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MCAT
Practice Test 9
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Association of American Medical Colleges
Non-Disclosure and Copyright Statement
for the
MCATPractice Test
This MCAT Practice Test is not administered under the same secure conditions as the nationally administeredMCAT exam. Accordingly, I acknowledge that the scores I achieve on this Practice Test should be considerean estimate of the scores I might achieve on an actual MCAT administration.
In consideration of being permitted to take this Practice Test, I affirm that I am bound on my honor to take th
Practice Test without sharing the content in any form, including printed, electronic, voice or other means. Iunderstand that unauthorized copying and distribution of the MCAT Practice Test content would directlyinfringe on the copyright of the Association of American Medical Colleges (AAMC), and if I engage in thecopying and distribution of these Practice Tests, I could be liable for statutory damages with a minimum penaof $20,000. I acknowledge that the AAMC has reserved all rights in the Practice Tests.
I understand that if the AAMC has reason to believe that I have violated this non-disclosure statement, it mayat its discretion, bar me from future Practice Tests and/or examinations, or take other appropriate actions.
By downloading, printing, or taking this Practice Test, I acknowledge that I have read this non-disclosurestatement and agree to abide by the terms stated therein.
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Taking Your Practice Test Offline
The full length practice test may be taken online, printed and taken offline, or a combination of both methods
However, if you customize your practice test it can only be taken online.
If you started a practice test online, the answer sheet provided at the end of this printout does not include the
answers you entered online. Your online answers will appear on the online answer sheet used to submit your
answers for scoring.
Once you have completed your offline practice test, follow these steps to enter your answers and submit them
for scoring. Login to the web site. If this is a new test, click the "Start on Paper" link provided in the "Start a New Test" table of your ho
page. If you want to continue entering answers for an in-progress test, click the "Restart on Paper" link
provided in the "In-Progress Tests" table of your home page.
Click the "Ready to Enter Your Answers? Click Here" link. Enter your answers in the provided form. Any answers previously entered using your online practice
test or this answer sheet will appear in the form. Once you have finished entering your answers be sure to save them by clicking "Save", "Save and Exor "Review Online". If you close the answer sheet page without clicking one of these links, your
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You may return to the answer sheet to enter or review answers as many times as you like. When you are ready to submit your final answers for scoring, click the "Mark as Complete" link. Onc
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To view your diagnostic score report, click the provided in the "Completed Tests" table.
From the diagnostic score report you can review your answers and the solution for each question.
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Printing Guide
Use this printing guide as a reference to print selected sections of this practice test.
To print, click the PRINTER icon located along the top of the window and enter one of the
following options in the PRINT RANGE section of the print dialog window:
To Print Enter Print Range Options
Complete Practice Test Click ALL radio button
Physical Sciences SectionClick PAGES FROM radio button and
enter pages 5 to 23
Verbal Reasoning SectionClick PAGES FROM radio button and
enter pages 24 to 38
Writing Sample SectionClick PAGES FROM radio button and
enter pages 39 to 41
Biological Sciences SectionClick PAGES FROM radio button and
enter pages 42 to 61
Periodic TableClick PAGES FROM radio button and
enter page 6 to 6
Answer SheetClick PAGES FROM radio button and
enter page 62 to 62
This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Sectionfor the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or
reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are
any questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line
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5
Physical SciencesTime: 70 minutes
Questions: 1-52
Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage.After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not
based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remainingalternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A
periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.
This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Sectionfor the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or
reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there areany questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line
(202-828-0690).
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6
1H1.0
Periodic Table of the Elements 2He4.0
3Li6.9
4Be9.0
5B
10.8
6C
12.0
7N
14.0
8O
16.0
9F
19.0
10Ne20.2
11Na23.0
12Mg24.3
13Al27.0
14Si
28.1
15P
31.0
16S
32.1
17Cl35.5
18Ar39.9
19K
39.1
20Ca40.1
21Sc45.0
22Ti
47.9
23V
50.9
24Cr52.0
25Mn54.9
26Fe55.8
27Co58.9
28Ni58.7
29Cu63.5
30Zn65.4
31Ga69.7
32Ge72.6
33As74.9
34Se79.0
35Br79.9
36Kr83.8
37Rb85.5
38Sr87.6
39Y
88.9
40Zr91.2
41Nb92.9
42Mo95.9
43Tc(98)
44Ru
101.1
45Rh
102.9
46Pd
106.4
47Ag
107.9
48Cd
112.4
49In
114.8
50Sn
118.7
51Sb
121.8
52Te
127.6
53I
126.9
54Xe
131.3
55Cs
132.9
56Ba
137.3
57La*138.9
72Hf
178.5
73Ta
180.9
74W
183.9
75Re
186.2
76Os
190.2
77Ir
192.2
78Pt
195.1
79Au
197.0
80Hg
200.6
81Tl
204.4
82Pb
207.2
83Bi
209.0
84Po
(209)
85At
(210)
86Rn(222)
87Fr
(223)
88Ra
(226)
89Ac(227)
104Rf
(261)
105Db(262)
106Sg
(266)
107Bh
(264)
108Hs
(277)
109Mt(268)
110Ds
(281)
111Uuu(272)
112Uub(285)
114
Uuq(289)
116
Uuh(289)
*58Ce
140.1
59Pr
140.9
60Nd
144.2
61Pm(145)
62Sm150.4
63Eu
152.0
64Gd157.3
65Tb
158.9
66Dy
162.5
67Ho
164.9
68Er
167.3
69Tm168.9
70Yb
173.0
71Lu
175.0
90Th
232.0
91Pa
(231)
92U
238.0
93Np(237)
94Pu
(244)
95Am(243)
96Cm(247)
97Bk
(247)
98Cf
(251)
99Es
(252)
100Fm(257)
101Md(258)
102No
(259)
103Lr
(260)
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Passage I
Students constructed the electrical circuit shown
below to study capacitors. A battery with a voltage of
10 V is connected through a switch to a capacitor anda 500-resistor. The capacitor is constructed from
two flat metal plates, each with a surface area of 5.0 105
m2. The plates are separated by 1.0 10
3m, and
the space between the plates is a vacuum. The
connecting wires have no resistance. After the switchis closed and the capacitor is fully charged, a particle
with a charge of 8.0 1019
C and a speed of 1.0 m/s
is injected midway between the capacitor plates.
Figure 1 Circuit
1. Which of the following graphs best illustrates how
charge accumulates on the plates of the capacitor
after the switch is closed?
A )
B )
C )
D )
2. If the speed of the charged particle described in
passage is increased by a factor of 2, the electric
force on the particle will:
A) decrease by a factor of 2.
B) remain the same.
C) increase by a factor of 2.
D) increase by a factor of 4.
3. Making which of the following changes to a circelement will increase the capacitance of the
capacitor described in the passage?
A) Replacing the 500-resistor with a 250-resis
B) Replacing the 10-V battery with a 20-V battery
C) Increasing the separation of the capacitor plates
D) Increasing the area of the capacitor plates
4. A charged particle with a mass of m and a char
of q is injected midway between the plates of a
capacitor that has a uniform electric field of E.What is the acceleration of this particle due to th
electric field?
A) Eq/m
B) Em/q
C) mq/E
D) Emq
5. Another capacitor, identical to the original, is
added in series to the circuit described in thepassage. Compared to the original circuit, the
equivalent capacitance of the new circuit is:
A) 1/2 as great.
B) the same.
C) 2 times as great.
D) 4 times as great.
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6. Which of the following best describes the motion
of a negatively charged particle after it has been
injected between the plates of a charged, parallel-
plate capacitor? (Note: Assume that the areabetween the plates is a vacuum.)
A ) It moves with constant speed toward the positiveplate.
B ) It moves with constant speed toward the negativeplate.
C ) It accelerates toward the positive plate.
D) It accelerates toward the negative plate.
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Passage II
Gasoline is a mixture of nonpolar hydrocarbons
that reacts with oxygen in an automobile engine to
produce energy, carbon dioxide, and water vapor. Ifthe gasoline burns too rapidly, a metal piston can be
slammed against a metallic part, resulting in aknocking sound and a reduction in engineefficiency. The octane ratingof a gasoline is a
measure of its antiknock qualities. The higher theoctane rating of a hydrocarbon mixture, the slower it
burns and the smoother the piston operates.
The octane rating scale derives its name fromisooctane (C8H18), a hydrocarbon with good
antiknock qualities. A 90:10 mixture of isooctane and
heptane (C7H16) has an octane rating of 90.Oxygenates are oxygen-containing compounds that
can be added to a gasoline to increase the octane
rating. Two oxygenates currently in use are MTBEand ETOH. Data for these oxygenates and two other
potential additives are shown in Table 1. A
disadvantage of MTBE is that it has a strong andoffensive odor that humans can smell even at
concentrations below 0.26 ppm in air.
Table 1 Data for Gasoline Additives
Additive Formula
Octane
rating
Vapor
pressure(torr, 25C)
Heat of
formation(kJ/mole)
MTBE C4H9OCH3 110 25 580
ETOH C2H5OH 115 58 278
ETBE C4H9OC2H5 112 20 675
TAME C5H11OCH3 111 15 680
7. What type of intermolecular interaction can ETOH
undergo with water that MTBE can NOT?
A ) van der Waals
B ) Dipoledipole
C ) Hydrogen bonding
D ) Covalent bonding
8. The formation of one mole of which oxygenate
shown in Table 1 releases the most energy?
A) ETOH
B) MTBE
C) ETBE
D) TAME
9. What are the coefficients for oxygen and carbon
dioxide, respectively, if the equation shown belo
is balanced?
1CH3OCH3() + ? O2(g) __ H2O(g) + ? CO2(g)
A) 2 and 1
B) 2 and 2
C) 3 and 1
D) 3 and 2
10. Which of the following nonoxygenated analog
of MTBE is most likely to mimic MTBE in itsantiknock properties?
A) C4H9Si(CH3)3
B) C4H9N(CH3)2
C) C4H9SCH3
D) C4H9P(CH3)2
11. The entropy change for the combustion reactio
of gasoline is always greater than zero becaus
the:
A) number of gaseous molecules in the productsalways exceeds the number of gaseous molecu
in the reactants.
B) enthalpy change is always positive.
C) temperature of the combustion is always more
than 100C.
D) free energy change is always positive.
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12. Which compound shown in Table 1 evaporates
fastest at 30C?
A ) MTBE
B ) ETOH
C ) ETBE
D ) TAME
13. If one mole of each additive shown in Table 1
undergoes complete combustion, which
compound requires the leastamount of oxygen
A) MTBE
B) ETOH
C) ETBE
D) TAME
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These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.
14. H2O is liquid at room temperature, whereas H2S,H2Se, and H2Te are all gases. Which of the
following best explains why H2O is liquid at
room temperature?
A ) Hydrogen bonds form between H2O molecules.
B ) Oxygen lacks dorbitals.
C ) H2O has a lower molecular weight.
D ) H2O is more volatile.
15.
How do the pressuresPwandPmcompare,measured at the bottom of two identical
containers filled to the levels shown in the figure
with water and mercury? (Note: Density of
water = 1 g/cm
3
; density of mercury = 14 g/cm
3
.)A )Pm= 2Pw
B )Pm= 7Pw
C )Pm= 14Pw
D )Pm= 28Pw
16. If the second floor and the top floor of a buildi
are separated by a distance of 100 m, what is t
approximate difference between the air pressuof the two levels? (Note: Air density = 1.2
kg/m3and gravitational acceleration = 10 m/s
2
Neglect the compressibility of air.)
A) 600 N/m2
B) 800 N/m2
C) 1000 N/m2
D) 1200 N/m2
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Passage III
The compounds nitric acid (HNO3), nitrous acid
(HNO2), acetic acid (CH3COOH), hypochlorous acid
(HClO), and ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3), are allwater soluble and produce acidic solutions. TheKa
values for these compounds are given in Table 1.
Table 1 KaValues
Compound Ka, 25C
HNO3 Large
HNO2 4.5 104
CH3COOH 1.8 105
HClO 3.2 108
NH4NO3 5.6 1010
The titration of these acids with sodium hydroxidecan be done using an indicator to signal the endpoint.Table 2 contains information about some common
acid-base indicators.
Table 2 Indicator Properties
Indicator pH rangeAcidic
color
Basic
color
Methylviolet
0.153.2 yellow violet
Methyl red 4.46.2 red yellow
Phenol red 6.48.2 colorless purple
Nitramine10.813.0
colorless brown
17. Which of the following mixtures, with each
component present at a concentration of 0.1 M,has a pH closest to 7?
A ) HClO(aq) and NaClO(aq)
B ) HNO2(aq) and NaNO2(aq)
C ) CH3COOH(aq) and NaCH3COO(aq)D ) HNO3(aq) and NaNO3(aq)
18. Which of the following equations correctly
represents the dissolution of NH4NO3(s) in
water?H2O
A ) NH4NO3(s) NH4(aq) + NO3(aq)
H2O
B ) NH4NO3(s) NH4
(aq) + NO3+(aq)
H2O
C)NH4NO3(s) NH2+(aq) + NO2
(aq) + H2O
H2O
D ) NH4NO3(s) NH4+(aq) + NO3
(aq)
19. When 2.0 mL of 0.1 M NaOH(aq) is added to100 mL of a solution containing 0.1 M HClO(a
and 0.1 M NaClO(aq), what type of change in
pH of the solution takes place?
A) A slight (1.0 pH unit) decrease
20. What is the best explanation for the fact that a
solution of NaNO2(aq) is basic?
A) NO2is hydrolyzed with the formation of OH
(aq) ions.
B) Na+is hydrolyzed with the formation of OH
(a
ions.
C) NaNO2(aq) decreases theKaof HNO2(aq).
D) NaNO2(aq) increases theKaof HNO2(aq).
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Passage IV
One can sometimes obtain a fairly good
description of a phenomenon by focusing on a few
key characteristics of a system and ignoring thesubtleties. For example, in the flow of a liquid, fairly
decent results can sometimes be obtained by ignoringthe viscosity of the liquid. (Physicist RichardFeynman called the approximation of viscousless
water dry water.)
An approximate expression for the fundamental
frequencyfof liquid sloshing in a tank (as in Figure
1) is given by
f= (3gH)1/2
/L
whereHis the height of the liquid,Lis the length of
the tank, andgdenotes the acceleration due togravity, 10 m/s
2. This equation assumes that the liquid
lacks viscosity and surface tension, and that the liquid
surface is always flat throughout the sloshing cycle.
Calculations using these simplifying assumptionsresult in uncertainties of about 10%.
The sloshing modes are calledseiches. They have
been observed in lakes, bays, and swimming pools.Amplitudes of seiches in Lake Geneva in Switzerland
have been observed as large as 5 ft. A seiche in Lake
Michigan in 1954 had an amplitude of some 10 ft andswept away several people who were fishing from
piers. Such seiches can be caused by seismic
disturbances or sudden changes in the atmosphericpressure above one region of a lake.
Figure 1 The fundamental sloshing mode of a tank
of liquid. The sloshing occurs betweenextremes I and III, while II denotes the
equilibrium level.
21. Suppose that the atmospheric pressure suddenl
dropped at one end of a large lake, inducing a
seiche like that shown in Figure 1. The
atmospheric pressure differential between the tends of a lake is directly proportional to the:
A) frequency of the oscillations.B) period of the oscillations.
C) wave speed.
D) amplitude of the oscillations.
22. The principal restoring force responsible for
maintaining the sloshing oscillations in a body
of dry water for which surface tension is vesmall is the:
A) gravitational force.B) viscosity of the water.
C) atmospheric pressure above the water.
D) hydrostatic pressure at the bottom of the
container.
23. Compute the period of oscillation for the
fundamental mode of a seiche induced in a lak
that averages a depth of 30 m, with a length of6000 m over which the wave propagates.
A) 50s
B) 200s
C) 300s
D) 400s
24. The actual oscillating surface in Figure 1 wou
not remain precisely flat; it would have a half-
sine-wave shape. Use this fact to determine thwavespeed vof the fundamental mode of
oscillation.
A) v= (2gH)1/2
B) v= (3gH)1/2
C) v= (3gH)1/2
/
D) v= 2(3gH)1/2
/
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25. Assume that a pan of dry water ismomentarily disturbed. Which of the following
concepts best explains why the resulting sloshing
oscillations persist for a fairly long time?
A ) Energy conservation
B ) Momentum conservation
C ) Newtons third law
D ) Archimedes principle
26. Regarding Figure 1, which velocity profile
depicted below best shows the variation in
velocities across the airliquid interface of II j
after I has occurred?
A)
B)
C)
D)
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These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.
27. In which of the following does sound travel mostrapidly?
A ) Air (0C)B ) Water (10C)
C ) Iron (20C)
D ) Sound travels at approximately the same speed in
all of the above.
28.
A )
B )
C )
D )
29. Which action involves more work: lifting a
weight from A to B or lowering the weight fro
B to A?
A) Lifting from A to B
B) Lowering from B to A
C) Equal work in both actions
D) No work is required using a pulley.
30. What is the standard emf for the galvanic cell i
which the following overall reaction occurs?
2Na(s) + Cl2(g) 2Na+(aq) + 2Cl(aq)
Half-reactionE red
(V)
Na+(aq) + e
Na(s) 2.71
Cl2(g) + 2e2Cl
(aq) +1.36
A) 1.35 V
B) +1.35 V
C) +4.07 V
D) +6.78 V
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31. Which of the following shows the electron
configuration of chlorine in NaCl?
A ) 1s22s
22p
63s
23p
4
B ) 1s22s
22p
63s
23p
5
C ) 1s22s
22p
63s
23p
6
D ) 1s22s
22p
63s
23p
44s
2
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Passage V
Earthquake lights (EQLs) have been reported for
centuries. These lights are seen in association with
seismic activity and have been reported at distanceshundreds of kilometers from the earthquake, and
often at sea or near large bodies of water. EQLs areusually blue or bluish-white, but yellow lights haveoccasionally been reported. The source of EQLs has
not been identified, but it has recently been suggestedthat they are produced by sonoluminescence (SL), the
production of light by sound waves in a liquid.
SL occurs when bubbles form in the liquid duringthe rarefaction phase of a sound wave and are then
rapidly compressed during the compressional phase
of the wave. The rapid compression causes a largeincrease in the temperature of the gas inside the
bubble, causing light to be emitted. Both continuum
emission, with a blackbody spectrum, and lineemission from atoms and molecules have been
observed in the laboratory from SL in water.
SL has been produced in water in the laboratoryby sound waves carrying an energy density of about
10 erg/cm3. Advancing seismic wavefronts carry a
kinetic energy density e, given by
e= 22(A/)
2
in which is the density of the ambient medium,A isthe wave amplitude, and is the wave period.
Estimates of these quantities obtained from ground-
motion records of earthquakes give values for e thatare often consistent with the SL hypothesis.
The SL spectrum of pure water peaks at a
wavelength of 3.10 107
m in the ultraviolet.
Dissolved salts might contribute to the yellow color.
Sodium has, in fact, a particularly strongcharacteristic emission at 5.89 10
7m.
32. Which of the following statements could expla
the frequently bluish color of EQLs?
A) Sodium salts are common in the earths crust, a
sodium emissions can be quite bright.
B) In transparent substances, dispersion effects are
general greater for longer wavelengths.
C) The ultraviolet radiation is absorbed by molecu
that then fluoresce at yet shorter wavelengths.
D) The ultraviolet radiation is absorbed by molecu
that then fluoresce at yet longer wavelengths.
33. During their compression, little heat is lost by
conduction from the hot vapor bubblesresponsible for SL effects because:
A) the process occurs too rapidly for heat loss to bappreciable.
B) the heat is carried on the advancing wavefront.
C) the surrounding liquid is subjected to the same
compressional force.
D) convection predominates over other processes liquids at ordinary temperatures.
34. Heating of the vapor bubbles occurs during thcompression phase of the passing waves in SL
because:
A) the heat of vaporization of water is high andserves as a barrier to the effect.
B) constructive interference in the wave motion is
greater than at other times.
C) work is being done on the vapor bubbles by
forces external to them at that time.
D) energy propagates primarily by means o
transverse waves at that time.
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35. Atomic hydrogen has a characteristic spectral
emission at a wavelength of 6.56 107
m that
might contribute to EQLs. What color is this
characteristic H emission?
A ) Violet
B ) Blue
C ) Green
D ) Red
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Passage VI
Aluminum is obtained commercially by the
electrolysis of Al2O3, which is the major compound in
the ore bauxite. Pure Al2O3is obtained from bauxiteby the Bayer process.
The finely ground ore is treated with concentrated
NaOH (3538%) for 68 hours at a high temperature
and pressure, converting Al2O3into Al(OH)3(aq),which then reacts with NaOH(aq) to produce
Na[Al(OH)4] as shown in Equation 1.
Al(OH)3(aq) + NaOH(aq) Na[Al(OH)4](aq)
Equation 1
The aqueous base converts the major impurity in the
ore, Fe2O3, into the insoluble Fe(OH)3, which is
removed by filtration.
After the impurity is removed, carbon dioxide ispassed through the mixture to precipitate Al(OH)3,
which is collected and dehydrated at 1000C to yield
pure Al2O3(equations 2 and 3).
2Na[Al(OH)4](aq) + CO2(g) Na2CO3(aq) +
2Al(OH)3(s) + H2O()
Equation 2
2Al(OH)3(s) + heat Al2O3(s) + 3H2O(g)Equation 3
The Al2O3is mixed with Na3AlF6, a compound
that lowers the melting point of Al2O3from over
2000C to about 950C, making the electrolysis of themolten salt commercially viable. Pure aluminum is
produced by the reaction shown in Equation 4.
2Al2O3() 4Al(s) + 3O2(g)
Equation 4
36. Aluminum belongs to what block of elements inthe periodic table?
A ) s
B ) p
C ) d
D ) f
37. What is the oxidation number of aluminum in
Na[Al(OH)4](aq)?
A) +1
B) +2
C) +3
D) +4
38. What is the geometry of the hexafluoroalumin
ion (AlF63
)?
A) Octahedral
B) Tetrahedral
C) Trigonal bipyramidal
D) Hexagonal
39. Approximately how much Al2O3 is required to
make 100 kg of Al?
A) 500 kg
B) 200 kg
C) 80 kg
D) 50 kg
40. In the reaction shown in Equation 1, Al(OH)3acts as what kind of acid or base?
A) Lewis acid
B) Lewis base
C) Brnsted acid
D) Brnsted base
41. At which electrode is aluminum produced in a
galvanic cell and in an electrolytic cell?
A) At the anode in both cells
B) At the cathode in both cells
C) At the anode in the galvanic cell and cathode inthe electrolytic cell
D) At the cathode in the galvanic cell and anode in
the electrolytic cell
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42. In the reaction shown in Equation 2, three moles
of Al(OH)3is chemically equivalent to what
volume of CO2(g) measured at 1 atm and 0C?
A ) 11.2 L
B ) 16.8 L
C ) 22.4 L
D ) 33.6 L
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Passage VII
An experimental system is assembled to measure
the focal lengths of lenses and mirrors. The system
consists of objects, lenses, mirrors, and devices forlocating images. It is placed on a metered optical
bench. The system is operated in severalconfigurations.
Converging LensTo measure the focal length of a converging lens,
an object is placed at A, the 0-cm mark of an optical
bench, and a converging lens is placed at B, the 30-
cm mark of the bench. This situation forms an imageat D, the 90-cm mark as shown in Figure 1.
Figure 1Optical bench
Convex MirrorA convex mirror is inserted between the
converging lens (B) and the image position (D).
When the mirror is located at C (50-cm mark), thelight rays are reflected back along the incoming path,
as shown in Figure 2. The dashed lines betweenpoints C and D indicate the path of light rays beforethe convex mirror is inserted.
Figure 2Convex mirror
Diverging Lens
The convex mirror is removed from the setup, anda diverging lens is placed at position C (50-cm mark)
so that the new image is observed at E (110-cm
mark), as shown in Figure 3.
Figure 3 Diverging lens
43. Changing which of the following will change
focal length of the convex mirror in Figure 2?
A) Index of refraction of the mirror
B) Radius of curvature of the mirror
C) Position of the lens at B
D) Focal length of the lens at B
44. As the light passes from the air into the glass, makes an angle ain air and an angle lin thelens material, relative to the normal at the
surface. What equation relates the angles l an
a?
A) a= l
B) 1/a= 1/l
C) nasin a= nlsin l
D) na/sin a= nl/sin l
45. The converging lens in Figure 1 is removed an
the diverging lens is placed in position B, as
shown in the figure below. Which of thefollowing best describes the light rays from th
diverging lens in this configuration?
A) Converging rays
B) Parallel rays in and out
C) Reflected rays diverging
D) Diverging rays
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46. If a very bright light source shines on a mirror,
the mirror may become warm because:
A ) all of the light is reflected, and, by momentum
conservation, the molecules in the mirror move,producing heat energy.
B ) some of the light passes through the mirror, and,by energy conservation, potential energy is
produced.
C ) some of the light is absorbed by the mirror, and,by energy conservation, thermal energy is
produced.
D ) none of the light is reflected, and, by energy
conservation, mass is converted to energy.
47. Visible light travels more slowly through anoptically dense medium than through a vacuum
A possible explanation for this could be that th
light:
A) is absorbed and re-emitted by the atomic structof the optically dense medium.
B) is absorbed and re-emitted by the nucleus of th
material in the optically dense medium.
C) bounces around randomly inside of the opticall
dense medium before emerging.
D) loses amplitude as it passes through the opticaldense medium.
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These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.
48. If the magnitude of a positive charge is tripled,what is the ratio of the original value of the
electric field at a point to the new value of the
electric field at that same point?
A ) 1:2
B ) 1:3
C ) 1:6
D ) 1:9
49. A 7-N force and an 11-N force act on an object atthe same time. Which of the following CANNOT
be the magnitude of the sum of these forces?
A ) 2 N
B ) 8 N
C ) 12 N
D ) 18 N
50. A student plans to add HCl to a solution
containing Pb(NO3)2(aq). To determine how
much Pb2+
will precipitate from solution whenthe HCl is added, the student needs to know
which of the following?
A )Kafor HCl
B )Kafor HNO3
C )Kspfor PbCl2
D )Keqfor the reaction Pb2+
+ 2 e
Pb
51.
A block of weight Wis pulled across a rough
floor by a rope that exerts a force T on the bloThe frictional force between the floor and the
block is F. Which of the following expression
equals the frictional force Fwhen the blockmoves with a constant speed?
A) T
B) W T
C) Tsin
D) Tcos
52. When an element undergoes decay, a nucleaneutron is converted to a nuclear proton as the
nucleus emits an electron. What happens to thatomic number and atomic mass of an elementhat undergoes decay?
A) The atomic number increases, but the atomic
mass stays approximately the same.
B) The atomic number stays the same, but the atom
mass decreases.
C) Both the atomic number and the atomic massdecrease.
D) The atomic number decreases, but the atomicmass stays approximately the same.
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24
Verbal ReasoningTime: 60 minutes
Questions: 53-92
There are seven passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test. Each passage is followed by several
questions. After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question. If you are not certain of ananswer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remainingalternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet.
This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Section
for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing orreproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are
any questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line
(202-828-0690).
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Passage I
A phenomenon such as female fiction does not
exist, but in the 1960s there began to appear novels
about the female experience by both male andfemale writers. It is necessary to separate these books
from anything called female fiction, which wouldsuggest that the culture bifurcates into two distinctexperiences, one male and one female. That such
experiences differ, there can be no disagreement; butthat such experiences overlap, there should also be no
disagreement. I concur with Elaine Showalters
statement:
Women writers should not be studied
as a distinct group on the assumption that
they write alike, or even display stylisticresemblances distinctively feminine. But
women do have a special literary history
susceptible to analysis, which includessuch complex considerations as the
economics of their relation to the literary
marketplace, the effects of social andpolitical changes in womens status upon
individuals, and the implications of
stereotypes of the woman writer and
restrictions of her artistic autonomy.
There is by now a sizable body of fiction that
focuses on female experiences or conditions, in whichwomen must find their way personally,
professionally, socially, in what is basically apatriarchy. This term we may define as any society in
which men control authority and determine the roles
women should or should not play.
An example of the female imagination at work
comes in the following way. InJane Eyre, Bertha, the
madwoman in the attic, is presented as the elementthat must be eliminated in order for Rochester and
Jane to complete their destiny together. Imprisoned inthe upper reaches of Thornfield, she is a threat to
foreground order and stability, a principle of chaos, infact. Since Charlotte Bront was writing a romance,
Bertha could become expendable.
In a society more oriented to the overall female
experience, Jean Rhys in Wide Sargasso Seaperceived in Bertha the characteristic victim of a
male-dominated society, a woman moved around as
an object, living out others sense of her experiencenot her own, and becoming mad as the sole way of
breaking through an unyielding situation. In this vi
Berthas plight is more archetypically female thanJanes, by far, since Jane is moving in a fairy tale o
sorts in which elements yield to her, whereas Berth
has moved in the real world of power. There is, I feno male novelist who could have picked up the thre
of Berthas existence and turned it into an emblem,
Jean Rhys did; and here alone we note the way the
female novelist can perceive aspects of experiencethat remain (at least in our era) outside the reach of
the male writer. Reading back from Rhys, we
experienceJane Eyredifferently.
More recently, Virginia Woolf has become apowerful influence in analyses of the female
experience by U.S. writers. Not only her fiction andliterary essays but a book such asA Room of Ones
Own(1929) have served to reinforce what manywomen writers were already saying. Woolf offered
also, something of an aesthetic, in that she asserted
women had to develop a prose of their own. Aftermentioning Newman, Sterne, Dickens, Thackeray,
among others, she says: The weight, the pace, the
stride of a mans mind are too unlike her own. Shequotes a typical early-nineteenth-century sentence
adds: That was a mans sentence; behind it one ca
see Johnson, Gibbon, and the rest. It was unsuited fa womans use. She sums up: There is no reason think that the form of the epic or of the poetic play
suits a woman any more than the sentence suits her
But all the older forms of literature were hardenedand set by the time she became a writer. The novel
alone was young enough to be soft in her hands.
53. The passage discussion of male and female
experience assumes that:
A) female experience is entirely different from ma
experience.
B) there is a degree of similarity between female a
male experience.
C) male experience is inferior to female experienc
D) female experience almost always influences ma
experience.
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54. According to the author, a characteristic of many
novels of female experience is that they:
A ) portray women struggling to achieve identity in a
patriarchy.
B ) display a distinctively feminine prose style.
C ) present female characters from a male point oview.
D ) portray female characters as emblems.
55. In the second to last paragraph, the author assertsthat the novelist Jean Rhys:
A ) reworked the character of Bertha in a way no
male writer could have.
B ) created a new literary form based on adaptations
of older works.
C ) created a distinctively feminine prose style that isdifficult for male writers to imitate.
D ) misunderstood Bronts novelJane Eyre.
56. The author suggests that Berthas imprisonme
in the upper reaches of Thornfield:
I. could have been explored equally well male or female novelists.
II. provided Jean Rhys with an archetypalsymbol of the plight of women.
III. functioned for Charlotte Bront primaras a plot device.
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only
57. According to the passage, Virginia Woolf
believed the novel was more suitable to womewriters than was the epic or the poetic play
because the:
A) novel was a more recent and thus more flexible
genre.
B) novel did not depend on a mans sentence forits effect.
C) epic and poetic play were newer genres.
D) epic and poetic play required that women deve
a prose of their own.
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Passage II
What makes clouds turn into rain? More
specifically, the question is: How do the tiny droplets
of a cloud coalesce into water drops big enough to fallas rain?
The beam of a searchlight pointed upward at night
shows that even apparently clear air is actually a
soup of particles. The air may contain anywherefrom 10,000 to 100,000 particles per cubic inch.
When the relative humidity is high, water vapor
condenses on many particles and begins to form
droplets; this condensation accounts for the hazinessof the air on a muggy day and for the poor visibility
you may have noticed while flying in an airplane
below a cloud. An actual cloud materializes when thehumidity reaches a certain critical value which turns
most of the dust particles into water droplets. Under
the right conditions, the cloud droplets combinerapidly into raindrops; a concentration of 10,000
cloud droplets per cubic inch yields one raindrop per
10 cubic inches. There are two general theories aboutthe way this takes place.
One is the ice-crystal theory. In the cold upper
regions of a high cloud, the droplets are supercooled.If ice crystals are present, they evaporate the droplets
and then absorb the vapor, much as crystals of
calcium chloride and other drying agents absorbmoisture. The ice crystals, feeding on the cloud
droplets, may grow to a large size and either fall assnow or melt into rain. But rain can fall from warm
clouds as well as cold. How is it generated in clouds
that lack ice crystals and supercooled droplets?
We must find some other mechanism that can
combine droplets into big drops, bringing us to the
second theory, which suggests that large particlesgrow into raindrops by sweeping up the smaller
droplets. The big particles form comparatively largecloud droplets, which, as they move through the
cloud, pick up the smaller droplets in their path, justas a rolling drop of mercury gathers up any mercury
drops it encounters. Thus the larger dust nuclei in a
cloud can grow to the size of a raindrop. A cloud willproduce rain, according to this theory, when it
contains sufficient moisture and a suitable number of
giant nuclei.
We are therefore led to two interesting questionWhat are the giant nuclei, and where do they come
from? First, there can be no doubt that winds blowi
over the oceans pick up a substantial load of saltparticles. Second, it is equally plain that the winds
transport a great deal of salt from the sea over the
land. Systematic surveys have verified that saltparticles, large and small, are spread through the
atmosphere, from the ground up into high altitudes
Next, there is statistical evidence of a relationsh
between the amount of salt carried inland from the
and the amount of salt in our rainfall. Salt greedilytakes up water from the air, as anyone who has dea
with a salt shaker on a humid morning is well awar
A salt crystal kept in damp air collects enough wateto dissolve completely into a droplet. All of this
certainly seems to indicate that salt particles act asnuclei to produce raindrops and precipitation. The
idea gains further support from the finding that thenumber of drops per unit volume in rain over the se
is about the same as the number of salt particles in
ocean air.
58. In order for the process described in paragraph
3 to occur, the temperature of ice crystals in acloud must be higher than that of:
A) calcium chloride crystals.
B) the upper regions of the cloud.
C) the lower regions of the cloud.
D) the supercooled droplets.
59. On the sole basis of the passage, one could
conclude that it might be possible to reduce th
rainfall in a region by:
A) warming the clouds.
B) decreasing the number of particles in the air.C) cooling the clouds.
D) increasing the amount of salt in the clouds.
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60. The passage assertion that salt is largely
responsible for rainfall from warm clouds is
based on evidence that:
I. salt particles are spread throughout theatmosphere.
II. the amount of salt in rainfall is related tothe amount of salt carried inland from the
sea.
III. the number of drops per unit volume inrain over the sea is similar to that of salt
particles in ocean air.
A ) III only
B ) I and III only
C ) II and III only
D ) I, II, and III
61. Which of the following statements most strong
challenges the authors assertions about the w
raindrops are formed in clouds at subfreezing
temperatures?
A) Humidity in a region must be extremely high in
order to turn most of its dust particles to waterdroplets.
B) A concentration of 10,000 cloud droplets percubic inch yields one raindrop per 100 cubic
inches.
C) No ice crystals are present in the upper regions
clouds at high altitudes.
D) Calcium chloride crystals do not absorb as mucmoisture as do ice crystals.
62. Assume that a particular inland region in a waclimate receives a great deal of rain. Given theinformation in the passage, which of the
following proposed explanations of this
phenomenon is the LEAST plausible?
A) There is very little wind over the region.
B) There is an especially high percentage of salt
particles in the regions atmosphere.
C) The region is located near an ocean.
D) There is an especially high percentage of largeparticles in the clouds over the region.
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Passage III
Americans were raised with a sentimental
attachment to rural living and with a series of notions
about rural people and rural life that I have chosen todesignate as the agrarian myth. The agrarian myth
represents a kind of homage that Americans have paidto the fancied innocence of their origins.
Like any complex of ideas, the agrarian mythcannot be defined in a phrase, but its component
themes form a clear pattern. Its hero was the yeoman
farmer, its central conception the notion that he is the
ideal man and the ideal citizen. Unstinted praise ofthe special virtues of the farmer and the special values
of rural life was coupled with the assertion that
agriculture, as a calling uniquely productive anduniquely important to society, had a special right to
the concern and protection of government. The
yeoman, who owned a small farm and worked it withthe aid of his family, was the incarnation of the
simple, honest, independent, healthy, happy human
being. Because he lived in close communion withbeneficent nature, his life was believed to have a
wholesomeness and integrity impossible for the
depraved populations of cities.
In origin the agrarian myth was not a popular but
a literary idea, a preoccupation of the upper classes,
of those who enjoyed a classical education, readpastoral poetry, experimented with breeding stock,
and owned plantations or country estates. It wasclearly formulated and almost universally accepted in
America during the last half of the eighteenth century.
By the early nineteenth century it had become amass creed, a part of the countrys political folklore
and its nationalist ideology. The roots of this change
may be found as far back as the AmericanRevolution, which, appearing to many Americans as
the victory of a band of embattled farmers over anempire, seemed to confirm the moral and civic
superiority of the yeoman, made the farmer a symbolof the new nation, and wove the agrarian myth into its
patriotic sentiments and republican idealism.
To what extent was the agrarian myth actually
false? When it took form in America during theeighteenth century, its stereotypes did indeed
correspond to many of the realities of American
agricultural life. There were commercial elements icolonial agriculture almost from the earliest days, b
there were also large numbers of the kind of
independent yeomen idealized in the myth.
Between 1815 and 1860, the character of
American agriculture was transformed. Theindependent yeoman, outside of exceptional orisolated areas, almost disappeared before the
relentless advance of commercial agriculture. Thecash crop converted the yeoman into a small
entrepreneur, and the development of horse-drawn
machinery made obsolete the simple old agrariansymbol of the plow. Farmers ceased to be free of w
the early agrarian writers had called the corruption
of trade. They were, to be sure, still independent,the sense that they owned their own land. They wer
hardworking lot in the old tradition. But no longer they grow or manufacture what they needed: They
concentrated on the cash crop and began to buy moand more of their supplies from the country store.
The triumph of commercial agriculture not onlyrendered obsolete the objective conditions that had
given to the agrarian myth so much of its original
force, but also showed that the ideal implicit in the
myth was contesting the ground with another, evenstronger idealthe notion of opportunity, of career
of the self-made man. The same forces in American
life that had given to the equalitarian theme in theagrarian romance its most compelling appeal had al
unleashed in the nation an entrepreneurial zeal
probably without precedent in history, a rage forbusiness, for profits, for opportunity, for
advancement.
63. The central argument of the passage is that the
agrarian myth:
A) has no factual basis in the realities of American
agricultural life.B) is a sentimental representation of the role that
agriculture played in American life.
C) accurately reflects the nature of American
agriculture, both in the past and today.
D) understates the negative aspects of life on the
farm in America.
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64. The passage suggests that the agrarian myth
originated:
A ) in literature.
B ) on country estates in Europe.
C ) on small farms owned and worked by yeoman
farmers.
D ) among the urban elite who romanticized the
virtues of the simple life of the farmer.
65. Based on the passage, the agrarian myth assumesthat:
I. yeoman farmers are wholesome andhonest.
II. yeoman farmers are morally superior tomost citizens.
III. agriculture deserves special treatmentfrom the government.
A ) I only
B ) I and II only
C ) II and III only
D ) I, II, and III
66. Based on the passage, the agrarian myth
became part of a mass creed because:
A ) the countrys nationalist ideology stood in need othe kind of patriotic sentiments that the agrarian
myth could provide.
B ) farmers were credited with having played a major
role in the American victory in the RevolutionaryWar.
C ) most of the American population lived on family
farms during the late eighteenth century.
D ) the yeoman farmer, as an ideal, corresponded tomany of the realities of American life in the lateeighteenth century.
67. According to the passage, the agrarian myth
implied that yeoman farmers were:
A) honest entrepreneurs.
B) classically educated.
C) sentimentally patriotic.
D) happy and industrious.
68. Which of the following assertions, if true,
would most weakenthe main point of thepassage?
A) The contribution made by American farmers to
victory in the Revolutionary War has been grea
exaggerated.
B) The agrarian myth was what might be called anoble lie: it was false but generally beneficial.
C) The agrarian myth played a part in the thinking
only a handful of Americans during the
eighteenth and nineteenth centuries.
D) American farmers during the eighteenth andnineteenth centuries had very little in common
with the idealized yeoman farmer of the agraria
myth.
69. What does the passage suggest about whetheror not the agrarian myth was false?
A) It was clearly false, because it bore little
resemblance to actual farm life in America at th
time.
B) Very few people lived the life idealized in themyth.
C) It conformed to reality only in its commercial
elements.
D) Its stereotypes corresponded to many of therealities of early American agricultural life.
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Passage IV
Nature is extraordinarily fertile and ingenious in
devising means, but it has no ends that the human
mind has been able to discover or comprehend.Perhaps, indeed, the very conception of an end or
ultimate purpose is exclusively human; but at least itmust be said that the most characteristically humaneffort is to transform a means into an end.
Sensibility and intelligence arose in the animal in
order to serve animal purposes, for through the first, it
was able to distinguish those things that favor the
survival of it and its race, and through the second, itwas able to go about in a more efficient manner to
secure them. Both were, like all things in nature,
merely means toward the achievement of thathumanly incomprehensible end, mere survival. But
the philosopher-artist has detached both from their
natural places.
When sensibility has been detached from its
animal setting, it may develop into a quest for that
self-justifying beauty which is humanly valuable butbiologically useless. When intelligence is detached, it
not only tends to paralyze natural impulse by
criticizing natural aims but develops certainintellectual virtues which are biological vices. We are,
for example, inclined to regard skepticism, irony, and
above all, the power of dispassionate analysis as themarks of the most distinctly human intelligence. We
admire anyone whose reason is capable of more thanscheming, whose logic is not the mere rationalization
of desires.
But intelligence as detached as this is a vitalliability. It puts its possessor at a disadvantage in
dealing with those whose intelligence faithfully
serves their purpose by enabling them to scheme fortheir ends and to justify to themselves their desires.
Such is the animal function of intelligence, andwhenever it develops beyond this level, it inhibits
rather than aids that effective action in the pursuit ofnatural ends which was the original function of mind.
The same process occurs in every nation that hasdeveloped a national mind capable of detachment and
has passed beyond that stage of invigorating delusionwhich could make it fancy itself master by right of an
inherent superiority. One after another, the great
nations of history have founded on aggression thecivilization that then supported for a time, but for a
time only, great periods of human culture, that
flourished at their height just as the substructurecrumbled. Animals made humans possible, and
conquerors prepared the way for poets and
philosophers, but neither poet nor philosopher cansurvive long after the conquest.
Nor need we be surprised to see nations enfeebby civilization as though by vice. That detachment
of mind from its function which makes philosophy
possible and which encourages dispassionate analyis exactly parallel to the detachment of the sexual
functions from their purposes, which results in the
cult of the senses. Thought for thoughts sake is akind of perversion. Civilizations die from
philosophical calm, irony, and the sense of fair playquite as surely as they die of debauchery.
Nor can it be said that to understand this parado
of humanism helps us in any way to solve it. The
analysis that we perform is, indeed, itself an exampof one of those exercises of the mind that is pervers
because it does not serve as a means toward a natur
end. And when we have admitted that the human
ideal is one that the human animal cannot evenapproach without tending to destroy itself, we have
by that very admission, diminished our biological
fitness.
70. Which of the following statements best
summarizes the central problem addressed by t
passage?
A) Truth and beauty are unattainable illusions.
B) Sensibility and intelligence are biologically
useless.
C) Unbiased thought is inconsistent with human
survival.
D) We are most fully human when we behave likeanimals.
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71. Which of the following statements, if true,would most directly underminethe authors
central argument?
A ) Some highly developed civilizations are
peaceable.
B ) Aggressive people are often much admired.
C ) Nonhuman animals often behave altruistically.
D ) Logic is not always the mere rationalization of
desires.
72. Suppose that persons of average intelligencetend to have higher incomes than those of very
intelligent persons. The author would be most
likely to argue that this difference existsbecause:
A ) competitive success reduces ones interest in art
and philosophy.
B ) intelligence and competitive success are
unrelated.
C ) the more intelligent one is, the more one despisesmaterial success.
D ) a highly developed intelligence inhibits
competitive action.
73. Which of the following passage contentions
might it be possible to refuteby clear
counterexamples?
I. The intelligence of poets tends to paralnatural impulse.
II. Transforming means into ends is the mcharacteristically human effort.
III. The great nations of history were foundon aggression.
A) II only
B) III only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only
74. Some research into unconscious motivation
suggests that even apparently impartial thoughprocesses may be deeply self-serving. What is
the relevance of this consideration to the
authors argument?
A) It weakens the distinction drawn betweenanimal and human uses of intelligence.
B) It challenges the assumption that humans value
dispassionate analysis.
C) It supports the observation that intellectual
detachment is biologically useless.D) It strengthens the contention that some uses o
intelligence are biological vices.
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Passage V
The perception of a color when one hears words is
the most common example of the phenomenon of
synesthesia. Synesthesia can be visual-tactile, visual-gustatory, tactile-visual, or almost any combination of
two senses, but reports are dominated by visuallyrelated synesthesias, and olfactory and gustatorysynesthesias are less common. Two possible reasons
for this difference are the proximity in the cortex ofthe visual areas to the auditory and motor areas, the
areas implicated in taste and olfaction being relatively
distant, and the fact that vision dominates normalbehavior and is therefore more likely to form
associations with the other senses.
The nature of the color-word associations madeby synesthetes is surprising. The link is not between
meaning and color, or sound and color, but between
the visual appearance of the first letter of the wordand color. Thus, a subject reporting the perception of
red on hearing the wordphotographwould also report
perceiving red on hearing the wordpalladiumbut adifferent color on hearing the wordfish. The
experience is described more accurately, then, as a
color-grapheme association than as a color-word
association. This association is not so far removedfrom the normal experience of linking the letters of a
word with its sound. For example, it takes longer to
decide that enoughand boughdo not rhyme than tomake this decision about roughand how.
The finding that the association is graphemic in
color-word synesthesia greatly constrains the possible
explanations of the experience. Grapheme perception
is not present at birth and only begins to developwhen a child is learning to write. This fact opens up
the possibility that color-grapheme synesthesia
emerges during a critical period of maximumplasticity in the visual system, when it is involved in
learning to link letters with sounds and strings ofletters with objects.
Evidence from neuropsychological studies also
points to the visual system. In 1893, Phillipe reported
that 30 out of 150 blind subjects reported coloredhearing after losing the sense of sight, a finding that is
consistent with the remedial plasticity that occurs
following cortical damage. In another case, a seeing
person who had been synesthetic lost that experienafter suffering brain damage that also resulted in co
blindness. These findings suggest that color-
grapheme synesthesia depends on activity within thvisual cortex that is initiated by the responding of
certain cells specialized to integrate such features a
color and shape.
A different view suggests that subcortical limbi
areas are more important for synesthesia. A crucialpart of the reasoning behind this hypothesis lies in
argument that only humans can make cross-modal
associations. This argument is mistaken. It is widelknown that monkeys can make cross-modal
associations, and it is by no means clear that the
cortex is not involved. For example, Haenny recordfrom neurons in cortical visual area V4while
monkeys were performing orientation discriminatiotasks and found that many neurons responded to th
visual orientation of the stimuli, as one might expefrom this visual area, but that many were also
sensitive to the tactile orientation of a grooved plate
its orientation was relevant to the task. Furtherevidence implicating visual areas in cross-modal
transfer comes from a study in which monkeys wer
impaired in the learning of tactile-visual associationfollowing lesions of the cortical area dedicated to th
processing of tactile sensations.
75. Which of the following research findings wou
undermine the argument about the developme
of color-word synesthesia?
A) Left-handed children are especially likely to besynesthetic.
B) Color-word synesthesia can develop in literate
adults.
C) Color-word synesthesia can accompany the
earliest attempts to read.
D) Damage to the visual cortex seldom results in
synesthesia.
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76. According to the authors explanation, one pair
of words that would be likely to evoke the same
synesthetic experience is:
A ) knowand no.
B ) knitand kit.
C ) snuffand enough.
D ) citeandsite.
77. The author implies that visual synesthesia can
occur because certain neurons respond to theco-occurrence of a particular color and shape.
A plausible hypothesis is that such cells
evolved because they increased processingspeed in the identification of:
A ) dangerous predators on the basis of incompletevisual information.
B ) group members by either their appearance or their
vocalizations.
C ) appropriate foods by any combination ocharacteristics.
D ) environmental forms and patterns associated with
the home territory.
78. As the word is used in the passage, agraphem
is best described as:
A) the synesthetic element of a letter.
B) the written representation of a syllable.
C) one of the units of a spoken word.
D) one of the units of a written word.
79. Which of the following phenomena is an exam
of synesthesia?
A) Thinking of the sound of words while silently
reading
B) Hearing a loud note when seeing the word
trumpet
C) Mentally generating a tune while following
written notes
D) Visualizing a scene while listening to adescription
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Passage VI
Poussin had come to Rome one or two years after
Guercino had left it. And a few years later
(presumably about 1630), he produced the earlier ofhis twoEt in Arcadia egocompositions. Being a
classicist, Poussin revised Guercinos composition byadding the Arcadian river god Alpheus and bytransforming the decaying masonry into a classical
sarcophagus.
But in spite of these improvements, Poussins
picture does not conceal its derivation from
Guercinos. In the first place, it retains to some extentthe element of drama and surprise: The shepherds
approach as a group from the left and are
unexpectedly stopped by the tomb. In the secondplace, there is still the actual skull, placed upon the
sarcophagus above the wordArcadia, although it has
become quite small and inconspicuous and fails toattract the attention of the shepherds, who seem to be
more intensely fascinated by the inscription than they
are shocked by the deaths-head.
After another five or six years, however, Poussin
produced a second and final version of theEt in
Arcadia egotheme, the famous picture in the Louvre.And in this painting we can observe a radical break
with the medieval, moralizing tradition. The element
of drama and surprise has disappeared. Instead of twoor three Arcadians approaching from the left in a
group, we have four, symmetrically arranged oneither side of a sepulchral monument. Instead of being
checked in their progress by an unexpected and
terrifying phenomenon, they are absorbed in calm
discussion and pensive contemplation. The form ofthe tomb is simplified into a plain rectangular block,
and the deaths-head is eliminated altogether.
Here, then, we have a basic change in
interpretation. The Arcadians are not so much warnedof an implacable future as they are immersed in
mellow meditation on a beautiful past. In short,Poussins Louvre picture no longer shows a dramatic
encounter with Death but a contemplative absorption
in the idea of mortality. We are confronted with achange from thinly veiled moralism to undisguised
elegiac sentiment.
When read according to the rules of Latingrammar (Even in Arcady, there am I), the phras
had been consistent and easily intelligible as long a
the words could be attributed to a deaths-head andlong as the shepherds were suddenly and
frighteningly interrupted in their walk. These
conditions are manifestly true of Guercinos paintinand they are also true, if in a considerably lesser
degree, of Poussins earlier picture.
When facing the Louvre painting, however, the
beholder finds it difficult to accept the inscription i
its literal, grammatically correct, significance. In thabsence of a deaths-head, the egoin the phrase mi
seem to refer to the tomb itself. But it is infinitely
more natural to ascribe the words to the person buritherein. Such is the case with 99 percent of all
epitaphs.
Thus Poussin himself, while making no verbalchange in the inscription, invites, almost compels, t
beholder to mistranslate it by relating the egoto a
dead person and by connecting the etwith egoinsteof withArcadia. The development of his pictorial
vision had outgrown the significance of the literary
formula, and we may say that those who, under the
influence of the Louvre picture, decided to render tphraseEt in Arcadia egoas I, too, lived in Arcady
rather than as Even in Arcady, there am I, did
violence to Latin grammar but justice to the meaninof Poussins art.
80. As used in the passage, the term elegiac is closin meaning to:
A) piously hopeful.
B) serenely reflective.
C) profoundly grieving.
D) poetically praising.
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81. Suppose that a painting contained words with
no apparent relevance to the scene depicted.
The passage suggests that in discussing this
painting, the passage author would be mostlikely to:
A ) assume that the artist intended to puzzle theviewer.
B ) interpret the scene on the basis of the words.
C ) interpret the words on the basis of the scene.
D ) discuss the scene without reference to the words.
82. By the end of the eighteenth century, the
inscription on Poussins second Arcadiapainting was translated as Even in Arcady,
there am I only in England. In conjunction
with passage information, this fact moststrongly implies that in comparison with otherEuropeans, the English were:
A ) less familiar with Latin grammar.
B ) less receptive to medieval moralizing.
C ) more sophisticated in their response to art.
D ) more influenced by the Guercino painting.
83. Suppose that when Poussins Louvre painting is
cleaned, a skull is discovered on the tomb. Thisdiscovery means that the authors thesis about
this painting:
A ) has been confirmed.
B ) is more plausible.
C ) is less plausible.
D ) has been disproved.
84. According to the author, which details of
Poussins Louvre painting support the belie
that it reveals his decision to reject the
moralizing tradition in art?
I. A classical tombII. A pagan river god
III. A symmetrical compositionA) II only
B) III only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only
85. What is the significance to the passage
argument of the information that the shepherd
are already at the tomb rather than approachinit?
A) It shows that they are not surprised by the
reminder of death.
B) It indicates the classicism of Poussins vision.
C) It ensures that the viewer interprets the inscript
as an epitaph.
D) It emphasizes the simplicity of the tomb.
86. Which of the following statements, if true,would most weakenthe authors reasoning
about the historical significance of the change
introduced in Poussins second Arcadia
painting?
A) Guercinos Arcadia painting contains as many
classical elements as do either of Poussins
versions.
B) The skull in Guercinos Arcadia painting is smand inconspicuous.
C) The painting was completed by one of Poussin
students.
D) Many of Poussins later paintings have strongly
moralistic themes.
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Passage VII
Chemistry and physics began with the observation
of gross phenomena, such as those relevant to
cooking, distillation, medicine, falling bodies, andcelestial movements. These sciences reached the level
of mathematical abstraction only after a long periodof detailed familiarity with concrete phenomena. Thebehavioral and social sciences must now pass through
a phase in which a core of concrete facts relevant tothe mind and to society slowly accrue before they can
arrive at meaningful abstract formulations of their
problems. When that stage has been reached, theymay reexamine their relation to the natural sciences
and perhaps become partly anchored in physiology,
ecology, and other biological sciences.
Science and the technologies derived from it can
best contribute to civilization not through a further
expansion of the mega-machine but by helping in themaintenance of the ecological balance and in the
development of human potentialities. This change
will be made difficult by attitudes inherited from thenineteenth and early twentieth centuries. We have
trained our social reflexes for technological
advances, however trivial their goals and
deleterious their long-range effects. Instead ofconveying a teleological quality, the wordprogress
now means just moving on, even though the forward
motion is on a road that leads to disaster or despair.Worthwhile goals for social progress must be
formulated before planning can provide a desirable
and enjoyable structure for the human effort.
Concern with the future used to be expressed in
the form of literary exercises, or at best of purelysocial utopias, formulated on the basis of certain
theological, political, or economic beliefs, shared by
the members of the utopian group. Utopias are nolonger fashionable today, partly because we lack a
stable ground of generally accepted values to providethe hard foundation on which to construct viablesocial systems. It may be also that the eclipse of
human beings normative functions results from the
acceptance by many scientists and sociologists of theview that the world of science and technology sets its
own arising ends. A tired resignation to the
imperatives of economics and scientific technology
along with the collapse of the old metaphysics may
account for this acceptance. In any case, the tendenduring recent decades has been to limit planning to
the here and now. The future is imagined not as a
really new venture but as a mere extension of the p
To escape from this static and paralyzing view
civilized life, it will be necessary to construct multimodels of possible futures different from the presenstate of affairs and to imagine courses of action tha
would bring such futures into being. Sinceanticipations govern the policies of change, they
paradoxically, but very effectively, become the
causative agents of change. Causative anticipationsdiffer from predictions in that the future they descr
must not only be possible but also embody
considerations of the desirable. They imply valuejudgments as to what is desirable or not, good or ba
and thus inevitably give a direction to the social anscientific enterprise.
Contemporary humanity seems to be poised
between passive acceptance of scientific technolog
for its own sake, violent rejection of it, and consciouse of it for some ultimate concern. The social
ferment that is beginning to agitate the community
scientists gives hope that humanity still has a chanc
to control its destiny by imposing a direction on thescientific endeavor and, in particular, by consciousl
planning the scientific technology that will shape th
modern world.
87. Which of the following statements, if true,would most weakenthe authors argument
about the way society should plan for the
future?
A) Having a goal firmly in mind decreases thechances of achieving that goal.
B) People tend to be less happy living in societies
with planned economies.
C) People tend to be less happy living intechnologically advanced societies.
D) People tend to be happier living in
technologically advanced societies.
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88. Which of the following factors is NOT part o
the authors explanation of the reason that
utopian thinking is now unfashionable?
A ) The lack of consensus about what is desirable
B ) The idea that science will furnish itself with goals
C ) The collapse of the old metaphysics
D ) The failure of utopian social experiments in the
nineteenth and early twentieth centuries
89. Implicit in the authors ideas about the futureand the role of science is the belief that
judgments about what is good or bad are:
A ) best decided democratically.
B ) inappropriate for scientists to make.
C ) best decided by historical research.
D ) an appropriate part of scientific planning.
90. The author expresses hope that society will
impose pressure on the scientific community t
create a better future as a result of:
A) the restructuring of political systems.
B) a greater trust in the ability of the scientific
community.
C) the failure of the behavioral and social sciences
D) greater focus on science as an agent of change.
91. As used in the passage, teleologicalmost nearmeans:
A) religious.
B) purposive.
C) innovative.
D) unorthodox.
92. According to the passage, a precondition foreffective scientific planning is the:
A) formulation of desirable social goals.
B) suspension of value judgments.
C) formulation of a single, unified plan for succes
D) acceptance and trust of the scientific communit
by society.
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Writing SampleTime: 60 minutes
2 Prompts, separately timed:
30 minutes each
This is a test of your writing skills. The test consists of two parts. You will have 30 minutes to complete eachpart. Use your time efficiently. Before you begin writing each of your responses, read the assignment careful
to understand exactly what you are being asked to do. Because this is a test of your writing skills, your
response to each part should be an essay of complete sentences and paragraphs, as well organized and clearlywritten as you can make it in the time allotted.
This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Section
for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing orreproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are
any questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line
(202-828-0690).
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93. Consider this statement:
The primary goal of every business should be to maximize profits.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which maximizing profits might not be the
primary goal of a business. Discuss what you think determines whether or not the primary goal ofa business should be to maximize profits.
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94. Consider this statement:
A politicians lifestyle should reflect his or her political views.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the abovestatement means. Describe a specific situation in which a politicians lifestyle might not reflect his or
her political views. Discuss what you think determines whether or not a politicians lifestyle shouldreflect his or her political views
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42
Biological SciencesTime: 70 minutes
Questions: 95 146
Most questions in the Biological Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passag
After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are notbased on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. Aperiodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.
This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Sectionfor the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or
reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are
any questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line
(202-828-0690).
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43
1H1.0
Periodic Table of the Elements 2He4.0
3Li6.9
4Be9.0
5B
10.8
6C
12.0
7N
14.0
8O
16.0