Aamc MCAT Test 7

8/9/2019 Aamc MCAT Test 7

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MCAT

Practice Test 7


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Physical SciencesTime: 100 minutes

Questions: 1-77

Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage.

After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not

based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining

alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A

periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.

This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Sectionfor the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing orreproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are

any questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line

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1 H 1.0

Periodic Table of the Elements 2 He 4.0

3 Li 6.9

4 Be 9.0

5 B

10.8

6 C

12.0

7 N

14.0

8 O

16.0

9 F

19.0

10 Ne 20.2

11 Na 23.0

12 Mg 24.3

13 Al 27.0

14 Si

28.1

15 P

31.0

16 S

32.1

17 Cl 35.5

18 Ar 39.9

19 K

39.1

20 Ca 40.1

21 Sc 45.0

22 Ti

47.9

23 V

50.9

24 Cr 52.0

25 Mn 54.9

26 Fe 55.8

27 Co 58.9

28 Ni 58.7

29 Cu 63.5

30 Zn 65.4

31 Ga 69.7

32 Ge 72.6

33 As 74.9

34 Se 79.0

35 Br 79.9

36 Kr 83.8

37 Rb 85.5

38 Sr 87.6

39 Y

88.9

40 Zr 91.2

41 Nb 92.9

42 Mo 95.9

43 Tc (98)

44 Ru

101.1

45 Rh

102.9

46 Pd

106.4

47 Ag

107.9

48 Cd

112.4

49 In

114.8

50 Sn

118.7

51 Sb

121.8

52 Te

127.6

53 I

126.9

54 Xe

131.3 55 Cs

132.9

56 Ba

137.3

57 La* 138.9

72 Hf

178.5

73 Ta

180.9

74 W

183.9

75 Re

186.2

76 Os

190.2

77 Ir

192.2

78 Pt

195.1

79 Au

197.0

80 Hg

200.6

81 Tl

204.4

82 Pb

207.2

83 Bi

209.0

84 Po

(209)

85 At

(210)

86 Rn (222)

87 Fr

(223)

88 Ra

(226)

89 Ac† (227)

104 Unq† (261)

105 Unp (262)

106 Unh (263)

107 Uns (262)

108 Uno (265)

109 Une (267)

*58 Ce

140.1

59 Pr

140.9

60 Nd

144.2

61 Pm (145)

62 Sm 150.4

63 Eu

152.0

64 Gd 157.3

65 Tb

158.9

66 Dy

162.5

67 Ho

164.9

68 Er

167.3

69 Tm 168.9

70 Yb

173.0

71 Lu

175.0

†90 Th

232.0

91 Pa

(231)

92 U

238.0

93 Np (237)

94 Pu

(244)

95 Am (243)

96 Cm (247)

97 Bk

(247)

98 Cf

(251)

99 Es

(252)

100 Fm (257)

101 Md (258)

102 No

(259)

103 Lr

(260)


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Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 5

Passage I

Thousands of tons of hydrazine (N2H4) are

produced each year for commercial uses, includingthe production of agricultural chemicals. At room

temperature, hydrazine is a volatile liquid that exists

in hydrogen-bonded networks similar to those found

in liquid water. Hydrazine may be prepared by the

Raschig process, the reaction of ammonia withsodium hypochlorite, as shown in Equation 1.

2NH3( g ) + NaOCl(aq) → N2H4(aq) + NaCl(aq) +

H2O(ℓ)

Equation 1

Hydrazine usually is shipped as the hydrate (N2H4 ·

H2O) because it is easier to handle and can be easilydehydrated to form the anhydrous compound.

Hydrazine and its chemical derivatives are goodrocket propellants. For example, hydrazine reacts

with dinitrogen tetroxide (N2O4) to produce gaseous

nitrogen and water. Equation 2 shows the reactionand the enthalpy change.

2 N2H4(ℓ) + N2O4(ℓ) → 3 N2( g ) + 4 H2O( g )

∆ H ° = -1040 kJ mol-1

Equation 2

Some thermochemical data for hydrazine and

dinitrogen tetroxide are given in Table 1.

Table 1 Properties of Hydrazine and Dinitrogen

Tetroxide at 298 K

Property N2H4(ℓ) N2O4( g )

∆ H f ° (kJ mol-1

) 50.6 9.2

∆Gf ° (kJ mol-1

) 149.2 97.9

S ° (J K -1

mol-1

) 121.2 304.3

Like ammonia, hydrazine is a base in aqueoussolution. Figure 1 shows the equilibria reactions of

ammonia and hydrazine in aqueous solution.

NH3(aq) + H2O(ℓ) NH4+(aq) + OH

-(aq)

K eq = 1.8 × 10-5

N2H4(aq) + H2O(ℓ) N2H5+ + OH

-(aq)

K eq = 8.5 × 10-7

N2H5+ + H2O N2H6

2+ + OH

-(aq)

K eq = 8.9 × 10-16

Figure 1 Equilibria ( K eq = equilibrium constant)

1. Which of the following Lewis structures best

represents hydrazine?

A)

B)

C)

D)

2. How many grams of ammonia are required tomake one mole of hydrazine by the Raschig

process?

A) 8.5 g

B) 17.0 gC) 32.0 g

D) 34.0 g


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3. What is the percent by weight of hydrazine inhydrazine hydrate?

A ) 6.0/50.0 x 100% B ) 18.0/32.0 x 100%

C ) 18.0/50.0 x 100%

D ) 32.0/50.0 x 100%

4.

What is the enthalpy change (Ho) for the

reaction shown above?A ) 50.6 kJ mol

-1

B ) 149.2 kJ mol-1

C ) (149.2 + 298 x 121.2) kJ mol-1

D ) (149.2 - 50.6) kJ mol-1

5. As a result of being a weaker base than

ammonia, hydrazine:

A ) has a smaller acidity constant ( K a) than does

ammonia.

B ) has a smaller basicity constant ( K b) than doesammonia.

C ) can be protonated twice to form N2H62+

.

D ) forms hydrogen bonds in aqueous solution.

6. The formation of hydrazine from its elements is NOT a spontaneous process at 25

oC and 1 atm

because:

A) S o for the reaction is > 0.

B) H o for the reaction is < 0.

C) Go for the reaction is > 0.

D) S o for hydrazine is > 0.

7. The entropy change (S

o) for the reaction shown

in Equation 2 is:

A) < 0 because the moles of gaseous products > themoles of gaseous reactants.

B) < 0 because water is a product of the reaction.

C) > 0 because the moles of gaseous products > themoles of gaseous reactants.

D) > 0 because water is a product of the reaction.


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10. The density of a typical laboratory plasma is10

18 m

-3. This value leads to plasma

oscillations at:

A ) 9 x 1018

Hz.

B ) 9 x 1012

Hz.

C ) 9 x 109 Hz.

D ) 9 x 106 Hz.

11. A plasma wave moving through a plasma has a

frequency of 109 Hz and a speed of 3.0 x 10

7

m/s. What is the wavelength of this wave?

A ) 3.0 cmB ) 3.0 m

C ) 3.3 cm

D ) 3.3 m

12. As the Figure 1 electrons oscillate throughequilibrium point B, they move on to C because

of:

A) the momentum gathered as they moved from

point A.

B) Coulomb forces pulling on the electron sea.

C) magnetic forces of attraction between the

positive ions and the electron sea.D) the large potential energy they have at point B.

13. What best describes changes that occur as the

electron sea moves from position A to positionB in Figure 1?

A) Kinetic energy is transformed into potential

energy.B) Potential energy is transformed into kinetic

energy.

C) Power is dissipated as heat.D) Turbulence brings the electron sea to rest.


9/76


Passage III

Silicon, the second most abundant element in the

earth’s crust, is found combined with oxygen in avariety of silicate minerals. The most common is

silica (SiO2), which is a network solid.

Silicon cannot be purified by electrolytic

techniques. When elemental potassium becameavailable in the nineteenth century, it was used in a

silicon purification procedure. Today, silicon is produced commercially by the reaction of silica

with carbon or calcium carbide in an electric

furnace at 2000°C (Equation 1). The product isabout 98% pure, with impurities of iron, oxygen,

aluminum, and other elements. Further purification

is achieved by halogenating the silicon, purifying

the resulting gas by fractional distillation, and thenreducing the halogenated silicon compound

(Equations 2-3).

SiO2( s) + 2 C( s) → Si(ℓ) + 2 CO( g )

Equation 1

Si( s) + 3 HCl( g ) → SiCl3H( g ) + H2( g )

Equation 2

SiCl3H( g ) + H2( g ) → Si( s) + 3 HCl( g )

Equation 3

Pure silicon is a hard, brittle, nonreactive substance

with a metallic luster.

14. The purification of elemental silicon was

difficult to achieve because it:

A ) is a rare element.

B ) is too reactive to isolate easily.

C ) exists in minerals that do not decompose easily. D ) does not crystallize.

15. What is the electron configuration for a ground-state silicon atom?

A) [Ne] 3 s ↑↓ 3 p ↑ ↑ __B) [Ne] 3 s ↑↓ 3 p ↑ ↓ _ C) [Ne] 3 s ↑↓ 3 p ↑↓ __ _ D) [Ne] 3 s ↑↓ 3 p ↓ ↓ ↓

16. According to valence shell electron pair

repulsion (VSEPR) theory, what is thegeometry around silicon in SiCl3H?

A) Linear B) Tetrahedral

C) Trigonal bipyramidal

D) Octahedral

17. Which of the following elements could best

substitute for potassium in the purification ofsilicon?

A) H2B) NaC) Mg

D) Ca

18. SiCl3H has a normal boiling point of 33oC.

What are the predominant forces between

SiCl3H molecules?

A) Ionic forces

B) Covalent bonds

C) Hydrogen bondsD) van der Waals forces

19. SiCl3H is purified by fractional distillation.

Why does this procedure effect a purification?

A) SiCl3H is not water soluble.

B) SiCl3H is decomposed by water.

C) SiCl3H has a lower boiling point than the solidimpurities.

D) SiCl3H has a lower melting point than the

impurities.


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Passage IV

The production of electrical power via nuclear

fission reactions often provokes heated discussionsabout nuclear waste disposal. In a typical uranium

fission, a uranium nucleus absorbs a neutron and

undergoes fission, as illustrated in the reaction

.

The superscript denotes the atomic mass and thesubscript the atomic number. The nucleus U-236

(i.e.,236

U) decays immediately into two fission

fragments X and Y, along with the release of two orthree neutrons. Energy is produced in the fission

process by the conversion of nuclear mass into

energy. This conversion is described by Einstein’s

famous relation E = mc2, where c is the speed of

light 3 x108 m/s, m is the mass that is converted,

and E the resulting energy released. An analysis of

the reaction shown reveals that about 1/1000 of theoriginal starting mass of U-235 is missing after the

reaction. This missing mass accounts for the energy

produced in the reaction. The fission fragments Xand Y constitute the radioactive waste from

uranium fission. These fragments then undergo

beta and/or gamma decay. The resulting fragmentsthemselves may be radioactive, resulting in further

decays until a stable isotope is reached. Hundreds

of years must pass before these radioactive

fragments decay to nonradioactive nuclei.

20. If three neutrons are produced in the U-235

fission reaction discussed in the passage, what

relation must the atomic masses A1 and A2

obey?

A ) A1 + A2 = 92B ) A1 + A2 = 232

C ) A1 + A2 = 233

D ) A1 + A2 = 236

21. If fission fragment X undergoes beta decay,then one neutron in the nucleus is converted

into a proton, an electron and a neutrino (the

electron and neutrino v′exit the atom). If thenew fission fragment is called X ′, the beta-

decay reaction would be written as:

A)

B)

C)

D)

22. Half-lives are useful indicators of howdangerous a radioactive substance is. The half-

lives of Pu-239 and Ra-226 are 24,000 yrs and

1600 yrs, respectively. In comparison to atomsof Pu-239, atoms of Ra-226 will decay at a

rate:

A) 8 times faster.

B) 15 times faster.

C) 8 times slower.D) 15 times slower.

23. A standard coal-burning power plant produces

about 106 kg of fly-ash every week. Assuming

that the density of fly-ash is 1000 kg/m

3

, whatwould be the length of the side of a fly-ash

cube made from this waste?

A) 1 m

B) 10 m

C) 100 mD) 1000 m


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These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other.

24. Consider the following electrode potentials.

Cu2+

+ 2 e- → Cu( s) E

o= +0.34 V

2 H2O → O2 + 4 H+ + 4 e

- E

o = -1.23 V

What is E ocell for the reaction shown in the

following equation?

2 Cu2+

+ 2 H2O → 2 Cu( s) + O2 + 4 H+

A) -0.89 V

B) +0.55 VC) +1.57 V

D) +1.91 V

25. A gas that occupies 10 L at 1 atm and 25oC will

occupy what volume at 500 atm and 25oC?

A) Exactly 0.020 L

B) Somewhat more than 0.02 L because of the

space occupied by the individual gas moleculesC) Somewhat more than 0.02 L because of the

repulsions between the individual gas molecules

D) Somewhat more than 0.02 L because of theincreased number of collisions with the sides of

the container

26. If there is no air resistance, how far will a 2-kgobject fall from rest in 10 sec? (Note: Use g =

10 m/s2.)

A) 100 mB) 250 m

C) 300 m

D) 500 m

27. When a light wave and a sound wave pass from

air to glass, what changes occur in their speeds?

A) Both speed up.B) Both slow down.C) Light speeds up; sound slows down.

D) Light slows down; sound speeds up.


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Passage V

When aqueous solutions of bromine and acetone are

mixed, the reaction shown by Equation 1 occurs.

Equation 1

When the pH of the solution is between 4 and 7, thereaction occurs very slowly. However, at pH values

less than 3, the reaction occurs rapidly.

If the bromination of acetone (molar mass = 58.0 g

mol –1

and density = 0.791 g mL –1

) follows simple

kinetics, the rate law can be expressed by

Equation 2.

Rate = – [Br 2]/t = k [acetone]a[Br 2] b[H+]c

Equation 2

Bromine is a red–brown liquid that absorbs lightvery strongly at a wavelength of 395 nm, and it is

the only compound that absorbs visible light during

this reaction. Thus, a researcher can use aspectrophotometer to follow the decrease in the

concentration of bromine. The amount of 395-nm

light absorbed by bromine is directly proportional to

the concentration of bromine. Equation 3 is Beer’slaw, which shows the relationship between the

absorbance A and the concentration c of the

absorbing species when light passes through acuvette of path length l . The molar absorbtivity ε is

a constant for a given wavelength, and the path

length is normally 1.00 cm.

А = ε cl

Equation 3

Table 1 gives rate data for this reaction. In theexperimentally determined rate law, the reaction is

zero order with respect to bromine.

Table 1 Rate Data at 25°C and 395 nm

Exprmnt Number

[acetone] M

[H+] M

[Br 2] M

– [Br 2]/t M s –1

rateconstant

k × 10 –5

1 1.60 0.403 4.14 × 10−3 28.0 × 10 –6 4.35

2 0.80 0.101 3.96 × 10−3 2.85 × 10 –6 3.52

3 0.40 0.202 3.69 × 10−3 2.94 × 10 –6 3.65

4 0.80 0.403 4.26 × 10−3 12.9 × 10 –6 4.00

5 1.60 0.202 4.38 × 10−3 12.7 × 10 –6 3.93

6 0.80 0.202 4.28 × 10−3 5.99 × 10 –6 3.70

k ave = 3.86 ± 0.2 × 10 – 5

M – 1

s – 1

28. The molar absorptivity of bromine at 395 nm is

198 M –1 cm –1. What is the absorbance at 395nm in Experiment 1?

A) 0.00825

B) 0.820

C) 1.22D) 20.9

29. What is the value of c in Equation 2 as

determined from the data in Table 1?

A) 1B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

30. If the reaction is first order with respect to both

acetone and hydronium ion, which of the

following equations gives the rate law?

A) Rate = k [acetone][H+]

B) Rate = k [acetone][Br 2]2[H+]

C) Rate = k [acetone][Br 2][H+

]D) Rate = k [acetone]2[H+]


13/76


31. What is the molarity of pure acetone?

A ) 1.36

B ) 13.6C ) 45.9

D ) 73.4

32. Though 395-nm light is in the visible region ofthe electromagnetic spectrum, it is very near:

A) the radio wave region.B) the microwave region.

C) the infrared region.

D) the ultraviolet region.


14/76


Passage VI

Cellular phones are commonly used by people who

are traveling away from home or on business. Thedevelopment of these phones combines many recent

innovations in technology. Simply described,

cellular phones behave like two-way radios with the

incoming voice data transmitted at one carrier

frequency and the outgoing voice data transmittedat another frequency. This capability to send and

receive voice data on these two separate frequencychannels allows the person to hear and speak on the

phone at the same time. The information in these

channels is transmitted on radio-frequencyelectromagnetic carrier waves, which travel well

through the air.

Cell-phone channels operate at frequencies ranging between 824 MHz and 894 MHz. Each channel

requires a finite amount of frequency space, calledthe bandwidth of the channel, and is set at 30 kHz.Most cellular phones can transmit their signal with

between 0.6 watts and 3 watts of power. The cell

phone scans all of its channels when it is on to findthe channel with the highest signal intensity. The

phone communicates with a base station, whichtypically covers an area of 10 square miles, called a

“cell.” A cellular city has many “cells” within it,

which have phone base stations to transmit andreceive cell-phone data. Because the size of a cell

is relatively small, it allows efficientcommunication with relatively low power phones.

When a phone moves from cell to cell, its calls arehandled by a central switching office.

33. What is the total frequency range available for

cellular phone communications?

A ) 30 kHzB ) 894 MHz

C ) 70 MHz

D ) 894.03 MHz

34. If a cellular phone is powered by a 12-volt battery and is transmitting at its maximum

power, what current is being used?

A) 3 W

B) 3 A

C) 0.25 A

D) 0.05 A

35. If two people were talking on their cellular

phones within the same "cell" in a city, why

wouldn't their transmissions interfere?

A) The power transmitted from each phone is nothigh enough to interfere.

B) The signals are transmitted at the speed of light,

and do not have time to interfere.C) The physical distance between any two base

stations limits interference.

D) The frequencies used by each phone are chosento be different.

36. The intensity of a cellular phone transmission

received at the switching station is proportionalto the power used by the phone and inversely

proportional to the square of the distance

between phone and station. Which combinationof power and distance will provide the highest

signal to be picked up by the switching station?

A) 0.6 watts, 2 milesB) 0.6 watts, 3 miles

C) 3 watts, 5 milesD) 3 watts, 4 miles

37. The 846 MHz carrier wave is an

electromagnetic signal, whereas sounds wavesare typically at much lower frequency and are

carried through the air as pressure waves.

Which statement describes the two wavesaccurately?

A) Electromagnetic waves are transverse; pressure

waves are longitudinal.B) Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal;

pressure waves are transverse.

C) Waves are always longitudinal and transverse.D) Electromagnetic wavelengths are longer than

acoustic sound wavelengths.


15/76


Passage VII

A capacitor is a device that stores charge. The

voltage V across a capacitor and the charge q on thecapacitor are related by q = CV , where C is the

capacitance measured in farads, F (1.0 F = 1.0

coulomb per volt).

A student sets out to measure the capacitance usingthe circuit of Figure 1.

Figure 1 Circuit for measuring capacitance

In this circuit, the capacitor will be fully charged

soon after switch S is closed to the left, as current passes through the small fixed resistor r in series

with the capacitor C . Then, when S is switched to

the right, the capacitor discharges through thevariable resistor R. R is adjusted so that the

discharge current, as measured by the ammeter, is

constant during the discharge time.

Figure 2 The discharge current versus time

Figure 2 shows the current-versus-time plot during

the discharge. The voltage of the battery used in themeasurement was 12.0 V. The total charge q

transferred to the capacitor can be estimated from

the constant current value during the discharge time.

38. When switch S is closed to the left, charge begins to accumulate on the capacitor. Charge

cannot accumulate indefinitely because:

A) the variable resistor inhibits the current flow.

B) the battery continually loses charge.

C) successive charges brought to the plates are

repelled by charges accumulated earlier.

D) the fixed resistor loses energy to heat.

39. To keep the current constant during the

discharge cycle:

A) the resistance R must be continually increased.B) the resistance R must be continually decreased.

C) the resistance r must be continually increased.

D) the resistance r must equal R.

40. As the capacitor is charged, the electrical

potential energy that it gains:

A) equals the work done by the battery throughout

the charging process.

B) is less than the work done by the battery

throughout the charging process.C) is greater than the work done by the battery

throughout the charging process.

D) equals the potential energy stored in resistor r.

41. Which circuit elements store energy?

I. Capacitors

II. Resistors

III. Batteries

A) I only

B) I and II onlyC) I and III only

D) II and III only

42. The resistance of the variable resistor, R, at the

beginning of the discharge process is:

A) 2000 Ω.

B) 3000 Ω.C) 4000 Ω.

D) 6000 Ω.


16/76


Passage VIII

Many reactions of oxyanions (negative ions that

contain oxygen) involve the transfer of oxygenatoms from one ion or molecule to another.

Reaction 1 shows an oxygen atom transfer that is

typical of an oxyanion reaction.

NO2- + OCl

- NO3

- + Cl

- K eq = 10

68

Reaction 1

Despite the favorable equilibrium constant, thisreaction is extremely slow. The reaction rate can be

increased by adding acid to the reaction solution.

When added, acid reacts with OCl-, forming HOCl.

HOCl allows the oxygen transfer to take place morequickly because the hydrogen atom reduces the

charge on the oxygen atom, facilitating the breakingof the O-Cl bond. The rate of this reaction,Reaction 2, is first order in both NO2

- and HOCl.

NO2- + HOCl NO3

-+ Cl

- + H

+ K eq = 10

43

Reaction 2

Other oxyanion reactions also take place more

quickly in acidic solutions. For example, noobservable reaction occurs between ClO3

-and Br

-in

basic solution, but when an acidic solution is used,Reaction 3 occurs rapidly.

ClO3- + 6 Br

-+ 6 H

+ → Cl

- + 3 Br 2 + 3 H2O

Reaction 3

The rate law for Reaction 3 is k[ClO3-][Br

-][H

+]

2,

and the initial sequences of the reaction mechanismare shown below.

Sequence I 2 H+

+ ClO3-

H2OClO2+

(fast)Sequence II Br - + H2OClO2+ BrClO2 + H2O (slow)

Sequence III Br - + BrClO2 Br 2 + ClO2- (fast)

The exchange of oxygen-18 between H218

O andSO4

2- is also more rapid in acid than in neutral

solutions of SO42-

. A proposed reaction mechanism

for the exchange is shown below.

Sequence I 2 H+ + SO42- H2SO4 (fast)

Sequence II H2SO4 SO3 + H2O (slow)Sequence III SO3 + H2

18O 2 H+ + SO318O2- (fast)

43. If the rate of formation of Cl- in Reaction 3

were 1.0 x 10-2 M /sec at a pH of 1, what would

it be at a pH of 2? (Note: Assume that other

conditions are identical.)

A) 1 x 10-1 M /s

B) 1 x 10-2 M /s

C) 2 x 10-2 M /s

D) 1 x 10-4 M /s

44. Compared to the rate of Reaction 1, the rate ofReaction 2:

A) is 1025

times less.

B) is 1025

times greater.

C) is 1.58 times greater.D) cannot be evaluated without additional

information.

45. In addition to the explanation in the passage,the rate of Reaction 2 is different from the rate

of Reaction 1 because the formation of HOCl by the protonation of the oxygen:

A) reduces the electronic repulsion forces betweenthe reactants.

B) increases the electronic repulsion forces between

the reactants.

C) increases the electronic repulsion forces betweenthe nitrogen atom and the oxygen atom that is

being transferred.

D) reduces the electronic attraction forces betweenthe chlorine atom and the oxygen atom that is

being transferred.


17/76


46. Which of the following methods would produceSO3

18O

2- at the fastest rate?

A ) Bubbling SO3( g ) through H218

OB ) Bubbling S

18O3( g ) through H2

18O

C ) Bubbling S18

O3( g ) through H2O

D ) Reacting SO218

O(l ) with H218

O

47. Which of the following figures represents alikely transition state for Reaction 2?

A )

B )

C )

D )

48. Which of the following graphs best shows theenergy diagram for the Reaction 3 mechanism

in the passage?

A)

B)

C)

D)


18/76




49. Phosphorus appears directly below nitrogen inthe periodic table. The boiling point of

ammonia, NH3, is higher than the boiling point

of phosphine, PH3, under standard conditions.Which of the following statements best

explains the difference in the boiling points ofthese two compounds?

A ) Ammonia is a weaker base than phosphine.

B ) The N-H bond is weaker than the P-H bond. C ) High molecular weight compounds generally

have lower boiling points.

D ) Ammonia forms stronger intermolecularhydrogen bonds than phosphine.

50. A student measures the mass and volume of

four objects.

Object Mass(g) Volume(cm3)

A 1.5 0.50

B 3.0 0.75

C 4.5 1.00

D 6.0 1.50

Which object has the highest density?

A ) A

B ) BC ) C

D ) D

51. Which of the following elements gains oneelectron most readily?

A) BeB) Cl

C) K

D) Ca

52. Which of the following substances is NOT a base?

A) NH3B) SO4

2-

C) NH4+

D) Fe(OH)2

53. A ray of light in air is incident upon a glass

plate at an angle of 45o. The angle of refraction

of the ray in the glass is 30o. What is the index

of refraction of the glass?

(Data: sin 30o= 0.500, sin 45

o= 0.707,

sin 60o= 0.866, tan 30

o= 0.577,

tan 45o= 1.000)

A) 1.22

B) 1.41C) 1.57

D) 1.65


19/76


Passage IX

Generalizations such as “like dissolves like” and

“the solubility of a solute doubles for every ten-degree rise in temperature” are useful in certain

situations but are not universally applicable to

solution chemistry. Instead, several different

relationships describe solution dynamics. Thus,

depending on the problem, a chemist must usevarious concentration units.

For example, molarity ( M ) is best for most

stoichiometry problems, molality (m) for freezing-

point depression problems, mole fraction forRaoult-law problems, and osmolality for osmotic

pressure problems.

Table 1 gives data for two water soluble solutes,ethylene glycol [C2H6O2(ℓ)] and lead nitrate

[Pb(NO3)2( s)].

Table 1 Data for Ethylene Glycol and Lead Nitrate

Property C2H6O2 Pb(NO3)2

Formula weight 62.1 g/mol 331 g/mol

Specific gravity 1.116 4.53

Solubility in

water at 0°C at20°C

∞ ∞

37.7 g/100mL56.5 g/100mL

Equation 1 shows how osmotic pressure (II)depends on concentration ( M ) and Kelvin

temperature (T ).

II = M R T

Equation 1

Note: R = 0.082 L atm K -1

mol-1

, and the molal

freezing-point depression and boiling-pointelevation constants for water are K f = -1.86°C/m

and K b = 0.52°C/m, respectively.

54. What is the molality of a saturated solution ofPb(NO3)2(aq) at 0

oC?

A) 0.114 mB) 0.251 m

C) 1.14 m

D) 3.41 m

55. To what temperature does a 10.75 m solution ofethylene glycol protect an engine fromfreezing?

A) -5.78oC

B) -12.0oC

C) -20.0oC

D) -45.0oC

56. Which aqueous solution, 0.1 M lead nitrate or0.1 M ethylene glycol, lowers the freezing point

of water to a greater extent?

A) Pb(NO3)2(aq) by threefold

B) Pb(NO3)2(aq) by twofold

C) C2H6O2(aq) by twofold

D) C2H6O2(aq) by threefold

57. Does either generalization in the passage apply

to aqueous solutions of ethylene glycol?

A) Yes; both generalizations apply.

B) No; neither generalization applies.C) Yes; “like dissolves like” only applies.

D) Yes; “the solubility of a solute doubles for every

ten-degree rise in temperature” only applies.

58. If a cell wall separates a hypertonic, interstitial

fluid from cellular fluid, will there be an

osmotic effect?

A) Yes; the cell fluid will become less

concentrated.

B) Yes; the cell fluid will become moreconcentrated.

C) No; osmosis does not apply to biological fluids.

D) No; the concentrations are the same on bothsides of the wall.


20/76


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Passage X

Cars are subjected to many forces as they move: air

drag, tire-road friction, engine motive force, gravity,and other factors. Unfortunately, collisions

occasionally occur. During such accidents, a

(potentially large) fraction of the kinetic energy is

rapidly and irreversibly converted to thermal energy

and deformation of the car structure. Test crasheswith dummy drivers and passengers and other

experiments help designers develop safer vehicles.

In one test, two 1000-kg cars, A and B, are initially

100 m apart. They are traveling on a highway in thesame direction: car A at 30 m/s, car B at 20 m/s

with car B ahead of car A. Eventually they collide.

In one case the collision is cushioned by a spring

(with constant k = 105 N/m) on the front of car A.

In a second case there is no spring and the body

deformation of the two cars absorbs the collisionenergy. (Assume g = 10 m/s

2 when needed.)

61. Consider the difference in crash deceleration on

a test dummy in two test cases.

Case I: The dummy hits the steering wheel at20 m/s and stops in 0.1 s.

Case II: The dummy hits an air bag at 20 m/s

and stops in 0.25 s.

What is the ratio of the average acceleration inCase II to that in Case I?

A ) 0.25

B ) 0.40

C ) 2.5 D ) 4.0

62. Two cars, each of mass 1000 kg traveling at 20m/s in opposite directions, have a head-on

inelastic collision. How much heat and

deformation energy is produced?

A) 2 x 105 J

B) 4 x 105 J

C) 8 x 105J

D) 16 x 105

J

63. When tires are made of hard rubber, the

coefficients of rolling, sliding, and static

friction with the road are reduced comparedwith softer rubber. Which of the following

predictions would NOT hold if hard rubber

replaced soft rubber in tire manufacture?

A) Stopping distances would increase.

B) Fuel efficiency would be unchanged.

C) Slippage on curves would be more likely.D) Higher tire air pressure would be required.

64. A spring between colliding cars reduces the

average force on the cars because it:

A) lengthens collision time.

B) absorbs kinetic energy loss.

C) absorbs momentum change.D) causes no permanent deformation.

65. How long before test car A overtakes car B?

A) 2 s

B) 3.33 sC) 5 s

D) 10 s

66. What is the post-collision speed of cars A andB after the no-spring inelastic collision?

A) 0 m/s

B) 20 m/sC) 25 m/s

D) 50 m/s


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23/76


71. The primary rupture in the Landers quakemoved from south to north as it progressed to

its full 74-km length. How would the Doppler

effect influence this?

A ) By decreasing the wavelength of seismic waves

propagating eastward and westward

B ) By increasing the wavelength of seismic waves

propagating eastward and westwardC ) By decreasing the wavelength of seismic waves

moving northward and increasing the

wavelength of waves moving southward

D ) By increasing the wavelength of seismic wavesmoving northward and decreasing the

wavelength of waves moving southward


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72. What is the difference in pressure between two

points that are separated by a vertical distance

of 0.25 m in a tank of water? (Note: Thedensity of water is 1,000 kg/m

3, and g = 10

m/s2.)

A ) 250 N/m2

B ) 400 N/m2

C ) 2,500 N/m2

D ) 4,000 N/m2

73. The following reaction occurs spontaneously.

Cd( s) + 2 H+(aq) → Cd2+(aq) + H2( g )

Which of the following has the highest electronaffinity?

A ) Cd( s) B ) H

+(aq)

C ) Cd2+

(aq)

D ) H2( g )

74. The energy, E , of a hydrogen atom with its

electron in the nth shell of a hydrogen atom isgiven by E = -C/n

2 where n = 1,2,3, . . . and C

is a positive constant. If an electron goes from

the n = 2 shell to the n = 3 shell:

A ) a photon is emitted.

B ) an electron is emitted.

C ) an electron is absorbed. D ) the energy of the atom is increased.

75. A ray of light in air strikes the flat surface of aliquid, resulting in a reflected ray and a

refracted ray. If the angle of reflection is

known, what additional information is neededin order to determine the relative refractive

index of the liquid compared to air?

A) Angle of incidence

B) Angle of refractionC) Refractive index of air D) Wavelength of the light

76. Approximately how many moles of Al3+

arereduced when 0.1 faraday of charge passes

through a cell during the production of Al?

(Note: Assume there is excess Al3+

available

and that Al3+

is reduced to Al metal only.)

A) 0.033 mol

B) 0.050 molC) 0.067 mol

D) 0.10 mol

77. When a weak acid (HA) is titrated with sodiumhydroxide in the presence of an indicator (HIn),

the pH at which a color change is observed

depends on the:

A) final concentration of HA.

B) final concentration of HIn.

C) initial concentration of HA.D) p K a of HIn.


25/76

Verbal Reasoning Time: 85 minutes

Questions: 78-137

There are nine passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test. Each passage is followed by several questions.

After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question. If you are not certain of an answer,eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining

alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet.

This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Sectionfor the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or

reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there areany questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line

(202-828-0690)


26/76


Passage I

Students of evolution have shown that species

death, or extinction, is going on all the time and thatit is an essential feature of life history. What alarms

so many life historians is not that extinctions are

occurring but that they appear to be occurring at a

greater rate than they have at all but a few times in

the past, raising the specter of the sort of wholesaledie-offs that ended the reign of the dinosaurs. A

new word has been coined to define the value mostthreatened by these overheated rates: biodiversity.

Since extinction is a particularly final andcomprehensive form of death, species preservation

and its corollary, habitat protection, are now seen as

the most important means available to stem the

erosion of biodiversity, but I wonder if these ideas,which emphasize diversity at the species level, give

an adequate picture of recent biological history. Ifwe believe that all life shares a certain quality ofsensitivity, or self-awareness, then Homo sapiens

was an astonishing and wholly unpredictable leap

forward in this respect, because human beingsmanifested an idea of personhood never before

achieved.

Consciousness. Mind. Insight. Here are qualities

that, if not exclusively human, seem appallinglyrudimentary elsewhere. Plainly, our planet

contained vast opportunities for creatures willing toshape it consciously toward their ends. The way

was clear; we know of no other species that hasdivined what we’ve been up to or has a mind to

object. What seems simple to us is far beyond

them; it’s almost as if we move so fast that we areinvisible, and they are still trying to pretend that the

world is the same as it was before we arrived.

This speed on the uptake appears to be the chiefadvantage that cultural adaptation has over genetic.

When human beings encounter new circumstances,

adaptation rarely depends on which individuals aregenetically best suited to adjust, passing on their

abilities more successfully than others and

producing subsequent generations better adapted to

the new order. No, human beings tend to cut the

loop short by noticing the new, puzzling over it,telling their friends, and attempting to find out

immediately whether it is edible, combustible,domesticable, or whatever.

I am concerned with an image of our species as avast, featureless mob of Yahoos mindlessly

trampling this planet’s most ancient and delicate

harmonies. This image is not a completely

inaccurate description of present conditions in some parts of the world, but it portrays the human

presence as a sort of monolithic disaster, when infact Homo sapiens is the crown of creation. Changeis one of the most reliable constants of this story.

To say that the changes we have brought, and will

continue to bring, are somehow alien to the worldand are within a half inch of making its “natural”

continuance impossible displays some contempt forthe forces at work.

Today, many believe that these changes are oftenfor the worse. We look back with longing to a time

at which the human presence barely dimpled thelandscape. I’m not persuaded by this picture. I can

easily imagine arguments that would have requiredthe interior of North America to remain empty of

cities ⎯ and yet I don’t think this continent is a poorer place now than it was twenty thousand years

ago. The more convinced we are that our species is

a plague, the more we are obliged to yearn fordisasters.

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from

the following source:T. Palmer, The case for human beings. ©1992 by T. Palmer.


27/76


78. Which of the following statements bestsummarizes the central thesis of the passage?

A ) Biodiversity is essential for human survival. B ) Cultural adaptation and genetic adaptation are

separate forms of evolution.

C ) Changes brought on by human judgment are

natural.

D ) Extinction is inevitable.

79. Assume that a new species is discovered and

found to have a capacity for reasoned judgment

greater than that of human beings. The authorwould be most likely to argue that:

A ) the new species will be highly adaptable.

B ) adaptation is taking place at a faster rate thanscientists had previously thought.

C ) biological classifications should be altered.

D ) decreasing biodiversity will destroy theenvironment.

80. The author apparently believes that the

increasing rate of extinction:

A ) will decrease naturally.

B ) should be halted.

C ) has nothing to do with human activity. D ) is not a reason for panic.

81. Suppose that a conference is held on issuesrelevant to the transformation of Mars into a

habitable planet. Which of the following topics

is the author most likely to present?

A ) The importance of preserving native habitats on

MarsB ) The importance of farming species likely to

survive on Mars

C ) The role of human inventiveness in ensuring

survival on Mars

D ) Reasons that biodiversity is irrelevant on Mars

82. According to the author, how do many lifehistorians support their contention that we risk

destroying species?

A) They assert that extinctions are occurring at a

rapidly accelerated rate.

B) They maintain that extinctions are brought about

only by human intervention.

C) They cite examples of extinct species.D) They point to similarities between humans and

dinosaurs.

83. Which of the following processes would theauthor be most likely to characterize as

“cultural adaptation”?

A) Getting to know people from different culturesB) Moving around to many different regions of the

world

C) Reasoning and problem solving to change asituation

D) Moving to a culture that one finds suitable

84. The author is concerned that a failure torecognize the value of human potential to bring

about change will cause:

A) inattention to the selfish motives underlyinghuman behavior.

B) an overly optimistic picture of the fate of the

universe.C) an underestimation of the value of other species.

D) a self-fulfilling prophecy that guaranteesdisaster.


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Passage II

There is no doubt that what we call the modern

movement in art begins with the single-mindeddetermination of a French painter to see the world

objectively. There need be no mystery about this

word: what Cézanne wished to see was the world,

or that part of it he was contemplating, as an object,

without any intervention either of the tidy mind orthe untidy emotions. His immediate predecessors,

the Impressionists, had seen the world

subjectively ⎯ that is to say, as it presented itself to

their senses in various lights, or from various pointsof view. Each occasion made a different and

distinct impression on their senses, and for each

occasion there must necessarily be a separate workof art. But Cézanne wished to exclude this

shimmering and ambiguous surface of things and

penetrate to the reality that did not change, that was

present beneath the bright but deceptive picture presented by the kaleidoscope of the senses.

Great revolutionary leaders are people with a singleand a simple idea, and it is the very persistency with

which they pursue this idea that endows it with

power. But let us ask why, in the long history ofart, it had never previously happened that an artist

should wish to see the world objectively. We know,for example, that at various stages in the history of

art there have been attempts to make art “imitative”;

and not only Greek and Roman art, but theRenaissance of Classical art in Europe, were periods

of art possessed by a desire to represent the world

“as it really is.” But there always intervened

between the visual event and the act of realizing thevision an activity which we can only call

interpretative. This intervention seemed to be made

necessary by the very nature of perception, whichdoes not present to the senses a flat two-

dimensional picture with precise boundaries but a

central focus with a periphery of vaguely

apprehended and seemingly distorted objects. Theartist might focus on a single object, say a human

figure or even a human face; but even then there

were problems such as that of representing thesolidity of the object, its place in space.

In every instance before Cézanne, in order to solvesuch problems the artist brought in extra-visual

faculties ⎯ imagination, which enabled the artist totransform the objects of the visible world and thus

to create an ideal space occupied by ideal forms; or

intellect, which enabled the artist to construct a

scientific chart, a perspective, in which the objectcould be given an exact situation. But a system of

perspective is no more an accurate representation ofwhat the eye sees than a Mercator’s projection iswhat the world looks like from Sirius. Like the

map, it serves to guide the intellect; perspective

does not give us any glimpse of the reality.

One might conclude from the history of art that

reality in this sense is a will-o’-the-wisp, anactuality we can see but never grasp. Nature, as we

say, is one thing, art quite another. But Cézanne,

though he was familiar with the “art of the

museums” and respected the attempts of his predecessors to come to terms with nature, did not

despair of succeeding where they had failed ⎯ that isto say, in “realizing” his sensations in the presence

of nature.


the following source:

H. Read, A Concise History of Modern Painting. ©1968 by

The Herbert Read Discretionary Trust.


29/76


85. Information in the passage suggests that the

author probably believes that the act of

interpretation:

A ) allows the artist to view the world more

objectively.

B ) is an almost unavoidable component of the act o

seeing.C ) was first popularized by Cézanne. D ) became the dominant force in art many years

after Cézanne.

86. Which of the following statements best

summarizes the central thesis of the passage?

A ) For the Impressionists, each sensory occasionrequired a separate work of art.

B ) The use of perspective prevents artists from

effectively interpreting reality.C ) Cézanne tried to solve the problem of

interpretation by attempting to view the world

objectively.

D ) Before Cézanne, many periods of art reflected adesire to represent the world “as it really is.”

87. According to the passage, a revolutionary, atleast in part, is a person who:

A ) promotes a single, simple idea.

B ) pursues interpretation in art. C ) pursues realism in art.

D ) observes the distinction between nature and art.

88. In the context of the passage, to view an object

“subjectively” is to view it:

A ) without intervention by the intellect or the

emotions.

B ) differently depending on when and how it is

viewed.

C ) within the framework of an ideal space. D ) in the presence of nature.

89. The author’s suggestion that reality in art

before Cézanne had been a “will-o’-the-wisp”

can most reasonably be interpreted to mean thatartists before Cézanne had not:

A) attempted to imitate reality faithfully.

B) agreed about the value of Impressionism.

C) been able to perceive reality.D) found a way to depict reality effectively.

90. The author’s assertion that Greek, Roman, and

Renaissance art tried to represent the worldaccurately is:

A) illustrated in the passage by examples of specific

works of art.B) not supported by evidence in the passage.

C) supported in the passage by a discussion of the

nature of perception.D) contradicted by evidence later in the passage.

91. It can most reasonably be concluded from the

passage that Cézanne’s work exerted a powerful influence because Cézanne:

A) pursued the concept of objectivity with

persistence.B) brought extra-visual faculties into his work.

C) expanded the concept of interpretation.

D) painted scenes as they were presented to hissenses.

92. If it were discovered that Cézanne learned theconcept of objective painting from another

artist, this finding would challenge the

contention that Cézanne:

A) pursued goals similar to those of Greek and

Roman art.

B) was the founder of the modern movement in art.

C) respected the attempts of his predecessors tocome to terms with nature.

D) was familiar with “the art of the museums.”


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93. The author’s opinion that artists beforeCézanne could not avoid interpretation is

supported in the passage by:

A ) an analysis of some famous Renaissance

paintings.

B ) a discussion of Cézanne’s rejection of

interpretation.

C ) a description of extra-visual faculties used byartists.

D ) an explanation of Cézanne’s working methods.

94. The author’s comparison of a system of perspective to a map is most likely intended to

show that:

A) maps are more accurate than even the most

realistic artistic depictions of the world.

B) systems of perspective have grown more

sophisticated over the years, while mapmaking

has not.C) both afford a clearer view of the reality beneath

everyday objects.

D) both are intellectual methods of perceiving the

world.


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Passage III

When I saw it first, it was a green and sleeping bud,

raising itself toward the sun. Ants gathered aphidsand sap around the unopened bloom. A few days

later, it was a tender young flower with a pale green

center, a troop of silver-gray insects climbing up

and down its stalk. Over the summer this sunflower

became incredibly beautiful, subtly turning its facedaily, always toward the sun, its black center alive

with a deep blue light, as if flint had sparked anelemental fire there, in community with rain,

mineral, mountain air, and sand.

As summer changed from green to yellow, new

visitors came daily: lace-winged flies, bees with

legs fat with pollen, grasshoppers with clattering

wings and desperate hunger, and other lives toosmall or hidden for me to see. This plant was a

society undergoing constant change, great anddiverse, depending on light and moisture.

Changes also occurred in the greater world of the

plant. One day, rounding a bend in the road, Iencountered the disturbing sight of a dead horse,

black against a hillside, eyes rolled back. Anotherday I was nearly lifted by a sandstorm so fierce and

hot that I had to wait for it to pass before I could

return home. It swept away the faded dried petalsof the sunflower. Then the birds arrived to carry the

seeds to the future.

In one plant in one season a drama of need andsurvival was enacted. Hungers were filled; insects

coupled; there was escape, exhaustion, and death.

An outsider, I never learned the sunflower’s goldenlanguage. An old voice from gene or cell taught the

plant to oppose the pull of gravity and find its way

upward, to open. A certain knowing ⎯ instinct,

intuition, necessity ⎯ directed the seed-bearing birdsto ancestral homelands they had never seen.

There are other summons, some even moremysterious than the survival journeys of birds and

insects. Once a century, among their canopy of

sunlit green, all bamboo plants of a certain kindflower on the same day. Not the plants’ location, in

a steamy Malaysian jungle or a suburban garden in

Pennsylvania, their age, nor their size matter. Some

current we cannot explain passes through this

primitive life. Each with a share of communalknowledge, all are somehow one plant.

Sometimes you can hear the language of the

earth ⎯ in water, trees, emanating from mosses,seeping through the soil. Once, in the redwood

forest, I felt something like a heartbeat, a hardly

perceptible current that stirred a kinship and longingin me, a dream barely remembered. Once, on a

calm beach, I heard an ocean storm booming from

afar, revealing the disturbance at its center, telling

about the rough water that would arrive.

Tonight I watch the sky, thinking of the people who

came before me and their knowledge of the placement of stars, people who watched the sun

long and carefully enough to witness the angle of

light that touched a stone just once a year. Withoutwritten records, they registered the passage of the

gods of night, noting fine details of the worldaround them and the immensity above them.

Whichever road I follow, I walk in the land of many

gods. Behind me, my ancestors say “Be still.Watch and listen. You are the result of the love of

thousands.”



L. Hogan, Dwellings: A Spiritual History of the Living World. ©1995 by L. Hogan.


32/76


95. The author seems to be trying to understand:

A ) the beliefs of primitive peoples from the

perspective of an anthropologist.B ) the interactive balance among species from the

perspective of an ecologist.

C ) the orderly recurrence of natural forces from the

perspective of a poet.

D ) the genetic regulation of behavior from the perspective of a biologist.

96. According to the author’s account, the

regularity of biological cycles indicates:

A ) a response to the competition for resources

among similar species.

B ) a special mode of communication among themembers of each species.

C ) the adaptation of each species to a unique niche

in its habitat.D ) an inherent sensitivity to particular

environmental changes.

97. One can infer from the passage that for theauthor, the horse and the sandstorm both:

A ) present mysteries beyond human

comprehension.B ) are aspects of the world that mar its beauty.

C ) indicate the cruel indifference of nature.

D ) have necessary roles in a perpetual drama.

98. Which of the following ideas about humans isclearly NOT assumed in the passage?

A) Humans lack the sensory means to detect someintraspecies messages.

B) Humans have always attempted to understand

natural occurrences.

C) Humans are capable of existing in harmony with

other species.D) Humans will eventually satisfy their curiosity

about nature.

99. The passage account suggests that theenvironmental effect of human land use is that

native plants and animals:

A) become dependent for survival on humanintervention.

B) continue to thrive in their symbiotic interaction.

C) suffer from disruption of the ecological balance.D) are replaced by artificially introduced species.

100. The discussion suggests that the author

considers the appropriate relationship ofhumans to other animals to be that of:

A) benefactor to recipient.

B) scientist to subject.C) student to teacher.

D) parent to child.

101. What is meant by “a hardly perceptible

current”?

A) A sense of unity with the forces that produce life

B) A low-frequency sound wave transmitted

undergroundC) A personal message from a supernatural source

D) An urge to contact others of one’s species


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Passage IV

Atonality originates in an attempt to liberate the

twelve notes of the chromatic scale from thediatonic functional associations they still retain in

“chromatic” music ⎯ to dissociate, so to speak, the

chromatic scale from “chromaticism.” Theexpanded harmonic vocabulary of late nineteenth-

century music had extended the range of tonalrelationships to the point at which the traditionalarticulative procedures were no longer adequate.

The final step in this development was taken by

Arnold Schöenberg in a radical stylistic departure based upon a rejection of any general principles

regulating simultaneity and progression. In the

compositions Schöenberg wrote between 1908 and1923, the period of “free” atonality, he disclosed

that this ultimate expansion of possible relations to

include the whole range of combinations contained

in the semitonal scale demands a revaluation ofevery aspect of the musical language.

The composer working within the diatonic tonalsystem may take for granted the existence of

specific properties of that system: a seven-tone

scale, triadic harmonic structure, a key center, andso forth. The atonal composer, however, can take

for granted nothing except the existence of a givenlimiting sound world, the semitonal scale. Aside

from this assumption, it is impossible to state the

fundamental conditions of atonality in general ,except in a negative way, merely stipulating the

absence of a priori functional connections among

the twelve notes of the semitonal scale. Musical

coherence requires additional limiting factors, butthese are not reducible to a set of foundational

assumptions in terms of which the compositions

that are collectively designated by the expression“atonal music” can be said to represent a “system”

of composition.

In 1923, Schöenberg published his first compositionemploying the “method of composing with twelve

notes.” This “method” soon proved to have some

general relevance to the special problems of atonalcomposition. It is consistent with both the positive

and negative premises of atonality, affirming the

availability of twelve notes while denying a priorifunctional precedence to any one of them.

In Schöenberg’s twelve-tone system, all the tonerelations that govern a given musical context are

referable to a specific linear ordering of the twelve

notes of the semitonal scale. Neither register,

duration, timbre, or intensity ⎯ in other words, noattribute other than that represented by the pitch-

class name of what is informally called a note ⎯ isdefined by this referential permutation of the

semitonal scale, a permutation denoted by the termrow, series, or set . An unambiguous ordering is

assumed; but the degree to which this ordering

actually determines the general musical proceduresvaries greatly from one work to another, even

though they may be by the same composer. The

total musical texture inevitably entails intervallicrelations not directly specified by the set, and even

on a purely linear plane deviations occur. Yet the

premise of an ordered arrangement of the twelve

notes, if it is to have any meaning, must somehow

govern the essential musical events in a consistentand logical manner, in spite of ambiguities and

licenses.



G. Perle, Serial Composition and Atonality: An Introduction

to the Music of Schöenberg, Berg, and Webern. ©1962 by theRegents of the University of California.


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102. That Schöenberg rejected “general principlesregulating simultaneity and progression”

means that he rejected:

A ) chaotic chord progressions.

B ) a broadened range of tonal relationships.

C ) the chromatic scale.

D ) the standard system of movement from certain

tonalities to other prescribed tonalities.

103. The comparison of the diatonic system of

composition to atonal composition in the

second paragraph suggests that:

A ) there are fixed rules for atonal composition.

B ) the properties of the diatonic system change

from composition to composition.C ) diatonic pieces follow certain guidelines

adhering to preconceived concepts of musical

organization.D ) atonal composition is based on a seven-tone

scale.

104. According to the passage, the twelve-tonescale rejects systems based largely on

traditional relationships between notes. One

can most reasonably conclude from this that:

A ) diatonic musical scales are conventions that

composers may accept or reject.

B ) the traditional scale is needlessly repetitive. C ) traditional and twelve-tone systems are more

similar than different.D ) twelve-tone composers have not been able to

equal the quality of traditional compositions.

105. The second paragraph of the passage suggeststhat atonal compositions:

A) sound as harmonious as traditional

compositions.B) have structures that may not be readily apparent

to listeners.

C) are based on the seven-tone scale.

D) assign functional precedence to certain notes.

106. It can most reasonably be inferred from the

last paragraph that:

A) the ordering principles of atonal compositions

are determined by composers, not by any

fundamental relationship between notes.B) there is no logic to the way that notes in atonal

compositions are ordered.

C) the working methods of twelve-tone composers

are usually consistent from one composition tothe next.

D) atonal compositions contain strict guidelines

about the duration and intensity of each note.


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Passage V

Both employers and workers are challenged by

technological innovations, international trade,deregulation, and changes in the nature and

structure of work. Their responses to these

challenges indicate their choice of three roads to the

new economy. The low road follows the historic

path of mass production, emphasizing downsizing,outsourcing, and low-skill employees as ways to cut

labor costs. Eventually, this approach, if the norm,must limit a nation's economic competitiveness,

living standard, and income equity.

The high road acknowledges the growing value of

investment in highly skilled employees who can

react quickly to changing technologies and markets.

It presupposes shared power and long-term goals.Only dominant firms can afford to commit

resources to training and keeping employees by providing full benefits with high wages. Such firmstend to be protected from domestic or international

competitors by technological advantages, large-

scale production, or government regulations.Currently, high-road firms account for perhaps 20

percent of employees in the United States.

About 40 percent of U.S. workers receive no formal

training beyond a high-school education. They mustsubmit to the contingencies of low-road

employment, remaining at the periphery of the neweconomy. The remaining 40 percent of the

workforce slog along the muddy middle road,getting some advanced education or job-related

training but unlikely to enter the dynamic high-road

labor market and attract employers who would trainthem thoroughly to join their core workers.

The high road is not an easy course for employers totake. Today's global customers and suppliers are

linked by a web of standards that affect not only

prices but extend to the quality and variety of products, company organization, customer service

and its timeliness, and constant innovations.

Employers who meet these complex requirements

use computer-based methods, which raise the levelof skill needed by nonsupervisory personnel. For

example, instead of checking the quality of the final

product, high-road firms integrate quality standardsin their automated production process, encouraging

workers at all stages of their operation to

demonstrate expertise and responsibility.

High-performance work systems are most

successful when training and work reforms are

bundled. Similarly, workers find that their general

education, occupational preparation, and access totraining on the job are complementary in their effect

on earnings. Workers who receive formal companytraining command higher wages than do similar

workers who attend only vocational school or

receive informal on-the-job instruction. Workerswho use computers on the job also earn more than

do those of the same education level who do not use

computers at work. Moreover, the earning

difference increases with the level of technologicalcompetence.

For the United States to compete in an eventualglobal economy based on skilled workers and

quality products, additional employer investment in

training is needed now. Policies at all levels shouldencourage the coordination of employer-provided

training and broader schooling. Such policies willrealize the highest returns in terms of personal

income, adaptation to an increasingly volatile labor

market, and efficiency in the transmission ofchanging skill requirements from workplaces to

schools. Although for a particular job, employer- based training or vocational preparation can

substitute for generalized schooling, specifictraining degrades rapidly, and narrow skills seldom

transfer well to new job requirements.

But although high-wage, high-skill jobs create a

demand for education and training, training does not

create high-wage jobs. Ultimately, a strategy ofinvestment in human capital succeeds or flounders

according to the availability of high-wage, high-

skill jobs. If investment in workers outpaces thenumber of good jobs, many very competent workers

will face an employment market of many very

undemanding jobs.



F. Fitzgerald, Cities on a Hill. ©1986 by F. Fitzgerald.


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107. The author is apparently concerned thatadherence to a policy referred to as "the low

road" will reduce the competitiveness of:

A ) firms involved in international trade.

B ) the United States in particular.

C ) technology-based economies.

D ) the less-developed nations.

108. A recently founded small firm that follows the

high road described in the passage is

considering selling stock shares to the public.

The author would probably advise against thisstep because:

A ) investors have no reason to care about the

quality of the firm's products.B ) investors are likely to doubt the wisdom of the

firm's personnel policies.

C ) the firm is unlikely to produce the quick profitsthat investors want.

D ) the firm is unlikely to attain a competitive status

in the market.

109. Which of the following findings is most

clearly contrary to the reported influence of

the use of computers in the workplace?

A ) Office workers can follow computer-generated

schedules with less training than they need to

devise their own schedules.B ) Executives who correspond with customers by

letter generate more business than those whorely on E-mail alone.

C ) Workers using nonautomated production

processes are more efficient than workers onautomated assembly lines.

D ) Mechanics who use computerized diagnostic

methods earn less than mechanics who use

traditional methods.

110. The author can best be viewed as an advocateof:

A) the repeal of regulations that protect dominantfirms.

B) an increase in spending on the training of

employees.

C) an emphasis on high school vocational

education.D) the use of computers in industrial production.

111. Which of the following situations is most

likely to constitute a muddy road , as theauthor uses the term?

A) Being trained in a skill that qualifies one for

only a particular jobB) Switching to unfamiliar procedures because of

technological changes

C) Returning to college to upgrade one's professional qualifications

D) Being chronically unemployed because of an

inadequate education

112. An employer reasons: "If I train my workers,

competitors who save money by not providing

training will be able to attract my trainedworkers with higher salaries than I can pay."

What possible solution for this employer

would most accord with the author's high

road?

A) Support regulatory policies that penalize firmsfor failing to train workers.

B) Train workers who agree to repay the tuition if

they leave within a set time.C) Concentrate on recruiting workers who have

been trained by other firms.

D) Cut costs elsewhere to match the higher wages

paid by competitors.


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113. Which of the following practices is most aptto promote the outcome attributed to increased

worker involvement in the production

process?

A ) The workers' use of a computer bulletin board to

share tips on quality control

B ) Close monitoring of the productivity of workers

by their immediate supervisorsC ) The democratic participation of workers in the

hiring of potential co-workers

D ) A profit-sharing program that rewards workers

for company successes

114. Former low-level employees who secure

managerial positions in their company get

more sophisticated equipment and more work-related training than they had before. What

relationship to information provided in the

passage does this fact most plausibly suggest?

A ) It supports the conclusion that occupational

preparation and access to training are

complementary.B ) It opposes the assertion that power is shared in

firms committed to the training of employees.

C ) It exemplifies the inequities that exist in firmsthat are unable to follow the high road.

D ) It helps to explain the increasing disparity in

earnings between management and workers.

115. The author asserts that to compete later,

employers should invest in training now and

also that training does not create high-wageobs. Together, these assertions imply that:

A) investment in training keeps costs low by

providing a large pool of skilled workers.

B) in highly paid work, on-the-job trainingcompensates for educational deficiencies.

C) training is not effective unless it is supplemented

by a comprehensive education.

D) some highly trained workers may not benefitfinancially from their training.

116. The author sets the proportion of the U.S.

work force in the high-, middle-, and low-roadsectors at 20, 40, and 40 percent, respectively.

Another authority states that more than 50

percent of U.S. firms use the low-roadstrategy. What is the most reasonable

conclusion from these figures?

A) Low-road firms are especially likely to fail.B) Low-road firms are especially likely to hire

workers.

C) Businesses with few workers are especiallylikely to be low-road firms.

D) Businesses with branches outside the U.S. are

unlikely to be low-road firms.


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Passage VI

The residents of Sun City, Leisure World, and

retirement communities across the United States

live on a frontier ⎯ not a geographical but achronological frontier. Old age is hardly new, but

for an entire generation to reach old age with itsmembership almost intact is new. Until relatively

recently, death had no more relation to old age thanto any other period of life ⎯ in fact, it had less.

A quarter of the people born in seventeenth-centuryFrance died during their first year, another quarter

died before the age of twenty, and a third quarter

died by age forty-five; only 10 percent reachedsixty. From the seventeenth century to the

nineteenth, the percentage of the French population

over sixty remained constant at 8.8 percent.

In the last hundred years, the demographics ofmortality have changed more than in the six

previous centuries. In 1900, the average lifeexpectancy for U.S. children was 47.3 years. In

1980, it was 73.6 years. This startling increase was

due mainly to success in reducing infant, childhood,

and maternal mortality. In addition ⎯ also because

of medical advances ⎯ longevity increased. In1900, white males of sixty could expect 14.4 more

years of life. In 1978, they could expect to live 17.2more years. As a result of these and other changes,

the number of Americans over sixty-five increased both absolutely and relative to the entire

population. In 1900, 4 percent of the populationwas over sixty-five. In 1980, 25.5 millionAmericans, or 11.3 percent, were in this age group.

Before World War II, there were no age-segregated

communities and there was no such concept as“retirement living.” In the early 60s, when credit

and housing materials were relatively cheap,

developers began to construct complete towns for

the retired. Lured by glossy advertisementsdepicting a life of warm friendships and endless

pleasures, many retirees welcomed these complexesas a new adventure. In the mid-70s, while housing

costs doubled and trebled, the developers grew leery

of such grand schemes, but by that time there were,according to one estimate, sixty-nine retirement

villages, many with over ten thousand inhabitants.

Mobile-home parks for the elderly also proliferatedduring this period along with other forms of age-

dedicated housing, from retirement hotels to luxury

condominiums. The most original of these

innovations was the “life-care facility,” which

offered small private living quarters, maid service,nursing care, and meals, as well as nursing-home

care when necessary.

Gerontologists struggling to create a taxonomy for

these new forms of housing estimate that 5 percentof Americans over sixty-five now live in explicitly

age-segregated facilities and another unknown but

significant percentage live in neighborhoods that are

more or less age segregated. These locales are not just places in which the elderly happen to find each

other, as they do in certain rural enclaves and inner-city neighborhoods after everyone else has left.

They are not only deliberate creations ⎯ places to

which retired persons have moved by choice ⎯ butmost of them have now evolved from mere

developers’ tracts into communities with traditionsof their own.

The construction of retirement villages initiated agreat debate among gerontologists. In the 60s,

opinion was generally against this innovation. City

planners and journalists joined the professionals inattacking communities for retirees as ghettos for

marginalized, alienated people or as playgroundsthat trivialized the aged. But after visiting the

residents of these villages with scientific sampling

methods and attitudinal charts, many gerontologists

concluded that the elderly found in their segregatedlives the advantages overtly and subliminally

advertised in the real-estate brochures.


the following source:R. Barthes, The death of the author, ©1972 by Basic Books.


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117. A resident of seventeenth-century France whodied at age forty began having children at age

twenty. What percentage of the children

would be expected to die before this parent?

A ) 10 percent

B ) 25 percent

C ) 50 percent

D ) 75 percent

118. The assertion that death had less relation to

old age than to other periods of life most

clearly suggests that:

A ) the increase in life expectancy has more to do

with health in early life than in late life.

B ) people in pre-industrial cultures felt lessattachment to their infants than people do now.

C ) people today are more concerned with long-term

planning than were earlier generations.D ) the elderly are less respected than in the past

because longevity is commonplace.

119. New arrivals at one retirement communitywere told by its director: “You are like

pilgrims crossing the ocean to take up a new

life.” This simile implicitly supports theauthor’s assumption that those moving to

retirement communities feel:

A ) ambivalence about the wisdom of breaking withthe past.

B ) satisfaction at becoming independent of theirfamilies.

C ) relief at leaving situations that had become

difficult.D ) optimism about being among those with similar

goals.

120. What is the author’s probable reason for prefacing the discussion of a twentieth-century

U.S. phenomenon with information about the

demographics of seventeenth-century France?

A) To clarify the relationship between life

expectancy and the decision to change

residences in old age

B) To counter the prevalent belief that demographicchanges have been unique to the U.S. culture

C) To support the argument that the current rate of

survival into old age is unprecedented

D) To show the historical antecedents of theongoing trend toward increased longevity

121. According to the passage, an American born

in 1980 could expect to live 26.3 years longerthan one born in 1900. Yet a white male of

sixty could expect to live only 2.8 years longer

in 1978 than in 1900. The difference in theseexpectancies can be explained as:

A) the cumulative effect of the growing number of

elderly.B) evidence that geriatric care has improved since

1978.

C) a result of the longer lifespan of women than ofmen.

D) the difference between longevity and life

expectancy.


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Passage VII

No matt

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