to exhibit whatever response is under study.

c) has a threshold response of 50%.

d) kills half of the population of test animals.

e) has an acceptable risk level of 50%.

Answer: d

14. A lethal dose of a toxicant may vary depending on all of the following EXCEPT:

a) organism’s age

b) organism’s geographic location


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c) organism’s sex

d) organism’s metabolism

e) organism’s genetic makeup

Answer: b

15. The National Institute of Environmental Health Science has identified several hundred environmental susceptibility genes. These genes

a) affect how the body metabolizes toxicants, making toxicants more or less toxic.

b) provide complete protection from environmental pollution.

c) allow adults to produce enzymes necessary to eat unprocessed food with no ill effects.

d) cause weaknesses in the immune system.

e) influence a person’s preference for outdoor activities.

Answer: a

16. The study of contaminants in the biosphere, including their harmful effects on ecosystems is termed:

a) Agrobiology.

b) Physiology.

c) Ecotoxicology.

d) Archaeology

e) Cytology

Answer: c

17. A carcinogen is a

a) type of microorganism associated with human sewage.

b) cancer-causing chemical, radiation, or virus.

c) vehicle that requires no gasoline to operate.

d) phytochemical (a protective plant compound that promotes health).

e) computer chip.

Answer: b

18. Chemicals that are not readily broken down into less toxic forms are said to exhibit:

a) persistence.

b) bioaccumulation.

c) biological magnification.

d) genetic resistance.

e) short-term effects.

Answer: a


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19. The build up of pesticides in an organism's body is termed:

a) persistence.

b) bioaccumulation.


d) biological amplification

e) the pesticide treadmill.

Answer: b

20. When a chemical mixture has a greater combined effect than expected it is a _________ chemical mixture.

a) synergistic

b) additive

c) compounding

d) unrealistic

e) antagonistic

Answer: a

21. An antagonistic interaction in a chemical mixture results in:

a) the expected effect given.

b) a greater combined effect than expected.

c) a smaller combined effect than expected given

d) no chemical reaction.

e) variable results depending on the chemicals present.

Answer: c

22. Cancer potency is:

a) an estimate of the expected increase in cancer associated with a unit increase in exposure to a chemical

b) an estimate of the expected increase in cancer associated with a unit decrease in exposure to a chemical

c) an estimate of the expected decrease in cancer associated with a unit decrease in exposure to a chemical

d) an estimate of the expected decrease in cancer associated with a unit increase in exposure to a chemical

Answer: a

23. Which of the following is a true statement about cost-benefit analysis?

1) helps decision makers formulate environmental legislation.

2) balances estimated costs with potential environmental benefits.

3) is never used in issues involving human health and safety.

4) is really only applicable in the field of economics.


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a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) 1 and 2

Answer: e

24. If you measured the LD50 for a particular chemical, you would know:

a) that the chemical is safe for human use.

b) how much it takes to kill 50 rats.

c) what dose is lethal to 50% of a population of test animals.

d) the chemical properties of the given chemical.

e) the effective dose for humans.

Answer: c

25. All of the following are true statements about nanotechnology EXCEPT:

a) It enables glass to be produced that is heat-resistant up to 1,000˚ C

b) The burden of proof about product safety will fall on the EPA

c) It can assist doctors in identifying cancer cells

d) The FDA will have to oversee regulation of nanotechnology with potential health and safety risks

e) It includes devices designed on the scale of individual atoms

Answer: b

26. Which of the following is an endocrine disrupter?

a) CFCs

b) mercury

c) ozone

d) carbon dioxide

e) acid rain

Answer: b


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Chapter 8 Human Population

1. The science of population structure and growth is called:

a) ecology

b) demography

c) democracy

d) human dynamics

e) ethology

Answer: b

2. The potential for future increases or decreases in a population based on the present age structure is called

a) intrinsic rate of increase

b) population density

c) population growth momentum

d) total fertility rate

e) age structure

Answer: c

3. A scientist who first sounded the alarm about the growth of the human population and the ability of the earth to handle a large population of humans was

a) Charles Darwin

b) Paul Ehrlich

c) Thomas Malthus

d) Rachel Carson

e) James Lovelock

Answer: c

4. As of 2010, the current size of the human population was

a) 2.5 billion

b) 3.6 billion

c) 4.2 billion

d) 5.8 billion

e) 6.9 billion

Answer: e


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5. The human population is increasing because of:

a) medical advances.

b) agricultural advances.

c) sanitation practices.

d) improved water quality.


Answer: e

6. Over the past several years the world growth rate has:

a) increased

b) decreased

c) stayed the same

d) doubled

e) increased exponentially

Answer: b

7. Developing countries fall into two categories, moderately developed and less developed. Which of the following is not classified as a less developed country?

a) Laos

b) Niger

c) Bangladesh

d) Thailand

e) Ethiopia

Answer: d

8. Relative to the United States, China:

a) has higher CO2 production per unit of energy

b) has higher per-capita CO2 emissions

c) has lower overall CO2 emissions

d) burns much less coal

Answer: a

9. An age structure diagram shaped like a pyramid is characteristic of a country with:

a) a decreasing population growth rate.

b) an increasing population growth rate.


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c) a steady rate of population growth.

d) a population crash.

e) a population at its carrying capacity.

Answer: b


Chapter 9 Urbanization

1. Which event (s) corresponded with a rapid increase in the population growth rate of Las Vegas, NV?

a) the end of World War II

b) completion of the trans-continental railroad

c) construction of the Hoover Dam

d) recent climate change

e) all of these choices are correct

Answer: c

2. Which of the following problems is commonly shared by cities in both highly developed and developing countries?

a) lack of adequate medical facilities

b) lack of adequate clean water

c) lack of adequate technology

d) lack of adequate schools

e) lack of adequate shelter

Answer: e

3. Mexico City:

a) is representative of urbanization in a developing country.

b) is a good example of a megacity

c) was one of the 10 largest cities in the world in 2005

d) had a population of 19.4 million in 2005


Answer: e

4. What percentage of the U.S. population lives in cities?

a) 25%

b) 50%

c) 79%

d) 85%


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e) 100%

Answer: c

5. Urbanization:

a) is growing more quickly in developing countries than in developed countries.

b) currently accounts for housing about 75% of the global population.

c) results in fewer employment opportunities in developed countries as compared to rural areas.

d) refers to the migration of city people to the country to enjoy country living.

e) describes a grouping of 10,000 or more individuals.

Answer: a

6. The young age structure of urban areas can be attributed to:

a) high birth rates in urban areas

b) influx of young people from rural areas

c) high death rates in urban areas

d) the presence of more females than males in urban areas

e) shortened life expectancy of urban dwellers

Answer: b

7. Unlike people who live in urban areas, people who live in rural areas

a) are employed in occupations which involve industrial labor

b) are far more heterogeneous with respect to race

c) are far more heterogeneous with respect to religion

d) are generally younger than those in the surrounding cities

e) are employed in occupations which involve harvesting natural resources

Answer: e

8. What characteristic defines a megacity?

a) a city that has more than 10 million inhabitants

b) a city that grows by approximately 1,000 new immigrants each day from overpopulated rural areas

c) a cluster of small or medium-sized cities, each with population of less than 1 million

d) a suburban sprawl of developed suburbs

e) a city that has over 100 high-rise buildings

Answer: a

9. The process in which people increasingly move from rural areas to densely populated cities is termed:

a) high density accommodation

b) rural redistribution


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c) urbanization

d) metropolitan relocation

e) municipality magnetism

Answer: c

10. Urban ecologists study urban trends and patterns in the context of four variables (POET) referring to:

a) pollution, opportunity, emigration, and transportation

b) population, organization, environment, and technology

c) pain & suffering, overt crime rate, employment, and trades

d) poverty, overcrowding, education, and traffic

e) politics, options, ecosystems, and travel

Answer: b

11. Sustainable urban development, ideally, involves

a) green space

b) recycling

c) urban farmers

d) solar energy


Answer: e

12. A patchwork of vacant and developed tracts around the edges of cities that contain a low population density is considered:

a) smart growth

b) sustainable development

c) green architecture

d) suburban sprawl

e) compact development

Answer: d

13. All of the following are considered a part of a city’s infrastructure except:

a) roads

b) department stores

c) garbage trucks

d) prisons

e) water treatment plants

Answer: b


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14. What is gentrification?

a) The movement of wealthier people back to older, run-down homes that have been renovated.

b) The remaining people in the city and older suburbs who find themselves the victims of declining property values and increasing isolation from suburban jobs

c) The movement of more affluent citizens to the suburbs to avoid the noise and pollution of inner cities.

d) The remaining of people in the inner city because of prejudice encountered when they seek to move out to suburban neighborhoods

e) The movement of people to the suburbs to pay less in terms of taxes but more in terms of transportation costs.

Answer: a

15. Transportation has affected the spatial structures of cities because:

a) as cities grow, a grid must be maintained for street development

b) as cities grow, a plan must be in place to evenly distribute the accumulation of heat from automobile use

c) as cities grow, they expand along public transportation routes

d) as cities grow, they expand in the direction of waterways

e) as cities grow, the dependence on transportation is lessened

Answer: c

16. Designing and constructing buildings that are energy efficient, economical, and made of recycled materials, is a trend called:

a) friendly construction.

b) green architecture.

c) environmental building.

d) passive design.

e) ecology construction.

Answer: b

17. In 2007 __________ was the fourth largest city in the world with 19 million people. By 2025, this city’s population is projected to be 26.4 million, which will make it the second largest city in the world.

a) Mumbai (Bombay), India

b) Mexico City, Mexico

c) Calcutta, India

d) Shanghai, China

e) New York, U.S.A.

Answer: a


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18. A program in Curitiba, Brazil which pays bus tokens, surplus food, or school supplies for filled garbage bags is:

a) Trash to Treasure Program

b) Rubbish Reward Program

c) Debris Barter Program

d) Garbage Purchase Program

e) Waste Watchers Program

Answer: d

19. A brownfield is an urban area of

a) vacant house lots that are overgrown with weeds and vegetation

b) parking lot pavement that collects heat during the day and emits heat at night

c) meadows that are earmarked for industrial development

d) sports arenas for baseball, football, and soccer

e) abandoned, vacant factories, warehouses, and residential sites that may be contaminated from past uses.

Answer: e

20. The National Science Foundation has two long-term research (LTER) sites (Baltimore and Phoenix) to gather information on:

a) interactions among humans in urban settings

b) the ecological effects of humans on their urban environment

c) the effects of natural disasters on plant and animal populations

d) public awareness of environmental policy decisions

e) the flow of money into and out of the urban region

Answer: b

21. All of the following are negative effects of prolonged exposure to noise pollution EXCEPT:

a) hearing damage

b) increased blood pressure

c) increased frequency of heart disease

d) psychological stress

e) all of these can be caused by prolonged exposure to noise pollution

Answer: e

22. All of the following historical events have led to movement of people into cities EXCEPT:

a) development of agriculture

b) the American Revolution

c) the Industrial Revolution

d) a search for jobs associated with natural resource extraction

e) the American Revolution and a search for jobs associated with natural resource extraction.


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Answer: e


Chapter 10 Energy

1. Which of the following problems is commonly shared by cities in both highly developed and developing countries?

a) lack of adequate medical facilities

b) lack of adequate clean water

c) lack of adequate technology

d) lack of adequate schools

e) lack of adequate shelter

Ans: e

2. Mexico City:

a) is representative of urbanization in a developing country

b) is a good example of a megacity

c) was one of the 10 largest cities in the world in 2005

d) had a population of 19.4 million in 2005

e) all of these

Ans: e

3. What percentage of the U.S. population lives in cities?

a) 25%

b) 50%

c) 79%

d) 85%

e) 100%

Ans: c

4. Urbanization:

a) is growing more quickly in developing countries than in developed countries

b) currently accounts for housing about 75% of the global population

c) results in fewer employment opportunities in developed countries as compared to rural areas

d) refers to the migration of city people to the country to enjoy country living

e) describes a grouping of 10,000 or more individuals

Ans: a


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66029 3 Units

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5. The young age structure of urban areas can be attributed to:

a) high birth rates in urban areas

b) influx of young people from rural areas

c) high death rates in urban areas

d) the presence of more females than males in urban areas

e) shortened life expectancy of urban dwellers

Ans: b

6. Unlike people who live in urban areas, people who live in rural areas:

a) are employed in occupations which involve industrial labor

b) are far more heterogeneous with respect to race

c) are far more heterogeneous with respect to religion

d) are generally younger than those in the surrounding cities

e) are employed in occupations which involve harvesting natural resources

Ans: e

7. The process in which people increasingly move from rural areas to densely populated cities is termed:

a) high density accommodation

b) rural redistribution

c) urbanization

d) metropolitan relocation

e) municipality magnetism

Ans: c

8. Sustainable urban development ideally involves:

a) green space

b) recycling

c) urban farmers

d) solar energy

e) all of these

Ans: e

9. What is gentrification?

a) The movement of wealthier people back to older, run-down homes that have been renovated.

b) The remaining of people in the city and older suburbs who find themselves the victims of declining property values and increasing isolation from suburban jobs.

c) The movement of more affluent citizens to the suburbs to avoid the noise and pollution of inner cities.


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d) The remaining of people in the inner city because of prejudice encountered when they seek to move out to suburban neighborhoods.

e) The movement of people to the suburbs to pay less in terms of taxes but more in terms of transportation costs.

Ans: a

10. A brownfield is an urban area of:

a) vacant house lots that are overgrown with weeds and vegetation

b) parking lot pavement that collects heat during the day and emits heat at night

c) meadows that are earmarked for industrial development

d) sports arenas for baseball, football, and soccer

e) abandoned, vacant factories, warehouses, and residential sites that may be contaminated from past uses

Ans: e

11. Currently the percentage of people living in cities, compared with rural settings, in highly developed countries is __________ than that in developing countries.

a) less than

b) greater than

c) the same as

d) rapidly increasing while slowing

e) stagnant while slowing

Ans: b


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Chapter 11 Fossil Fuels

12. Based on the figure below, which region of the world has the third-largest oil deposits?

a) North America

b) Africa

c) Asia and Oceania

d) East Europe and former U.S.S.R.

e) South and Central America

Ans: d


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13. Which of these fossil fuels was/were formed from the remains of ancient microscopic algae and aquatic organisms?

a) oil

b) natural gas

c) gas hydrates

d) methane

e) all of these

Ans: e

14. Combustion of which of these fossil fuels is/are linked to global warming?

a) oil

b) natural gas

c) coal

d) methane

e) all of these

Ans: e

15. Which fossil fuel reserves will most likely last the longest?

a) oil

b) natural gas

c) coal

d) peat

e) uranium

Ans: c

16. Which fossil fuel is most abundant in North America?

a) oil

b) natural gas

c) uranium

d) coal

e) peat

Ans: d

17. The type of fossil fuel made from the remains of ancient plants that lived millions of years ago is:

a) peat

b) coal

c) oil

d) natural gas

e) synfuel


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Ans: b

18. At the current rate of consumption, the world's coal reserves could last for possibly another:

a) 20 years

b) 50 years

c) 100 years

d) 200 years

e) 500 years

Ans: d

19. The concern about global warming is directly related to increased levels of what chemical in the atmosphere?

a) mercury

b) carbon dioxide

c) sulfur oxide

d) nitrogen oxide

e) chlorofluorocarbon

Ans: b

20. Today the world's main energy source is:

a) coal

b) hydroelectric

c) natural gas

d) nuclear

e) oil

Ans: e

21. How has the burning of fossil fuels affected the global carbon cycle?

a) less carbon is stored underground

b) carbon is stored underground for longer periods of time

c) the amount of carbon taken up by plants has decreased

d) the total amount of carbon on earth has increased

e) the carbon cycle has slowed down

Ans: a

22. The greatest increase in worldwide energy consumption in the last few years is related to:

a) American fascination with driving SUVs

b) economic development in China and India

c) use of fertilizers and pesticides in agriculture


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d) increase in population in Africa

e) global warming

Ans: b

23. A major reason that global energy consumption is increasing is that:

a) energy prices keep falling

b) developing countries are using more energy as they improve their standard of living

c) the world's population growth is slowing

d) global energy reserves are increasing

e) farmers in developing countries depend on the energy of animals for plowing and other work

Ans: b

24. One of the most destructive types of surface mining for the land itself:

a) is mountaintop removal using a dragline

b) is associated with the increased risk of black-lung disease in miners

c) is regulated by the guidelines of the 1977 Surface Mining and Reclamation Act

d) is most common in the western United States

e) involves replacement of the overburden that is first removed

Ans: a


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Chapter 12 Nuclear and Renewable Energy

25. Nuclear energy:

a) is released when the chemical bonds that hold atoms together are changed

b) involves changes within the nuclei of atoms

c) involves converting a large amount of matter from the nucleus into a small amount of energy

d) results in the production of greater mass at the end of the energy process

e) all of these

Ans: b

26. Nuclear fission:

a) is a form of combustion

b) is the blending or "melting together" of two small atoms to form a large atom

c) is the splitting of a large atom into two smaller atoms of different elements

d) is the rearrangement of electrons that occurs during a chemical reaction

e) is the process that powers the sun and other stars

Ans: c

27. The half-life of a radioactive element is the period of time required:

a) to convert half of a given mass into radioisotopes

b) to extract one-half of the energy from the Earth's uranium supply

c) for one half of the total amount of a radioactive substance to change into a different material

d) for the sun to us up one-half of its available atomic resources

e) none of these

Ans: c

28. The process of refining uranium ore and insuring the proper amounts of various types of uranium is called:

a) breeding

b) fabrication

c) enrichment

d) fission

e) integration

Ans: c


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29. A reactor vessel in a nuclear power plant is:

a) the protective structure surrounding the reactor core

b) the container used to store spent fuel rods

c) used to control the fission process in the reactor core

d) the site of steam and electricity production

e) the standard location for on-site waste storage

Ans: a

30. When high temperatures begin to melt the metal encasing of the uranium fuel pellets, this is called a:

a) breeder reaction

b) fission reaction

c) fusion reaction

d) meltdown

e) flame out

Ans: d

31. The worst nuclear accident ever to happen at a nuclear power plant occurred at:

a) Bristol, England

b) Chornobyl, Ukraine

c) Fukishima, Japan

d) Savanna River, GA

e) Three Mile Island, PA

Ans: b

32. All of the following are related to NIMBY response except:

a) not in my back yard

b) it commonly is a response to the proposal for a nuclear power plant

c) politicians and their term of office

d) is the “sister” response to NIMTOO

e) all of these are related

Ans: c

33. One advantage of conventional nuclear power, when compared to coal, is:

a) no connection to water pollution

b) limited risk from catastrophic accidents

c) emission of few pollutants to the atmosphere

d) no related occupational death

e) unlimited supply


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Ans: c

Difficulty: Medium


Chapter 13 Water

1) Water: a) is composed only of hydrogen atoms. b) is composed only of oxygen atoms. c) is composed of two atoms of oxygen and one atom of hydrogen. d) is composed of two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen. e) is composed of two atoms of helium and one atom of oxygen. Answer: d 2) The basis for most of water's physical properties is/are: a) its non-polar structure. b) the hydrogen bonds between adjacent molecules. c) ionic bonds. d) its status as a positive ion. e) All of these choices are correct Answer: b 3) Water: a) is a nonpolar molecule. b) is composed of helium and oxygen atoms. c) is a poor solvent. d) expands when it cools. e) freezes from the top down. Answer: e 6) An area of land that is drained by a single river is called a/an: a) wetland. b) aquifer. c) watershed. d) drainage basin. e) both watershed and drainage basin Answer: e 7) The upper limit of an unconfined underground reservoir of water is termed the: a) aquifer. b) water table. c) watershed. d) wetland. e) groundwater.


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Answer: b 8) Which of the following best describes groundwater? a) water flowing through permeable rocks and sediments b) water found in lakes and rivers c) water moving from precipitation over the ground to rivers and lakes d) water that is completely independent of surface water e) water found above the water table Answer: a 9) The greatest use of fresh water is for: a) irrigation. b) industry. c) small businesses. 11) When the Mississippi River flooded in 2008, a) it was the first time such floods affected Minnesota, Wisconsin, or Iowa. b) sandbags and levees prevented major damage. c) it was only the latest in a series of major floods along that particular river. d) wetlands prevented the water from receding quickly. e) it affected relatively few people. Answer: c 12) Which of the following is the most effective way to reduce flood-related damage? a) creating exposed, barren hillsides by clear cutting woodlands b) constructing new buildings c) building expensive levees d) restricting development on flood plains e) paving new roads Answer: d 13) The effects of flooding are more destructive today than in the past because: a) the use of levees has been determined to be an unsound engineering practice. b) retaining walls are too expensive to build in all of the appropriate locations. c) buildings are constructed on flood plains. d) soil with plant cover is ineffective in absorbing excess water. e) roads and buildings effectively absorb and slow water flow. Answer: c 15) A flood plain has the potential to flood. Why is this a problem? a) floods are caused by drought cycles in the weather b) floods are unnatural events caused by human activity c) flood damage is permanent, causing major changes in the course of the bordering river channel d) flood damage is extremely costly due to homes and businesses being built on the flood plain e) when flood waters recede, the flood plain is left infertile for growing crops


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Answer: d 16) Flooding of the Mississippi River basin in 2008 was caused, or exacerbated, by all of the following EXCEPT: a) faulty dams upstream of major flooding areas. b) several months of unusually heavy precipitation. c) levees that failed to hold back floodwaters. d) draining wetlands. e) building on flood plains. Answer: a 17) Removing too much fresh water from a river or lake can: a) result in increasing salinity for associated estuaries. b) cause a local increase in bird populations due to an increase in available habitat. c) have little effect on associated wetland areas. d) increase the productivity of associated wetlands. e) reduce an area's precipitation. Answer: a 18) Excessive removal of groundwater can result in: a) rising water tables. b) sinkhole formation. c) groundwater desalinization. d) increased discharge to streams. e) all of these choices are correct Answer: b 19) Saltwater intrusion can occur in coastal areas due to: a) excessive groundwater pumping. b) larger or more frequent hurricanes. c) sinkhole formation. d) wetland degradation. e) subsidence. Answer: a 20) A 2008 study by researchers at the Scripps Institution of Oceanography predicts climate change over the next 50 years will result in: a) flow in the Colorado River decreasing by 10-30%. b) flow in the Colorado River increasing due to warmer and wetter air masses. c) Lake Mead being unable to supply water to San Francisco. d) Hoover Dam producing 10% more electricity. e) greater saltwater intrusion along the Pacific Coast. Answer: a


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21) Future climate change will likely: a) have no effect on precipitation. b) cause an increase in precipitation. c) cause a decrease in precipitation. d) cause an increase in precipitation in some areas and a decrease in others. e) cause extreme droughts throughout all of North America. Answer: d 22) Around the world, about ____ people live without adequate access to water. a) 1.5 million b) 10 million c) 98 million d) 1.1 billion e) 5.2 billion Answer: d 23) In many developing countries, individuals: a) utilize excessive amounts of water for irrigation. b) consume about 200 gallons of fresh water per day. c) have insufficient water to meet basic drinking and household needs. d) use the most current technology to increase their water use efficiency. e) rely on desalinization to provide the majority of their water needs. Answer: c 24) The more than 100 dam impoundments along the Columbia River: a) generate electricity. b) control floods. c) adversely affect fish populations. d) supply municipal and industrial water to several major urban areas. e) all of these choices are correct Answer: e 25) Complete the following analogy: Dam is to ____________as levee is to ___________. a) xeriscaping / hydroponics b) electricity / natural gas c) reservoir / flood plain d) stable runoff / reclaimed water e) aquifer / drainage basin Answer: c 26) The process of forcing salt water through a permeable membrane in order to remove the salt from the water is termed: a) chlorination. b) distillation. c) reverse osmosis.


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d) saltwater intrusion. e) salinization. Answer: c 27) Approximately ______ of the Earth’s water is freshwater that can be readily used by humans and other terrestrial organisms. a) 0.1% b) 2.5% c) 10% d) 25% e) 50% Answer: b 28) Most freshwater is present in the form of: a) water in lakes. b) ice caps and glaciers. c) water in rivers. d) groundwater. e) atmospheric water vapor. Answer: b 29) Water problems are particularly severe in the: a) Pacific Northwest. b) American Southwest (Colorado River basin). c) High Plains. d) Gulf Coast states. e) Upper Midwest. Answer: b 30) Nonpotable water that has already been used once, but is reused for toilets or car washing is called: a) reclaimed water. b) household water. c) gray water. d) secondhand water. e) xeriscaped water. Answer: c 31) The largest groundwater deposit in the world is the: a) Great Lakes Aquifer. b) Great Basin Aquifer. c) Rocky Mountain Aquifer. d) Ogallala Aquifer. e) Hell Creek Aquifer. Answer: d


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32) Which of the following countries does NOT face significant water supply challenges? a) United States b) Iraq c) China d) Mexico e) None; all of these countries face water supply challenges. Answer: e . 33) Artificial lakes in which water is stored for later use are called: a) reservoirs. b) cisterns. c) lakes. d) ponds. e) estuaries. Answer: a 35) Desalinization is a particularly large industry in: a) Arizona b) France c) Russia d) Saudi Arabia e) Denmark Answer: d 36) Which of the following does NOT contribute to water shortages in the American Southwest? a) aqueducts transporting water from distant sources b) climate change leading to reduced snowfall in the Rocky Mountains c) growing demand for municipal, commercial, and industrial uses d) arid or semiarid climate with limited precipitation e) growing populations in cities such as Phoenix, Las Vegas, and Salt Lake City Answer: a 37) Which of the following does NOT describe Mono Lake, CA? a) the lake is naturally fed by rivers and streams originating the Sierra Nevada mountains b) evaporation is the only natural outflow from the lake c) water diversions to Los Angeles resulted in increasing lake salinity d) an agreement was reached to allow Mono Lake to return to its original volume e) the number of migratory birds on the lake’s shores is expected to increase over the next decade Answer: d 38) Which of the following have a vested interest in resolving the water rights controversy along the Missouri River? a) farmers


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b) Native Americans c) recreational and tourism groups d) hydroelectric producers e) all of these groups have a vested interest Answer: e 39) One way to make agricultural water more sustainable is through: a) water diversion. b) microirrigation. c) “use it or lose it” water allotments for farmers. d) international water swaps. e) plot flooding. Answer: b 41) All of the following are successful motivators for consumers to conserve water EXCEPT: a) water rationing. b) increased water prices. c) improved technology. d) effective education c) All these choices are true Answer: a 42) The average U.S. citizen can conserve water by: a) not allowing the faucet to run while shaving. b) not allowing the faucet to run while brushing teeth. c) reducing showers to less than 10 minutes. d) washing only full loads of clothes. e) all of these choices can help conserve water Answer: e .


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Chapter 12 Renewable Energy

34. If Hydroelectric power generation was doubled in the US, that would greatly contribute to energy independence of the US : See Big Screen

a) True

b) Somewhat

c) False

35. Adding 10 times the current wind power electric generation would dramatically reduce the US dependence on foreign sources of petroleum. See Big Screen

a) True

b) Somewhat

c) False

36. Oil / Petroleum is represents approximately ______% of electric generation in the US. See Big Screen

a) 39%

b) 23%

c) 8%

d) 1%

e) <1%l

37. The US is reliant on the following priority order of fuel sources for its electric power supply.

a) Oil, natural gas, coal, nuclear, renewables

b) Oil, ethanol, natural gas, coal, nuclear, renewables

c) Coal, Nuclear, Natural Gas, Oil, renewables

d) Coal, Nuclear, Natural Gas, Renewables, Oil,

e) Methanol, ethanol, propane, butane and isobutenel

38. Biomass can be converted into which of the following liquid fuels:

a) methanol

b) ethanol

c) fossil fuels

d) diesel

e) both methanol and ethanol

Ans: e

39. Which of the following is not a form of energy technology that originates as solar energy?

a) nuclear energy


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b) hydropower

c) wind power

d) photovoltaic solar cells

e) fossil fuels

Ans: a

40. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?

a) wind

b) fossil fuels

c) direct solar

d) biomass

e) hydropower

Ans: b

41. Energy produced from any source other than fossil fuel is called:

a) conventional energy

b) alternative energy

c) renewable energy

d) nuclear energy

e) sustainable energy

Ans: b

42. The amount of solar radiation hitting the Earth depends on:

a) the amount of cloud cover

b) the distance from the equator

c) the time of day

d) the season of the year

e) all of these

Ans: e

43. In the United States, solar radiation is greatest in:

a) the southwest

b) the northeast

c) the northwest

d) the mid-west

e) Florida

Ans: a


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44. Which of the following is fuel that can be used in a fuel cell?

a) hydrogen

b) coal

c) uranium

d) natural gas

e) petroleum

Ans: a

45. All of the following materials are examples of biomass fuels except:

a) wood

b) oil

c) animal waste

d) crop wastes

e) sawdust

Ans: b

46. Which of the following does not involve solar energy?

a) geothermal energy

b) photovoltaic cells

c) solar power towers

d) wind farms

e) solar thermal collectors

Ans: a

47. Growing crops specifically for alcohol production would probably result in:

a) increased desertification

b) increased soil erosion

c) reduced food production

d) increased pollution by fertilizers and pesticides

e) all of these

Ans: e

48. Wind:

a) is the result of the conversion of radiant energy into chemical energy

b) is used in Montana to generate most of the electricity used in that state

c) cannot be used to generate electricity

d) has been used to pump water, irrigate fields and grind grain for many hundreds of years

e) energy produces low levels of carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides


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Ans: d


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Chapter 14 Water

49. Around the world, about ____ people live without adequate access to water.

a) 1.5 million

b) 10 million

c) 98 million

d) 1.1 billion

e) 5.2 billion

50. We depend on water for:

a) manufacturing

b) travel

c) energy production

d) mining

e) all of these

51. Worldwide, freshwater use is:

a) increasing because, on average, each person is using more water

b) decreasing because, on average, agriculture is conserving more water

c) decreasing due to the decline in the global population growth rate

d) decreasing due to improved technology and greater efficiency

e) relatively stable due to offsets between individual use and industrial conservation

52. An area of land that is drained by a single river is called a/an:

a) wetland

b) aquifer

c) watershed

d) drainage basin

e) both watershed and drainage basin

Ans: e

53. The greatest use of fresh water is for:

a) irrigation

b) industry

c) small businesses

d) homes

e) mining


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Ans: a

54. Water problems are particularly severe in the:

a) Pacific Northwest

b) American Southwest (Colorado River basin)

c) High Plains

d) Gulf Coast States

e) Upper Midwest

Ans: b

55. Treated wastewater that is reused in some way is called:

a) reclaimed water

b) household water

c) black water

d) secondhand water

e) xeriscaped water

Ans: a

56. The largest groundwater deposit in the world is the:

a) Great Lakes Aquifer.

b) Great Basin Aquifer

c) Rocky Mountain Aquifer

d) Ogallala Aquifer

e) Hell Creek Aquifer

Ans: d

57. Artificial lakes in which water is stored for later use are called:

a) cisterns

b) lakes

c) ponds

d) reservoirs

e) estuaries

Ans: d


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Chapter 22 Water Pollution

58. After coal is burned, what toxic chemical is often present in the resulting ash?

a) silicon dioxide

b) mercury

c) plutonium

d) aluminum oxide

e) iron oxide

Ans: b

59. Which of the following led to a decrease in the size of the “dead zone” in the Gulf of Mexico?

a) increased biofuel production

b) increased global CO2 emissions

c) Hurricane Dolly

d) proliferation of intensive agriculture

e) increased river discharge due to heavy rains

Ans: c

60. What potential health problems are likely to result from the release of Volatile Organic Compounds (VOC's) into the environment?

a) cancer

b) high blood pressure

c) neurological problems

d) hormonal effects

e) gastrointestinal disorders

Ans: d

61. One major problem with sewage is that it adds which of the following to water?

a) sodium chloride and dissolved oxygen

b) carbon dioxide and nitrogen

c) nitrogen and phosphorus

d) human wastes and heavy metals

e) soil and microorganisms

Ans: c


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62. Sewage is degraded by the process of:

a) cellular respiration

b) photosynthesis

c) enrichment

d) eutrophication

e) primary treatment

Ans: a

63. Sediment pollution is caused by:

a) erosion

b) disease-causing agents

c) fertilizers

d) toxic compounds

e) heated water

Ans: a

64. The "dead zone" in the Gulf of Mexico is:

a) home to numerous bacteria and bottom dwellers, such as sea stars and spiny lobsters, but no fishes

b) due to regular dumping of untreated human sewage into the gulf

c) a large zone of hypoxia caused by excessive decomposition of algae

d) present year round

e) the largest oxygen-free zone identified to date

Ans: c

65. Mercury and lead:

a) are parts of acid precipitation

b) affect only small organisms

c) do not cause serious problems in the United States

d) cause mental impairment

e) are radioactive

Ans: d

66. Mercury:

a) does not occur naturally in the environment; it is a pollutant produced by exclusively human activities

b) emissions are generated exclusively by municipal and medical waste incinerators

c) emissions are linked to/produced by coal-fired power plants


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d) emissions are strictly regulated by the Clean Air Act

e) cannot be removed from power plant emissions by the technology currently available

Ans: c

67. Eutrophication:

a) lessens biodiversity

b) lowers the dissolved oxygen content of the water

c) is caused by nutrient enrichment

d) results in increased photosynthetic productivity

e) all of these

Ans: e

68. Pollution that is discharged into the environment through pipes, sewers, or ditches is called:

a) polluted runoff

b) point source pollution

c) nonpoint source pollution

d) specific discharge

e) effluent runoff

Ans: b

69. 72% of the water pollution in rivers is attributed to:

a) industries

b) household wastes

c) agriculture

d) mining

e) logging

Ans: c

70. Given the data in the graph, at what approximate distance downstream from the spill does the dissolved oxygen level recover to its original, pre-spill level?


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a) 15 km

b) 30 km

c) 60 km

d) 90 km

e) 120 km

Ans: e

71. Which of the following is not a potential solution to the "dead zone" in the Gulf of Mexico?

a) further treating wastewater to remove phosphorus and nitrogen

b) restoring the wetlands in the Mississippi River

c) reducing the amount of fertilizer used along the Mississippi River watershed

d) reducing nitrogen oxides from automobile emissions

e) limit agriculture, both crops and livestock, along the Mississippi River

Ans: e

72. Worldwide, freshwater use is:

a) increasing because, on average, each person is using more water

b) decreasing because, on average, agriculture is conserving more water

c) decreasing due to the decline in the global population growth rate

d) decreasing due to improved technology and greater efficiency

e) relatively stable due to offsets between individual use and industrial conservation


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Ans: a


Chapter 22 Pests

1) One benefit of using a machine like the "bug vac" to remove pests from crop plants is:

a) it targets specific pest species.

b) one treatment per season is sufficient for pest control.

c) it is safer for farm workers than pesticides.

d) it is much cheaper to use than pesticides.

e) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: c

2) A narrow-spectrum pesticide would kill:

a) all insects in the vicinity.

b) the organism for which it was intended.

c) broad-leafed plants.

d) grasses and their relatives.

e) a variety of organisms.

Answer: b

3) A pesticide used to kill plants is a/an:

a) fungicide.

b) herbicide.

c) insecticide.

d) botanical.

e) rodenticide.

Answer: b

4) Natural organic compounds produced by plants that are poisonous, particularly to insects, are known as:

a) narrow-spectrum pesticides.

b) organophosphates.

c) grass herbicides.

d) botanicals.

e) broad-spectrum herbicides.

Answer: d


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5) Botanicals:

a) have no effect on aquatic organisms or habitats.

b) are toxic to most microorganisms.

c) would include nicotine, pyrethrin, and rotenone.

d) would include Aldicarb, Lindane, and Methoxychlor.

e) are all synthetic pesticides.

Answer: c

6) DDT is a/an:

a) organophosphate.

b) carbamate.

c) chlorinated hydrocarbon.

d) inorganic compound.

e) narrow-spectrum pesticide.

Answer: c

7) Carbamates are:

a) broad-spectrum insecticides.

b) derived from carbonic acid.

c) not as toxic to mammals as organophosphates.

d) insecticides that show broad, non-target toxicity.

e) All of these apply to carbamates

Answer: e

8) Pesticides are effective:

a) at reducing crop productivity due to competition with weeds.

b) for controlling some organisms that cause diseases in humans.

c) at increasing the amount of crop damage due to insects.

d) at controlling insects and weeds, but ineffective against plant pathogens.

e) at increasing the farmer's cost for a particular crop.

Answer: b

9) Any inherited characteristic that decreases the effect of a pesticide on a pest is known as:

a) genetic resistance.

b) biological amplification.

c) resistance management.


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d) bioaccumulation.

e) persistence.

Answer: a

10) A predicament where the cost of applying pesticide increases while their effectiveness decreases is called:

a) resistance management.

b) persistence.


d) the pesticide treadmill.

e) chemical control.

Answer: d

11) One problem associated with pesticides is that they:

a) do not stay where they are applied.

b) tend to move through water and soil.

c) may move great distances from the point of application.

d) can be transported through the atmosphere.

e) All of these statements are correct.

Answer: e

12) In the United States, the individuals that are most likely to be poisoned by pesticides are:

a) children.

b) farm workers.

c) women.

d) factory workers.


Answer: b

13) Which of the following pesticides is a known endocrine disrupter?

a) Atrazine

b) 2, 4 - D

c) Butylate

d) Malathion

e) Aldicarb

Answer: a


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15) An important technique in integrated pest management is:

a) calendar spraying.

b) monoculture.

c) only using second-generation pesticides.

d) crop rotation.

e) bioaccumulation.

Answer: d

16) Using a combination of biological, chemical and cultural methods to control pests is referred to as:

a) biological control.

b) integrated pest management (IPM).

c) scout-and-spray.

d) biological magnification.

e) resistance management.

Answer: b

17) Which of the following correctly identifies a cultivation method that has been used to control pest organisms?

a) interplanting two or more crops

b) monoculture

c) strip cutting

d) irradiation

e) interplanting two or more crops and strip cutting are both cultivation methods that have been used

Answer: e

18) The techniques of using naturally occurring disease organisms, parasites, or predators to control pests is called:

a) biological control.

b) biological magnification.

c) biological amplification.

d) bioaccumulation.

e) genetic control.

Answer: a

19) Pheromones are:

a) produced by bacteria.

b) toxins.


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c) sexual attractants.

d) involved in metamorphosis.

e) pesticides.

Answer: c

20) Natural chemicals produced by insects to regulate their own growth and metamorphosis are:

a) pheromones.

b) hormones.

c) biological controls.

d) organophosphates.

e) endocrine disrupters.

Answer: b

22) Genetically modified, pest-resistant crops:

a) may contain the gene from Bt.

b) have been shown to be completely safe for non-pest insect species, such as the monarch butterfly.

c) have not yet been developed.

d) may become invasive pests or persist in the environment longer than unmodified crops.

e) require more frequent applications of pesticide, although in lower doses, than unmodified crops.

Answer: a

23) Quarantine:

a) may require the destruction of an entire crop or field to prevent further spread or infestation.

b) is a foolproof method of preventing the importation of foreign pests.

c) occurs at the entry points to the United States and has little impact on local farmers.

d) only applies to pest organisms and does not affect the import of the potential host organisms or products.

e) None of these choices is correct

Answer: a

24) The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants requires that countries develop plans to eliminate production and use of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POP’s). Countries have been granted an exception to this requirement for DDT because:

a) It is found naturally in several plant species.

b) It is an inexpensive method to control mosquitoes in countries where no affordable alternatives exist

c) It is the only method to effectively control the mosquitoes that carry malaria.

d) Many countries have stockpiled large amounts of DDT, and it would be difficult and costly to eliminate all of it.

e) None of these choices is correct

Answer: b


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25) According to recent studies, global climate change is likely to have all of the following effects EXCEPT:

a) An increase in the use of DDT worldwide

b) Positive feedback as more fossil fuels are used to fuel increased manufacture of certain chemicals

c) A decrease in the spread of Dengue Fever.

d) An increase in the spread of malaria.

e) All of these are likely effects of global climate change

Answer: c

26) Which of the following do not apply to organophosphates?

a) They are toxic to animals other than insects

b) They are toxic to humans

c) They are organic compounds that contain phosphorus

d) They persist in the environment as long as chlorinated hydrocarbons

e) They were an outgrowth of German World War II nerve gas research

Answer: d

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