BIOL 112 S 2011 MTX 1 QA Ch 1_9 Practice 110311.1.docxnapavalley.edu/people/briddell/Documents/BIO 112/BIOL 112... · Web viewNutrient chemistry is the same in both freshwater and

Biology 112 – Introduction to Ecology

MT Exam 1 Practice Ch 1 – Ch 9

Session:Section:Class Location:Days / Time: Instructor:

Spring 201151569 3 UnitsNVC 838W 6:00 PM – 8:50 PMRIDDELL

Chapter 1: Environmental Science and Sustainability

1. The sun's energy provides earth with:A) fossil fuelsB) energy-rich carbon compoundsC) patterns of temperature and precipitationD) liquid waterE) all of these

2. As the 21st century began, the global human population reached _____ billion.A) 3B) 5C) 6D) 8E) 11

3. The interdisciplinary study of issues involving human population, Earth's natural resources, and environmental pollution is termed:A) ecologyB) sociologyC) political scienceD) risk analysisE) environmental science

4. Highly developed countries are characterized by:A) high rates of population growthB) high per capita incomesC) simple agricultural basesD) 50% of the world's populationE) Thailand, Mexico and South Africa

5. The ability to meet humanity's current needs without compromising the ability to meet the needs of future generations is termed:A) ecologyB) environmental sustainabilityC) natural balanceD) synergismE) environmental science

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6. In solving environmental problems, a risk analysis is usually performed:A) to provide public awareness and endorsementB) to monitor the initial assessment and modeling of the problemC) to solicit public opinion about how evidence should be interpreted when selection a course

of actionD) to analyze the potential effect of an intervention or doing nothingE) a risk analysis is not necessary in resolving environmental problems

7. Examples of non-sustainable human activities or behaviors include:A) recyclingB) attempts to limit human population growthC) using technology to improve car mileageD) use of nonrenewable resources as if they were present in unlimited quantitiesE) conservation practices

8. The difference(s) between highly developed countries and developing countries include:A) income levelsB) industrialization levelsC) fertility ratesD) infant mortalityE) all of these

9. In 1950, the largest city in the world, with 12.3 million inhabitants, was __(1)___. By 2005 city (1) was surpassed by ______(2)_____ as the largest city in the world with almost 27 million inhabitants.A) (1) Bombay, India; (2) Mexico City, MexicoB) (1) Madrid, Spain; (2) Calcutta, IndiaC) (1) New York City, United States; (2) Tokyo, JapanD) (1) Shanghai, P.R. China; (2) Bombay, IndiaE) (1) London, England; (2) New York City, United States

10. Poverty is associated with all of the following except:A) low life expectancyB) illiteracyC) inadequate access to health servicesD) balanced nutritionE) unsafe drinking water






11. What activity/activities contribute(s) to making the human species the most significant agent of environmental change on Earth?A) continued population growthB) consuming non-renewable resourcesC) eradicating unique speciesD) ignoring the environmentE) all of these

12. The unifying problem of environmental science is:A) the overconsumption of fossil fuelsB) the pollution of the environmentC) the consumption of fresh waterD) human population is continually increasingE) the depletion of needed resources

13. What is a benefit to having a green roof?A) insulationB) filters pollutants out of rainwaterC) reduces storm water drainingD) wildlife habitatE) all of these

14. People overpopulation is a situation:A) that occurs when each individual in a population consumes too large a share of resourcesB) resulting from the consumption-oriented lifestyles of people in highly developed countriesC) in which there are too many people in a given geographical areaD) in which the level of demand on resources is greater than the number of people in that

geographic areaE) that will occur in the future but is currently not a problem

15. If we could immediately stop all use of fossil fuels, what would be the result?A) the earth's climate would begin to cool immediatelyB) the earth's climate would continue to warm for the next 10 yearsC) current patterns of climate change would continueD) the earth's climate would begin to cool after 100 yearsE) the earth's climate would begin to cool after one year






16. The IPAT model can be used to calculate which of the following?A) urbanizationB) people overpopulationC) industrializationD) international fertility ratesE) human impact on the environment

17. Highly developed nations represent less than ____(1)_____ of the world's population, yet they consume significantly more then _____(2)______ of its resources.A) 5%; 85%B) 10%; 60%C) 15%; 75%D) 20%; 50%E) 25%; 45%

18. A warmer atmosphere is likely to cause:A) increased melting of Antarctic and Greenland ice sheetsB) a greater amount of sunlight absorbed by landC) negative feedback between melting of ice sheets and atmospheric temperatureD) all of theseE) both increased melting of Antarctic and Greenland ice sheets, and a greater amount of

sunlight absorbed by land

19. Which of the following stages comes last in addressing environmental problems?A) risk analysisB) political actionC) evaluationD) scientific assessmentE) public education and involvement

20. Inductive reasoning begins with:A) generalities and draws conclusions on the basis of similarities to a general ruleB) political action to convince others of specific conclusionsC) public education applied in a democratic mannerD) a statement of hypothesisE) specific examples and seeks to draw a conclusion or discover a unifying rule on the basis

of those examples






21. In the scientific method, a hypothesis:A) is a statement of factB) makes a prediction that can be testedC) is usually proven to be correctD) can only be tested onceE) all of these

22. Reasoning that uses specific cases or examples to draw a general conclusion or discover a general principle is:A) deductive reasoningB) inductive reasoningC) hypothesizingD) rationalizingE) assessing

23. Deductive reasoning:A) is not particularly useful within the field of scienceB) produces conclusions that are trueC) provides new insight into possible relationships between data that already existD) reveals general principles from careful examination of specific casesE) is used in experimental design to identify the appropriate variables

24. Theories:A) cannot be testedB) are the same as hypothesesC) can be used to predict new data and suggest new relationships among a range of natural

phenomenaD) are the same as factsE) are rarely shown to be true

25. An integrated explanation of numerous hypotheses is known as a:A) factB) lawC) controlD) theoryE) guess






26. Which of the following factors indicated that Lake Washington was becoming richer in dissolved nutrients:A) the presence of certain types of fishB) the absence of certain types of fishC) the presence of certain species of wormsD) the presence of certain type of bacteriaE) satellite imaging of the lake

27. Pollution in Lake Washington resulted from:A) excessive treated sewage input from the surrounding municipal developmentB) a population explosion of resident freshwater fishesC) excessive boat trafficD) large bird populations inhabiting the waters of the lakeE) an oil tanker spill of home heating oil

28. Which of the following was not a consequence of the pollution of Lake Washington?A) increase in phosphorus concentrationsB) rapid growth of cyanobacterial populationsC) increase in fish populationsD) decomposition of dead cyanobacteriaE) drop in dissolved oxygen concentration

29. Which of the following statements about nutrients is false?A) Nutrient chemistry is the same in both freshwater and marine systems.B) Low levels of nutrients are desirable in freshwater lakes.C) Both nitrogen and phosphorous are nutrients present in treated sewage.D) Nutrients from sewage will have less impact on a larger body of water.E) Nutrients affect growth of photosynthetic bacteria and algae in Puget Sound less than in

Lake Washington.

30. Which of the following was critical to the successful reversal of pollution trends in Lake Washington?A) construction of a sewer to divert treated sewage from the lakeB) approval of a bill transferring responsibility for sewage to a regional government agencyC) increase in taxes to construct sewage facilitiesD) environmental monitoringE) all of these






31. "The Tragedy of the Commons" refers to:A) an environmental theory promoting public ownership of lands and resourcesB) an economic theory promoting private ownership of lands and resourcesC) an analogy describing the conflict between individual interest and management of shared

resourcesD) events impacting the common people, particularly farmers, of developing countriesE) environmental problems generated by farming practices

32. Which of the following is a true statement regarding ecological footprints?A) The ecological footprint of a single individual in the U.S. is greater than that of ten

individuals in IndiaB) The ecological footprint of a single individual in the U.S.is 1.5 times that of an individual in

FranceC) India's total global footprint is greater than that of the FranceD) If all people on earth had the same lifestyle as those in the U.S., we would need 3 more

earth's to meet the demand for resourcesE) The ecological footprint of a single individual in the U.S. is greater than that of ten

individuals in India, and India's total global footprint is greater than that of the France are both true

33. In order for a country to progress from a less developed country (LDC) to a moderately developed country (MDC), the country would have to:A) increase rate of population growthB) move from industry to agricultural economy baseC) raise the per-capita incomeD) maintain limited crop dependenceE) all of these

34. Non-renewable resource is to renewable resource as;A) living is to non-livingB) limited supply is to sustainable supplyC) tree is to coalD) wind energy is to fossil fuel energyE) conservation is to overexploitation






35. In order to estimate human impact on the environment we can:A) multiply the number of people times affluence per person times resources needed and

wastes produced I=P x A x T

B) multiply resource depletion times number of years divided by number of people I = R x Y P

C) multiply birth rate times consumption patterns divided by available resources I= B x C R

D) Divide number of people by resources needed and wastes produced I = P T

E) None of these; the human impact cannot be measured

36. In addressing environmental problems, several stages can be followed. For example, when it was discovered that the rat population on the island of Pumehana was out of control, scientists assessed the problem and formulated a model that suggested if a rat predator is introduced, then the rat population will be significantly decreased. The next step in addressing this environmental problem might be:A) action. Scientists sprinkle rat poison throughout the island. Several residents die.B) public education and involvement. Hold town meetings to inform island residents the costs

of rat predator introduction, a rat sterilization program, rat bounty program, or no intervention.

C) political action. A rat-infested island does not lure tourists so something MUST be done.D) risk analysis. If a mongoose is introduced to control the rat, what are the possible effects

of this intervention?E) evaluation. After the release of the initial mongoose population, it is discovered that the

mongoose is NOT a rat predator.

37. All of the following external factors contribute to the suitability of life on Earth except:A) soilB) fresh waterC) atmospheric gasesD) moderate sunlightE) general weather patterns

38. The Ehrlich/Holdren model assesses human impact on the environment based on all of the following factors except:A) the number of peopleB) the affluence per personC) the amount of resources used per personD) urbanizationE) the environmental effects of the technologies used to obtain and consume the resources






39. What is the correct sequence of steps in the scientific method?I. State the problemII. Analyze and interpret the dataIII. Develop a hypothesisIV. Share the results with other scientistsV. Design and perform an experiment to test the hypothesisA) I- II – III – IV - VB) III – I – V – II - IVC) I – III – V – II - IVD) V – IV- III – II - IE) V – II – I – III - IV

40. You are given a set of magnets and a variety of metal objects (nail, paperclip, iron filings, copper ring). You test the magnet with all objects and make observations. At the conclusion of your specific observations, you determine the general properties of magnetism. What is your thinking process?A) deductive reasoningB) inductive reasoningC) data intensive reasoningD) assessment logicE) hypothesis formation

41. In a positive feedback mechanism:A) a change in some condition triggers a response that counteracts the changing conditionB) a change in some condition triggers a response that neutralizes the changing conditionC) a change in some condition triggers a response that intensifies the changing conditionD) all of theseE) none of these

42. To test a hypothesis about a given variable, experimental and control groups are tested in parallel. Which of the following best explains the dual experiments?A) In the experimental group, a chosen variable is altered in a known way. In the control

group, that chosen variable is not altered so a comparison can be made.B) In the control group, a chosen variable is altered in a known way. In the experimental

group that chosen variable is not altered so a comparison can be made.C) In the experimental group, a chosen variable plus all other variables are altered. In the

control group, the chosen variable is altered however all other variables are held constant.D) In the experimental and control groups two different variables are altered.E) Experimental and control group experiments are identical and run in parallel to get

repeatable results.






43. Which of the following represents an idea associated with environmental sustainability?A) the capacity of the environment to absorb toxins is unlimitedB) the human population continues to decreaseC) we are using fossil fuels as if they were present in limited supplyD) the Earth's resources are not present in infinite supplyE) none of these

44. All of the following can be considered definitions of “theory” except:A) a theory is an explanation of scientific lawsB) a theory is an integrated explanation of numerous hypotheses, each supported by a large

body of observations and experimentsC) a theory is a condensation and simplification of many data that previously appeared

unrelatedD) a theory is a prediction for new data suggesting new relationships among a range of

natural phenomenaE) a theory is an ethical principle based on a religious foundation






Answer Key Ch 1

1. E2. C3. E4. B5. B6. D7. D8. E9. C

10. D11. E12. D13. E14. C15. B16. E17. D18. E19. C20. E21. B22. B23. C24. C25. D26. D27. A28. C29. A30. E31. C32. A33. C34. B35. A36. D37. E38. D39. C40. B41. C42. A43. D44. E






Chapter 2: Environmental Laws, Economics, and Ethics

1. Provisions of the Endangered Species Act:A) require the timber industry to reforest in areas of loggingB) grant the President authority to establish National Parks for endangered speciesC) provide a spending limit by the federal government in protecting endangered speciesD) require the government to protect the habitat of endangered species so that their numbers

increaseE) specify incentive-based regulation for endangered species

2. In 2000, “Clean Energy Now!” was the theme for:A) Stegner's Wilderness EssayB) Earth DayC) The American Dust BowlD) Sierra ClubE) John Audubon's paintings

3. Whose work heightened public awareness and concern about the use of pesticides and ultimately led to restriction on the use of certain pesticides?A) George Perkins MarshB) Henry David ThoreauC) Paul EhrlichD) John MuirE) Rachel Carson

4. Which U.S. president was most responsible for setting aside national forests in the late 1800s and early 1900s?A) Grover ClevelandB) Benjamin HarrisonC) Abraham LincolnD) Herbert HooverE) Theodore Roosevelt

5. Who was the first head of the U.S. Forest Service?A) Gifford PinchotB) George Perkins MarshC) John MuirD) Aldo LeopoldE) Wallace Stegner






6. Which naturalist was the founder of the Sierra Club and the force behind the establishment of Yosemite and Sequoia national parks?A) Aldo LeopoldB) Henry David ThoreauC) John James AudubonD) John MuirE) Theodore Roosevelt

7. The world's first national park was established in what year?A) 1780B) 1865C) 1872D) 1890E) 1906

8. All of the following were authors whose writings influenced the environmental movement except:A) Rachel CarsonB) John James AudubonC) Aldo LeopoldD) Wallace StegnerE) George Perkins Marsh

9. The legislation that authorizes the President of the United States to set aside national monuments is the:A) Antiquities ActB) National Parks and Forest ActC) National Monuments ActD) Wilderness ActE) Endangered Species Act

10. Earth Day:A) is celebrated exclusively in the U.SB) was initiated by the U.S. Senate in 1970C) has gained support for the environment within one or two major religionsD) is largely a government-sponsored eventE) focuses on what individuals can do to protect the environment






11. An environmental impact statement must include:A) an ethical analysis of the proposed actionB) short- and long-term effects and any adverse environmental effectsC) solutions to any potentially adverse environmental effectsD) documentation of the financial cost-benefit analysis of the proposed actionE) a description of the solution to any associated environmental controversy

12. The National Environmental Policy Act:A) mandates development of an Environmental Impact Statement at the end of any project

using federal fundsB) provided for the establishment of the Court on Environmental Quality to enforce U.S.

environmental lawC) requires the evaluation of federal highway construction and military projectsD) requires documentation of the financial impact of all projects with potential environmental

impactE) was signed into law in 1965

13. Environmental impact statements (EISs):A) must be made available to the publicB) only address potential impact on endangered or threatened speciesC) only need to project impact out to two years following the completion of the projectD) only affect the 20% of lands owned by the federal governmentE) are not required for any state-funded projects

14. Which of the following is not included in an environmental impact statement (EIS)?A) nature of the proposalB) short- and long-term effects of the proposalC) why the proposal is neededD) alternatives to the proposed course of actionE) guarantees that no species or habitat will be negatively impacted by the proposal

15. Which of the following is a positive outcome from environmental legislation since 1970?A) The California Gray Whale has been removed from the endangered species listB) 23 national parks have been establishedC) soil erosion has been reduced by nearly 60%D) the Bald Eagle has been removed from the endangered species listE) all of these






16. The study of how people use their limited resources to try to satisfy their unlimited wants is termedA) business analysesB) model testingC) hypotheses developmentD) economicsE) resource management

17. In the field of economics, the additional cost associated with one more unit of something is called a(n)A) marginal costB) external costC) direct costD) fringe costE) total product cost

18. When consumption or production of a product has a harmful side effect that is borne by people not directly involved in the market exchange for that product, the side effect is called a(n):A) marginal costB) indirect costC) additional costD) intrinsic costE) external cost

19. Laws that impose rules and regulations and set limits of pollution are called:A) command and controlB) environmental impact statementsC) legislative documentsD) legislative directivesE) environmental directives

20. You are an environmental ethicist. As such you consider:A) what role humans play in determining the fate of Earth's resourcesB) how humans should relate to the natural environmentC) the moral basis of environmental responsibilityD) political, economic, societal, and individual tradeoffsE) all of these






21. The deep ecology worldview is an understanding of our place in the world based on:A) harmony with nature and a spiritual respect for lifeB) human superiority and dominance over natureC) right and wrong environmental behaviors of our governmentD) hidden beliefs about the hierarchy of all speciesE) green politics

22. One approach to pollution control is incentive-based regulation. In this tactic:A) industries adopting specific pollution control methods recommended by the government

are rewardedB) industries are encouraged to emit an amount of pollution that is economically most

desirable for that companyC) green taxes are levied on industries that represent an emission charge on pollutersD) pollution control laws establish emission targets and industries are provided enticements to

reduce emissionsE) both green taxes are levied on industries that represent an emission charge on polluters,

and pollution control laws establish emission targets and industries are provided enticements to reduce emissions

23. Environmental destruction in formerly communist countries was so extensive because of:A) an attitude of high production and economic self-sufficiency, regardless of environmental

damagesB) an attitude of meeting industrial production quotas taking precedence over environmental

concernsC) an attitude of support for heavy industry such as power plants, chemicals, metallurgy, and

large machineryD) an attitude of low regard for the economic value of clean air, water, and soilE) all of these

24. A green campus is a(n) ______ campus.A) discard and goB) reuse and recycleC) environmentally unfriendlyD) naïve and unsophisticatedE) emerald and olive

25. National income accounts are incomplete estimates of national economic performance because national income accounts do not include:A) gross domestic productB) net domestic productC) estimates of imported goods and servicesD) estimates of external costs such as natural resource depletion and the environmental cost

of economic activitiesE) estimates of human manufactured material goods






26. Which of the following statements reflects the Western worldview?A) All organisms are interdependent.B) Nature should be preserved, not used.C) Humans have the right to modify the environment to benefit their wellbeing and high

standard of living.D) Humans and all other species have an equal worth.E) Humans have no right to reduce diversity of life forms except to satisfy vital needs.

27. According to the EPA's Draft Report on the Environment 2003, levels of wet sulfate, a major component of acid rain, have dropped by 20-30% since 1990. This success may be attributed to:A) National Environmental Policy Act (1970)B) Clean Air Act (1977)C) Clean Water ActD) Earth Day 1990 (Think globally, act locally)E) Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990

28. A preservationist is more likely to have a _____________ worldview, and a conservationist probably has a _____________ worldview.A) biocentric, eccentricB) biocentric, utilitarianC) anthropocentric, biocentricD) universal, rareE) self-centered, unselfish

29. Issues that added to the complexity of the controversy over harvesting timber from old-growth forests in the Pacific Northwest included:A) the fact that the timber industry had already begun to decline due to increasing automation

of the industryB) the fact that the timber industry had already begun to decline due to diversification in the

local economyC) the fact that unemployment in the region was at an all time highD) the fact that the timber industry in the area had been operating sustainably for decadesE) the fact that the timber industry was not willing to cease activities in the local area and

move to the southwest






30. The political solution to the old-growth forest controversy in the Pacific Northwest included all of the following except:A) providing federal funds for retraining former loggers for new careersB) passing legislation permitting salvage loggingC) passing legislation prohibiting all logging and timber cutting activities in federal old-growth

forestsD) the Northwest Forest PlanE) none of these, all were part of the solution

31. University of Oxford philosopher John Broome argues that society has not adequately considered the ethical consequences of global warming. These ethical considerations include all except the following:A) proper weighting of potentially catastrophic worst case outcomesB) appropriate distribution of benefits across the current population of the planetC) focusing on the expected outcomes of global climate change based on the best available

climate modelsD) the extent to which we should act now to limit impacts on future generationsE) none of these, all of these were ethical considerations

32. Which of the following people is incorrectly matched with their environmental voice?A) John Audubon: On Walden's PondB) Rachel Carson: Silent SpringC) Paul Ehrlich: The Population BombD) Aldo Leopold: A Sand County AlmanacE) Wallace Stegner: Wilderness Essay

33. Put the following historical views of the environment in the correct chronological sequence.I. Frontier attitude: desire to conquer and exploit nature as quickly as possibleII. Biocentric preservationists: belief that all life deserves respect and considerationIII. Utilitarian conservationist: view of environment in terms of usefulness for peopleIV. Earth Day celebrant: demonstrates support of environmental quality by planting trees, cleaning roadsides and rives and marching in paradesA) I – II – III- IVB) V – III – II - IC) I – III – II - IVD) III – IV – I - IIE) IV – II – I - III






34. All of the following are successes in pollution control since 1970 except:A) improved water quality in rivers and streamsB) DDT, asbestos, and dioxins have been banned from use in the U.SC) 75% reduction in sulfur dioxide and resulting acid rainD) 98% reduction in lead levels in the airE) 70% reduction in the use of CFCs and other chemicals that are contributing to the ozone

hole

35. The graph below represents the Marginal Cost of Pollution. Identify the correct curve for the marginal cost of pollution:

A) Curve AB) Curve BC) Curve CD) Curve DE) Curve E

36. All of the following would contribute to natural capital, except:A) groundwaterB) soilC) clean airD) mineral resourcesE) none of these, all are natural capital

37. The cost, in environmental quality, of a unit of pollution that is emitted into the environment is the:A) marginal cost of pollutionB) marginal cost of pollution abatementC) optimum amount of pollutionD) indirect cost of pollutionE) indirect cost of pollution abatement






38. The associated graph represents the:

A) marginal cost of pollutionB) marginal cost of pollution abatementC) marginal cost of recyclingD) marginal cost of waste-charge policyE) marginal cost






39. Based on the accompanying graph, which of the following statements are correct?

A) As more and more pollution is eliminated from the environment, the cost of removing each additional unit of pollution decreases.

B) As more and more pollution is eliminated from the environment, the cost of removing each additional unit of pollution stays the same.

C) As more and more pollution is eliminated from the environment, the cost of removing each additional unit of pollution increases.

D) As more and more pollution is eliminated from the environment, the cost of removing each additional unit of pollution reaches equilibrium when intersecting the amount of pollution axis.

E) Nothing can be inferred from the graph.

40. The amount of pollution that is economically most desirable is determined by plotting two curves. The point where the two curves meet is termed the_______________from an economic viewpoint.A) marginal cost of pollutionB) marginal cost of pollution abatementC) direct cost of pollutionD) indirect cost of pollutionE) none of these

41. Pollution is considered an external cost because:A) it has a harmful effect borne only by people who purchased the product that caused itB) its cost to the environment is not reflected in the price of the product that produces itC) it has a significant impact on the consumer's decision to buy the product that causes itD) it is a hidden cost that would produce increased demand if the consumer were aware of itE) it is an advertised cost that may affect consumer demand for a given product






42. The marginal cost of pollution abatement:A) is the added cost of reducing all types of pollution by one unitB) drops as the level of pollution fallsC) increases as the level of pollution fallsD) is low at low levels of pollutionE) is high at high levels of pollution

43. Having a bottle of freon cost a consumer $2,000 to pay for the damage it does to the ozone layer when it is eventually released into the environment is an example of adding in:A) emission chargesB) environmental impact statementsC) marginal costsD) external costsE) emission reduction credits

44. Economic strategies for pollution control include all of the following except:A) emission chargesB) emission reduction creditsC) waste-discharge permitsD) complete shutdown of a business that is responsible for excess environmental damageE) none of these, all are valid economic strategies

45. Which of the following countries have restructured their taxes to take into account environmentally destructive products and activities:A) GermanyB) FinlandC) SwedenD) The NetherlandsE) all of these

46. Western Xanadu's landfill is permitted to place a maximum of 350 tons per day into its landfill but must trade 50 extra tons to a nearby county. This is an example of a(n):A) command and control policyB) emission charge policyC) emission reduction creditD) marketable waste-discharge permitE) environmental directive






47. The Western world view most closely resembles the:A) deep ecology worldviewB) utilitarian conservationist attitudeC) biocentric preservationist attitudeD) frontier attitudeE) paralysis by analysis worldview

48. The timber industry in the Pacific Northwest was not operating sustainably. Sustainable development, ideally, improves living conditions:A) for a few decades into the futureB) for the entire current political administrationC) as long as resources lastD) for generations in the futureE) for the present generation

49. One approach to pollution control is incentive-based regulation. In this tactic:A) industries adopting specific pollution control methods recommended by the government

are rewardedB) industries are encouraged to emit an amount of pollution that is economically most

desirable for that companyC) green taxes are levied on industries that represent an emission charge on pollutersD) governments issue a fixed number of marketable waste-discharge permitsE) both green taxes are levied on industries that represent an emission charge on polluters,

and governments issue a fixed number of marketable waste-discharge permits

50. Which of the following statements reflects the Western worldview?A) All organisms are interdependent.B) Nature should be preserved, not used.C) Humans are superior to and dominate nature.D) Humans and all other species have an equal worth.E) Humans have no right to reduce diversity of life forms except to satisfy vital needs.

51. Which of the following gave authority to the president to establish forest reserves on federally owned land?A) Northwest Forest PlanB) General Revision ActC) frontier attitudeD) Antiquities ActE) The Fifth Amendment






52. Which of the following are not examples of religions making an effort to improve the environment?A) Harvard's Center for the Study of World Religions conferencesB) U.N. Millennium World Peace Summit of Religious and Spiritual LeadersC) Evangelical Climate InitiativeD) International Seminar on Religion, Culture, and Environment sponsored partially by the

Islamic Republic of IranE) all of these are examples of religious efforts to improve the environment

53. Which of the following terms describes the shortening of time and effort put into performing environmental impact statements?A) streamliningB) environmental justiceC) cost cuttingD) regulatory reformE) comparative risk analysis

54. Which of the following terms describes a range of projects designed to prioritize environmental regulation decisions by ranking risks and impacts to human health and ecosystems?A) streamliningB) environmental justiceC) cost cuttingD) regulatory reformE) comparative risk analysis

55. Oliver Houck states that compliance rates of environmental laws such as the Clean Water Act are at about:A) 35%B) 50%C) 70%D) 80%E) 25%

56. Which of the following describes the cost of society of having less pollution being offset by the benefits to society of the activity creating the pollution?A) marginal cost of pollutionB) optimal amount of pollutionC) marginal cost of abatementD) regulatory reformE) none of these






57. Which of the following is not a successful pollution-control outcome according to the EPA?A) levels of wet sulfate dropping by 20%B) over 800 of the 1500 Superfund sites have been cleaned upC) release of toxic chemicals has decreased by 48% since 1988D) emissions of six air pollutants have decreased by 25%E) 50% of rivers and streams are in violation of water quality standards

58. Which of the following is a critique of economic approaches to environmental regulation?A) it's difficult to assess the costs of environmental damageB) utilitarian economics are not universally acceptedC) many economic records of environmental problems are falseD) both it's difficult to assess the costs of environmental damage, and utilitarian economics

are not universally acceptedE) none of these

59. Which of the following statements about the effects of pollution in Central and Eastern Europe is not true?A) Many Polish children have suffered from respiratory and heart problems by the age of 10.B) Many inhabitants suffer from respiratory diseases from the polluted air.C) Levels of cancer, miscarriages, and birth defects are extremely high.D) The average life expectancy for Eastern Europeans is 11 years lower than Western

Europeans.E) All of these are true.

60. Which of the following not a principle of deep ecology, according to Arne Naess?A) all life has intrinsic valueB) the environment must be exploited to improve living standardsC) flourishing human and nonhuman life depends on diversity of life formsD) human interference with nature is excessiveE) flourishing of human and nonhuman life depends on a decrease in the human population






Answer Key Ch 2

1. D2. B3. E4. E5. A6. D7. C8. B9. A

10. E11. B12. C13. A14. E15. E16. D17. A18. E19. A20. E21. A22. E23. E24. B25. D26. C27. E28. B29. A30. C31. C32. A33. C34. C35. C36. E37. A38. B39. C40. E41. B42. C43. D44. D45. E46. D47. D48. D49. E50. C






51. B52. E53. A54. E55. B56. B57. E58. D59. E60. B

Chapter 3:. Ecosystems and Energy

1. The Chesapeake Bay is:A) home to many hydrothermal vent organismsB) an ecosystem with two-way energy flow due to complex interactionsC) not part of the Earth's hydrosphereD) one of the world's richest estuariesE) abyssal plain of the Atlantic Ocean

2. Typical inhabitants of a salt marsh include all of the following except:A) shrimpB) meadow volesC) mosquitoesD) frogsE) terrapins

3. Which of the following is an abiotic factor of the environment?A) living spacesB) disease organismsC) photosynthesisD) producersE) detritivores

4. The biotic environment includes a variety of components including:A) saprotrophsB) protozoaC) primary producersD) decomposersE) all of these






5. A species is defined as:A) organisms that live togetherB) organisms that live in the same area at the same timeC) a group of similar organisms whose members freely interbreed with one anotherD) all of the organisms that live together in an area, plus the physical environment that they

live inE) all organisms at a given trophic level within a particular community

6. Which of the following series is organized according to the levels of organization used by ecologists?A) population -> ecosystem -> communityB) species -> community -> abiotic factorsC) species -> ecosystem -> populationD) population -> community -> biotic factorsE) population -> community -> ecosystem

7. An ecosystem can be characterized as:A) populations + communityB) all species, population, and community interactions for organisms in a given areaC) the abiotic components of the environmentD) all of the biological interactions, plus interactions with the abiotic environment, in a given

areaE) interactions between physical processes and the abiotic environment

8. Landscape ecology:A) is the study of human-designed communitiesB) examines the influences of human activity on natural ecosystemsC) is exclusively concerned with terrestrial ecosystemsD) studies the connections among various ecosystems in a particular regionE) none of these

9. All of the following are components of the hydrosphere except:A) sea iceB) tropical rainstormsC) soilD) hailE) rivers






10. The Earth's crust, made of rock and soil, is known as the:A) hydrosphereB) ecosphereC) biosphereD) lithosphereE) atmosphere

11. The chemical energy stored in a plant is an example of:A) kinetic energyB) nuclear energyC) solar energyD) potential energyE) radiant energy

12. Which of the following is an example of a closed system?A) EarthB) oceanC) desertD) hydrothermal ventE) none of these

13. The First Law of Thermodynamics states that:A) energy can be created or destroyed by physical processesB) entropy always increasesC) energy cannot be created or destroyedD) the organization of the universe is steadily increasingE) energy transfer between organisms is inefficient and much energy is lost

14. Entropy is a measure of:A) the amount of energy in a systemB) the amount of work doneC) the disorder in a systemD) the efficiency of a systemE) the rate of energy use in a system

15. Energy flow through an ecosystem involves:A) producersB) consumersC) decomposersD) the sunE) all of these






16. Energy:A) recycles continuously through an ecosystemB) is used over and over againC) flows in only one direction through an ecosystemD) tends to be concentrated by living organismsE) is efficiently transferred between trophic levels

17. Sunlight is the energy source used during which process?A) respirationB) glycolysisC) mitochondriaD) chemosynthesisE) none of these

18. The correct, chemically balanced equation for photosynthesis is:A) 12CO2 + 6H2O + RADIANT ENERGY C6H12O6 + 12O2

B) 6CO2 + 12H2O + RADIANT ENERGY C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2

C) 12O + C6H12O6 + 6H2O 6CO2 +12H2O + ENERGY.D) 12O2 + C6H12O6 + 12H2O 6CO2 + 12H2O + ENERGYE) 6O2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O 6CO2 + 12H2O + ENERGY

19. Which of the following organisms are capable of cellular respiration?A) green plantsB) bacteriaC) carnivoresD) algaeE) all of these

20. The correct, chemically balanced equation for cellular respiration is:A) 12CO2 + 6H2O + RADIANT ENERGY C6H12O6 + 12O2

B) 6CO2 +12H2O + RADIANT ENERGY C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2

C) C6H12O6 + 12H2O 6CO2 +12H2O + ENERGYD) 12O2 + C6H12O6 + 12H2O 6CO2 + 12H2O + ENERGYE) 6O2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O 6CO2 + 12H2O + ENERGY






21. Which of the following is not a product of cellular respiration?A) carbon dioxideB) waterC) sugarD) energyE) both carbon dioxide and water

22. Carbohydrates are not:A) stored potential energyB) made mostly of nitrogen and carbonC) broken down by cellular respirationD) made by producersE) used by decomposers

23. The ultimate source of energy for communities associated with hydrothermal vents is:A) hot seawaterB) sinking detritus from the surface watersC) energy derived from photosynthesis, as in almost all other communitiesD) chemical synthesis of organic molecules by bacteriaE) algae

24. Chemosynthesis supports which of the following ecosystems?A) salt marshB) forestC) estuaryD) desertE) hydrothermal vents

25. Which of the following organisms are producers in hydrothermal vent communities?A) bacteriaB) algaeC) fungiD) mossE) none of these

26. Which of the following are producers?A) nutrient-rich watersB) rabbitsC) algaeD) fungiE) saprotrophs






27. Decomposers are:A) bacteria and fungiB) consumersC) saprotrophsD) heterotrophsE) all of these are correct

28. A secondary consumer would eat:A) tertiary consumersB) fungiC) bacteriaD) herbivoresE) lions

29. A primary consumer would eat:A) secondary consumersB) plantsC) bacteriaD) herbivoresE) rabbits

30. Decomposers provide mineral nutrients for:A) heterotrophsB) autotrophsC) the second trophic levelD) the third trophic levelE) omnivores

31. Detritivores consume:A) leaf litterB) animal carcassesC) fecesD) all of theseE) leaf litter and animal carcasses only






32. Each level or "link" in a food chain or a food web is called:A) a trophic levelB) a consumerC) an energy flow unitD) an equivalentE) entropy

33. The dominant herbivores in the Antarctic food web are:A) baleen whalesB) squidC) krillD) king and emperor penguinsE) barnacles and mussels

34. In the Antarctic food web the base of the food chain is occupied by:A) krillB) minnowsC) algaeD) tunaE) deep-sea bacteria

35. Which of the following is one of the most productive ecosystems?A) algal bedsB) estuariesC) coral reefsD) all of theseE) both estuaries and coral reefs only

36. In human cells, energy utilization is about __________ efficient compared to an automobile engine, which is about ______ efficient.A) 1% / 100%B) 10% / 50%C) 25% / 90%D) 40% / 25%E) 75% / 10%






37. Of the following, which statement is false?A) The second law of thermodynamics predicts that although localized areas may temporarily

increase in the degree of order, the overall randomness of the universe will not decrease.B) Energy flow in ecosystems is linear, or one-way.C) Photosynthesis converts the energy of the sun into stored chemical energy.D) Cellular respiration converts carbohydrates into usable energy and heat.E) Only about half the energy available in an organism is transferred to the consumer that

eats it.

38. In a pyramid of biomass, the tropic level of which organism would have the least biomass?Grass, is eaten by grasshoppers, which are eaten by toads, which are eaten by snakesA) grassB) grasshoppersC) toadsD) snakesE) none of these, all tropic levels would be of equal biomass

39. In an ecosystem such as Chesapeake Bay, producers:A) provide foodB) provide shelterC) provide oxygenD) all of theseE) both provide food and provide oxygen only

40. The chlorophyll in producers captures _________, and transforms it into chemical energy stored in _____________.A) electrons; waste productsB) light energy; organic compounds such as carbohydratesC) nuclear energy; chemicals such as DNAD) light energy; the ozoneE) heat energy; the ability to do work

41. Many important, nonliving factors within an open (eco)system are recycled, although some are not. The survival of an open system depends on an exchange of ______ with its surroundings.A) energyB) carbon dioxideC) plantsD) oxygenE) nitrogen






42. The major biological source of oxygen, which many organisms require when they break down glucose, is actually a by-product of:A) cellular respirationB) chemosynthesisC) entropyD) photosynthesisE) global warming

43. Net primary productivity represents:A) plant growth per unit area per unit timeB) energy per unit area per unit timeC) the energy available to herbivore.D) amount of biomass found in excess of that broken down by a plant's cellular respirationE) all of these






44. Which statement best portrays the eastern cottontail in the food web below?

A) consumers that eat producers are primary consumers or herbivoresB) secondary consumers eat primary consumersC) both secondary and tertiary consumers are carnivoresD) tertiary consumers are also called heterotrophsE) primary consumers are detritus feeders






45. In the food web below, the mountain lion is an example of:

A) a tertiary consumerB) an autotrophC) a saprotrophD) a herbivoreE) an omnivore

46. In October of 2003, a raging wildfire swept through the mountain ecosystems in Southern California, burning everything in its path to the ground and driving away all of the animals. In order for the mountain ecosystem to re-establish itself, which member of the food web has to return first?A) deerB) snakesC) birdsD) coyotesE) grasses






47. Which term encompasses the other four?A) communityB) populationC) speciesD) biosphereE) ecosystem

48. An example of a biotic component of an ecosystem isA) the climateB) a communityC) waterD) synthetic pesticideE) rock

49. In a pyramid of numbers, the largest number of organisms would typically be found:A) at the highest end of the food chain, with each lower trophic level occupied by fewer

organismsB) at the highest end of the food chain, with each lower trophic level having the same number

of organismsC) at the lowest end of the food chain, with each successive trophic level occupied by fewer

organismsD) at the lowest end of the food chain, with each successive trophic level having the same

number of organisms

E) none of these

50. In a pyramid of energy, the lowest quantity of energy (kcal/m2/year), would be found in the:A) producersB) primary consumersC) secondary consumersD) tertiary consumersE) herbivores

51. Which of the following is not a concern related to human impact on the Antarctic food web?A) global warmingB) commercial whalingC) thinning of the ozone layerD) harvesting krillE) none of these, all are human impacts on the Antarctic






52. Which of the following is not critical for a balanced ecosystem?A) decomposersB) producersC) plantsD) consumersE) humans

53. All of the following refer to primary consumers except:A) carnivoreB) consumers that eat autotrophsC) rabbitsD) herbivoresE) second trophic level

54. With respect to _________, every ecosystem is open.A) speciesB) populationsC) the first and second laws of thermodynamicsD) energy flowE) inorganic compounds

55. Detritivores, scavengers, and decomposers are similar in that theyA) consume nonliving organic matterB) are primarily microorganismsC) are primarily producersD) are among the Earth's least useful organismsE) are found only in the water

56. Why do deep-sea organisms cluster around hydrothermal vents?A) these organisms prefer the warmth of the ventB) these organisms depend on the organic material drifting down from surface waters to the

vent for foodC) these organisms obtain energy by chemosynthesis from inorganic molecules of ventsD) these organisms have a light phobiaE) these organisms use the pressure of the deep ocean to metabolize organic molecules






57. Which of the following is not a form of energy?A) mechanicalB) radiantC) solarD) stagnantE) chemical

58. One _________ is the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1 degrees Celsius?A) kilojouleB) moleculeC) atomic nucleiD) thermodynamicE) kilocalorie

59. Which of the following statements about energy is true?A) Organisms can reuse energy for biological work.B) Organisms can create the energy required to live.C) The energy present in the universe will always be the same amount.D) Energy cannot change from one form to another.E) None of these are true.

60. Which of the following is responsible for the sharp decrease in the population of hippos in Lake Edward?A) overfishingB) the militaryC) polluted waterD) algal bloom leading to large fish killsE) none of these

61. Energy cannot be created or destroyed, but it can be converted from one form to another is the:A) second law of thermodynamicsB) first law of thermodynamicsC) theory of relativityD) first law of centrifugationE) energy transformation






62. Energy enters almost all ecosystems as:A) mechanical energyB) recycled energyC) potential energyD) radiant energyE) none of these

63. What category would carnivores fall into?A) heterotrophsB) tertiary consumersC) omnivoresD) secondary consumersE) both tertiary consumers and secondary consumers

64. Which of the following represent the interlocking of food chains which connects organisms in an ecosystem?A) communityB) trophic levelC) food webD) symbiosisE) saprotrophy

65. Which of the following statements is true about the human interference with the Antarctic food web?A) Humans have had little impact on the Antarctic food web.B) Whaling was only a small contributor to the decline in krill population.C) There is still an abundance of pack ice to provide marine algae for krill.D) Low krill population increases the breeding success of penguins and fur seals.E) None of these are true.

66. Which of the following is not one of the main types of ecological pyramids?A) pyramid of consumptionB) pyramid of energyC) pyramid of numbersD) pyramid of biomassE) none of these, all are types of ecological pyramids






67. Decomposers are:A) consumersB) bacteriaC) saprotrophsD) fungiE) all of these are correct






Answer Key Ch 3

1. D2. D3. A4. E5. C6. E7. D8. D9. C

10. D11. D12. E13. C14. C15. E16. C17. E18. B19. E20. E21. C22. B23. D24. E25. A26. C27. E28. D29. B30. B31. D32. A33. C34. C35. D36. D37. E38. D39. E40. B41. A42. D43. E44. A45. A46. E47. D48. B49. C50. D






51. E52. E53. A54. C55. A56. C57. D58. E59. C60. B61. B62. D63. E64. C65. E66. A67. E

Chapter 4: Ecosystems and Living Organisms

1. The theory of evolution by natural selection was proposed in, The Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection (1859) written by:A) G. F. GauseB) Rachel CarsonC) Ponce de LeonD) Charles DarwinE) Aristotle

2. Individuals within a population each have a unique combination of traits due to:A) overproductionB) evolutionC) genetic variationD) differential reproductive successE) natural selection

3. The mechanism of natural selection involves all of the following except:A) overproduction within a speciesB) limits on population growthC) genetic variationD) differential reproductive successE) a stable community structure






4. Which of the following organisms has no demonstrated relationship to the potential occurrence of Lyme disease?A) gray wolvesB) acornsC) white-footed miceD) deerE) gypsy moths

5. Which of the following characteristics would easily identify a prokaryotic organism?A) lack a nuclear envelope and other internal cell membranes.B) able to photosynthesizeC) multicellularD) ingest food and then digest it within their bodiesE) only found in oxygen-deficient environments

6. Which of the following characteristics is used to identify members of the Kingdom Animalia?A) lack a nuclear envelope and other internal cell membranes.B) use radiant energy to synthesize organic moleculesC) ingest food and digest it internallyD) secrete digestive enzymes into their food and then absorb the pre-digested nutrientsE) locomotion

7. Symbiosis is the result of coevolution. Coevolution is the result of the interdependent evolution of:A) two interacting speciesB) similar organisms whose members freely interbreed in the wildC) a single species producing more offspring than will surviveD) species that lack a nuclear membrane and other internal cell membranesE) two individuals within a single species

8. Which of the following is an area where primary succession is likely to occur?A) a sand dune along a lakeshoreB) an area that has been clear-cutC) an area that was recently burnedD) an abandoned fieldE) an area cleared by a tornado






9. Which of the following organisms would be members of a pioneer community on bare rock?A) grassB) lichensC) herbsD) mossE) trees

10. Which of the following represents the sequence of primary succession on a sand dune?A) lichens mosses grasses shrubs treesB) crabgrass weeds oak trees pine treesC) crabgrass horseweed weeds pine trees hardwood treesD) grasses shrubs poplars pine trees oak treesE) grasses shrubs pine trees poplars hardwood trees

11. Secondary succession:A) leads to a stable, persistent communityB) reaches completion in about 15 yearsC) occurs in areas lacking vegetation where soil is presentD) typically begins with lichensE) would occur on a sand dune

12. Keystone species:A) are only found in aquatic habitatsB) are always found at the top of the food chainC) are usually not the most abundant species in the ecosystemD) are vital to the soil balance of an entire ecosystemE) are typically symbiotic

13. Which of the following is an example of a keystone species?A) deerB) wolvesC) elkD) rodentsE) all of these are keystone species






14. The aquatic community of Lake Victoria:A) has been stable for the past 200 yearsB) includes approximately 400 species of cichlidsC) has been markedly altered by the introduction of an invasive species, the Nile perchD) has been altered by decreased nutrient input due to changes in the terrestrial habitat

surrounding the lakeE) continues to support extensive local fisheries featuring a wide diversity of species

15. The interdependent evolution of two interacting species is known as:A) natural selectionB) ecologyC) coevolutionD) mutualismE) herbivory

16. An organism's role, or lifestyle, within the structure of an ecosystem is its:A) habitatB) trophic levelC) symbiotic relationshipD) ecological nicheE) limiting resource

17. An ecological description of a species typically includes:A) whether it is a producer, consumer, or decomposerB) the kinds of symbiotic associations it formsC) whether it is a predator and/or preyD) what species it competes withE) all of these

18. Which of the following characterizes a symbiotic relationship?A) a close interrelationship where both species benefitB) a close interrelationship where one species benefits and the other is not affectedC) a close interrelationship where one species benefits and the other is adversely affectedD) an intimate relationship between members of two or more speciesE) all of these






19. Mycorrhizae help plants:A) to absorb waterB) to convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitratesC) to repel insectsD) to resist disease organismsE) to absorb essential nutrient minerals

20. In a parasitic relationship where the host contracts a disease and sometimes dies, the parasite is called a(n):A) predatorB) keystone speciesC) mutualistic symbiontD) interspecific competitorE) pathogen

21. Predation can be defined as:A) two or more individuals attempting to use an essential common resourceB) one organism consuming another organism, which may be a plant or animalC) organisms living togetherD) a relationship where one organism benefits and the other is not affectedE) a relationship that only exerts selective (evolutionary) force on the prey

22. Competition occurs when:A) one organism, the predator, attempts to consume another , the preyB) two species in different habitats have similar nichesC) two or more species attempt to use an essential common resourceD) two or more species have an ecological relationshipE) symbiotic organisms interact

23. All of the following are examples of mutualism except:A) reef-building corals and zooxanthellaeB) nitrogen-fixing bacteria and legumesC) trees and epiphytesD) flowers and beesE) mycorrhizae






24. The relationship between silverfish and army ants is an example of:A) parasitismB) mutualismC) commensalismD) competitive exclusionE) predation

25. The relationship between a tick and a dog is an example of:A) parasitismB) mutualismC) commensalismD) an epiphytic organism and its hostE) predation

26. Which of the following is an adaptation of flowers resulting from the coevolution of plants and pollinators?A) mycorrhizaeB) nectarC) epiphytesD) nitrogen fixing bacteriaE) zooxanthellae

27. An anglerfish possesses a luminescent lure close to its mouth to attract prey. This is an example of what type of predator behavior?A) symbiosisB) competitionC) pursuitD) ambushE) warning coloration

28. Which of the following statements is true?A) Predation only favors the predator, leading to evolution of more efficient ways to catch

prey.B) Predation only favors the prey, leading to evolution of more efficient ways to escape

predators.C) Predation exerts a selective force on the prey, favoring characteristics that reduce the

probability of capture.D) Predation exerts a selective force on the predator, favoring characteristics that reduce the

probability of prey capture.

E) Predation has no evolutionary consequences for either the predator or the prey.






29. Which of the following is not an adaptation to improve the efficiency of prey capture?A) ambushB) warning colorationC) camouflageD) pursuit speedE) intelligence

30. All of the following traits are characteristic of predators except:A) having a large brain size in relationship to body massB) speedC) camouflageD) assembling in packs or other types of animal groupsE) having spines or other mechanical defensive devices

31. Which of the following traits is not a defense used by plants against herbivores?A) assembling in groupsB) toxinsC) spines or thornsD) thick wax layerE) noxious chemicals

32. All of the following traits are characteristic of the adaptations of prey except:A) having a large brain size in comparison to body massB) having the appearance of twigs or leavesC) warning colorationD) assembling in herds, schools, or other types of animal groupsE) producing toxins






33. The shape of the bill on the bird in the figure below is most likely the result of:

A) coevolutionB) intraspecific competitionC) parasitismD) natural selectionE) both coevolution and natural selection

34. The realized niche for the green anole differs from its fundamental niche because of:A) competitionB) symbiosisC) diseaseD) coevolutionE) unlimited food supply

35. Which of the following terms encompasses all of the other terms?A) parasitismB) symbiosisC) commensalismD) mutualismE) co-evolution






36. The associated figure provides support for which of the following processes?

A) secondary successionB) competitive exclusionC) coevolutionD) mutualismE) resource partitioning

37. Resource partitioning can be accomplished through all of the following except:A) selection of different varieties of preyB) changing the time of day during which a particular species is activeC) changing the season during which a given species is present in a given habitatD) increasing niche overlapE) selection of different nesting sites






38. Based on the figure below, as the structural complexity of the vegetation decreases, species richness:

A) increasesB) decreasesC) remains relatively stableD) exponentially oscillatesE) displays geometric growth

39. The number of species in a community can depend on:A) the geological history of the regionB) the productivity of the ecosystemC) the abundance of ecological nichesD) the stability of the ecosystemE) all of these

40. Which of these factors reduces species richness?A) the edge effectB) competitive exclusionC) presence of a keystone speciesD) presence of predatorsE) low environmental stress






41. The reason(s) that tropical regions of the world have such high biodiversity is:A) because they are geologically stableB) because they have a high productivityC) because there are many ecological nichesD) all of theseE) none of these

42. Which of the following does not correctly pair the ecosystem with a service it provides?A) forests – absorb carbon dioxideB) coasts – provide a buffer against stormsC) grasslands – dilute and remove pollutantsD) freshwater systems – moderate water flowE) sustainable agriculture systems – produce and maintain soil

43. Which of the following is not a source of human impact on Lake Victoria?A) introduction of an invasive aquatic plantB) introduction of an invasive aquatic predatorC) nutrient enrichmentD) thermal stratificationE) deforestation

44. If each breeding pair of elephants produces 6 offspring during a 90-year life span, in 750 years, a single pair of elephants will have given rise to a population of 19 million elephants. Yet elephants have not overrun the planet. WHY?A) Elephants have a niche that expands with the population.B) Elephants produce more offspring than will survive to maturity.C) Most elephants are kept in captivity (circus & zoo) and not allowed to reproduce.D) Individual elephants in a population exhibit no variation, reducing their reproductive

success.E) Elephants have become geographically separated into separate species that cannot

interbreed.

45. Which of the following is an example of coevolution?A) plants and carnivoresB) fig trees and insect-eating birdsC) sea urchins and orcasD) flowering plants and their pollinatorsE) none of these






46. Because of their large size and aggressive nature, European Starlings have displaced Bluebirds from their nests in many areas of North America. This is an example of:A) commensalismB) parasitismC) mutualismD) predationE) competition

47. The relationship exemplified by bees consuming nectar and carrying pollen from one flower to another is known as:A) commensalismB) parasitismC) mutualismD) predationE) competition

48. Which of the following best illustrates the process of evolution?A) a lizard's color becomes brown as it sits on a logB) a bear goes into hibernationC) a plant loses its leaves in a droughtD) a population of mosquitoes develops resistance to a pesticideE) a population of foxes increases as more prey becomes available

49. Which of the following is the best example of primary succession?A) a forest develops on abandoned farmlandB) a forest develops on the edge of a retreating glacierC) a forest develops in the area of a forest fireD) a forest develops in the area of a devastating floodE) a forest develops on the site of a logging operation

50. As wolves were reintroduced into the Yellowstone ecosystem, which of the following events would you assume occurred?A) the number of predators in the ecosystem was increasedB) the number of prey in the ecosystem was reducedC) the plant composition became more varied and lushD) the number of herbivores increasedE) all of these






51. In order for a parasite to be successful, it must:A) live outside its host's bodyB) live inside its host's bodyC) do no harm to the host organismD) kill the host organismE) keep its host alive

52. A researcher studying the ecology of leaf litter in a Hawaiian tropical rainforest, discovers a previously unknown organism. The organism is described as having a eukaryotic multicellular structure, high degree of internal organization, chloroplasts (in photosynthetic cells), and mitochondria. The researcher is torn between two kingdoms for placement of this organism. Which two?A) Fungi or PlantaeB) Protista or PlantaeC) Archaebacteria or ProtistaD) Animalia or ProtistaE) Eubacteria or Fungi

53. The ability of a community to withstand environmental disturbances (community stability) is a consequence of:A) geographic size of communityB) power of keystone speciesC) species richnessD) species povertyE) sheer luck

54. The potential ecological niche of an organism is its _______, while the niche an organism actually occupies is its ________.A) realized niche; fundamental nicheB) fundamental niche; realized nicheC) kinetic niche; latent nicheD) genuine niche; probable nicheE) competitive niche; passive niche

55. Which of the following is an area where primary succession would occur?A) recently formed volcanic lavaB) a clear-cut areaC) an abandoned fieldD) an area cleared by a tornadoE) none of these






56. Which of the following is a keystone species in U.S. temperate forests?A) deerB) white pineC) gray wolvesD) lichenE) rabbit

57. What is the transitional zone where two or more communities meet?A) edge effectB) ecotoneC) resource partitionD) keystone habitatE) competitive exclusion

58. Which term defines competition between species?A) commensalismB) intraspecific competitionC) predationD) competitive exclusionE) interspecific competition

59. Small plants attaching to the bark of larger trees benefit from the position on the tree, receiving necessary water and sunlight while giving the tree neither help nor harm. This is an example of…A) environmental stressorsB) mycorrhizaeC) habitat fragmentationD) commensalismE) none of these

60. What are the three kinds of symbiosis?A) warning colors, mutualism, and cannibalismB) mutualism, parasitism, and commensalismC) competition, predation, and coevolutionD) epiphytes, prokaryotes, and eukaryotesE) none of these






61. Green anoles were forced out of their established habitat of trees, plants, walls and fences by invasive brown anoles. The green anoles then had to find new habitats in wetlands and tree crowns. This example illustrates the concepts of:A) competitionB) fundamental nicheC) realized nicheD) parasitismE) both competition and realized niche

62. Which of the following has an intricate relationship with the occurrence of Lyme disease?A) acornsB) gypsy mothsC) white-footed miceD) all of theseE) none of these

63. Why was the Yellowstone wolf declared an 'experimental nonessential' species in the area?1) the ESA forbids killing an endangered species2) there wasn't enough demand to keep the wolves on the endangered species list3) farmers and ranchers wanted to right to kill wolves to defend their livestock4) defenders of wildlife didn't believe the wolves were endangered any longerA) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) Both 1 and 3

64. How did the discovery of genetic mutation contribute to the modern synthesis of evolution?A) it explained patterns of inheritanceB) it demonstrated the true structure of DNAC) it provided a mechanism by which genetic variation could be generatedD) it showed why reproductive success can vary among individualsE) it illustrated that many more young are produced than can survive






Answer Key Ch 4

1. D2. C3. E4. A5. A6. C7. A8. A9. B

10. D11. C12. C13. B14. C15. C16. D17. E18. E19. E20. E21. B22. C23. C24. C25. A26. B27. D28. C29. B30. E31. A32. A33. E34. A35. E36. B37. D38. B39. E40. B41. D42. C43. D44. B45. D46. B47. C48. D49. B50. E






51. E52. B53. C54. B55. A56. C57. B58. E59. D60. B61. E62. D63. E64. C

Chapter 5: Ecosystems and the Physical Environment

1. Why was Hurricane Katrina such a devastating storm?A) the city is at or below sea levelB) sea level has been risingC) destruction of wetlands due to constructionD) the city has been subsidingE) all of these

2. Storm surges:1) are sudden increases in water that move onto land during a cyclone2) are sudden increases in water that move onto land during a typhoon3) are sudden increases in water that move onto land during a hurricaneA) 1B) 2C) 3D) 1, 2 and 3E) none of these

3. Biogeochemical cycles:A) only include processes conducted by or within living organismsB) pertain only to the abiotic environmentC) describe the movement of water and other materials through abiotic and biotic interactionsD) only pertain to exchanges and interactions that occur within the atmosphereE) are used to describe the attempts of humans to recycle various pollutants






4. Which of the following is not one of the biogeochemical cycles considered of particular importance for organisms?A) carbonB) hydrogenC) nitrogenD) phosphorusE) water

5. In the carbon cycle, carbon can be found in:A) limestone, animals, and plantsB) oil, bicarbonate, and sugarC) carbon dioxide and coalD) the atmosphereE) all of these

6. Approximately what percentage of the atmosphere is CO2?A) 0.001%B) 0.038%C) 10%D) 30%E) 75%

7. The pathway by which carbon is transferred from living organisms to the atmosphere is called:A) photosynthesisB) cellular respirationC) cellular transpirationD) burning fossil fuelsE) transpiration

8. The movement of water from land to rivers, lakes, wetlands and ultimately, the ocean is called:A) groundwaterB) transpirationC) hydrologic cycleD) runoffE) precipitation






9. Which of the following is not an example of a fossil fuel?A) woodB) oilC) natural gasD) coalE) the remains of ancient organisms

10. Which of the following is not a source of carbon for the carbon cycle?A) shells of marine organismsB) oilC) decomposersD) inorganic fertilizerE) the atmosphere

11. The nitrogen cycle is one of the most important and complex of the biogeochemical cycles. It is important because nitrogen:A) is a greenhouse gasB) is an essential part of biological molecules such as proteins and nucleic acids (DNA)C) is the most toxic element to living organismsD) dilutes the oxygen in the atmosphere causing respiratory problemsE) is a crucial part of the process of photosynthesis

12. Nitrogen fixation is:A) the conversion of gaseous nitrogen into an organism friendly form (ammonia (NH3)B) preplanned setting of atmospheric levels of nitrogen at 78%C) stabilizing elemental nitrogen into a gaseous two-atom molecule (N2)D) the reduction of nitrate (NO3-) to gaseous nitrogenE) the repair of DNA by adding nitrogen to the organism's diet

13. Nitrogen is essential for living organisms to synthesize:A) lipidsB) proteinsC) carbohydratesD) sulfatesE) benzene rings






14. Nitrogen gas accounts for what percentage of the atmosphere?A) 0.03%B) 1%C) approximately 50%D) 78%E) 99%

15. What is the first step in the nitrogen cycle, in which gaseous nitrogen is converted into ammonia?A) nitrificationB) ammonificationC) assimilationD) denitrificationE) nitrogen fixation

16. Which of the following plants is a legume which may have nitrogen fixing bacteria attached to its roots?A) beanB) beetC) potatoD) cucumberE) carrot

17. What part of the nitrogen cycle deals with the conversion of nitrogen in waste products (urea in urine) into ammonia?A) nitrificationB) ammonificationC) assimilationD) denitrificationE) nitrogen fixation

18. The reduction of nitrate (NO3-) to gaseous nitrogen (N2) is called:A) nitrificationB) ammonificationC) assimilationD) denitrificationE) nitrogen fixation






19. By what process do plants take the nitrate (NO3-) absorbed by their roots and incorporate the nitrogen into plant proteins and other molecules?A) nitrificationB) ammonificationC) assimilationD) denitrificationE) nitrogen fixation

20. Nitrogen fertilizer:A) contributes to acid rainB) leads to the formation of dioxinsC) may contaminate groundwaterD) contributes to the production of photochemical smogE) all of these

21. One human impact on the phosphorus cycle occurs through:A) burning of fossil fuelsB) the erosion of agricultural landsC) the greenhouse effectD) global warmingE) depletion of the ozone layer

22. Which of the following processes plays an important role in the phosphorus cycle?A) erosionB) fixationC) combustionD) cellular respirationE) ammonification

23. Transpiration occurs in:A) oceansB) groundwaterC) the atmosphereD) animalsE) terrestrial plants






24. Solar radiation:A) powers the hydrologic and other biogeochemical cyclesB) is essential for photosynthesisC) is the product of a massive nuclear fusion reactionD) is captured by plants and may eventually become the energy available from fossil fuelsE) all of these

25. Which of the following surfaces has the highest albedo?A) glaciersB) forestsC) the oceanD) buildingsE) pavements

26. The primary reason we have seasons is because of the:A) the Earth's rotationB) the Earth's orbitC) the Earth's tilt on its axisD) the density of the Earth's atmosphereE) the layers of the Earth's atmosphere

27. The Earth's atmosphere is important because:A) it is primarily composed of oxygen, essential for our survivalB) it is composed of approximately twenty different layersC) it protects us from UV radiation and X-raysD) it is a stable and unchanging part of our global environmentE) the densest outer layer shields the Earth's surface from dangerous forms of energy

28. Stratospheric ozone is important because it:A) absorbs UV radiationB) is what we breatheC) powers the weather cycleD) is an industrial pollutantE) is a part of the troposphere

29. The thermosphere:A) is the layer of atmosphere closest to the Earth's surfaceB) extends to a height of approximately 35 kmC) is characterized by very low temperaturesD) is important in long-distance communication between humansE) is the layer where weather, including most clouds and wind, occurs






30. The ocean conveyor belt affects:A) the nitrogen cycleB) albedoC) the greenhouse effectD) regional and possibly global climateE) surface ocean currents

31. Complex horizontal movements of the atmosphere are commonly known as:A) gyresB) windC) climateD) the Coriolis effectE) upwellings

32. Which of the following does not describe major surface winds that blow more or less continually?A) prevailing windsB) polar easterliesC) WesterliesD) trade windsE) Coriolis

33. The Coriolis effect is associated with:A) variations in the amount of solar radiation reaching different locationsB) seasonal changes in the levels of solar radiation at a given locationC) the density of the oceansD) the Earth's orbitE) the Earth's rotation

34. Gyres are:A) prevailing windsB) circular ocean currentsC) an effect of El NiñoD) an upwelling of deeper watersE) major climate zones






35. El Niño—Southern Oscillation events:A) are responsible for dramatic increases in the productivity of fisheries off South AmericaB) reach coastal areas of Peru around mid-summerC) occur once or twice every centuryD) alter both ocean and atmospheric circulation patternsE) have little impact on marine organisms, but devastating effects on terrestrial weather

patterns

36. Cyclones, hurricanes and typhoons are distinguished from one another by:A) sizeB) speedC) direction of spinD) locationE) destructive potential

37. Which of the following does not influence climate?A) distance from the oceanB) topographyC) latitudeD) vegetationE) none of these, all affect climate

38. Precipitation:A) refers to any form of water, including rain, snow, runoff and groundwaterB) has a profound effect on the distribution of organismsC) is lightest near the windward (the side from which the wind blows) coasts of continentsD) varies among geographic locations, with the highest annual precipitation occurring in ChileE) occurs independently of atmospheric circulation patterns

39. Which of the following has the most concentrated energy and highest destructive potential?A) tornadoesB) ice stormsC) thunderstormsD) El Niño—Southern OscillationE) tsunamis






40. Subduction occurs:A) when ozone is struck by cosmic radiationB) when one tectonic plate descends below anotherC) because of the Coriolis effectD) on the leeward side of a mountainE) as the result of volcanic eruptions or earthquakes

41. Volcanoes are commonly found:A) near canyonsB) where land masses on two different plates come togetherC) above hot spotsD) on land, but never beneath the ocean surfaceE) in the Southern Hemisphere and only rarely in the Northern Hemisphere

42. The scale typically used by seismologists to measure the magnitude of an earthquake is the:A) Richter scaleB) subduction scaleC) earthquake scaleD) moment magnitude scaleE) seismologist's earth movement indicator scale

43. Rain shadow describes the;A) silhouette of mountains as the sun passes from east to westB) shade on the ground produced by clouds that threaten rainC) darkened areas of the distant sky indicating rain is falling at a far-away locationD) dry land on the side of the mountains away from the prevailing windE) lessening of a chance of precipitation on any given day due to dry air at the equator

44. Which of the following does not affect ocean currents?A) position of the continentsB) marine organismsC) atmospheric temperaturesD) prevailing windsE) varying density of seawater

45. A tropical cyclone forms as:A) a mass of cool, dry air collides with warm humid airB) a sudden increase in water moves onto landC) wind picks up speed as it moves from land to waterD) strong winds pick up moisture over warm watersE) all of these






46. Which of the following statements about the sulfur cycle is true?A) Bacteria play little or no role in the sulfur cycle.B) Most of the planet's sulfur is found in the atmosphere.C) Plants are unable to assimilate sulfate (SO42-).D) Sea spray, forest fires, and dust storms release sulfates (SO42-) into the air.E) Sedimentary rocks and erosion do not contribute to the sulfur cycle.

47. During photosynthesis, plants, algae, and certain bacteria remove CO2 from the air and fix it into chemical compounds such as ______.A) waterB) sugarC) saltD) acidsE) ammonia

48. Steps I and VII come together to complete the carbon-silicate cycle. However, two consecutive steps of this cycle are OUT OF ORDER – which two? I. In weathering, atmospheric CO2 dissolves in rainwater to form carbonic acid (H2C03)II. Carbonic acid dissociates to form hydrogen ions (H+) as rainwater moves through soilIII. Hydrogen ions enter silicate-rich minerals such as feldspar, releasing calcium ions (Ca2+)IV. Microscopic marine organisms incorporate (Ca2+) and HC03

-) into their shellsV. Calcium and bicarbonate ions wash into surface waters and eventually reach the ocean VI. Shells are incorporated into sedimentary rockVII. Geological uplift exposes limestone, which is eroded by weathering returning C02 to the atmosphere and water.A) II and IIIB) III and IVC) IV and VD) V and VIE) none, all the steps are in the correct order

49. Which of the following accurately represents a sequential portion of the nitrogen cycle?A) N2 in the atmosphere, ammonification, nitrification, plantsB) N2 in the atmosphere, nitrification, plantsC) dead organic material, ammonification, nitrification, plantsD) plant proteins, animal proteins, nitrification, N2 in the atmosphereE) animal proteins, nitrogen fixation, N2 in the atmosphere






50. The phosphorus cycle differs from the carbon cycle in that:A) there is little or no human impact on the phosphorus cycleB) phosphorus is not a critical component of living organismsC) the hydrosphere plays a role in the phosphorus cycleD) the atmosphere does not contribute to the phosphorus cycleE) plants play a role in the carbon cycle, but have no role in the phosphorus cycle

51. Which of the following processes is not involved in the hydrologic cycle?A) transpirationB) precipitationC) evaporationD) fixationE) condensation

52. Which of the following accurately represents a carbon source and the process that releases carbon from that source?A) fossil fuels, respirationB) animals, photosynthesisC) plants, cellular respirationD) bicarbonate, combustionE) limestone, combustion

53. Many plants have evolved mutualistic relationships with nitrogen-fixing bacteria because:A) the bacteria transform nitrogen into useful forms for the plants; the plants provides

carbohydratesB) the bacteria protect the plant from harmful effects of nitrogen compounds such as

ammonia; the plants provide carbohydrates for the bacteriaC) the bacteria utilize nitrogen to produce energy for the plants; the plants provide the source

of the nitrogen for the bacteriaD) the bacteria provide natural immunities to the plants; the plants shelter the bacteria from

predatorsE) there is not a mutualistic relationship between nitrogen-fixing bacteria and plants






54. Put the following surfaces in descending order from those surfaces that reflect the greatest percent of sunlight hitting their surfaces to those surfaces that have the lowest albedo.I. cloudsII. ice sheetsIII. forestIV. asphalt pavementA) I – II – III - IVB) II – I – IV - IIIC) III – I – IV - IID) IV – III – II – IE) II – IV – I – III

55. If the temperature of the troposphere decreases with increasing altitude by about 6°C for every kilometer, then the temperature at the outermost edge of this layer is approximately ______ lower than at the Earth's surface.A) 0°CB) 6°CC) 60°CD) 360°CE) 600°C

56. Lava is to volcano as tsunami is to:A) tornadoB) cycloneC) firestormD) earthquakeE) plate boundary

57. Weather incorporates all of the following atmospheric conditions except:A) atmospheric pressureB) latitudeC) cloudinessD) humidityE) wind

58. El Niño and La Niña are similar in that both events:A) originate in the Atlantic OceanB) affect weather patternsC) are predictable every yearD) cause global warmingE) are associated with Christmas






59. After the 2004 tsunami, the death tolls in 2 coastal Sri Lankan cities were examined. The village with intact mangrove vegetation recorded _________ deaths, whereas the other settlement had almost ________ deaths.A) 2; 6000B) 20; 6000C) 6; 2000D) 60; 2000E) 100; 1000

60. The atmosphere consists of five concentric layers. What is the order of these layers starting at the Earth's surface?I. TroposphereII. ThermosphereIII. MesosphereIV. StratosphereV. exosphereA) I – II – III – IV – VB) I – IV – III – II – VC) V – II – III – I – IVD) II – III – V – IV – IE) V- IV – III – II – I

61. What is the relationship between locations of earthquakes and plate tectonics?A) Earthquakes frequently happen where landmasses are on the boundary between two

plates.B) Earthquakes release energy as seismic waves. Energy accumulates from the push and

stretch of rocks as plates move horizontally across Earth's surface.C) Earthquakes occur along faults. Fault zones are often found at plate boundaries.D) Earthquakes are common in volcanic regions. Volcanoes are common where two plates

meet.E) All of these constitute a relationship between earthquakes and plate tectonics.

62. Weather is a term that refers to the conditions in the atmosphere on a ________ basis, whereas climate is a description of ___________weather conditions.A) hourly or daily; average, long-termB) permanent; temporaryC) global; localD) stable; unstableE) long-term; short-term






63. Why were the mangroves cut down in the Sri Lankan village?A) lumberB) fossil fuel used for energyC) export to boost their economyD) to build tourist resorts or aquacultureE) all of these

64. Winds tend to blow from areas of _________atmospheric pressure to areas of _______atmospheric pressure, and the greater the difference between the high- and low- pressure areas, the _______ the wind.A) low; high; weakerB) high; low; strongerC) low; high; strongerD) high; low; weakerE) east; west; more continuous

65. Which of the following contributed to the high loss of life during the 2008 earthquake in Sichuan Province, China? 1) many buildings were not constructed to withstand earthquakes2) the focus of the earthquake was extremely deep in the earth's crust, affecting the earth's surface over a wider area3) Sichuan is near the boundary of two tectonic plates4) all of theseA) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) Both 1 and 3






Answer Key Ch 5

1. E2. D3. C4. B5. E6. B7. B8. D9. A

10. D11. B12. A13. B14. D15. E16. A17. B18. D19. C20. C21. B22. A23. E24. E25. A26. C27. C28. A29. D30. D31. B32. E33. E34. B35. D36. D37. E38. B39. A40. B41. C42. D43. D44. B45. D46. D47. B48. C49. C50. D






51. D52. C53. A54. B55. C56. D57. B58. B59. A60. B61. E62. A63. D64. B65. E

Chapter 6: Major Ecosystems of the World

1. Wildfires:A) are not always damaging for natural environmentsB) release nutrient minerals that are previously locked in dry organic materialC) can have an increased negative effect due to the efforts intended to prevent themD) are increasing do to climate changeE) all of these

2. Which of the following is a typical characteristic of desert animals?A) they tend to be quite large in sizeB) they remain inactive during the driest months of the yearC) they are active throughout the day and nightD) rodents are the only group of mammals represented in this biomeE) amphibians and reptiles are absent

3. Chaparral biomes occur:A) only in the immediate area surrounding the Mediterranean SeaB) in regions with low levels of annual precipitationC) in areas with very fertile soil and a deep topsoil layerD) in areas where fires are almost nonexistentE) in regions around the globe with mild, rainy winters, followed by hot, dry summers






4. Which of the following organizational hierarchies is correctly listed from smallest to largest unit?A) ecosystem population community biomeB) biome community population ecosystemC) community population ecosystem biomeD) population community ecosystem biomeE) ecosystem biome community population

5. A relatively distinct terrestrial region characterized by similar environmental factors regardless of where it occurs in the world is called a/an:A) biomeB) communityC) ecosystemD) habitatE) population

6. Tundra:A) has an extended day length during its growing seasonB) has nutrient-rich soilsC) is characterized by heavy precipitationD) experiences very long winters and long summersE) occurs in extreme southern latitudes

7. The biological community that characterizes the arctic tundra is:1) migrating herbivores, small mammals, and predatory birds2) large trees3) mosses, lichens, and dwarf woody plants4) diverse amphibians and reptilesA) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) 1 and 3

8. The biome most suitable for the development of farmland is:A) taigaB) tropical rain forestC) temperate grasslandD) chaparralE) tundra






9. The boreal forest:A) has numerous ponds and lakes formed by grinding ice sheetsB) has warm wintersC) has a layer of permafrostD) cannot support amphibians or reptilesE) is well suited for conversion to agriculture

10. The boreal forest is located ______ the tundra.A) north ofB) south ofC) east ofD) west ofE) in conjunction with

11. The biome with high amounts of precipitation, large narrow-leaved evergreen trees, and epiphytes including lichens is the:A) taigaB) temperate deciduous forestC) tropical rain forestD) boreal forestE) temperate rain forest

12. Hot summers and cold winters, topsoil rich in organic material, annual precipitation of 75 to 125 cm (30-50 in), and many hardwood trees are characteristics of the:A) temperate deciduous forestB) temperate grasslandC) temperate rain forestD) boreal forestE) chaparral

13. Tallgrass prairies do not occur in which of the following states?A) IowaB) KansasC) MinnesotaD) FloridaE) Illinois






14. Shortgrass prairies:1) are moist grasslands with rich soil2) are very similar to desserts3) have native drought-resistant grasses4) have helpful wildfiresA) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) Both 1 and 4

15. The tallgrass prairie is currently the rarest biome in North America due to:A) rampant urbanizationB) recent climate changeC) industrial pollutionD) conversion to agricultureE) both industrial pollution and conversion to agriculture

16. Which of the following biomes has the highest biodiversity?A) temperate deciduous forestB) savannaC) taigaD) tropical rain forestE) tropical desert

17. Transpiration is the most important source of precipitation for which biome?A) tropical rain forestB) savannaC) tundraD) chaparralE) tropical desert

18. Tropical rain forests:A) are typically composed of at least five distinct layers, or stories, of vegetationB) are found in areas with high accumulations of organic material in the soilC) occur in areas with ancient, mineral-poor soilD) are known for being only moderately productiveE) are known for having high levels of biodiversity






19. Soil in deserts:A) is high in mineral contentB) is high in organic materialC) often contains large amounts of humusD) supports extensive vegetationE) all of these

20. Mixing of water layers, which often occurs in temperate lakes due to decreasing ambient temperature, is referred to as:A) a thermoclineB) turnoverC) benthosD) thermal stratificationE) blooms

21. Free-floating aquatic organisms are known as:A) benthosB) nektonC) pelagic inhabitantsD) zooxanthellaeE) plankton

22. Flowing-water ecosystems, especially headwater streams, receive most of their energy from:A) lightB) waterC) windD) organic detritusE) minerals

23. The shallow-water area along the shore of a lake or pond is called the __________ zone:A) limneticB) littoralC) profundalD) headwaterE) intertidal






24. Which of the following organisms are representative of the limnetic zone?A) phytoplankton and zooplanktonB) frogs and their tadpolesC) cattails and other emergent vegetationD) worms, insect larvae, and crayfishE) all of these

25. The deepest zone in a large lake, below where the sunlight penetrates, is the:A) limnetic zoneB) littoral zoneC) profundal zoneD) benthic zoneE) intertidal zone

26. A coastal body of water, partly surrounded by land, with input from both sea and fresh water is called:A) the limnetic zoneB) an estuaryC) a freshwater wetlandD) the oceanic provinceE) a reef

27. Coral reefs:A) may occur as barrier, fringing, or atoll formationsB) protect coastlines from erosionC) are found in shallow, nutrient poor, tropical watersD) are the most diverse of all marine environmentsE) all of these

28. The thermocline is the layer in a lake at which:A) pollutants are trapped and heldB) the warm upper zone meets the cold lower zoneC) nutrient levels are the lowestD) light no longer penetrates enough for photosynthesis to occurE) the oxygen level is the lowest






29. Deciduous forests:A) have very little precipitationB) have very week topsoilC) have trees that shed their leaves seasonallyD) are not useful commerciallyE) are not found in the US

30. Which of the following does not apply to the tundra biome?A) few species are foundB) harsh winters and short summersC) the biome is dominated by mosses, lichens, sedges and grassesD) no permafrostE) tundra plants seldom grow taller than 30 cm (12 in)

31. What are the two problems that override all other problems in the Everglades today?A) The Everglades receives too little water, and the water it receives is polluted with nutrient

minerals from agricultural runoff.B) The Everglades has too many foreign species crowding out natives, and as a National

Park cannot expand in size.C) The Everglades receives too much water, and the water it receives comes in destructive

floods due to breeches in the levee system.D) The Everglades urban growth and expansion of agriculture into the southernmost areas

are responsible for loss of biodiversity in the area.E) The Everglades depends on the Florida aquifer for clean, fresh water however that water is

being diverted to gold courses and the aquifer is running dry.

32. All of the following apply to the tundra biome except:A) abundant average precipitation of 75 to 125 cm (30 to 50 in) per yearB) permafrostC) nutrient-poor soilsD) little organic matterE) long, harsh winters and short cool summers

33. The biomes that commonly have fire-adapted species are:A) temperate grassland, savanna, and boreal forestB) desert, temperate grassland, and savannaC) temperate grassland, savanna, and tundraD) chaparral, temperate grassland, and savannaE) temperate grassland, chaparral, and temperate deciduous forest






34. Which of the following is not a biome?A) boreal forestB) desertC) mangrove forestD) savannaE) tundra

35. Which of the following biomes is not known for its wood and lumber production?A) temperate rain forestB) taigaC) chaparralD) temperate deciduous forestE) tropical rain forest

36. All of the following are fire-adapted except:A) African savannasB) jack and ponderosa pinesC) most hardwood treesD) bur oakE) California chaparrals

37. The dominant vegetation of the temperate rain forest includes all of the following except:A) western hemlockB) Douglas firC) western red cedarD) hickoryE) Sitka spruce

38. Which of the following abiotic factors does not typically affect biome structure?A) elevationB) wildfiresC) droughtsD) salinityE) floods

39. The biomes known for supporting herds of grazing animals are:A) temperate grassland and temperate deciduous forestB) temperate grassland and savannaC) temperate deciduous forest and boreal forestD) boreal forest and temperate grasslandE) savanna and tropical rain forest






40. Which of the following does not apply to a biome?A) level of ecological organization above ecosystemB) boundaries are determined by climate barriersC) near poles temperature overrides climateD) usually confined to a relatively small geographical areaE) in tropical and temperate regions precipitation is more significant then temperature

41. Which of the following statements about desert inhabitants is not true?A) Both annual and perennial plants live in the desert.B) Desert animals typically have adaptations for conserving water, but plants require no

special adaptations.C) Many desert plants are protected from predation by thorns and toxins.D) Desert animals are typically small and nocturnal.E) All of these are true

42. Which of the following is not a major component of desert animal life?A) insectsB) reptilesC) amphibiansD) owlsE) rodents

43. Which of the following characterizes both the savanna and chaparral biomes?A) periodic firesB) extensive stands of treesC) large herds of herbivorous mammalsD) soils with high mineral contentE) moist summers and dry winters

44. Which of the following is not important in determining the distribution of organisms in aquatic biomes?A) light penetrationB) mineral nutrient concentrationsC) waterD) salinityE) waves and currents






45. Which of the following does not apply to headwater flowing streams?A) small streamsB) usually highly oxygenatedC) shallow and swift flowingD) coldE) cloudy due to suspended particles

46. Which of the following does not apply to the profundal zone of a large lake?A) no light penetrationB) it is the deepest zoneC) effective recycling of mineralsD) lacks oxygen (anaerobic)E) a mineral-rich zone

47. Which of the following does not apply to freshwater wetlands?A) anaerobic conditionsB) accumulate organic materialC) water-tolerant vegetationD) increase potential for floodingE) help to purify groundwater

48. Which of the following is not found at the boundary between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems?A) estuaryB) oceanic provinceC) mangrove forestD) salt marshE) intertidal zone

49. Ecosystem services supported by the estuarine environment include all of the following except:A) biological habitatB) trapping pollutionC) groundwater supplyD) storm bufferingE) marinas






50. Which of the following manmade structures were created to prevent flooding and provide drainage to the Florida Everglades?A) pump stationsB) leveesC) canalsD) all of theseE) both pump stations and levees

51. What do inhabitants of the rocky intertidal zone not do to protect themselves?A) follow tides in and outB) use an anchor or some other means of attachmentC) seal in moisture with a closing shell or other adaptationsD) hide under rocksE) none of these, all are adaptations to the rocky intertidal zone

52. Which of the following would not be found exclusively in the benthic environment?A) seagrass bedsB) coral reefsC) oysters, clams, and barnaclesD) kelp forestsE) nekton

53. Which of the following pairs is incorrect?A) tide pool – spider crabsB) supratidal (splash zone) – cyanobacteriaC) intertidal zone – musselsD) subtidal zone – sea urchinsE) euphotic zone – photosynthesis

54. Which of the following is not a source of human impact on the marine environment?A) coastal development, both residential and industrialB) global warmingC) trashD) increased levels of O2

E) chemical pollution from pesticides, heavy metals, and synthetic chemicals






55. According to the diagram below, desert biomes would fall into the area marked by the letter:

A) aB) bC) cD) dE) e






56. You are lost. Over time, you find that the area that you are in has relatively stable temperatures and abundant rainfall. The plants and animals you see in the area are consistent with those you know to be associated with temperate deciduous forests. Which letter marks the area you are in?

A) aB) bC) cD) dE) e

57. Which biome is mismatched with the statement that follows it?A) tropical rain forest - plants grow in layers: canopy, understoryB) tundra: most fragile biome on this planetC) boreal forest: well suited for agriculture because of short growing season and mineral-

poor soilD) tropical grassland: trees and grasses have fire-adapted features such as extensive

underground root systems.E) desert: plant cover is sparse and soil is low in organic material but high in mineral content

58. Humid tropical rain forests have extraordinary biological diversity:A) because of the abundance of nutrient minerals in tropical soilsB) due to human intervention in planting rare and endangered speciesC) because of the many pollinators that also call the tropical rain forest homeD) due to local factors, such as varying soil fertility and topographyE) its plants capture a lot of energy by photosynthesis






59. Which of the following human impact is mis-matched with the detrimental effect it has had on a biome?A) oil and natural gas exploration: long-lasting injury due to slow regeneration of the tundraB) mining, drilling for gas and oil, and farming: loss of boreal forest (deforestation)C) overharvesting of old-growth forest: loss of temperate rain forest habitat for endangered

and threatened speciesD) off-road vehicle damage and military exercises: erosion and loss of vegetation in the

desertE) hunting and fishing: desertification of the savanna, tropical grasslands

60. Wetlands are important for all of the following reasons except:A) they support high species diversityB) they reduce flooding by slowing the velocity of runoff waterC) they help recharge groundwater aquifersD) they contribute to asymmetry in urban communitiesE) they sometimes detoxify substances in the water

61. National Marine Sanctuaries include:A) kelp forests in off the coast of CaliforniaB) coral reefs in the Florida KeysC) fishing grounds along the continental shelfD) deep submarine canyonsE) all of these

62. The benthic environment includes all the following acceptA) the bathyal zoneB) the ocean floor from the intertidal zone to the deep ocean trenchesC) the abyssal zoneD) the bendalE) the hadal zone

63. Humans harm the oceans in all of the following ways except:A) developing along the coastB) polluting the landC) recyclingD) killing marine life with trashE) by adding chemicals from agriculture and industry






64. Which of the following can be found in kelp forests?A) crabsB) tube wormsC) sea cucumbersD) sea ottersE) all of these

65. The most fundamental division in aquatic ecology isA) salinityB) sunlightC) estuariesD) biomesE) differences in sea life

Answer Key Ch 6

1. E2. B3. E4. D5. A6. A7. E8. C9. A

10. B11. E12. A13. D14. C15. D16. D17. A18. C19. A20. B21. E22. D23. B24. A25. C26. B27. E28. B29. C30. D31. A32. A






33. D34. C35. C36. C37. D38. D39. B40. D41. B42. C43. A44. C45. E46. C47. D48. B49. E50. D51. E52. E53. A54. D55. E56. C57. C58. D59. E60. D61. E62. D63. C64. E65. A

Chapter 7: Human Health and Environmental Toxicology

1. Which of the following action(s) may unintentionally contribute to outbreaks of infectious disease?A) global travelB) social factorsC) disruption of natural environmentsD) crowding of people in citiesE) all of these






2. The body mass index (BMI) is used to determine the health status of your weight for a person of your height. Imagine you have a BMI of 35.7. Doctors would diagnose you as:A) malnourishedB) underweightC) healthy weightD) overweightE) obese

3. Acute toxicity:A) is only caused by synthetic chemicalsB) is poorly understood by toxicologistsC) may mimic symptoms of chronic diseasesD) produces an effect within a short period of a single exposureE) always results in death

4. Endocrine disrupters:A) do not include DDTB) only affect the reproductive capability of femalesC) affect the reproduction of fishes, birds, reptiles and mammalsD) only affect the reproduction of humansE) are still often used in the US

5. Pollutants that interfere with the normal functioning of hormones are called:A) radioisotopesB) synergistsC) stimulantsD) endocrine disruptersE) carcinogens

6. The _________ and __________ were amended in response to the need to test chemicals for their potential to disrupt the endocrine system.A) Endangered Species Act and Fishery ActB) Food Quality Protection Act and Safe Drinking Water ActC) 2002 Conservation Act and 2005 Management ActD) Assessment of Risk Act and Human Protection ActE) Food and Drug Administration Act and Environmental Protection Act






7. The large number of children being driven to school rather than walking has led to which of the following:A) increased fossil fuel burning by vehiclesB) a decrease in the child's exerciseC) reduced interaction of children with their environmentD) increased risk of childhood obesityE) all of these

8. All of the following are true of red tides except:A) they are caused by certain species of harmful algae that grow in large concentrationsB) they frequently cause the water to appear orange red or brownC) they produce toxins that attack the nervous systems of various sea lifeD) they are often observed in association with phases of the moonE) no one knows what triggers them

9. The three leading causes of death in the United States today are cardiovascular disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and:A) pneumoniaB) cancerC) influenzaD) tuberculosisE) diarrhea

10. What has prevented polio from becoming eradicated on a global basis?A) knowledge of what causes polioB) the development of an effective polio vaccineC) public fear and suspicion of the safety of the polio vaccineD) availability of the polio vaccine to developing countriesE) global suspension of the polio vaccine

11. Two indicators of human health in a given country are:A) BMI and life expectancyB) mortality rate and BMIC) emerging diseases vs. reemerging diseasesD) health care and mortality rateE) infant mortality and life expectancy






12. Emerging diseases are:A) infectious diseases that were not previously found in humans and typically jump from an

animal host to humansB) infectious diseases that existed in the past but for a variety of reasons are increasing in

incidenceC) infectious diseases that were previously found in humans and typically jump from a human

host to animalsD) non-infectious diseases that have transformed into infectious diseasesE) hidden diseases that are finally being detected through technology

13. A dose that is represented as LD50 is a dose that:A) is administered to 50% of the populationB) causes 50% of a population to exhibit whatever response is under studyC) has a threshold response of 50%D) kills half of the population of test animalsE) has an acceptable risk level of 50%

14. A lethal dose of a toxicant may vary depending on all of the following except:A) organisms ageB) organisms geographic locationC) organisms sexD) organisms metabolismE) organisms genetic makeup

15. The National Institute of Environmental Health Science has identified several hundred environmental susceptibility genes. These genes:A) affect how the body metabolizes toxicants, making toxicants more or less toxicB) provide complete protection from environmental pollutionC) allow adults to produce enzymes necessary to eat unprocessed food with no ill effectsD) cause weaknesses in the immune systemE) influence a person's preference for outdoor activities

16. The study of contaminants in the biosphere, including their harmful effects on ecosystems is termed:A) AgrobiologyB) PhysiologyC) EcotoxicologyD) ArchaeologyE) Cytology






17. A carcinogen is a:A) type of microorganism associated with human sewageB) cancer-causing chemical, radiation, or virusC) vehicle that requires no gasoline to operateD) phytochemical (a protective plant compound that promotes health)E) computer chip

18. Chemicals that are not readily broken down into less toxic forms are said to exhibit:A) persistenceB) bioaccumulationC) biological magnificationD) genetic resistanceE) short-term effects

19. The build up of pesticides in an organism's body is termed:A) persistenceB) bioaccumulationC) biological magnificationD) biological amplificationE) the pesticide treadmill

20. When a chemical mixture has a greater combined effect then expected, it is a _______ chemical mixture?A) synergisticB) additiveC) compoundingD) unrealisticE) antagonistic

21. An antagonistic interaction in a chemical mixture results in:A) the expected effect givenB) a greater combined effect than expectedC) a smaller combined effect than expected givenD) no chemical reactionE) variable results depending on the chemicals present






22. Cancer potency is:1) an estimate of the expected increase in cancer associated with a unit increase in exposure to a chemical2) an estimate of the expected increase in cancer associated with a unit decrease in exposure to a chemical3) an estimate of the expected decrease in cancer associated with a unit decrease in exposure to a chemical4) an estimate of the expected decrease in cancer associated with a unit increase in exposure to a chemicalA) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) Both 1 and 3

23. Cost-benefit analysis:1) helps decision makers formulate environmental legislation2) balances estimated costs with potential environmental benefits3) is never used in issues involving human health and safety4) is really only applicable in the field of economicsA) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) 1 and 2

24. If you measured the LD50 for a particular chemical, you would know:A) that the chemical is safe for human useB) how much it takes to kill 50 ratsC) what dose is lethal to 50% of a population of test animalsD) the chemical properties of the given chemicalE) the effective dose for humans

25. All of the following are true statements about nanotechnology except:A) It enables glass to be produces that is heat-resistant up to 1,000˚ CB) The burden of proof about product safety will fall on the EPAC) It can assist doctors in identifying cancer cellsD) The FDA will have to oversee regulation of nanotechnology with potential health and safety

risksE) It includes devices designed on the scale of individual atoms






26. For the time being, the FDA has approved the use of Bisphenol A (BPA) as safe because:1) studies have yet to show that it is an endocrine disrupter2) it is unclear how much of it is taken up by our bodies3) it rarely comes into contact with products for human consumption4) the low concentrations present in bottles may not have a negative effectA) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) 2 and 4

27. Which of the following is an endocrine disrupter?A) CFCsB) mercuryC) ozoneD) carbon dioxideE) acid rain

28. Which of the following is not a leading cause of death in children of developing countries?A) malariaB) malnourishmentC) lower respiratory tract infectionsD) diarrheal diseasesE) all of these are leading causes of death in children of developing countries

29. The factors that account for the differences in health and health care between highly developed and developing nations include all of the following except:A) access to immunization services for childrenB) adequate nutrition for normal growth and developmentC) average number of children a mother hasD) average life expectancyE) money available for health care

30. All of the following are main factors involved in emergence or reemergence of infectious disease except:A) a growing population of elderly people who are more susceptible to infectionB) urbanization, associated with overcrowding and poor sanitationC) the depletion of antibioticsD) growth in international travel and commerceE) all of these are factors in emergence of infectious disease






31. Which of the following statements is false?A) A dose-response curve shows the effect of different doses on a population.B) Doses lower than the threshold level will have no measurable effect on organisms.C) The smaller the LD50, the more toxic the chemical.D) A dose-response curve is a graph illustrating the inverse relationship between LD50 and

the acute toxicity of a chemical.E) The threshold level for a dose-response is the minimum dose with a measurable effect.

32. Which of the following associations between children, adults, and pesticides is correct?A) children are more susceptible to pesticides because they weigh substantially less than

adultsB) lethal doses of pesticides are larger for children than for adultsC) children are more sensitive to pesticides than adults because adults have built up immunity

to the pesticide chemicalsD) children have more stringent pesticide regulations to protect their health than do adultsE) pesticides commonly affect development of height and reproductive organs in young

children but commonly cause brain cancer and leukemia in adults

33. DDT was sprayed in a Long Island salt marsh over a period of years for mosquito control. A portion of the food web is as follows:Algae -> shrimp-> American eel -> Atlantic needlefish -> ring-billed gullIn which organism would biological magnification be greatest?A) AlgaeB) shrimpC) American eelD) Atlantic needlefishE) ring-billed gull






34. In the associated figure, the gull has the highest concentration of DDT because it is:

A) a more complex organismB) an older organismC) at the bottom of the food chainD) at the top of the food chainE) homoeothermic (warm-blooded)

35. Given the data in the accompanying table, which of the chemicals is the most toxic Chemical LD50 (mg/kg) administered orally to ratsStrychnine 1.7Cocaine 17.5Heroin 150.0Caffeine 200.0Morphine 500.0A) strychnineB) cocaineC) heroinD) caffeineE) morphine






36. A "dose-response curve" shows:A) the dose of a given chemical that is lethal to 50% of the populationB) the dose of a given chemical that causes 50% of a population to exhibit a responseC) the correct dose to use in the treatment of illnessD) the dose that will be harmful to the environmentE) the effect of different doses on a population of test organisms

37. Examine the graph and choose the letter that corresponds to the threshold level

A) point A on graphB) point B on graphC) point C on graphD) point D on graphE) none of these

38. Examine the associated graph and choose the letter that corresponds to the ED50.







39. Examine the graph and choose the letter that corresponds to the LD50.


40. Examine the graph and determine which chemical is the most toxic. Choose the correct letter.

A) curve AB) curve BC) curve CD) curve DE) answer cannot be determined using this graph






41. The study of organisms in the biosphere, including their harmful effects on ecosystems is known as:A) environmental toxicologyB) ecotoxicologyC) biotoxicologyD) epidemiologyE) both environmental toxicology and ecotoxicology

42. Which of the following statements about carcinogens is false?A) Cancer was traditionally the only disease evaluated in the chemical risk assessment of

environmental contaminants.B) Rats and mice often respond differently to the same toxicant.C) It is assumed that one can extrapolate from doses and cancer rates in rats to determine

human cancer rates.D) The body often handles very small doses of carcinogens the same way as large doses.E) Children and pregnant women may tolerate carcinogens differently than a healthy young

male.

43. Risk analysis is a tool used to organize how we think about complex environmental systems. When we think about risk from a systems perspective we can decide whether it's most effective to:A) change out activities to avoid particular risksB) limit the extent to which the hazard can come in to contact wit usC) limit the extent to which the hazard can harm usD) provide some sort of offset or compensation for being harmed by the hazardE) all of these

44. Risk assessment involves all of the following except:A) financial costs of the predicted riskB) identification of the hazardC) dose-response assessmentD) assessment of the exposureE) characterization of the risk

45. What environmental catastrophe was largely responsible for replacement of the dilution paradigm by the boomerang paradigm?A) the effect of the 1989 Exxon Valdez oil spill in Alaska on birdsB) the effect of the 1980 chemical spill in Lake Apopka on alligatorsC) an increase in surface temperatures in the Bay of Bengal increasing risk of choleraD) the accumulation of the pesticide DDT in birds at the top of the food webE) massive wildfires destroying habitat of endangered species






46. The infant mortality rate in a developing country is most likely to be:A) the same as in a highly developed countryB) lower than in a highly developed countryC) higher than in a highly developed countryD) unrelated to life expectancy in a developing countryE) impossible to determine

47. “The solution to pollution is dilution” was a generally accepted pattern of the past. Today virtually all environmental scientists have rejected the dilution paradigm in favor of:A) the “now you see it, now you don't” paradigm: what you throw away, stays awayB) the boomerang paradigm: what you throw away can come back and hurt youC) the chemical paradigm: all chemicals that are thrown away transform naturally into

biodegradable elementsD) the awareness paradigm: there is no connection between pollution and health to cause

concernE) the marine paradigm: what you throw away down the storm drain goes to the ocean, the

best receptacle for pollution

48. Environmental contaminants are linked to all of the following serious diseases except:A) cancerB) birth defectsC) reproductive problemsD) malariaE) damage to the nervous system

49. If a chemical with a toxicity level of 1 is mixed with a different chemical with a toxicity level of 1, the combined effect of exposure to the mixture is 2. This is an example of:A) Chemical mixtures interacting by amplificationB) Chemical mixtures interacting by antagonismC) Chemical mixtures interacting by squaringD) Chemical mixtures interacting by synergyE) Chemical mixtures interacting by additivity

50. “An ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure.” This statement is the heart of theA) remedial principleB) exposure principleC) persistence principleD) precautionary principleE) security principle






Answer Key Ch 7

1. E2. E3. D4. C5. D6. B7. E8. D9. B

10. C11. E12. A13. D14. B15. A16. C17. B18. A19. B20. A21. C22. A23. E24. C25. B26. E27. B28. E29. D30. C31. D32. A33. E34. D35. A36. E37. B38. C39. E40. D41. E42. D43. E44. A45. D46. C47. B48. D49. E50. D






Chapter 8: Population Change

1. The continent with the most rapidly growing population is:A) AfricaB) AsiaC) EuropeD) North AmericaE) South America

2. Which of the following statements about population ecology is true?A) Population ecology only deals with declining populations that are in need of intervention in

order to survive.B) Population ecology focuses on individuals and their interactions, but not the abiotic

environment.C) Population ecology attempts to explain how and why the number of individuals changes

over time.D) Population ecology is not important to scientists in applied disciplines, such as wildlife

management.E) Population ecology deals with organisms in nature, but cannot be applied to the study of

human populations.

3. Population density is:A) the total number of individualsB) the total number of individuals of a given speciesC) the total number of individuals per unit of areaD) the total number of individuals of a given species per unit of areaE) the total number of individuals of a given species per unit of area at a given time

4. The science of population structure and growth is called:A) ecologyB) demographyC) democracyD) human dynamicsE) ethology

5. The maximum number of individuals of a given species that a particular environment can support for an indefinite period, assuming there are no changes in the environment is called its:A) environmental resistanceB) intrinsic rate of increaseC) carrying capacityD) sustainabilityE) demography






6. The potential for future increases or decreases in a population based on the present age structure is called:A) intrinsic rate of increaseB) population densityC) population growth momentumD) total fertility rateE) age structure

7. A scientist who first sounded the alarm about the growth of the human population and the ability of the earth to handle a large population of humans was:A) Charles DarwinB) Paul EhrlichC) Thomas MalthusD) Rachel CarsonE) James Lovelock

8. The movement of individuals out of a population is:A) natural increaseB) emigrationC) immigrationD) dispersalE) carrying capacity

9. Which of the following organisms would be predicted to have the lowest intrinsic rate of increase?A) bacteriaB) catsC) cockroachesD) miceE) whales

10. Populations that are growing at their intrinsic rate of increase:A) exhibit logistic growthB) exhibit exponential growthC) double in size every yearD) mutate rapidlyE) have no impact on their environment






11. Limits set by a surrounding environment on reproduction are called:A) biotic potentialB) environmental resistanceC) natural increaseD) demographicsE) doubling time

12. Which of the following feature is typical of K-selected species?A) early maturityB) small body sizeC) do not produce a large number of offspringD) short life spanE) no parental care invested in the offspring

13. Humans exhibit:A) Type I survivorshipB) Type II survivorshipC) Type III survivorshipD) Type I survivorship in early life and type II in mid-lifeE) Type IV survivorship

14. In Type II survivorship:A) the probability of survival decreases with ageB) the probability of survival increases with ageC) the probability of survival doesn't change with ageD) the male dies more frequently than femalesE) the female dies more frequently than males

15. Which of the following is true for Type III survivorship?A) the probability of survival decreases with ageB) the probability of survival increases with ageC) it is characteristic of redwood treesD) it is characteristic of humansE) it is characteristic of adult gulls

16. Which of the following species is characterized by a boom-or-bust cycle?A) whalesB) ParameciumC) reindeerD) lemmingsE) humans






17. All of the following are examples of a density-independent factor affecting population growth except:A) fireB) blizzardC) hurricaneD) food availabilityE) all of these are density-independent factors

18. As of 2008, the current size of the human population is nearly:A) 2.5 billionB) 3.6 billionC) 4.2 billionD) 5.8 billionE) 6.8 billion

19. The human population is increasing because of:A) medical advancesB) agricultural advancesC) sanitation practicesD) improved water qualityE) all of these

20. Over the past several years the world growth rate (r) has:A) increasedB) declinedC) stayed the sameD) doubledE) increased exponentially

21. Replacement-level fertility is:A) the average number of children born to each womenB) the number of children who die in a given areaC) the number of children a couple must produce to replace themselvesD) doubling the amount of fertility in women in a given countryE) number of women without fertility in a given area and others needed to replace them






22. Developing countries fall into two categories, moderately developed and less developed. Which of the following is not classified as a less developed country?A) LaosB) NigerC) BangladeshD) ThailandE) Ethiopia

23. What is the formula for doubling time (td)?A) td = 70/rB) td = 35/rC) td = x/rD) the rule of 90E) both td = 70/r and the rule of 90

24. A dieback or population crash often occurs after a species ________ its environmental carrying capacity.A) meetsB) undershootsC) overshootsD) oscillates aroundE) reduces

25. Conditions that limit growth and ultimately produce population equilibrium are known as:A) predation conflictsB) diebacksC) biotic potentialD) environmental resistanceE) fertility factors

26. Relative to the United States, China:1) has higher CO2 production per unit of energy 2) has higher per-capita CO2 emissions3) has lower overall CO2 emissions4) burns much less coalA) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) Both 3 and 4






27. Which of the following factors is density-dependent?A) droughtB) severe stormsC) diseaseD) fire in a grassland biomeE) extreme cold, or moderate cold at an especially critical time of year

28. In the real world, many factors determine the numbers of organisms in a given population. Yet a SUPERFLY population with unlimited food and no mortality would show what types of growth?A) exponentialB) logisticC) linearD) MathusianE) unpredictable

29. An age structure diagram shaped like a pyramid is characteristic of a country with:A) a decreasing population growth rateB) an increasing population growth rateC) a steady rate of population growthD) a population crashE) a population at its carrying capacity

30. In the postindustrial stage there is:A) modest population growthB) high death rateC) greater affluence and higher levels of educationD) high birth rateE) high infant mortality

31. Which of the following is not true of highly developed countries?A) a list would include Japan, Australia, and GermanyB) they have high fertility ratesC) they have very low infant mortality ratesD) they have longer life expectancies compared to less developed countriesE) have low rates of population growth






32. Which of the following statements about HIV/AIDS in Africa is false?A) More than 23 million of the world's population infected with HIV/AIDS live in sub-Saharan

Africa.B) by 2010, about 18 million children in southern Africa will lose at least one parent to AIDS.C) The average life expectancy in Swaziland today is 50 years.D) In developing countries, almost all people infected with HIV/AIDS die.E) HIV/AIDS is now the leading cause of death in Africa.

33. Which of the following equations accurately represents population growth?A) r = (b – d) + (i – e)B) r = (b + d) - (i + e)C) r = (b – d) (e – i)D) r = (b + d) (i + e)E) none of these are accurate

34. Which of the following scenarios is (are) likely to lead to the creation of a metapopulation? The type of organism is listed first, followed by the change to its habitat.A) forest bird species; large sections of a forest are cleared to construct residential

subdivisionsB) grassland small mammal species; large areas of grassland are cleared and plowed for

agricultureC) river fish species; an industrial chemical spill causes a massive fish kill on the riverD) both forest bird species; large sections of a forest are cleared to construct residential

subdivisions and grassland small mammal species; large areas of grassland are cleared and plowed for agriculture

E) all scenarios could lead to metapopulations

35. In the pre-industrial demographic stage:A) birth and death rates are highB) death rates are lowC) industrialization is very lightD) birth rates are lowE) infant mortality rates are low

36. Which of the following populations would have a growth rate of zero?A) b = 100, d =50, i =0, e =100B) b = 100, d =50, i =50, e =100C) b = 100, d =50, i =75, e =100D) b = 100, d =50, i =100, e =100E) b = 100, d =50, i =150, e =100






37. Zero population growth is:A) when the death rate equals the growth rateB) when the birth rate equals the death rateC) when the birth rate equals the growth rateD) when the growth rate equals the declining rateE) when the birth rate plus the death rate equals the zero

38. Which of the following is not an example of an animal with a boom-or-bust cycle?A) lemmingsB) snowshoe hares C) red grouseD) antelopeE) all of these have cyclic population fluctuations

39. Which of the following is true of population growth momentum?1) it is the potential for future increase or decrease in a population based on the present age structure2) there is no relation between population growth momentum and replacement-level fertility3) a country can have replacement-level fertility and still experience population growth4) it is the growth pattern of a given countries' populationA) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) Both 1 and 3

40. If and when the human population reaches zero population growth, which of the following will be true?A) (b - d) > 0.01B) (i – e) = 0C) (i – e) > 0.01D) r > 1E) r = 0

41. What is the doubling time for a population if the annual growth rate is 5%?A) 5 yearsB) 10 yearsC) 14 yearsD) 1.4 yearsE) cannot be determined from this information






42. An improving socioeconomic condition of a country is generally correlated with:A) increased birth rate and increased population growth rateB) increased death rate and decreased population growth rateC) decreased birth rate and increased population growth rateD) decreased birth rate and decreased population growth rateE) decreased death rate and increased population growth rate

43. In the fourth demographic stage (postindustrial stage) of the demographic transition the population will stabilize:A) at the carrying capacity of the environmentB) at a population larger than before the transition, but with very slow or no growthC) at a rate of growth that is higher than before the transitionD) at a size close to the original before the transitionE) at a size much smaller than the original population

44. The challenges for countries with aging populations include all of the following concerns except:A) ways to deal with an increase in violent crimesB) a need to increase the age of retirementC) reduction in financial benefits for the elderlyD) not enough young people to support the elderly populationE) a greater demand for health and social services

45. Lemming population fluctuations (crashes) are thought to be most closely related toA) an increase in the predator populationsB) an increase in the food supplyC) a decrease in the predator populationsD) a decrease in the food supplyE) variations in climate due to global warming

46. All of the following are characteristics of an r-selected population except:A) it has a high intrinsic rate of growthB) the onset of reproduction is at an early ageC) there is extensive parental care of offspringD) it is likely to occur in variable environmentsE) there are many offspring per reproductive event






47. Which of the following was responsible for reducing the population of reindeer on the Pribilof Islands, Alaska?A) competitionB) availability of vegetationC) availability of nesting sitesD) build-up of waste productsE) drought

48. The following graphic represents the age structure characteristic of:

A) a highly developed countryB) a moderately developed countryC) a developing countryD) the transition stageE) the pre-industrial state






49. Features that are typical of r-selected species include all of the following except:A) late reproductionB) small body sizeC) early maturityD) short life spanE) large broods

50. A biologist reported that during an algal bloom, a sample of ocean water had ten million dinoflagellates (marine phytoplankton) per cubic meter of seawater. What was the biologist measuring?A) dispersionB) densityC) carrying capacityD) survivorshipE) biotic potential

51. Given a population growth rate of +0.18%, you would expect the population to:A) increase rapidlyB) continue to increase, but very slowlyC) remain unchangedD) decrease rapidlyE) continue to decrease, but very slowly

52. Given a population growth rate of –3.0%, you would expect the population to:A) increase rapidlyB) continue to increase, but very slowlyC) remain unchangedD) decrease rapidlyE) continue to decrease, but very slowly






53. The graph below best illustrates:

A) logistic growthB) a population that has reached carrying capacityC) exponential growthD) linear growthE) a population crash

54. Which of the following is an example of a density-dependent factor affecting population growth?A) diseaseB) the salinity of the soilC) the amount of rainfallD) temperature rangeE) hurricane

55. Which of these is not an example of a density-dependent factor affecting population growth?A) competitionB) diseaseC) climateD) accumulation of body wastesE) none of these, all are examples of density-dependent factors

56. Which of the following is a true statement about the global human population size?A) it is no longer increasingB) it is predicted to increase exponentially far into the futureC) it is currently decreasing slowlyD) it is predicted to stop growing in the next 100 yearsE) it is predicted to decrease dramatically in the next 100 years






Answer Key Ch 8

1. A2. C3. E4. B5. C6. C7. C8. B9. E

10. B11. B12. C13. A14. C15. B16. D17. D18. E19. E20. B21. C22. D23. A24. C25. D26. A27. C28. A29. B30. C31. B32. C33. A34. D35. A36. B37. B38. D39. E40. E41. C42. D43. B44. A45. D46. C47. B48. A49. A50. B






51. B52. D53. C54. A55. C56. D

Chapter 9: The Problems of Overpopulation

1. The basic requirements of life include all of the following except:A) discretionary incomeB) a balanced dietC) clean waterD) adequate clothingE) decent shelter

2. Choose the correct statement below regarding world hunger.A) World hunger and poverty should be eliminated early in the 21st century.B) The causes of world hunger have been shown to be bad weather, insects, natural

disasters and war.C) The people who are undernourished are unable to grow or afford food.D) Population, world hunger, poverty, and environmental problems are four distinct and

unrelated issues.E) Modern agriculture currently produces enough food to adequately feed 75% of the global

population.

3. Which of the following represent the two regions of the world with the greatest food insecurity?A) Sub-Saharan Africa and South AmericaB) Central and South AmericaC) South Asia and sub-Saharan AfricaD) South Asia and South AmericaE) Central America and South Asia

4. Potentially, world hunger could be eliminated by:A) improved food distributionB) promotion of economic developmentC) increased family planning educationD) elimination of povertyE) all of these






5. Food insecurity is the condition in which people live in hunger or fear of starvation. Where are the two regions in the world with the greatest food insecurity?A) South Asia and sub-Saharan AfricaB) Indonesia and Southern AfricaC) Eastern Asia and Saharan AfricaD) Micronesia and the Kalahari DesertE) Egypt and the area adjacent to the Aral Sea

6. If a country is to raise its standard of living, its economic growth must be greater than its:A) economic debtB) economic GNPC) cost of livingD) population growthE) all of these

7. Which of the following factors affects the total fertility rate for human populations today?A) availability of family planning servicesB) cultural and religious traditionsC) governmental policiesD) marriage ageE) all of these

8. Which of the following is not a reason for high fertility rates?A) economic and societal roles of childrenB) high infant mortality rateC) educating womenD) religious pressuresE) desire for more male children

9. The single most important factor affecting high total fertility rates may be:A) limited access to family planning servicesB) the low status of women in many societiesC) the economic status of large familiesD) traditionE) religious values






10. The country with the current largest population in the world is:A) BrazilB) ChinaC) IndiaD) RussiaE) United States

11. The social construct that results in women not having the same rights, opportunities or privileges as men is:A) gender impartialityB) gender inequalityC) masculinity dominanceD) feminine discriminationE) bi-sexual equivalence

12. Each person who scales back unnecessary consumption lessens the effects of population growth. The way of life that involves wanting and spending less is:A) intentional complexityB) parsimonyC) dedicated spendingD) voluntary simplicityE) unrestricted expenditure

13. In addition to providing information on reproductive physiology, family planning services also provide:A) contraceptivesB) marriage licensesC) long-term childcareD) infertility medical treatmentE) religious support groups

14. “The poor stay poor, not because they're lazy but because they have no access to capital.” This statement by economist Milton Friedman provides the philosophical basis for:A) self-employmentB) food insecurityC) socio-economic class distinctionsD) pronatalistsE) microcredit






15. Famines are attributed to all of the following except:A) insect outbreaksB) armed conflictC) droughtsD) floodsE) all of these

16. In a typical year, what percentage of the world's hungry people are without food because of famine?A) 5-10%B) 20-25%C) 30-35%D) approx. 50%E) 90-95%

17. The ideas and customs of a group of people at a given period and passed from generation to generation is defined as:A) religionB) carrying capacityC) ethnicityD) cultureE) value system

18. The country that is predicted to have the greatest population in the next few decades is:A) IndiaB) U.S.C) MexicoD) ThailandE) China

19. What is the sub-Saharan region with the world's most rapid population growth?A) IndiaB) KenyaC) NigeriaD) BotswanaE) Uganda






20. Which of the following statements about the relationship between economics and population growth is true?A) Population growth has no effect on economic development.B) Economic development does not affect population growth.C) If a country's standard of living is to increase, then its population growth must decrease to

almost zero.D) Economic growth in developing countries would profit from slower population growth.E) The debt burden in developing countries is not affecting economic development.

21. Which of the following statements about per capita resource use is not true?A) In highly developed countries, per capita resource use is high.B) In developing countries, per capita resource use is high.C) Many people in more affluent nations exploit resources in order to meet their desires.D) In highly developed countries, resource demands exceed the requirements for survival.E) The resources that are essential to an individual's survival are small.

22. Which of the following is considered a pronatalist pressure?A) legitimate needs for support in old ageB) the need for hands to help in farm workC) macho pride in men who have many childrenD) women's status determined by the number of children she hasE) all of these

23. Which of the following makes it impossible to determine the carrying capacity for humans?A) quality of life and quantity of people are intertwined in this issueB) fertility rates differ between highly developed and developing countriesC) contraceptives are not used uniformly on a global basisD) the impact of the HIV/AIDS epidemic has yet to be determinedE) government policies on population growth vary dramatically between countries

24. High fertility rates are generally encouraged in developing countries because:A) children contribute to the family's livelihoodB) children must care for aging parentsC) Male children are culturally more desirable, so families continue to have children until male

children are bornD) high fertility rates compensate for high infant mortality ratesE) all of these






25. Family planning services:A) are generally more available in developing countries than in developed countriesB) have resulted in about 70% of married women using contraceptivesC) provide information on reproductive physiology and contraceptive methodsD) force people to limit family sizeE) always encourage pregnant, poor women to have an abortion

26. Which of the following does not apply to family planning measures used now, or in the past, in China?A) compulsory sterilization of fathers after males are bornB) penalties and fines for a second childC) many newborn girls abandoned or killedD) abortion is common when the woman is pregnant with a second childE) education and publicity problems

27. In India, all of the following family planning measures have been used except:A) compulsory sterilization of fathers after males are bornB) improved health services to lower infant mortality ratesC) government sponsored family planningD) requirement for one-child familiesE) adult literacy and population programs

28. Which of the following does not apply to family planning measures in Mexico?A) improved health services to improve infant mortality ratesB) measures have not been effective, and total fertility rate has stayed constant over the past

30 yearsC) multimedia campaigns, including soap operasD) social workers are trained in family planningE) public school curriculum includes population education

29. Which of the following does not apply to population issues in Nigeria?A) largest population of any African countryB) fewer people under 15 years of age due to the AIDS epidemic in the countryC) great reproductive potential because approximately 44 percent of the population is under

15 years of ageD) has a low average life expectancy of 52 yearsE) has a total fertility rate of approximately 6.0 births per woman, one of the highest in the

world






30. Increasing education results in a decrease in total fertility, primarily by:A) accelerating marriage ageB) delaying the age at which women have their first childC) decreasing access to contraceptivesD) leading to a greater understanding of traditional and religious beliefsE) decreasing the economic standing of childless individuals

31. Family planning services affect total fertility rate, because where family planning services are available:A) men and women are able to limit family sizeB) safeguards are in place for individual health rightsC) the quality of life for children are improvedD) total fertility rates decreaseE) all of these

32. According to the National Research Council, the relationship between economic development and population growth is:A) rapid growth increases in a population supports economic developmentB) as economic development strengthens, the population growth potential weakensC) economic development would profit from slower population growthD) economic development would suffer from slower population growthE) economic development and population growth are unrelated

33. Even with lower birth rates, Mexico's and Nigeria's positive ____________will cause their populations to increase because of the large number of young women having babies.A) pronatalistsB) population growth momentumC) welfare systemD) access to maternal medical assistanceE) TFR (total fertility rate)

34. The involvement of governments in childbearing and child rearing is well established. All of the following are government interventions to reduce population growth except:A) in the U.S., laws governing the minimum age people may marryB) in the U.S., tax structures which provide allowances based on family sizeC) in China, enforcement of penalties and fines with the birth of a second childD) in India, compulsory sterilization for men with three or more living childrenE) in Mexico, monetary “baby bonuses”, paid maternity and paternity leaves, and government

sponsored child care






35. The countries with the greatest food shortages have some of the:A) lowest food insecuritiesB) fastest economic developmentsC) lowest foreign debtD) highest average levels of educationE) highest total fertility rates (TFR's)

36. In Sri Lanka, the average age at marriage is 25, and the average number of children born per woman is 2.0. In Bangladesh, the average age at marriage is 17, the average number of children born per woman is 3.3. Which of the following conclusions is supported by these data?A) the earlier a woman marries, the more children she is likely to haveB) the more highly educated the woman, the less children she is likely to haveC) the doubling time of the Bangladesh population is 58 years at its current rate of natural

increaseD) the earlier a woman marries, the less children she is likely to haveE) there is no relationship between fertility rate and marriage age

37. How does microcredit help poor people establish thriving small businesses?A) microcredit provides grants from $50-500 that do not have to be paid backB) microcredit provides low interest loans that come with technical assistance in business and

bookkeepingC) microcredit loans target those with assets to secure loans providing a guaranteed

investment for lendersD) microcredit provides loans for a narrow band of self-employment projects that FINCA then

incorporates into one big businessE) microcredit provides small incentives for poor people to begin a savings program at their

local banks

38. What is the goal of the Millennium Villages Project (MVP)?A) to solicit input from villagers on potential development projectsB) to reduce migration of villagers to citiesC) to transfer management of development projects to rural communitiesD) to study patterns of village life around the worldE) to connect villages to urban centers

39. What is the goal of the Poverty Action Lab?A) to conduct scientifically rigorous studies of anti-poverty programsB) to bring attention to global povertyC) to analyze the chemical composition of a few common global food cropsD) to study the history of povertyE) to connect governments in the developing world with agencies that fund anti-poverty

programs






40. Which of the following conclusions arose from studies conducted by the Poverty Action Lab? 1) welfare recipients who receive personnel counseling were better able to find jobs 2) providing children with de-worming medicine increased school attendance3) elementary school children tutored by local secondary-school graduate girls scored higher on a standardize test that children that participated in an expensive computer-based tutoring programA) 1B) 2C) 3D) 2 and 3E) all of these

41. What was the primary goal of the 2000 UN Millennium Summit?A) to reduce global greenhouse gas emissionsB) to reduce Total Fertility Rate (TFR)C) to meet the needs of the impoverished people of the worldD) to promote fair trade practicesE) to promote equal education opportunities for women

42. What can one conclude from the figure at right concerning contraceptive use and Total Fertility Rate (TFR)?

A) contraceptive use is not in agreement with the culture of NigeriaB) there is no relationship between contraceptive use and TFRC) contraceptive use and TFR are negatively correlatedD) contraceptive use and TFR are positively correlatedE) to promote equal education opportunities for women






Answer Key Ch 9

1. A2. C3. C4. E5. A6. D7. E8. C9. B

10. B11. B12. D13. A14. E15. E16. A17. D18. A19. C20. D21. B22. E23. A24. E25. C26. A27. D28. B29. B30. B31. E32. C33. B34. E35. E36. A37. B38. C39. A40. D41. C42. C
