Bio Modul U6 2010-3

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

1/66

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

2/66

4. The diagram shows a part of a muscle fibre taken from an electromicro-graph. (tx)

What isM, N, andO ?

M N O

A T tubule Terminal cisterna myofibrilB T tubule myofibril Terminal cisterna

C Terminal cisterna T tubule myofibrilD Terminal cisterna myofibril T tubule

5. Which of the following is true of the sympathetic nervous system? (tx)

I. Increases the heart rateII. Increases the digestive rateIII.Has short preganglionic taxons and long postganglionic axinsIV.Norepinephrine is secreted at the junction with effector tissueA. I and II C. II, III and IVB. I, II and IV D. I, II, III and IV

6. The table shows the effects of four different drugs on synaptic transmission (tx)

Drug Effect

I inhibit release of acetylcholine

II inhibits cholinesterase

III inhibits reuptake of dopamineIV competes with acetylcholine at receptor sites

Which are the effects of the druges curare and cocaine?A. I and II C. II and IV

B. II and III D. III and IV

Bright Minds 016-6412016 Thuran

Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

3/66

7. The following diagram shows the changes in membrane potential in an axon

I. Na+ channels openII. K+ channels openIII.Na+ channels closeIV.K+ channels closeWhat happens at pointsM, NandO?

M N O

A I III, II IV

B I III II

C II III I

D II IV, I III

8. When action potential is generated, the potential across the axon membrane changes fromA. -40mV inside to +70mV insideB. -70mV inside to +40mV insideC. +40mV inside to -70mV insideD. +70mV inside to -40mV inside

9. If the sodium-potassiuim pump in the membrane of a neurone is inactivated by a metabolic poison suc

as cyanide, the restin potential across the membrane takes several hours to become zero. Why is there

a delay?

10. Which of the following changes take place suring heperpilarisation of the postsynaptic membrane?

Diffusion of ions from the

synaptic cleft into thepostsynaptic neurone

Diffusion of ions from

postsynaptic neurone intothe synaptic cleft

A Cl-

K+

B K+

Na+

C Na+

Ca2+

D Ca2+

Na+


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

4/66

11. Depolarisation of the presynaptic membrane of an axon directly causes

A. the voltage-gated calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane to openB. the synaptic vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membraneC. the action potential to be generated in the postsynaptic neuroneD. the neurotransmitter to be released into the synaptic cleft.

12. The following are a few events involve in synaptic transmission.

I. Na+ ion channels open, Na+ ions rush into the postsynaptic neuroneII.Neurotransmitter is released ionto the synaptic cleft.III.Arrival of impulses at the synaptic knob depolarises the oresynaptic membrane.IV.Neurotransmitter attaches to a specific protein receptor on the postsynaptic membrane.V. Calcium ions rush into the synaptic knob.A. IIV IIIVIIB. IIIVVIIIIC. VIIIIVIIID. IIIVIIIVI

13. What are the roles of calcium ions in muscular contraction?

I. Stimulate the release of neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleftII. Bind to the troponin; cause a change in its shape so that the myosin-binding sites on the actin

filaments are exposed

III.Deactivate ATPaseA. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. I, II and III

14. The following table shows two types of nerves and their features

Nervous system Features of the nerves

p parasympathetic nerve I short preganglionic fibre

s synpathethic nerve II neurotransmitter released by preganglionic neurone at

the effector is acetylcholine

III prepare the body for emergencyIV decrease the strength and rate of heart beat

Which is the correct match?I II III

A s s s

B p p pC s p s

D p s p

15. Which of the following are true about the muscle fibre?

I. The sarcolemma is a connective tissue holding the myofibrils together.II. The T system consists of tubules.III.Both actin and myosin filaments have cross-bridges.IV.Contains endoplasmic reticulumA. I and III B. II and IV C. I, II and III D. I, II, III and IV


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

5/66

16.Which of the following membrane potential diagrams is correct when a nerve impulse is propagated inan axon?

A. + + + + + + + Extracellular fluid

- - - - - - - Axoplasma

B. + + - - - + + Extracellular fluid

- - + + + - - Axoplasma

C. + + - - - + + Extracellular fluid

+ + - - - + + Axoplasma

D. - - + + + - - Extracellular fluid

+ + - - - + + Axoplasma

17.The table below shows the events that occur during the contraction of muscles.I a cross-bridge is formed bwtween actin and myosin.

II Calcium ions bind to troponin.

III Tropomyosin is displaced, exposing the myosin binding site

IV Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events after an impulse reaches a muscle?

A. IIVIIIII C. IIIIIVII

B. IIIIIIIV D. IVIIIII I

18.A transverse section of an axon is shown in the diagram below.

What does P represent?

A. AxoplasmB.NeurilemmaC. Schwann cellD. Myelin sheath


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

6/66

STRUCTURE

1. The diagram shows the structure of a nerve synapse. (tx)

(a)Label structuresA toFA: ....

F: ....

(b)Draw an arrow on the diagram to show the direstion of a nerve impulse (an action potential) in thepresynaptic neurone.

(c)Name a common neurotransmitter present in the synaptic vesicle...

(d)Name an ion that(i) moves into the postsynaptic neurone in an excitory symapse...

(ii)Moves out of the postsynaptic neurone in an inhibitory synapse...

(e)Suggest one reason why structure Ccontains large numbers of organelleD...

..


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

7/66

(f) (i) What is the major chemical component of structureA?..

(ii) State the functions of structureA and structure B.

StructureA: ..

..

StructureB ..

..

2. Figure below represents a longitudinal section through part of a striated muscle.

(a) (i) What is the term used to describe the complete structure fromJto Jshown above? [1 mark]

.

(ii) Identify the parts labeledJ, KandL. [3 marks]

J: .

K: .

L : .


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

8/66

(b) The diagram shows the A band, the I band and the H zone. Which one or more of these

(i) contains action but not myosin?

.

.

(ii) shortens when the muscle contracts? [3 marks]

.

.

(c) Describe two roles played by each of the following in muscle contraction.

(i) ATP [2 marks]

.

.

(ii) Calcium ions [1 mark

.

.

ESSAY

1. Describe what happens

(a) when an action potential arrives at a synaptic knob of an excitory synapse.(b) After a new action potential is generated at the postsynaptic neurone.

2. (a) Describe how a nerve impulse is transmitter along an axon [10 marks](b) Outline the role of calcium ions in synaptic transmission [5 marks]

3. (a) Describe the mechanism of action of curare on the neuromuscular junction. [5 marks](b) Describe the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction. [10 marks]


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

9/66

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

10/66

Which of the following is a correct match after imbibition of water by the barley grain?

Site of production

of gibberellic acid

Site of synthesis of

hydrolytic enzymes

A W X

B X ZC Y W

D Z W

4. Which of the following statements is false?

B. Ethene promotes fruit ripening and abscission.C. Cytokinins promote apical dominance.D. Abscisic acid promotes stomatal closure under water stress.E. Auxins and gibberellins promote stem elongation.

5. Which of the following is not a correct response of flowering related to the length of dark period?

6. The diagram below shows a photoperiodic induction of flowering in a plant.


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

11/66

What isX, YandZ?

X Y Z

A PFR florigen Short-day plant

B PFR florigen long-day plant

C PR phytochrome Short-day plantD PR phytochrome long-day plant

7. What is difference in the mechanism of action between steroid hormone and peptide hormone?A. Target cells respond faster to steroid hormone than to peptide hormone.B. Steroid hormone enters the cytoplasm and then passes to the nucleus whereas eptide hormone

remain in the cytoplasm.C. Steroid hormone bbinds to a receptor protein whereas peptide hormone binds to a G protein.D. Steroid hormone activates the expression of a specific gene whereas peptide hormone activates a

protein/enzyme already present in the cell.

8. Which of the following hormones/structures must b present before ovulation can occur?I. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)II. OestrogenIII.Luteinising hormone (LH)IV.ProgesteroneV. Graafian follicleVI.Corpus luteumA. I, II and VB. I, II, III and VC. I, II, III, IV and VD. I, II, III, IV, V and VI

9. The below table shows the hormones and their roles during pregnancy.

Hormone Functions

a Hjuman chorionicgonadotrophin (HCG)

I Prevents the degeneration of corpus luteum

b Ocytocin II Relaxes the elastin fibres that join the bones of the

pelvic girdlec Prolactin III Stimulates rhythmic contraction of uterus during birthd Relaxin IV Stimulates milk production and secretion

Which of the following is the correct match?

a b c d

A I II IV III

B I III IV II

C IV I III II

D III IV I II


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

12/66

10. Which of the following plant hormones can induce parthencarpy?

I. Auxin II. GibberellinIII. Ethene IV. Cytokinin

A. I only B. II only

C. I and II D. III only

11. The diagram shows the mechanism of action of plant hormone X

What is hormone X?A. Abscisic acid B. Gibberellin

C. Auxin C. Ethene

12.The table below shows five plant hormones and their functions.Hormone Functions

a Auxin I Promoter bolting, in some rosette plantsb Absisic acid II Promotes fruit ripening

c Ethane III Promotes abscission of fruits and leavesd Gibebrellin IV Promotes stem elongatione Cytokinin V Promotes cell division and delays leaf senescence

Which is the correct match?

a b c d e

A I II III IV V

B II I IV V III

C III IV I V II

D IV III II I V

13. Which of the following is the correct match for the hormones and their physiological effects?

Hormone Physiological effect

A Aldosterone Controls the metabolic rateB Insulin Decreases the glucose level in the blood

C Thyroxine Increases the glucose level in the blood

D Glucagon Maintains the balance of Na+

and K+

ions


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

13/66

14. Which of the following is the correct match for the hormones and their roles?

Hormone Role of hormone

A Gibberellic acid Inhibits the growth of adventitious rootB Cytokinin Stimulates closing of stomata under

conditions of water stressC Auxin Promotes fruit ripeningD Ethene Stimulates cell divisions of the lateral

cambium during secondary growth

15. The following are the steps in a hormonal action.I Binding of the hormone to the receptor

II Phosphorylation of enzyme

III Conversion of ATP to cAMP

Which sequence of steps is correct for the hormonal action?

A.

I, II, IIIB. I, III, IIC. II, III, ID. III, II, I

16. In what way are hormones and enzymes similar?A. They are effective in large amountB. Their basic units are amino acids.C. They are not altered during a metabolic process.D. They are channeled to the target destination through ducts.

17. What is the effect of an increase in oestrogen concentration between the 11

th

and 14

th

day of themenstrual cycle?

A. The inhibition of GnRHB. The disintegration of endomentriumC. The development of corpus luteumD. An upsurge in the concentration of FSH and LH


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

14/66

STRUCTURE

1. The diagrams below show two different mechanism of hormone action.

(a) Label the structure M to T.

M: Q :..

N: R :..

O : S:..

P : T:..

(b) Name the processesX, YandZ.

X: .

Y: .

Z: .

(c) State one similarity and five differences between mechanism I and mechanism II.

Similarity :

.

..


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

15/66

Differences :

.

..

.

..

.

..

.

..

2. The figure below shows changes in the blood concentration of gonadotropins and steroid hormonesinvolved in regulating the ovarian cycle and the human menstrual cycle.

(a)What is meant by the term gonadotrophin?

.


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

16/66

(b)Describe how the following hormones are secreted:(i) FSH

(ii)LH

(iii)-oestradiol (a natural oestrogen)

(iv)progesterone

(c)For each of the hormone named in (b), state its main site of secretion, its effects, if any, on theovary and also the endometrium of the uterus.

(i) FSHSite of secretion :

Effects: ..

(ii)LHSite of secretion : ..

Effects: ..


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

17/66

(iii)-oestradiol (a natural oestrogen)

Site of secretion : ..

Effects: ..

(iv)ProgesteroneSite of secretion

Effects: ..

3. Different plants require different daylengths/periods of daylight fr flowering. These plants can beclassified into three photoperiodic groups, long-day plants and dau-neutral plants.

(b)(i) Using a suitable example, explain what is meant by day neutral plants.

.

(ii) An experiments is carried out to investigate the relationship between the period of daylight and

flowering on spinach plants.

.

The results of the experiment are as follows.


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

18/66

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

19/66

(ii)How can this knowledge be exploited commercially to induce this species of plant to flower out ofseason?

.

.

.

.

ESSAY

1. Name five common types of plant hormones and discuss the main function of each hormone.

2. (a) Describe the characteristic of human hormones [7 marks]

(b) Describe the mechanism of hormone action via gene activation. [8 marks]


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

20/66

IMMUNITY

OBJECTIVE

1. Which of the following statements is not true of T-cells but not true of B-cells?

A.

They are produced in cells which originate in the bone marrowB. They react with antigens to produce a clone of immunocytesC. They must ass through the thymus gland before they can become fully functionalD. They have antigen receptors n their cell surface membranes.

2. Three stages of defence against pathogenic bacteria are listed below:

I. The action of T-cells and antibody-producing cells.II. The phagocytic action of macrophagesIII.The production of antimicrobial enzymes and Ig A by the mucous membranes.What is the correct sequence of these stages?

A.

I

II

IIIB. IIIII IC. IIIIIID. IIIIII

3. The table below lists the types of immune response and the different cells involve in these responses:

Response Cell

I Humoral a TH cells

II Cell-mediated b Cytotoxic cellsc Plasma cells

d B-cellse Suppressor cellsf Memory cells

Which of the following answers shows the correct matching between immune response and cells

involved?

I II

A c, d, f a, b, e, f

B b, c, e, f a, dC e, f a, b, c, d

D a, b, f c, d, e, f

4. Which part of an antibody an epitope binds to?A. The antibody-binding site

B. The constant region of the H-chain

C. The constant region of the L-chainD. The variable regions of the H and L-chains


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

21/66

5. Cells that have a surface marker called CD4 are

A. natural killer cellsB. helper T-cellsC. cytotoxic T-cellsD. B-cells

6. Which of the following correctly describes an antigen-presenting cell?

A An immune cell with MHC class III proteins or its cell surface membrane.

B. A cell which has an affinity for cytotoxic T-cellsC. A neutrophil that has ingested a bacterium.

D. A macrophage which interacts with a helper T-cell with the aid of a CD4 receptor.

7. What is a provirus?

A. A dormant virus residing in T lymphocytes

B. The template RNA which codes for the synthesis of viral DNA

C. Viral DNA that inserts into a host genome

D. A virus particle which is the causative agent of AIDS.

8. The diagram shows the structure of an antibody molecule.

The antigen-binding site and the attachment site on the B cell respectively areA. MandNB. NandOC. O andPD.MandQ

9. Which of the statement about immunoglobulin IgG are true?I. The initial exposure to antigen causes abundant production of IgG.II. IgG can cross the placenta and confer immunity to the foetus.III.IgG triggers the complement system and causes lysis of bacteria cells.IV.It stiulates the production of histamine that causes allergic reaction.A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. II and IV


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

22/66

10.The table shows two types of immune response and the cells involvedTypes of immune response Cells involved

a Humoral immune response (antibody-mediated immunity)

I B-cells

b Cell-mediated immunity II Antigen-presenting cell (APC)III T helper cellIV Plasma cell

V T cytotoxic cellVI T Suppressor cells

Which one is the correct match?

a b

A I, II, III IV, V, VI

B II, IV, VI I, III, V

C I, IV I, III, V, VID I, II, III, IV II. III. V. VI

11.The table show four types of cells and their actions in a cell-mediated immunityCells Actions

I T helper cell a Kills infected sellII T cytotoxic cell b Activates B cells or other T cells

III T suppressor cell c Provides future immunity against a second invasion by

the same antigenIV T memory cell d Suppresses te immune response after the antigen is

removed

Which of the following is a correct match?

I II III IV

A a b c dB b a d c

C c d a b

D d c a b

12. Which is not correct about the self and no-self concept?

A. MHC protein markers on the surface of cells act as specific antigens.B. Each organism carries a set of antigens which is unique to each individualC. In the embryo, T lymphhocytes which can bind to the receptors (proteins and polysaccharides) of

their own body cells are induced t proliferate to form a clone of T cells.

D. The immune system can distinguish self (the bodys own tissue) from non-self (foreign tissue).


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

23/66

13.The table shows two types of lymphocytes and their corresponding explanation.Lymphocyctes Statements about the lympocytes

a B lymphocyte I Originates from the bone marrow and continues itsdevelopment in the bone marrow

b T lymphocyte II Originates from the bone marrow, moves to the thyusand completes its maturation there

III Can differentiate into T helper cell, T cytotoxic cell, T

suppressor cell and memory cellIV Can differentiate into plasma cell and memory cell

V Play a role in cell-mediated immunity

VI Play a role in humoral immune response (antibody-

mediated immunity)

Which of the following is the correct match?

a bA I, III, VI II, IV, V

B I, IV, VI II, III, VC II, III, V I, IV, VI

D II, IV, VI I, III, V

14. A person infected by HIV will develop AIDS and develop AIDS and die. The immune system fails to

eradicate the virus because

I. the body fails toproduce anti-HIV antibodiesII. the double-stranded viral DNA becomes incorporated as provirus into the DNA of the infected cell

and remains dormant

III.the unusually hogh mutation rates give rose to variations in viral antigensIV.the decrease in the T helper cell level results in the loss of humoral and cell mediated immunity

A. I and II B. II and III

C. I, II and III D. II, III and IV

15. Three types of cells involved in immune response and their functions are shown in the table below.

Type of cell Function

I B cell P Destroys cancer cells

II Helper T cell Q Differences into memory and plasma cells

III Cytotoxic T cell R Secretes cytokines that activate macrophages

Which cells correspond to their functions?

I II III

A P Q R

B P R Q

C Q P R

D Q R P


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

24/66

STRUCTURE

1. The graph below shows the development of a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection over a

period of 10 years. Changes in the number of helper T-cells are also shown.

(b)Describe the changes in the number of HIV particles over the 10-year period..

.

.

(c)State two ways in which the curve for the TH cells differs from that for the HIV particles..

.

(d)Explain why the HIV particles are not eradicated completely in the initial period after infection..

.

(e)Explain the relationship between the number of TH cells and the number of virus particles after 5years.

.

.

(f) On the graph above, sketch the curve that represents changes in relative antibody concentrationover the 10-year period.


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

25/66

2. The diagram shows the structure of HIV, the virus that causes AIDS.

(a)Name the structures labeled A, B, C, D and EA : D :

B : E:

C :

(b) (i) Name one viral component which may be used in the production of a vaccine against a certain

virus.

a. Give one reason for your answer.

(iii)Name the type of immunity obtained.

(d)Why is antibiotic not effective against diseases caused by virus?

(e)AZT (azidothymidine) and ddl (dideoxyinosine) are transcriptase inhibitors. Explain how these drugsslow down the progression of HIV infection.


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

26/66

ESSAY

1. Describe how the bodys immune system defends against pathogens through the production of

antibodies.

2. Explain the mechanism of

(a) humoral (antibody-mediated) immune response(b) cell-mediated immunity.


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

27/66

TRANSMISSION GENETIC

OBJECTIVE

1. The flower of a sweet pea plants are either orange or white in colour. The colour is determined by twopairs of allelomorph genes (A, a and B , b). If at least one dominant gene from each allelomorph pair ispresent, the colour of flower is range. All other genotypes are white. Ia a young plant bearing orange

flowers has an AaBb genotype and is produced by two pure-breeding parental plants, the genotypes of

the parental plants are

A. AABB and aabbB. AAbb and AAbbC. aaBB and aaBBD. aaBB and AAbb

2. For a self-fertilising tree which has the genotype Aa for a certain pair of alleles, the genotypes of seedendosperm produced will show the ratio ofA. AA, Aa. aaB. AAA, AAa. aaaC. AAA, AAa. aaaD. AAA, AAa. Aaa, aaa

3. For the flyDrosophila melanogaster, vestigial wings are caused by a recessive gene, vg, and normalwings are caused by a dominant gene, vg+. On the, ebony body of the fly is caused by a recessive

gene, e, and grey body is caused by a dominant gene, e+. If the cross between two heterozygous flieswith normal wings and grey body produces 144 offspring, how many lies with normal wing and ebony

body are produced among the F1 offspring after fertilization?A. 9B. 27C. 54D. 81

4.A cross between a tall plant with round leaves and a dwarf plant with round leaves produces thefollowing offspring:121 tall plants with round leaves r

+- round leaves

124 dwarf plants with round leaves r - oval leaves

42 tall plants with oval leaves t+

- tall39 dwarf plants with oval leaves t - dwarf

What are the parental genotypes?A. r+ r t+ t x r+ r t tB. r+ r t+ t x r+ r+ t tC. r+ r t+ t+ x r+ r t tD. r+ r t+ t+ x r+ r+ t t


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

28/66

5. Which of the following examples of human inheritance can be explained by comparative alleles onautosomes?A. ABO blood group systemB. Down syndromeC. HaemophiliaD.

Sickle-cell anaemia

6. In Drosophila, the male is heterogameteous. The allele for white eye is recessive and sex-linked. Afemale Drosophila that is heterozygous at this locus is crossed with a normal male. The white eyecharacteristic can be found

A. in all the offspringB. in all male offspring but not in female offspringC. not in female offspring and in 50% of the male offspringD. not in male offspring and in 50% of the female offspring.

7. In an organism, the frequency of crossing over between gene A and gene B is found to be 20%,between gene A and gene C, 5%, and between gene C and gene D, 30%. Which of the followingcombination is correct?

8. The diagram below shows a family pedigree which includes a few members who suffer from heartdisease resulting from hypercholesterolemia. Children who inherit both dominant mutant alleles

usually die before reaching puberty.

What is the probability that the third child of parents X and Y is normal?

A. 0.00B. 0.25C. 0.75D. 1.00

Gene sequence Cross over value between

gene A and gene D

A ABCD 60%

B ABCD 25%

C ACBD 25%

D CABD 25%


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

29/66

9. The diagram below shows the inheritance of haemophilia in a family.

What is the genotype of the 7

th

family member?A. XHXHB. XHXhC. XhXhD. XhY

10.In tomato plants, yellow-flowered are dominant over white flowers and tall plants are dominant overdwarf plants. A tomato plant has undergone fertilization and produced the following progeny ratio.

Phenotype Ratio

Yellow-flowered, tall 9

Yellow-flowered, dwarf 3White-flowered, tall 3

White-flowered, dwarf 1

What is the ratio for yellow-flowered, tall F1 plants that are expected to produce the progeny ration of

I yellow-flowered, tall plants and 1 yellow-flowered, dwarf plant if they are crossed with white-

flowered, dwarf F1 plants?A. 1/9 C. 3/9B. 2/9 D. 4/9

11.The phenotypes and genotypes of the fur colour of cats are as follows.Phenotype Genotype

Male Female

Black XgY X

gX

g

Yellow XGY X

GX

G

Tortoise-shell - XGX

g


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

30/66

Which of the following crosses produce all female offspring with tortoise-shell spotted fur?

I. Female with tortoise-shell spotted fur x male with yellow furII. Female with tortoise-shell spotted fur x male with black furIII.Female with yellow fur x male with black furIV.Female with black fur x male with yellow furA.

I and II C. II and IIIB. I and III D. III and IV

12.Phenylketonuria (inability to taste phenylthiocarbamide which is bitter) is an inherited conditioncaused by a recessive allele. A female and her husband are CARRIERS and have three children in

their family. What is the probability that

a.All three of their children have the normal phenotype?b.At least one of their children has penylketonuria?c.All three of their children have phenylketonuria?d.At least one of their children has the normal phenotype?A. 1/64 C. 37/64B.

27/64 D. 63/64

13.Two different pure strains which are crossed will produce progeny which are calledA.TraitB.HybridsC.MutantsD.phenotype

14.In a monohybrid cross, the genotypic ratios for the F2 genetration are the same, 1:2:1. What does thisresult indicate?

A. The presence of lethal geneB. The presence of linked geneC. Incomplete dominantD. Dominance/recessive interaction


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

31/66

STRUCTURE

1. (a) Explain what is meant by the term epistasis

(b)The colour of fur in rats is controlled by a pair of genes in different loci. The epistatic genedetermines the presence of colour in the fur and the hypostatic gene on another locus determines

the colour produced. Wild rats have agouti fur and have at least one dominant allele (A) for the

hypostatic gene. Black rats are homozygous recessive (aa). If at last one dominant allele (E) for the

gene that determines pigment synthesis is present, the fur pigment can be synthesized and fur

colour (agouti fur or black fur) then appears. If the epistatic gene is in a recessive homozygouscondition (ee), no fur pigment will be synthesized although the alleles for agouti fur or black fur

are present. Thus the rat is albino, with white fur.

(i) A cross between black rat and albino rat produces all agouti rats in the F1 generation. Draw across diagram to explain this condition.

(ii) A cross between F1 individuals produces F2 progeny in the ratio 9 (agoutiaaa0: 3 (black): 4(albino). Using a genetic cross diagram, explain how it occurs.


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

32/66

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

33/66

(iv)State two basic facts that explain why such a phenotype ratio is obtained.

(c)Using suitable symbols, prepare a diagram to explain the results.

ESSAY

1.(a) Explain the characteristics of the pea plant Pisum sativum used by Gregor Mendel in carrying outcrossbreeding experiments.

(b) With examples, explain what is meant by the genetic terms in each pair below.

(i) Test cross and back cross(ii) Multiple alleles and polygenic inheritance

(i) Linkage and sex linkage


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

34/66

POPULATION GENETIC

OBJECTIVE

15.Which of the following statements is true about a gene pool?A.

The sum total of all the genes and their different alleles that are present in a sexually reproducingpopulation of a particular species at a given time.

B. The ratio of any given allele in a population, relative to all the other alleles of that gene at the samelocus.

C. The percentage of individuals with a specific genotype in a population.D. The frequency of the gene pool in a small population remains constant from one generation to the

next generation.

2. TT and Tt individuals have the ability to role their tongues while tt individuals cannot roll their tongues.

The frequency of allele t is 0.4. What is the frequency of the heterozygous individuals (Tt)?

A. 0.24 B. 0.36 C. 0.48 D. 0.60

3. In a population, 12% of the babies are born with sickle-cell anaemia. What is the frequency of the

carrier genotype in the population?A. 0.346 B. 0.427 C. 0.452 D. 0.654

4. Assuming that the population is in genetic equilibrium, what are the frequencies of G and g alleles in apopulation in which the heterozygous (Gg) frequencies is 0.50?

A. G = 0.94, g = 0.06

B. G = 0.25, g = 0.25C. G = 0.50, g = 0.50

D. G = 0.75, g = 0.25

5. In a population of rats, the frequency of the recessive allele for white fur is 0.2. What is the frequency

of the dominant allele for black fur?

A. 0.32 B. 0.04 C. 0.64 D. 0.80

6. Which of the following population shows Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

Population Genotypic frequencies

p2 (AA) 2pq (Aa) q2

A I 0.49 0.26 0.26B II 0.36 0.55 0.09

C III 0.58 0.26 0.16D IV 0.64 0.32 0.04

7. In a population where7% of the babies are born with sickle-cell anaemia, what is the frequency of the

babies born having the heterozygous genotype?A. 0.005 B. 0.389 C. 0.541 D. 0.930


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

35/66

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

36/66

14. In a human population, one out of 25000 babies is born with sickle-ell anaemia. The baby is

homozygous recessive (genotype ss). Which of the following statements are true?I. Frequency for the recessive allele is 0.0063.II. Frequency for the dominant allele s 0.9937III.Frequency for normal babies is 98.74%IV.

Number of carriers in the 25000 babies is 313.A. I and II

B. I, II and IIIC. I, II and IVD. I, II, III and IV

15.The ability to taste the chemical phenylthiobarbamide is controlled by dominant allele T. what is thefrequency of allele tin a population comprising 412 tasters and 235 non-tasters?

A. 0.40 B. 0.57 C. 0.60 D. 0.8016.In a population of 100 000 chicken in died due to the chicken influenza virus. By assuming that the

virus resistance gene is dominant, how many chicken in the farm are carriers of the recessive gene?A. 1000 B. 10 000 C. 18 000 D. 90 000


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

37/66

STRUCTURE

1. The human blood group MN is controlled by two co-dominant alleles LM

and LN

. The following data

for the MN blood types were obtained from a population sampling in a certain locality.

Blood group M MN NNumber of individuals 78 61 139

(d)What is meant by:(iii)codominant?

..

..

(iv)Incomplete dominance?..

..

(b) Calculate the frequency of:

(i) allele LM

(ii) allele LN

(c) Calculate the frequency of the heterozygous genotype LM

LN

in the population.


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

38/66

2. The groundsel plant (Senecio vulgaris) can produce three types of flowers. The types of flowers

produced is controlled by a pair of alleles, both have no dominance. The type of flowers and theirgenotypes are as shown below.

Phynotype Genotype

Floret with long spikes RRFloret with short spikes Rr

Floret without spikes rr

In a population of 500 plants, it is found that :

142 plants have florets with long spikes

248 plants have florets with short spikes110 plants have florets without spikes

(a) Calculate the frequencies of allelesR andr

(b) What are the conditions that must be fulfilled so that the frequency of alleles in a population is

constant?

(c) Calculate the observed frequencies of different genotypes in the population and by using the

equationp+ q = 1, calculate the frequencies expected for the different genotypes in the population.

(d) Is the population obeying the principles of the Hardy-Weinberg Law?


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

39/66

ESSAY

1. (a) Explain what is meant by:

(i) gene pool(ii)allele frequency(iii)genotype frequency in a population(b) The resistance to a certain poisonous compound in a snail population is controlled by a

dominant allele A. 36% of the snail population in an area is resistant to the poison.

(i) Calculate the frequency of the dominant allele A in the population(ii) Calculate the possible number of snails with the genotypes AA, Aa and aa in a population

consisting of 400 snails.

(iii) If all the recessive homozygous snails were killed by the poison, what would be thefrequency of snails produced without resistance to the poison in the following generation?


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

40/66

MUTATION

OBJECTIVE

1. Down Syndrome may exists in two forms. The classic Down Syndrome affects all cells and is verysevere. The mosaic type consists of two or more types of cells which are different in the number andstructure of chromosomes. How does the mosaic condition occur?

A.Non-disjunction of chromosomes during meiosis in oogenesisB.Non-disjunction of chromosomes during meiosis in spermatogenesisC.Non-disjunction of chromosomes during mitosis during early fetal developmentD.Non-disjunction of chromosomes happens in adult somatic cells.

2. Which of the following statements is gales regarding no-disjunction?

A.Non-disjunction only happen during anaphase I meiosis.B. Abnormalities in the number of sex chromosomes and autosomes can happen.C. Turner Syndrome is a result of non-disjunction.D.

It may produce a polyploid.

3. The diagram shows two homologous pairs of chromosomes that synapse during prophase I meiosis.Each pair of chromosome shows a type of chromosomal aberration.

Which of the following are the types of chromosal aberrations shown?

Pair I Pair II

A Inversion TranslocationB Translocation Inversion

C Deletion Duplication

D Duplication Deletion


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

41/66

4. The diagram below shows a pair of homologous chromosomes that synapses during prophase I

meiosis.

What type of chromosome mutation has happened?

A. Inversion C. DeletionB. Translocation D. Duplication

5. Thalassaemia is caused by the following type of gene mutation

A. Subtitution of a base C. Insertion of a baseB. Deletion of a base D. Inversion of a base

6. Which of the following may result in polyploidy?

I. Treatment with cochicineII. Crossing overIII.Independent assortment of chromosomesIV.Non-disjunctionA. I and II C. II and IIIB. I and IV D. II and IV

7. Hydroxylamine is a type of mutagen. It changes the cytosine base to a type of compound that is abel

to pair with the adenine base. Treatment of DNA sample with hydroxylamine will cause mutation byA. deletion of a baseB. insertion of a baseC. inversion of a baseD. substitution of a base

8. The three diagrams below show the pattern formed by three-pairs of homologous chromosomes during

prophase I of meiosis.


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

42/66

Which of the following is a correct match of the mutation that has occurred in the mutated

chromosome?

Deletion Addition orduplication

Inversion

A (i) (ii) (iii)B (ii) (i) (iii)

C (ii) (iii) (i)

D (iii) (ii) (i)

9. An organism with more than two sets of chromosomes derived from the same species is known as

A. an aneuploidB. an amphidiploidsC. an allopolyploidD. am autopolyploid

10. Which of the following are examples of diseases that can be caused by non-disjunction?I. Turner syndromeII. Klinefelter syndeomeIII. Haemophilia

IV. Sickle-cell anaemia

A. I and IIB. III and IVC. I, II and IIID. II, III and IV

11. Let (+) represents the addition of one nucleotide and (-) represents the deletion of one nucleotide. By

assuming that both mutations are adjacent to each other, which mutation will result in a frameshiftmutation?

B. (+)(-)C. (+)(+)(+)D. (+)(+)(+)(-)E. (+)(-)(-)(+)


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

43/66

STRUCTURE

1. (a) (i) What is meant by chromosomal aberration?

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

(ii) Although chromosomal aberration usually occurs spontaneously but the rate can be increased.Give two ways how this can occur.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

(iii) Name four types of chromosome aberrations that could happen.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

(b) A cell which is undergoing meiosis is examined under the microscope. A pair of homologous

chromosomes has the configuration as shown below.

(i) What type of chromosomal aberration has occurred?___________________________________________________________________

(ii)Give one example of a genetic disease which can be caused by the chromosomal aberration asshown in (b)(i).

___________________________________________________________________


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

44/66

(c) The diagram below shows the position of two pairs of different homologous chromosomes before

synapsis during meiosis. The letters used represent the sequence of genes on the chromosomes.

(i) What type of chromosomal aberration has occurred?___________________________________________________________________

(ii)Draw a digram to show the configuration of these two pairs of different homologouschromosomes after synapsis. Prophase I meiosis.

ESSAY QUESTIONS

1. (a) Explain what is meant by the tern mutation?

(b) Explain why a single base deletion from one DNA molecule usually causes greater effect than the

replacement of one base by another different base.(c) Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disease caused by mutation. Describe how this may occur.


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

45/66

GENE EXPRESSION

OBJECTIVE

1. The Operon Model was proposed in 1961 byA.

Avery, MacLeod and Mc CartyB. Jacob and Monod

C. Hershey and ChaseD. Beadle and Tatum

2. Gene expression begins whenA. Replication occursB. Transcription occursC. Translation occursD. A protein is produced

3.

Enzyme which are continuously being produced by the cell for cellular metabolism are known asA. Inducible enzymesB. Constitutive enzymesC. Repressible enzymesD. Hydrolytic enzymes

4. Transcription of structural genes in the lac operon occurs whenA. Glucose is present and lactose is absentB. Glucose is present and lactose is presentC. Glucose is scarce and lactose is absentD. Glucose is scarce and lactose is present

5. The diagram below shows the gene regulation and expression of a lac operon when lactose is present.

What are the substances represented by P, Q, R and S?

P Q R S

A Structural genes operator Promoter Regulator genes

B Promoter Structural genes operator Repressor

C Regulator genes Repressor operator Structural genes

D Regulator genes Repressor Structural genes operator


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

46/66

6. What is the function of the inducer of the lac operoon?A. Binds to the promoter and prevents the repressor from binding to the operator.B. Binds to the operator and prevents the repressor from binding to the promoterC. Binds to the repressor and prevents it from binding to the promoterD. Binds to the repressor and prevents it from binding to the operator

7. In the lac operon, cAMP acts asA. An activator proteinB. A repressor proteinC. An effector moleculeD. Am inhibitor molecule

8. Which of the following statements is not true?A. Constitutive enzymes are constantly synthesized.B. Synthesis of inducible enzymes can be switched on under certain conditions.C. Prokaryotic mRNA contains introns which are removed by process called splicing.D.

When glucose is available, catabolite repression prevents transcription of the lac operon.

9. Which of the following helps RNA polymerase bind to the promoter in an operon?A. Cofactor C. RepressorB. Inhibitor D. Catabolic activator

10.What is the function of regulator gene in an operon?A. To produce a promoterB. To produce an activatorC. To produce an operatorD. To produce a repressor protein

11.Which statement is true of the structural genes in lactose operon?A. The lacA gene encodes a permease enzyme.B. The lacy gene encodes a transacetylase enzymeC. The lacZ gene encodes the enzyme B-galactosidaseD. The lacZ, lacy and lacA genes are transcribed into separate mRNA molecules.

12.What is the role of enzymes produced by the structural genes of the lactose operon?A. Inducing the lactose operonB. Binding allolactose to the repressor proteinC. Breaking down lactose to glucose and galactoseD. Facilitating the transport of glucose into the cell.


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

47/66

STRUCTURE

1. The diagram below shows a lactose operon in Escherichia coli.

(a) Name the specific DNA sequences labelled A, B, C, D, E, F and G.A: __________________________ E: __________________________

B: __________________________ F: __________________________

C: __________________________ G: __________________________

D: __________________________

(b) State the role of A, B, C and G.A : ____________________________________________________________________________

B: ____________________________________________________________________________

C: ____________________________________________________________________________

G: ____________________________________________________________________________

(c) Explain why the lactose operon in E. coliis turned off most of the time in the natural environment.___________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________

(d) State one advantage of grouping genes of related function into one transcription unit.___________________________________________________________________________


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

48/66

___________________________________________________________________________

(e) Why is it possible for a single, long polycistronic mRNA to translate into separate polypeptide?___________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________

ESSAY

1. Describe the events responsible for the changes in gene expression in bacteriumE. coli:(a) Before the addition of lactose, and(b) After the addition of lactose to th


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

49/66

MODERN GENETIC TECHNOLOGY

OBJECTIVE

ii. Which of the following sequences in double-strand DNA is most likely to produce stick end fragmentswhen treated with a restriction enzyme?A. 5 C T A A G C 3

3 G A T T C G 5

B. 5 T T C C T T 33 A A G G A A 5

C. 5 G A A T T C 3

3 C T T A A G 5D. 5 T C A G T C 3

3 A G T C A G 5

2. Match the tools of recombinant DNA technology with their uses

Enzyme Function

a Restriction enzyme i Amplify DNA in the PCR processb DNA polymerase ii Catalyses the formation of phosphodiester bridgesc DNA ligase iii Produces cDNA from mRNAd Reverse

transcriptaseiv Cleaves DNA at specific recognition sequences

a b c d

A ii i iv iiiB i ii iv iii

C iv iii ii iD iv i ii iii

3. In modern genetic technology, the term vector can refer toA. the organism that ransfers foreign DNA into a living cellB. the sequence of radioactive nycleotides used to detect the presence of a particular geneC. the organism from which restriction enzymes are isolatedD. the organism which transfers pathogenic viral DNA into a host cell

4. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between cDNA and genomic DNA?A. cDNA is synthesized using restriction enzymes whereas genomic DNA is synthesized using

polymerase enzymesB. cDNA, when transcribed, produces functional mRNA, whereas genomic DNA produces segmentsof non-coding mRNA in the transcription process

C. cDNA is synthesized using a DNA template, whereas genomic DNA is synthesized form anmRNA template

D. cDNA is synthesizedin vivo, whereas genomic DNA is synthesizedin vitro.


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

50/66

5. The statements below refer to different stages in the production of human insulin by genetic

engineering techniques. What is the correct sequence of production?

1. DNA cut with restriction enzymes2. mRNA extracted from pancreatic cells3.

Plasmid DNA and human DNA joined using ligase enzymes4. DNA copy made using reverse transcriptase

5. Recombinant plasmid incorporated into bacterial cellA. 1 3 4 2 5

B. 1 2 4 3 5

C. 2 4 1 3 5D. 2 1 4 3 5

6. The diagram below outlines the cloning process in recombinant DNA technology.

What are P, Q, R andS?

P Q R S

A Antibiotic DNA polymerase Transduction Amplification

B Antibiotic Restriction enzyme Electroporation Replication

C Restriction enzyme DNA ligas Transfomation Amplification

D Restriction enzyme DNA polymerase Transfomation Replication


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

51/66

7. The following are the steps involved in the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

1. Binding of primer to one end of strand2. New strands synthesized3. Strand separation by heating to 980C4. DNA polymerase addedThe correct sequence of steps is

A. 1 4 3 2

B. 4 1 2 3C. 3 1 4 2

D. 4 3 1 2

8. Which of the following sequences shows the correct restriction site and cutting points for therestriction enzyme EcoRI?

A. 5 G A A T T C 3

3 C T T A A G 5

B. 5 G G A T T C 33 C C T A G G 5

C. 5 G G C C 33 C C G G 5

D. 5 G A T C 33 C T A G 5

9. What is the importance of restriction endonucleases in a bacterial cell?

A. it enables bacterial autolysis to occurB. it provides resistance against antibiotics.C. It cuts viral DNA molecules into fragmentsD. It destroys antigens and neutrallises toxins.

10.The characteristics of a plasmid includeII.present in all bacteriaIII.Circular DNAIV.Carries genes for the deactivation of certain antibioticsV. Capable of autonomic replication, free from the influence of the chromosomeA. I, II and IIIB. I, III and IVC. II, III and IVD. I, II, III and IV


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

52/66

11.The diagram below shows a technique used to produce a recombinant DNA that contains a gene forhuman insulin.

Which of the following enzymes representP, Q, R andS?

P Q R S

A Ligase Reverse transcriptase DNA polymerase Restriction enzyme

B Reverse transcriptase Restriction enzyme DNA polymerase Ligase

C DNA polymerase Ligase Reverse transcriptase Restriction enzyme

D Restriction enzyme Reverse transcriptase DNA polymerase Ligase

12. Why is the human cDNA used, instead of the original DNA, to combine with a plasmid vector in some

cloning processes?I. The original DNA contains exons and intronsII.

cDNA does not contain intronsIII.Bacteria cannot process exons

IV.Bacteria cannot process intronsA. I, II and IIIB. I, II and IVC. II, III and IVD. I, II, III and IV


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

53/66

13. Screening is

B. the process of choosing the clone which has undergone transformationC. the isertion of a foreign gene into a vectorD. the process of producing a transgenic organismE. the insertion of a vector into a host cell

14. The PCR (polymerase chain reaction) technique

I. transfers DNA minisatellite fragments agarose gel to a nylon membraneII. amplifies the amount of DNA in small sampleIII.separates DNA minisatellite fragments that have different sizes and chargesIV.clones DNA in vitroA. I only B. II only C. I and III D. II and IV

15. Which of the following is not a step in the DNA fingerprinting procedure?

E. CloningF. ElectroporesisG.

AutoradiographyH. Action of restriction enzyme

16. Which of the following are the main tools used in recombinant DNA technology?

I. HelicaseII. PlasmidsIII.DNA ligaseIV.Restriction enzymeA. II and III B. I, II and III C. II, III and IV D. I, II, III and IV

17. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is a procedure in recombinant DNA technology. What is it usuallyused for?

B. Cloning of genes with plasmidsC. Amplification of gene in vitroD. Isolation of DNA fragments of different lengthsE. Transfer of genes from one organism to another organism

18. Which type of plasmids are used as cloning vectors? Plasmid that contain genesB. resistant to certain antibodiesC. which control bacterial activitiesD. for synthesis of restriction enzymesE. resistant to certain antibiotics

19. What are oncogenes?A. Genes for syntheisis of ligaseB. Genes that can cause cancerC. Genes for synthesis of polymeraseD. Genes for synthesis of restriction enzymes


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

54/66

20. Which statement is not true of plasmids?

A. They are DNA molecules.B. They carry a small number of genesC. They replicate independently of the hosts chromosomeD. Examples of plasmids include EcoRI and BamHI.

21. Which statement best describes restriction enzymes?

A. They are named according to their actions.B. They cut double-stranded DNA to produce blunt ends.C. They cut double-stranded DNA at specific nucleotide sequences.D. They are used in recombinant DNA technology to join two DNA fragments

22. The DNA profile of a babyXcompared with the DNA profiles of four couples P, Q, R andSis shown

in the diagram below.

Baby X Couple P Couple Q Couple R Couple S

Husband Wife Husband Wife Husband Wife Husband Wife

Which couple is the parents of the baby X?A. Couple PB.

Couple QC. CoupleR

D. Couple S


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

55/66

STRUCTURE

2. Cyctic fibrosis (CF) is a common genetic disease among Causcasians, and is autosomal recessivedisorder. The normal allele codes for the production of a protein CFTP (cystic fibrosis transmembrane

protein) which transports chloride ions out of the epithelial cells of the respiratory passages and into

the mucus. This make the mucus watery. In CF patients, the mucus is thick and sticky. The diagrambelow outlines a method of gene therapy for cyctic fibrosis.

(a)Suggest why the mucus of a healthy person is watery..

.


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

56/66

(b)The diagram is an outline of a possible gene therapy procedure to treat CF. Is the procedure showngermline therapy or somatic gene therapy. Explain your answer.

.

.

(c)In addition to DNA ligase, what other compound should be added to the mixture of human DNA andcleaved plasmids in stepX?

.

.

(d)What is the process indicated by step Yin the diagram. Explain how this process is carried out..

.

.

.

(e)What are liposomes and how do they transfer DNA into the epithelial cells of the lung?.

.

(f) If the normal allele for CFTP is expressed in the epithelial cells, the patient can be expected to gettemporary relief from the symptoms of cyctic fibrosis. Suggest why this treatment is effective for a

short period only

.

.


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

57/66

STRUCTURE

1. In some genetic engineering process, a synthetic gene is inserted into a bacterial host cell. The process

is shown below.

(a) (i) Give a term used to describe the function of plasmid in this prcess.

.

(ii) What is meant by restriction endonuclease enzyme? Give two examples of restriction enzymes,restriction sites and cutting points.

.

.

.

.

.

.

.

.


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

58/66

(iii) Explain why restriction endonuclease does not cut the bacterial DNA.

.

.

.

(b) At present, human insulin used for treating diabetes mellitus can be produced through geneticengineering. State three advantages of using such insulin.

.

.

.

.

.

.

(b)Explain why, instead of the original DNA, the human cDNA is used to combine with bacterialplasmids in some cloning processes.

.

.

.

.

.

.

.


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

59/66

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

60/66

(iii)the ends of the open plasmid [2 marks]

(f) Why is it necessary to use the same restriction enzyme to cut both the DNA fragment and theplasmid? [2 marks]

.

.

.

.

ESSAY

1. (a) (i) Explain How amnioncentesis is used for the screening for genetic defects.

(ii) State two differences between chorionic villus testing and amniocentesis.(b) By giving one name example, explain how gene therapy can be used to threat a disease.

(c) Explain the main steps in the formation of DNAfingerprints and state the use of this technique.


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

61/66

REPRODUCTION

OBJECTIVE

1. The diagram shows the relative importance of the sporophyte and gametophyte generations in the lifecycle of three different plants a, b andc

To which phylum do these plants belong?

Bryophyta Filicinophyta Angiospermophyta

A a b c

B a c b

C b c a

D c b a

2. The table below shows five kinds of animals and their methods of asexual reproduction.Animal Method of asexual reproduction

I Axolotl larva a Paedogenesis

II Aphis b Fragmentation and regeneration

III Apis c Polyoembryony

IV Planaria d Haploid parthenogenesis

V Fasciola e Diploid parthenogenesis

Which is the correct match?

I II III IV VA a d e c b

B a e d b cC b d e a c

D b e d c a


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

62/66

3. Which of the following is a correct match?I Parthenogenesis a The potential to divide and replace damaged or missing parts

II Paedogenesis b Larval or pupal forms with the potential to reproduce beforeattaining the adult stage

III Polyembryony c Production of two or more individuals from zygoteIV Regeneration d Production of new individual from an egg without fertilization.

I II III IVA b d c a

B b d a c

C c b a d

D d b c a

4. Which of the following pairs is incorrect?A. Interstitial cells: production of testosteroneB. Seminiferous tubule: production of spermatozoaC. Vas deferens: production of seminal fluidD. Urethra: carries the semen to the outside

5. Which of the following is the correct pathway of the spermatozoa, starting from the site of productionuntil they leave the body?

A. Seminiferous tubule epididymis vas deferens urethraB. Epididymis seminiferous tubule vas deferens urethraC. vas deferens urethra Seminiferous tubule epididymisD. urethra Seminiferous tubule epididymis vas deferens

6.

The table below shows three kinds of animals and their mthods of reproduction.

Animal Type of reproduction

I Guppy (fish) a Oviparity

II Rabbit b Ovoviviparity

III Pigeon c Viviparity

Which of the following is a correct match for the methods of reproduction of these three animals?

I II III

A a b c

B a c b

C b a cD b c a

7. Which of the following shows the correct sequence of spermatogenesis?A. Germinal epithelium spermatocyte spermatogonium spermatid spermatozoonB. Germinal epithelium spermatogonium spermatid spermatocyte spermatozoonC. Germinal epithelium spermatogonium spermatocyte spermatid spermatozoonD. Germinal epithelium spermatid spermatogonium spermatocyte spermatozoon


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

63/66

8. If the triploid condition is represented by3n, the diploid condition by2n and the haploid condition byn, then which of the following is a correct match of the number of chromosomes in the different partsof a plant?

Pollen

grain

Tube

nucleus

Synergid Primary

endosperm

nucleus

Cells

of

ovarywall

A 2n n 2n 2n 2n

B 2n n 3n n 2n

C n n 2n 3n n

D n n n 3n 2n

9. During double fertilization, which of the following structures in the embryonic sac fuse with the malenucleus producing a zygote and an endosperm?

Zygote Endosperm

A 1 2B 2 3

C 2 4

D 3 2

10.The termalternation of generation refers to the plant cycle which alternates betweenA.production of haploid gametes by meiosis with division of zygote by mitosis to form the embryo.B. haploid gametophyte generation with diploid sporophyte generationC. diploid gametophyte generation with haploid sporophyte generationD. a maximum growth period followed by a senescent period.

11.Which of the following is a correct pair?A. Monoecius: plants with both the male and female flowersB. Dioecius: complete flowerC. Protandry: the female reproductive organs (carpels) mature before the stamenD. Actimorphic: bilateral symmetrical flowers


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

64/66

12.The table below lists the extra-embryonic membranes and their functions. Which of the pairs ismatched wrongly?

Membrane FunctionA Amnion Produces amniotic fluid

B Chorion Cushions the developing embryoC Allantois Site of gas exchange

D Yolk sac Stores nutrients


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

65/66

STRUCTURE

1. The diagram with structures labelled A to G shows the various stages in the life cycle of a plant

(a)Give an example of a plant which shows this type of life cycle.

(b)(i) Name the phylum to which it belongs.

(ii)Give three characteristics of this phylum.


Bright Minds

7/30/2019 Bio Modul U6 2010-3

66/66

Documents

Bio Modul U6 2010-3