2A2B2F2G3A 3E4A4B4C5A 5B5C5D6A6B 6C6E6F6G6H 7G9A9B9C9D 10C

2A 2B 2F 2G 3A

3E 4A 4B 4C 5A

5B 5C 5D 6A 6B

6C 6E 6F 6G 6H

7G 9A 9B 9C 9D

10C

2A

• Know the definition of science and understand that is has limitations

1 Question for 2A

2A Question 1 of 1

The controlled experiment shown in the diagrams below is testing the effect of vitamin D on the growth of E. coli bacteria.

Choose which of the following is a limitation of this experimental set-up? 2AA. The test tubes are of the same shapeB. The test tubes are not the same size C. The test tubes do not contain the same nutrient solution

2B

• Know that hypotheses are tentative and testable statements that must be capable of being supported or not supported by observational evidence. Hypotheses of durable explanatory power which have been tested over a wide variety of conditions are incorporated into theories

3 Questions for 2B

2B Question 1 of 3

The diagram below shows two germinating corn seeds (seeds that are beginning to grow). These corn seedlings have been placed in identical bottles and kept in the dark. Bottle A will be rotated (turned) 90 degrees each day for the next 6 days. Bottle B will not be rotated (turned). 2B

Which hypothesis is most likely being tested in this experiment?A. The amount of light received affects chlorophyll production.B. Gravity affects plant growth.C. Enzymes promote seed development.

2B Question 2 of 3

Select the hypothesis that a student can MOST likely evaluate in a classroom laboratory?2B

A. Some kinds of bacteria are more helpful than others in human digestion.B. If a plant is given fertilizer X, it will grow faster than an unfertilized plant.C. An organism’s rate of mutation is directly proportional to its adaptability.

2B Question 3 of 3

Raymond conducted an experiment on foods and fungus. He wrote his procedure in his Science Notebook as follows.

Raymond designed his procedure to test a specific hypothesis. Which hypothesis was he testing?2BA. If food is stored in the dark, then fungi are less likely to grow on it.B. If food becomes moist, then fungi are more likely to grow on it.C. If fungi do not have air, then they cannot survive.

2F

• Plan and implement descriptive, comparative, and experimental investigations, including asking questions, formulating testable hypotheses, and selecting equipment and technology.

5 Questions for 2F

2F Question 1 of 5

Which piece of equipment would be used to measure volume of a liquid with the most precision? 2F

A. B. C.

2F Question 2 of 5

Choose which piece of laboratory equipment a student should use to remove the legs of a preserved grasshopper for further study. 2F

A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4

2F Question 3 of 5

Find the approximate length of the earthworm shown in the diagram below. 2F

A. 9 cm B. 10.6 cmC. 90 cm

2F Question 4 of 5

The diagram below shows the reading on a triple beam balance after measuring the mass of an object. Read the scale to correctly determine the mass (in grams). 2F

A. 232.4 gB. 234.0 gC. 322.3 g

2F Question 5 of 5

Students in a biology class recorded the number of stomata on the top and bottom sides of different plant leaves. The table below shows some of the data collected by one team of students.

The students plan to graph their data. Which of the following would be most appropriate to show the results of their experiment? 2FA. Pie graphB. Double bar graphC. Line Graph

Average Number of Stomata per square mm

Plant Top of Leaf Bottom of leaf

Bean 41 361

Pumpkin 28 277

Tomato 11 120

Zucchini 22 199

2G

• 3 Questions

Analyze, evaluate, make inferences, and predict trends from data

2G Question 1 of 3

This graph shows the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable.

What does an increase in the independent variable cause in the dependent variable?2G

A. A decreaseB. An increaseC. No change

2G Question 2 of 3

In this test we will test two different types of glucose polymers: cellulose and starch. When iodine is added to a substance that contains starch, it changes from its yellow-brown color to a dark blue or even black. Simple sugars will give a positive test result when Benedict's is added. A positive test result for Benedict's solution would be the presence of a bright orange-red color. A positive Benedict’s test can also be green, yellow or red. Proteins are connected by bonds and when these bonds are broken by the addition of a strong base (such as NaOH), they are free to react with copper ions and produce a bright purple color. A blue color is NOT a positive Biuret test. There are several tests we can do to test for the presence of lipids. One is to see if a substance containing lipids will leave a translucent (clear) spot.

Unknown A contains- 2G A. Starch B. Simple SugarC. Lipids

Unknown Iodine Test for Starch

Benedict’s Test for Simple

Sugar

Paper Towel Translucent Spot

Test for Lipids

Biuret Test for Proteins

A Blue-Black

Blue Nothing Blue

B Yellow Orange Nothing Blue C Yellow Orange Translucent/Clear Purple

Using the information from previous question, which unknown tested positive for proteins from the data table above? 2GA. Unknown A B. Unknown B C. Unknown C

2G Question 3 of 3

Unknown Iodine Test for Starch

Benedict’s Test for Simple

Sugar

Paper Towel Translucent Spot

Test for Lipids

Biuret Test for Proteins

A Blue-Black

Blue Nothing Blue

B Yellow Orange Nothing Blue C Yellow Orange Translucent/Clear Purple

3A

• 1 Question

In all fields of science, analyze, evaluate, and critique scientific explanations by using empirical evidence, logical reasoning, and experimental and observational testing, including examining all sides of scientific evidence of those scientific explanations, so as to encourage critical thinking by the student;

3A 1 of 1

A graph of the population growth of two different species is shown below.

Which conclusion can be drawn from information in the graph? 3A1.Oxygen concentration affects population sizes of different species in the same manner.2.Species A requires a high oxygen concentration for maximum population growth.3.Species B requires a high oxygen concentration to stimulate population growth.4.Low oxygen concentration does not limit the population size of either species observed.

3E

Evaluate models according to their limitations in representing biological objects or events

3 Questions

3E 1 of 3

The DNA model to the right would be used for? 3EA. Explaining how DNA is replicatedB. Showing where DNA is located in the cell.C. Identifying the components and shape of DNAD. Comparing DNA and RNA

3E 2 of 3

The diagram below shows a cross section of a leaf.

Which of the following is not a limitation of the leaf model above? 3EA. Identifying the chloroplastB. Showing where photosynthesis takes place.C. Demonstrating the opening and closing of stomataD. Identifying the location of guard cells

3E 3 of 3

The cell model above is beneficial for showing? 3EA. The organelles found in plant cells.B. The organelles found in animal cells.C. How each organelle functions?D. The cell membrane contains genetic information of the cell.

4A

• 21 Questions

Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

4A 1 of 21

Plant and animal cells share many of the same organelles because they are both considered to be eukaryotic cells. Distinguish the difference between a plant cell and an animal cell by recalling that animal cells do not have _____. 4AA. a nucleus B. a cell membraneC. chloroplasts D. centrioles

4A 2 of 21

Complete concept map shown above. 4AA. An animal cellB. A plant cellC. A prokaryote cell D. A virus

4A 3 of 21

The diagram below represents a unicellular green alga known as chlamydomonas. Structure X helps chlamydomonas move through the pond in which it lives. 4A

Structure X represents-A. cilia. B. a tentacle C. an antenna. D. a flagellum.

4A 4 of 21

Which diagram represents an organelle that is connected to the nucleus and is able to synthesize proteins and lipids, and aids in transportation of these proteins and lipids? 4A

C.

D.

4A 5 of 21

Which of the following cell parts may be found in all prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? 4AA. cell wallB. plasma membraneC. nucleusD. chloroplasts

4A 6 of 21

Bacterial cells are prokaryotic. Animal, plant, fungal, and protista cells are eukaryotic. Select the main difference between these two types of cells. 4AA. Eukaryotic cells are round.B. Eukaryotic cells have a plasma membrane.C. Eukaryotic cells are able to multiply.D. Eukaryotic cells have a true nucleus

4A 7 of 21

Predict what would occur in the cell if this stack of flattened sacs was not present? 4A A. The cell would produce too much DNAB. The cell would be unable to carry out protein modification & packagingC. The cell would lose too much waterD. The cell would hold too much water

4A 8 of 21

The cell membrane only allows certain molecules in and out of the cell. It is said to be- 4B/4AA. ImpermeableB. UnpermeableC. Selectively permeableD. Exclusively permeable

4A 9 of 21

Cellular respiration is the process of turning sugar and oxygen into carbon dioxide, water, and energy in the form of heat. The structure that carries out this process is represented by-- 4A

A. B. C. D

4A 10 of 21

What type of cell is illustrated above? 4A A. Plant cellB. Bacterium cellC. ProkaryoteD. Animal cell

4A 11 of 21

Predict which of the following would occur if Organelle A was malfunctioning? 4AA. Decrease in the amount of waste producedB. Decrease in the amount of energy producedC. Increase in the amount of glucose producedD. Increase in the amount of proteins produced

4A 12 of 21

Which pair of structures best shows that plant cells have functions different from animal cells? 4AA. Chloroplasts and cell wallsB. Nuclei and centriolesC. Ribosomes and cell membranesD. Cytoplasm and mitochondria

4A 13 of 21

If an athlete could undergo genetic enhancement to increase energy for athletic competitions by doubling a specific cell organelle, which organelle would be the BEST one to increase? 4AA. Golgi apparatusB. mitochondriaC. nucleusD. ribosome

4A 14 of 21

Which of the following characteristics is not true of prokaryotes like streptococcus pneumoniae? 4AA. contain ribosomesB. contain DNAC. have cytoplasmD. have a nucleus

4A 15 of 21

The image below is a picture of an onion root tip. The onion root tip is more rigid in structure compared to an animal cell. Which cellular structure in plant cells is most responsible for this characteristic? 4A

A. Cell membraneB. Vacuole C. ChloroplastD. Cell Wall

4A 16 of 21

The cell theory states:

All living things are composed of one or more cells.Cells are the basic units of structure and function in an organism.Cells come only from the reproduction of existing cells.

Which of the following observations best supports the cell theory? 4A

A. Cells come in a variety of shapes and sizes.B. Cells have different names for different structures.C. Cells can live a very short time.D. Cells from animals only create other animal cells.

4A 17 of 21

Which of the following characteristics is not true of prokaryotes like streptococcus pneumoniae? 4A A. contain ribosomesB. contain DNAC. have cytoplasmD. have a nucleus

4A 18 of 21

Muscles cells have more mitochondria than other cells in the human body. The MAIN purpose of the extra mitochondria in the muscle tissue is so the muscle- 5B/4A

A. can carry out extra activities that require more energy.B. can carry out waste not absorbed in the body.C. can carry responses quickly back to other cells.D. can carry water to other cells more efficiently.

4A 19 of 21

The image below is a picture of an onion root tip. The onion root tip is more rigid in structure compared to an animal cell. Which cellular structure in plant cells is most responsible for this characteristic? 5B/4A

A. Cell membrane

B. VacuoleC.

ChloroplastD. Cell Wall

4A 20 of 21

The cell membrane only allows certain molecules in and out of the cell. It is said to be- 4B/4AA. ImpermeableB. UnpermeableC. Selectively permeableD. Exclusively permeable

4A 21 of 21

Loriciferans are microscopic multicellular animals that live in various marine sediments. Scientists have discovered genera of Loriciferans. Before this discovery, some prokaryotes and some unicellular eukaryotes were known to inhabit areas where oxygen levels were very low. Among the newly discovered Loriciferans is Spinoloricus sp. nov., which is pictured below.

Scientists determined that organisms of the genus Spinoloricus were eukaryotes and not prokaryotes because Spinoloricus cells have — 4AA. flagella B. hereditary material C. cell walls D . nuclear membranes

4B

• 17 Questions

Investigate and explain cellular processes, including homeostasis, energy conversions, transport of molecules, and synthesis of new molecules.

4B 1 of 17

Based on the illustration, which direction will the water move, and what will happen to the cell? 4BWater moves out of cell, cell will shrinkWater moves into cell, cell will swellWater moves out of cell, cell will swellWater moves in and out at equal rates, cell stays the same

4B 2 of 17

The cell membrane only allows certain molecules in and out of the cell. It is said to be- 4B/4A

A. ImpermeableB. UnpermeableC. Selectively permeableD. Exclusively permeable

4B 3 of 17

Changes in water pressure within guard cells cause the cells to open or close the stoma. This response helps the plant maintain homeostasis by —

A stabilizing the plant’s temperature through the evaporation of waterB regulating the amount of water the plant loses during transpirationC allowing oxygen needed for photosynthesis to enter the plantD enabling the plant to release more carbon dioxide at night for photosynthesis

4B 4 of 17

Diffusion is the movement of a substance- 4BA. only through a lipid bilayer membraneB. from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentrationC. only in liquidsD. from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

4B 5 of 17

Which of the following does not require energy? 4BA. diffusionB. endocytosisC. active transportD. sodium-potassium pump

4B 6 of 17

The movement of water across the semipermeable membrane is known as- 4BA. exocytosisB. endocytosisC. osmosisD. phagocytosis

4B 7 of 17

A cell will swell when it is placed in a(n)- 4BA. hypotonic solutionB. hypertonic solutionC. isotonic solutionD. none of the above

4B 8 of 17

The structures labeled ‘A’ are components of the membrane that are best described as- 4B

A. sugars floating in lipidsB. proteins floating in lipidsC. lipids floating in proteinsD. lipids floating in sugars

4B 9 of 17

The outside solution is- 4BA. hypertonicB. hypotonicC. isotonicD. none of the above

4B 10 of 17

In this example, osmosis will result in the movement of- 4BA. water molecules will move into the cellB. water molecules will move out of the cellC. solute molecules will move into the cellD. solute molecules will move out of the cell

4B 11 of 17

What would happen to the body cells of a person who receives an injection of pure water solution? 4B

A. The affected cells would shrink a large amount.B. The affected cells would shrink slightly.C. The affected cells would swell slightly.D. The affected cells would remain unchanged.

4B 12 of 17

What process is being shown at label 3 in the diagram above if the substance is taken into the cell because it is too large to pass through the cell membrane? 4B

A. ExocytosisB. Protein PumpC. EndocytosisD. Diffusion

4B 13 of 17

A few drops of Lugol's iodine solution placed in a beaker of water will turn the water red. A white starch solution was poured into a length of dialysis tubing and the ends were tied. The tubing was then dropped into the beaker of iodine solution. After 10 minutes, the white starch solution turned black and the iodine water remained red. What cellular structure was the dialysis tubing most likely representing in this experiment? 4BA. cell wallB. cell membraneC. VacuoleD. nucleus

4B 14 of 17

Diffusion and osmosis are both vital to cell function. Diffusion and osmosis are similar in that they are both types of – 4B

A. protein synthesis processesB. passive transport processesC. cellular replication processesD. cellular metabolism processes

4B 15 of 17

Which cellular process takes place in the ribosomes that are bound to the endoplasmic reticulum? 4B

A. The breakdown of waste materialB. The conversion of radiant energy to glucoseC. The synthesis of new proteinsD. The replication of nucleic acids

4B 16 of 17

A. water moves out of cell, cell will shrinkB. water moves into cell, cell will swellC. water moves out of cell, cell will swellD. water moves in and out at equal rates, cell stays the same

Based on the illustration below, which direction will water move, and what will happen to the cell? 4B

4B 17 of 17

The cell membrane only allows certain molecules in and out of the cell. It is said to be- 4B/4A

A. ImpermeableB. UnpermeableC. Selectively permeableD. Exclusively permeable

4C

• 11 Questions

Compare the structures of viruses to cells, describe viral reproduction, and describe the role of viruses in causing diseases such as human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and influenza.

• Virus vs Bacteria

• Common Diseases Caused by Bacteria and Viruses

• Virus Structure

4C 1 of 11

Herpes Zoster more commonly known as shingles is a virus that can lay dormant inside the cells of infected humans for years, even decades. What category of virus does the shingles virus belong to? 4C

A. Lytic virusB. Lysogenic virusC. RetrovirusD. Reverse virus

4C 2 of 11

Determine which of the following illnesses is caused by a virus. 4CA. Bacterial ConjunctivitisB. Common cold/Influenza C. Streptococcus infectionD. Yeast infection

4C 3 of 11

Viruses and cells are different in many ways. Select how viruses and cells are most similar. 4CA. Stages of life cycleB. Composition of outer coveringC. Composition of genetic materialD. Stage of reproduction

4C 4 of 11

The primary function of the structure labeled 1 in the Diagram A— 4C A. Assembling the parts of the virusB. Injecting viral DNA into a cellC. Anchoring the virus to a cellD. Storing and protecting viral DNA

4C 5 of 11

Which labeled viral structure in the Diagram B stores viral DNA, similar to the way the nucleus stores cellular DNA? 4C4321

4C 6 of 11

After a virus enters a host cell, one of two patterns of infection may occur. Choose the pattern of viral replication that does NOT kill the host immediately. 4CA. Krebs cycle B. Calvin cycle C. lytic cycleD. lysogenic cycle

4C 7 of 11

The diagram validates which cycle? 4CA. Krebs cycle B. Calvin cycle C. lytic cycleD. lysogenic cycle

4C 8 of 11

Jordan knows that for something to be considered living, certain criteria must be met. She realizes that a virus is considered nonliving because it performs only one of the following essential functions. Which function does a virus perform? 4CA. respiresB. grows and developsC. converts organic compounds into usable energyD. reproduces

4C 9 of 11

Scientists are designing new medicines to fight infectious diseases caused by viruses. One of the most effective ways these medicines could limit the spread of the virus within the body would be to 4CA. prevent viruses from dividingB. burst cells infected with virusesC. stop viruses from attaching to cellsD. make it easier for viruses to leave cells

4C 10 of 11

Herpes Zoster more commonly known as shingles is a virus that can lay dormant inside the cells of infected humans for years, even decades. What category of virus does the shingles virus belong to? 4C

A. Lytic virusB. Lysogenic virusC. RetrovirusD. Reverse virus

4C 11 of 11

The primary function of the structure labeled 1 in the diagram is— 4C A. Assembling the parts of the virusB. Injecting viral DNA into a cellC. Anchoring the virus to a cellD. Storing and protecting viral DNA

5A

• 19 Questions

Describe the stages of the cell cycle, including deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) replication and mitosis, and the importance of the cell cycle to the growth of organisms

5A 1 of 19

In Humans there 23 homologous pairs of chromosomes giving us a total of 46 chromosomes in our somatic cells. How many chromosomes remain in each daughter cell after the division of mitosis? 5Aa. 23b. 46c. 92d. 108

5A 2 of 19

Refer to the diagram. Which of the following correctly arranges the stages in the order in which they occur? 5A

A. A, B, C, DB. C, B, A, DC. B, A, D, CD. D, C, A, B

5A 3 of 19

What is the name of the process shown in picture B? 5AA. metaphase B. mitosisC. anaphase D. synthesis

5A 4 of 19

What is the purpose of mitosis? 5AA. Guarantees that each daughter cell has half the amount of DNA of parent cells.B. It ensures that the new daughter cells have the correct amount of DNA.C. It ensures the reproduction of mitochondria and chloroplasts.D. It prevents the occurrence of cancer cells.

5A 5 of 19

Where does DNA replication occur? 5AA. G1B. SC. G2D. M

5A 6 of 19

Colchicine is a chemical that when applied to a cell during mitosis can be used to “freeze” cells in metaphase by preventing the chromosomes from moving away from the metaphase plate. What part of the cell does colchicine most likely affect? a. chromosome structure

b. spindle fibers c. nuclear membrane

d. cell membrane

5A 7 of 19

Which stage of mitosis is depicted in the diagram to the right? 5A A. Anaphase B. Metaphase C. Telophase D. Prophase

5A 8 of 19

Which of the following is the longest stage of cell cycle? 5AA. InterphaseB. Telophase C. Metaphase D. Anaphase

5A 9 of 19

Which of the following cells is undergoing cytokinesis? 5A

5A 10 of 19

What is a centromere? 5Aa. place where sister chromatids are joined to each otherb. replicated DNAc. center of the nucleusd. where nuclear envelops are joined

5A 11 of 19

What allows a multicellular organism to grow? a. cells undergo mitosis b. cells stay in G1 phase of interphase c. cell volume increases at an exponential rated. multicellular organisms do not grow

5A 12 of 19

A = Interphase B = Prophase C = Metaphase D = Anaphase E = Telophase

Which phase do the sister chromatids seperate at the centromere and the spindle fibers shorten?

5A 13 of 19


When do the sister chromatids line up at the equator of the cell?

5A 14 of 19


When does the new nuclear membranes form inside the daughter cells?

5A 15 of 19


Which phase does the nuclear membrane disappear and chromosomes are become visible?

5A 16 of 19


In which phase does the DNA duplicate and centrioles created to prepare for mitosis?

5A 17 of 19

A kangaroo’s somatic cells have 16 chromosomes. The kangaroo’s somatic cell undergoes mitosis, how many chromosomes will be present in each of the daughter cells?

A. 1B. 8C. 16D. 32

5A 18 of 19

During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear membrane disappear and the cells chromosomes become visible? A. InterphaseB. S phaseC. ProphaseD. Metaphase

5A 19 of 19

If a cat has 38 chromosomes in each of its somatic (body) cells, how many chromosomes will be in each daughter cell after mitosis? 5AA. 11B. 19C. 38D. 76

5B

• 10 Questions

Examine specialized cells, including roots, stems, and leaves of plants; and animal cells such as blood, muscle, and epithelium.

5B 1 of 10

The cells of skeletal muscle are long and cylindrical. Red blood cells are small and round. Which statement best explains why the two types of cells have different structures? 5BA. The blood cells erode as they move through the body.B. The muscles are stretched each time they contract.C. The blood cells and muscle cells are both shaped to suit their function.D. The blood cells and muscle cells are made in different parts of the body.

5B 2 of 10

Leaves are part of a plant’s shoot system. The xylem tissue in leaves transports —A the bacteria needed for nitrogen fixation in root nodulesB the wax required to coat the surface of actively growing tissueC the water and minerals that are absorbed by the rootsD the oxygen that regulates the rate of carbohydrate production

5B 3 of 10

Which group correctly identifies the type of cells and organelles that carry out photosynthesis? A. Animal cell and mitochondriaB. Plant cell and chloroplastC. Plant cell and vacuoleD. Bacterial cell and Ribosome

5B 4 of 10

Parenchyma are cells that form a tissue in the middle of leaves. These leaf cells of the plant contain a special type of photosynthetic organelle called 5B

A. xylemB. phloemC. chloroplastD. stomata

5B 5 of 10

Which of the following is the function of the guard cells on the lower surface of the leaf? 5BA. Synthesizing proteinsB. Transporting water and mineralsC. Opening and closing stomataD. Allowing light to enter the leaf

5B 6 of 10

Vascular plants transport nutrients through specialized structures called xylem and phloem. What is the purpose of the xylem? 5B

A. They take nutrients from the soil.B. They move water from the root through the plant.C. They capture the sun’s energy to make sugar.D. They move sugars and other nutrients from the leaves to the roots.

5B 7 of 10

If an athlete could undergo genetic enhancement to increase energy for athletic competitions by doubling a specific cell organelle, which organelle would be the BEST one to increase? 5B

A. Golgi apparatusB. mitochondriaC. nucleusD. ribosome

5B 8 of 10

The image below is a picture of an onion root tip. The onion root tip is more rigid in structure compared to an animal cell. Which cellular structure in plant cells is most responsible for this characteristic? 5B/4A

A. Cell membrane

B. VacuoleC.

ChloroplastD. Cell Wall

5B 9 of 10

Muscles cells have more mitochondria than other cells in the human body. The MAIN purpose of the extra mitochondria in the muscle tissue is so the muscle- 5B/4A A. can carry out extra activities that require more energy.B. can carry out waste not absorbed in the body.C. can carry responses quickly back to other cells.D. can carry water to other cells more efficiently.

5B 10 of 10

The cells of skeletal muscle are long and cylindrical. Red blood cells are small and round. Which statement best explains why the two types of cells have different structures? 5BA. The blood cells erode as they move through the body.B. The muscles are stretched each time they contract.C. The blood cells and muscle cells are both shaped to suit their function.D. The blood cells and muscle cells are made in different parts of the body.

5C

• 3 Questions

Describe the roles of DNA, RNA, and environmental factors in cell differentiation.

5C 1 of 3

The information in the box identifies some of the organs of the kitten. Which of the following is identical for every cell in each of the four organs? 5CA. Amount of ATPB. Function of cellC. Size of cellsD. Genes in DNA

5C 2 of 3

Which of the following is correctly matched with its function? (5C)

A. rRNA - contains codes to make new ribosomes B. DNA - carries the amino acids to the ribosomes C. tRNA - combines with proteins to make up ribosomes D. mRNA - carries genetic codes from nucleus to the ribosomes

5C 3 of 3

Which of these are the units that form a DNA molecule? (5C)

A. fatty acids B. nucleotides C. amino acids D. chromosomes

5D

• 1 Question

Recognize that disruptions of the cell cycle lead to diseases such as cancer.

5D 1 of 1

Cancer cells- 5DA. Divide uncontrollably and die quicklyB. Are particularly sensitive to extracellular messagesC. Divide uncontrollably and may cause masses of cellsD. All of these

6A

9 Questions

Identify components of DNA, and describe how information for specifying the traits of an organism is carried in the DNA.

6A 1 of 9

A nucleotide consists of – 6AA. between one and three phospholipids and protein B. glucose, fructose, and sucrose C. a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogenous base D. two molecules of ATP and one molecule of ADP

6A 2 of 9

DNA replication results in- 6AA. 2 completely new DNA moleculesB. 2 DNA molecules with 1 original strand and 1 new strand eachC. 1 new DNA molecule, 1 old molecule is conservedD. 1 new molecule of RNA

6A 3 of 9

What cellular process does the picture to the right represent? 6AA. ReplicationB. TranscriptionC. TranslationD. Mitosis

6A 4 of 9

Which of the following statements is true about the picture to the right? 6A

I. Structure X creates energyII. Contains 2 intertwined strands called a double helix.III. Structure X is a nucleotide.IV. The sugars that make up this molecule are ribose.

A. I, II, and IIIB. II and IIIC. I and IVD. None are correct

6A 5 of 9

DNA provides a very significant role in the formation and development of an organism. What is that role? 6AA. Provides genetic informationB. provides protection from diseaseC. produces food materialD. releases energy

6A 6 of 9

One strand in a molecule of DNA contains the sequence below. 6A

ATTGCGTA

Which sequence is the complementary strand?A. ATTGCGTAB. UAACGCAUC. TAACGCATD. GCCTATCG

6A 7 of 9

One strand in a molecule of DNA is represented by the sequence below. 6A AGTTACA

The letters in the sequence represent which of the following? A. a sugarB. a nitrogenous baseC. a proteinD. a phosphate group

6A 8 of 9

Which statement best describes the DNA molecules made from this process? 6AA. The new DNA molecules are identical to each other and to the original molecule.B. The new DNA molecules are identical to each other but not to the original molecule.C. The new DNA molecules are each identical to only one strand in the original molecule.D. The new DNA molecules are not identical to the original, providing variation in the DNA.

6A 9 of 9

In DNA, which of the following determines the traits of an organism? 6AA. Amount of adenineB. Number of sugarsC. Sequence of nitrogen basesD. Strength of hydrogen bonds

6B

• 1 Question

Recognize that components that make up the genetic code are common to all organisms

6B 1 of 1

A researcher recently discovered a species of bacteria. DNA sequences were obtained from it and from several other species of bacteria. The DNA sequences came from the same part of the bacterial chromosome of each species. (6B)

According to the data above, the unknown bacteria are most closely related to which species?

•Species I •Species II •Species III •Species IV

DNA Sequence

Unknown Species ACT GCA GCC

Species I ACA GCG CCG

Species II ACT GCT GGC

Species III ACA GCC GGG

Species IV ACT GCA GCG

6C

• 22 Questions

Explain the purpose and process of transcription and translation using models of DNA and RNA

6C 1 of 22

A cellular process uses a strand of genetic material to produce a new strand of genetic material. Parts of the strands are shown below. (6C) Original strand ATT CAGmRNA UAA GUC This new strand of genetic material will most likely be used for-

A. gene splicing B. DNA synthesis C. crossing-over D. protein synthesis

6C 2 of 22

Structure 2 in the diagram represents a- (6C)A. ribosome C. proteinB. mitochondrion D. chloroplast

6C 3 of 22

The process shown in the diagram occurs in the- (6C)A. nucleus C. vacuoleB. cytoplasm D. chromosome

6C 4 of 22

Structure 1 is produced in what part of the cell? (6C)A. vacuole C. mitochondriaB. cytoplasm D. nucleus

6C 5 of 22

The genetic information for making a protein must move from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. Which of these moves this information to the cytoplasm? (6C)

A. a ribosome B. DNA C. mRNA D. an amino acid

6C 6 of 22

Which of these represents the structure of messenger RNA? (6C)

C.

A.

D.

B.

6C 7 of 22

A strand of DNA has a nucleotide base sequence of TAC-CGG-AGT. Which of the following is the complementary mRNA nucleotide sequence produced from the strand of DNA? (6C)

A. UAC-CGG-AGU B. ACU-GAA-CGA C. AGU-UCC-UAC D. AUG-GCC-UCA

6C 8 of 22

A strand of messenger RNA is attached to a ribosome and is directing protein synthesis. The next exposed codon of this messenger RNA has the code GAA. What will the code in the anticodon be?

A. GAA C. CUU B. CTT D. GUU

6C 9 of 22

Which of these is used in both DNA replication and Protein Synthesis? (6C)

A. mRNA C. rRNAB. tRNA D. DNA

6C 10 of 22

Hemoglobin is an important protein in red blood cells. The DNA code for hemoglobin contains the following segment:

TGC-GGA-CTC-CTC Which of these is the messenger RNA code for this segment of DNA? (6C)

A. ACG-CCT-GAA-GAA B. ACG-CCU-GAG-GAG C. TCC-GGT-CTC-CTC D. UGC-GGA-CUC-CUC

6C 11 of 22

Place the events in the correct order from the image above. (6C)

A. A-C-B-DB. A-D-C-BC. D-B-C-AD. D-A-C-B

6C 12 of 22

Which of the following correctly describes the parts of an RNA nucleotide? (6C)A. Deoxyribose sugar, phosphate, nitrogen-containing base B. Protein core, nitrogen base, ribose sugarC. Ribose sugar, phosphate, nitrogen-containing base D. Nitrogen containing base, thymine, ribose sugar

6C 13 of 22

Which form of RNA does the picture represent? (6C)A. tRNA C. rRNAB. mRNA D. cRNA

6C 14 of 22

What is the DNA complement to the strand of RNA you see in the diagram? (6C)A. CGA UGC CUC GAA GCC UCG AUCB. CGA TGC CTC GAA GCC TCG ATCC. GCU ACG GAG CUU CGG AGC UAGD. GCT ACG GAT CTT CGG AGC TAG

6C 15 of 22

Look at the DNA sequence below. (6C)

GAA TTC GCA

What do the letters represent in the DNA sequence?

A. SugarsB. amino acids C. Phosphates D. nitrogen bases

6C 16 of 22

How many nucleotides are needed to code for one amino acid? (6C)

A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6

6C 17 of 22

If a molecule of mRNA code reads: AUG CGA UUU GCA

What amino acids will be coded for? (6C)A. Methionine – Arginine – Phenylalanine- AlanineB. None of these; this is not a code for amino acidsC. Methionine- Phenylalanine–Arginine – ThreonineD. Alanine- Glutamine- Phenylalanine – Threonine

6C 18 of 22

The amino acid arginine is coded for by this codon: (6C)A. CAGB. CGAC. CAUD. AGC

6C 19 of 22

Which step involves transfer RNA? (6C)

A. I C. IIIB. II D. IV

6C 20 of 22

According to the diagram, in which step is messenger RNA being constructed? (6C)

A. I B. II C. III D. IV

6C 21 of 22

Look at the DNA sequence below. (6C)

GAA TTC GCA

What do the letters represent in the DNA sequence?A. SugarsB. amino acids C. Phosphates D. nitrogen bases

6C 22 of 22

Place the events in the correct order from the image above. (6C)

A. A-C-B-DB. A-D-C-BC. D-B-C-AD. D-A-C-B

6E

• 12 Questions

Identify and illustrate changes in DNA and evaluate the significance of these changes.

6E 1 of 12

If a deletion mutation eliminated all of the guanine bases from the codon sequence of GAU-CGC-CAA-UAG, the altered sequence would be- (6E)A. AUC-CCA-AUA B. UAC-CAU-UACC. ATC-TCA-ATA D. CCC-AAA-UUU

6E 2 of 12

Compare the following codon sequences: (6E) GUG-UGA-CGC-UGU-CCA AndGUG-UGA-CCG-CUG-UCC-A Which mutation is being illustrated? a. deletion c. substitution b. insertion d. inversion

6E 3 of 12

A mutation causes the following change in DNA.

Original DNA sequence: TACGCATGGAATDNA sequence after mutation: TACGTATGGAAT

Which amino acid substitution will result from this point mutation? (6E)A. His is replaced by AlaB. Tyr is replaced by ThrC. Arg is replaced by HisD. Ala is replaced by Met

6E 4 of 12

A mutation in DNA replaces cytosine with thymine, as shown below. (6E)Original DNA sequence: TATGAACTGGAA Mutated DNA sequence: TATGAATTGGAA Compared to a protein produced by the original DNA sequence, a protein produced by the mutated sequence will differ in —a. all amino acids that come after the C b. the amino acids that come before the Cc. a single amino acid d. all of the amino acids

6E 5 of 12

A mutation in which only one nucleotide is changed in a gene is called a(n): (6E)A. insertionB. deletionC. point mutation (substitution)D. transposition

6E 6 of 12

Which of the following shows a mutation that does not change the shape or the chemical nature of the protein so that it still functions normally? (6E)A. UCC to GAC C. GAA to GAGB. GAG to UAG D. GAG to CAG

6E 7 of 12

Tay-Sachs diseases is a genetic disorder in which the body lacks an enzyme that breaks down certain fatty acids. The buildup of these fatty acids destroys nerve cells in the brain, until eventually the entire nervous system stops working. Researchers have discovered that a point mutation changing a guanine to a cystosine is one cause of Tay-Sachs. Which of the following statements explains how the nucleotide switch results in the disease? A Genetic information in DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is translated into the organism’s proteins B Genetic information in DNA undergoes semiconservative replication and is passed to daughter cells.C Crossing over of sections of chromosomes during meiosis results in genetic variation.D Multiple three-letter codons on the RNA strand code for the same amino acid.

6E 8 of 12

John and Sarah had a child born with the genetic disease cystic fibrosis. Cystic fibrosis is recessive autosomal disorder. Both John and Sarah were normal, showing no signs of this disorder. How is it possible for them to have a child with this disease? 6E

A. Cystic fibrosis must be a dominant trait disorder hidden in both parents genotype, but not showing in the phenotype that could be passed on to offspring.B. Cystic fibrosis must be a recessive trait disorder hidden in both parents’ genotype, but not showing in the phenotype that could be passed on to offspring.C. Cystic fibrosis must be a dominant trait disorder hidden in one parents’ genotype, but not showing in the phenotype, that could be passed on to offspring.D. Cystic fibrosis must be a recessive trait disorder hidden in one parents’ genotype, but not showing in the phenotype, that could be passed on to offspring.

6E 9 of 12

Rebecca went to a genetic counselor. When she had testing done she found that she was a carrier for the disease Tay Sachs. She was normal and showed no signs of the disorder but she could pass the trait on to her offspring. Which of the following would correctly represent Rebecca’s genotype? 6E

A. NNB. NnC. nnD. N

6E 10 of 12

Which of these processes is important in increasing genetic diversity in organisms? 6EA. MitosisB. MeiosisC. DNA replicationD. Binary Fission

6E 11 of 12

Colorblindness, a sex-linked disorder, occurs in both males and females, but is more common in males than in females because- 6Ea. father pass the allele for the colorblindness to their sons only.b. the allele for colorblindness is located on the Y chromosome.c. the allele for colorblindness is recessive and located on the X chromosome.d. males who are colorblind have two copies of the allele for colorblindness.

6E 12 of 12

Tay-Sachs diseases is a genetic disorder in which the body lacks an enzyme that breaks down certain fatty acids. The buildup of these fatty acids destroys nerve cells in the brain, until eventually the entire nervous system stops working. Researchers have discovered that a point mutation changing a guanine to a cytosine is one cause of Tay-Sachs. Which of the following statements explains how the nucleotide switch results in the disease? 6E

A. Genetic information in DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is translated into the organism’s proteins B. Genetic information in DNA undergoes semiconservative replication and is passed to daughter cells. C. Crossing over of sections of chromosomes during meiosis results in genetic variation.D. Multiple three-letter codons on the RNA strand code for the same amino acid.

6F

21 Questions

Predict possible outcomes of various genetic combinations such as monohybrid crosses, dihybrid crosses and non-Mendelian inheritance;

6F 1 of 21

In guinea pigs, the allele for a rough coat (R) is dominant over the allele for a smooth coat (r). A heterozygous guinea pig and a homozygous recessive guinea pig are mated. Which of the following lists the distribution of genotypes most likely to be seen in the offspring? 6F

A. 100% RrB. 50% Rr and 50% rrC. 75% Rr and 25% rrD. 25% RR, 50% Rr and 25% rr

6F 2 of 21

In fruit flies, the gene for red eyes (R) is dominant and the gene for sepia eyes (r). What are the possible combinations of genes in the offspring of two red-eyed heterozygous flies? 6F

A. RR onlyB. RR and rr onlyC Rr and rr onlyD. RR, Rr, and rr

6F 3 of 21

If a human baby boy inherits a recessive allele from his mother, in which circumstance would he most likely show the trait coded for by the recessive allele? 6F

A. The baby inherits dominant allele from father.B. The allele is on an autosomal chromosome and the baby is a twin.C. The allele is on the X chromosomeD. The allele is on the Y chromosome

6F 4 of 21

In Drosophila (fruit flies) the sex-linked trait of red eye color (XR) is dominant over white (Xr). Which is the correct genotype for a red-eyed male fruit fly? 6FA. XRXr

B. XrXC. XrYD. XRY

6F 5 of 21

A healthy individual is a carrier of a lethal allele but is unaffected by it. What is the probably genotype of this individual? 6FA. Two dominant normal allelesB. Two recessive lethal alleles C. One dominant normal allele and one recessive lethal allele D. One dominant lethal allele and one recessive normal allele

6F 6 of 21

In certain breeds of dogs, deafness is due to a recessive allele (d) of a particular gene, and normal hearing is due to its cominant allele (D). What percentage of the offspring of a normal heterozygous (Dd) dog and a deaf dog (dd) would be expected to have normal hearing? 6F

A. 0% C. 50%B. 25% D. 100%

6F 7 of 21

What type of inheritance is represented in the figure to the right?A. codominanceB. incomplete dominanceC. polygenic traitsD. multiple alleles

6F 8 of 21

In the figure to the right, what is the genotype of the heterozygous snapdragons?a. RR c. pinkb. red d. RI

6F 9 of 21

If a woman with the type O blood and a man with the type AB blood have children, what are the children’s possible phenotypes? (A dominant, B Dominant, O recessive) 6F

a. Type A or Type Bb. Type AB or Oc. Type A or Od. none of these answers are correct

Blood Type Genotype

A IAIA or IAi

B IBIB or IBi

AB IAIB

O ii

6F 10 of 21

The chart shows a dihybrid cross between pea plants. What are the genotypes of the parents in this cross? 6FA. RRyy and rrYYB. RrYy and RrYyC. RRYY and rryyD. RrYY and Rryy

6F 11 of 21

If the chart shown above produces 48 seeds, which of the following lists the most likely distribution of phenotypes in these seeds? 6FA. 12 round green : 12 round yellow : 12 wrinkled yellow : 12 wrinkled green B. 27 round yellow : 9 round green : 9 wrinkled yellow : 3 wrinkled green C. 18 round yellow : 12 round green : 12 wrinkled green : 6 wrinkled yellow D. 24 round yellow : 6 round green : 6 wrinkled yellow : 12 wrinkled green

6F 12 of 21

In dogs, barkers are dominant over nonbarkers. Erect ears are dominant over drooped ears. A male dog is a heterozygous barker (Bb) and homozygous erect ears (EE). He is mated with a female dog that is a homozygous nonbarker (bb) and heterozygous erect ears (Ee). BbEE (male) x bbEe (female)

What gametes will the male produce?A. Bb, EEB. B, E, bC. BB, EED. BE, bE

6F 13 of 21


What gametes will the female produce?A. bE, beB. Bb, EeC. B, E, eD. Be, be

6F 14 of 21


What would the possible genotypes of the offspring be?A. None of theseB. BbEE, BbEe, bbEE, bbEeC. Bbee, BBEe, bbEE, bbeeD. BbEE, BBEE, bbEE, bbee

6F 15 of 21


What is the probability of having an erect eared puppy?A. 0%B. 25%C. 75%D. 100%

6F 16 of 21


What is the probability of having a nonbarker, droop eared puppy?A. 0%B. 6.25%C. 25%D. 75%

6F 17 of 21

According to the table above, how likely is it that green eyes will show up in the offspring from these parents?A. 0%B. 25%C. 50%D. 100%

6F 18 of 21

According to the table above, how likely is it that blue eyes will show up in the offspring from these parents?A. 0%B. 25%C. 50%D. 100%

6F 19 of 21

According to the table above, how likely is it that striped gray fur will show up in the offspring from these parents?A. 0%B. 25%C. 50%D. 100%

6F 20 of 21

If a plant that is homozygous tall and wrinkled is crossed with a short, wrinkled plant, which percentage of genotypes would most likely be found in the first-generation offspring? 6F

A. 50% TTss, 50% ttSSB. 100% TsSsC. 100% TtssD. 50% TtSS, 50% ttSS

6F 21 of 21

What trait will most likely be observed in all offspring of the set of parents in the chart below? 6F

A. Green feathersB. Yellow feathesC. Long beakD. Short beak

6G

5 Questions

Recognize the significance of meiosis to sexual reproduction

6G 1 of 5

Sexual reproduction in a species usually results in- 6GA. an increase in the chromosome number in the offspringB. offspring genetically identical to the parentC. genetic variationD. a decrease in biodiversity

6G 2 of 5

Compared with mitosis, the process of meiosis results in daughter cells that are — 6GA. diploid cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cells.B. diplod cells with a smaller number of chromosomes than the parent cells.C. haploid cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cells.D. haploid cells with a smaller number of chromosomes than the parent cells.

6G 3 of 5

The diagram below shows the process of: 6GA. transcription, which makes mRNA from a DNA templateB. DNA replication, which makes an exact copy of the genetic materialC. protein synthesis, which assembles amino acids on the ribosomesD. crossing over, which allows for offspring to be genetically diverse

6G 4 of 5

Which statement concerning the reproductive cells in the diagram below is correct? 6G

A. The cells are produced by mitosis and contain all the genetic information of the father.B. If one of these cells fertilizes an egg, the offspring will be identical to the father.C. Each of the cells contains only half the genes necessary for the formation of an offspring.D. An egg fertilized by one of these cells will develop into a female with the same traits as the mother.

6G 5 of 5

The process of crossing over is important because it explains—6GA. why offspring are genetically identical to their parentsB. why offspring are identical to each otherC. why offspring are genetically similar to each other but not the parentsD. why offspring are genetically different from their parents and each other

6H

4 Questions

Describe how techniques such as DNA fingerprinting, genetic modifications and chromosomal analysis are used to study the genomes of organisms.

6H 1 of 4

The karyotype shown to the right is—6HA. Normal for maleB. Normal for femaleC. Abnormal for maleD. Abnormal for female

6H 2 of 4

There are several disorders that can occur due to nondisjunction during meiosis. Three of those disorders are shown in the table below. 6H

The person with the genetic karyotype shown above is a—A. Klinefelter’s syndromeB. Normal femaleC. Down Syndrome femaleD. Normal male

6H 3 of 4

Which numbered pair of chromosomes in a karyotype shows the sex (gender) of the person? 6HA. 1B. 4C. 21D. 23

6H 4 of 4The diagram represents the chromosomes of a person with a genetic disorder caused by non-disjunction, in which the chromosomes fail to separate properly. Which chromosome set displays non-disjunction? 6HA. 2B. 8C. 21D. 23

7G

2 Questions

Analyze and evaluate scientific explanations concerning the complexity of the cell.

7G 1 of 2

Which is part of the endosymbiont theory? 7GA. ancient prokaryotes engulfed eukaryotesB. chloroplasts evolved from prokaryotesC. engulfed nutrients became mitochondriaD. prokaryotes evolved into eukarotes

7G 2 of 2

How is the illustration below interpreted by many scientists? 7G

A. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are parasites in cells.B. Prokaryotes might have entered host cells as prey or parasites.C. Eukaryotic cells evolved before prokaryotes.D. Mitochondria and chloroplasts look similar.

9A

28 Questions

Compare the structures and functions of different types of biomolecules, including carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids

PowerPoint

Data Table

9A 1 of 28

Amylase is an enzyme that allows the human body to digest starch. Which of these diagrams best represents part of the structure of amylase?- 9A

A.

B. C.

D.

Data Table

9A 2 of 28

Which of the following correctly describes the parts of an DNA nucleotide?- 9A A. Deoxyribose sugar, phosphate, nitrogen-containing baseB. Ribose sugar, phosphate, nitrogen-containing baseC. Protein core, nitrogen base, sugarD. Nitrogen containing base, phosphate, ribose sugar

Data Table

9A 3 of 28

Data Table

The diagram to the right shows the structure of a unit that makes up proteins. These smaller subunits that make proteins are called— 9A

A. Amino acidsB. LipidsC. NucleotidesD. Monosaccharides

9A 4 of 28

Data Table

Which of these supply the main energy source used in humans? 9AA. lipids B. amino acids C. nucleic acids d. carbohydrates

9A 5 of 28

Data Table

The diagram below shows a molecule made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. What is the name of the monomer that correctly identifies this structure? 9A

A. amino acidB. sugarC. starchD. nucleotide

9A 6 of 28

Data Table

Beeswax is a waxy substance that is produced by bees and then harvested by humans for a variety of uses. Ancient Romans used beeswax as a waterproofing agent because it is not water-permeable. Beeswax is which of the following types of organic molecule? 9AA. CarbohydrateB. LipidC. Nucleic acidD. Protein

9A 7 of 28

Data Table

The function of biomolecules is directly related to the order of its monomers. Which biomolecule will be most affected by the order of its monomers? 9A A. Lipid B. Starch C. Protein D. Vitamin

9A 8 of 28

Data Table

Polysaccharides are long chains of simple sugars. Plants and animals store this excess sugar as starch. The starch in animals is called glycogen. The polysaccharides in a plant’s cell wall are known as? 9A A. Disaccharides B. Enzymes C. Cellulose D. Phospholipids

9A 9 of 28

Data Table

Amino acid is to protein as— 9AA. lipid is to nucleotidesB. nucleotide is to proteinC. monosaccharide is to lipidD. monosaccharide is to carbohydrates

9A 10 of 28

Data Table

The diagram below is composed of one glycerol and three fatty acid tails. This structure allows for which biomolecule to be made? 9AA. NucleotidesB. CarbohydratesC. LipidsD. Proteins

9A 11 of 28

Data Table

The ability to roll your tongue and possession of a widow’s peak hairline are inherited characteristics. Which molecule is responsible for these and other inherited traits? 9AA. CarbohydrateB. Complex starchC. Deoxyribonucleic acid(DNA)D. Fatty acid

9A 12 of 28

Data Table

The structure to the right is a(n)— 9AA. amino acidB. carbohydrateC. monosaccharideD. nucleotide

9A 13 of 28

Data Table

If the sugar in the diagram above is known to be a deoxyribose sugar, it can be concluded that this structure— 9AA. helps to make starchesB. helps to make energyC. helps to make RNAD. helps to make DNA

9A 14 of 28

Data Table

All organic compounds contain which element? 9AA. NitrogenB. PhosphorousC. CarbonD. Sulfur

9A 15 of 28

Data Table

One function of the carbohydrate macromolecule starch is to store energy in some plants. Which other macromolecule also functions in storing energy in animals?9AA. DNAB. ProteinC. RNAD. Lipid

9A 16 of 28

Data Table

A macromolecule is composed of glycerol and fatty acids and functions as a hormone. This molecule is a– 9AA. PhosphateB. PolysaccharideC. LipidD. Carbohydrate

9A 17 of 28

Data Table

Which of these correctly matches the molecule with its function?9AA. lipid – stores genetic informationB. nucleotide – movement of molecules into/out of a cellC. enzyme – speeds up a chemical reactionsD. carbohydrate – manufactures cell membranes

9A 18 of 28

Data Table

The cell wall contains cellulose. Cellulose is a ___________ made of many _________. 9AA. Carbohydrate…… Fatty acidsB. Polysaccharide……. Glucose moleculesC. Lipid……triglyceridesD. protein……amino acid

9A 19 of 28

Data Table

The diagram below shows a molecule made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. What is the name of the monomer that correctly identifies this structure? 9AA. amino acidB. sugarC. starchD. nucleotide

9A 20 of 28

Data Table

The diagram below is composed of one glycerol and three fatty acid tails. This structure allows for which biomolecule to be made? 9AA. NucleotidesB. CarbohydratesC. LipidsD. Proteins

9A 21 of 28

Data Table

The structure to the right is a(n)— 9AA. amino acidB. carbohydrateC. monosaccharideD. nucleotide

9A 22 of 28

Data Table

The cell wall contains cellulose. Cellulose is a ___________ made of many _________. 9AA. Carbohydrate…… Fatty acidsB. Polysaccharide……. Glucose moleculesC. Lipid……triglyceridesD. protein……amino acid

9A 23 of 28

Data Table

Which of these correctly matches the molecule with its function? 9A

A. lipid – stores genetic informationB. nucleotide – movement of molecules into/out of a cellC. enzyme – speeds up chemical reactionsD. carbohydrate – manufactures cell membranes

9A 24 of 28

Data Table

What simple molecule reacts with itself to form this disaccharide? 9AA. DNAB. Amino acidsC. GlucoseD. Lipids

9A 25 of 28

Data Table

Which statement BEST describes the function of nucleic acids? 9AA. Stores genetic information and helps to make proteinsB. Increases the rate of chemical reactionsC. Stimulates metabolism in all body cellsD. Activates secretion of the body’s hormones

9A 26 of 28

Data Table

Which of the following correctly describes the parts of an RNA nucleotide?- 9ADeoxyribose sugar, phosphate, nitrogen-containing baseRibose sugar, protein, phosphate, nitrogen-containing baseProtein core, nitrogen base, ribose sugarNitrogen containing base, phosphate, ribose sugar

9A 27 of 28

Data Table

The diagram to the right shows the structure of a unit that makes up proteins. These smaller subunits that make proteins are called-- 9A

A. Amino AcidsB. LipidsC. NucleotidesD. Monosaccharides

9A 28 of 28

Data Table

The diagram below shows a molecule made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. What is the name of the monomer that correctly identifies this structure? 9A

A. amino acidB. monosaccharideC. nucleotideD. triglyceride

9B

2 Questions

Compare the reactants and products of photosynthesis and cellular respiration in terms of energy and matter.

9B 1 of 2

The concept map below shows the flow of energy and materials in photosynthesis and cellular respiration.

Which molecules are represented in the figure by the number 1? 9BA. H2O and O2

B. H2O and CO2

C. Sugars and O2

D. Sugars and CO2

9B 2 of 2Carbon is part of many different organic compounds because of its unique ability to form a variety of structures. One of the carbon-based biomolecules is shown below.

How does the function of this biomolecule compare to the function of a lipid? A. This biomolecule is an important source of energy for organisms; while lipids are important for insulating organisms.

B. This biomolecule is important in catalyzing chemical reactions; while lipids are important in storing energy.

C. This biomolecule contains an organism’s genetic material; while lipids make up cell membranes.

D. This biomolecule is a light-absorbing compound that is important to photosynthesis; while lipids direct protein synthesis.

9C

11 Questions

Identify and investigate the role of enzymes

Enzyme Handout

Enzyme Notes

9C 1 of 11

The diagram below that represents a human enzyme and four types of molecules present in a solution in a flask. Which molecule would most likely react with the enzyme? 9C

Enzyme Handout

Enzyme Notes

9C 2 of 11

The effect of pH on a certain enzyme is shown in the graph below:

At what pH would the enzyme be most effective? 9CA. Above 10 C. Between 5 and 7 B. Between 8 and 10 D. below 5

Enzyme Handout

Enzyme Notes

9C 3 of 11

The active site of an enzyme- 9CA. is where the coenzyme is located B. is a specific bulge on an enzyme where an inhibitor bindsC. is a groove on the enzyme where a substrate bindsD. is also known as the allosteric site

Enzyme Handout

Enzyme Notes

9C 4 of 11

A student completed a series of experiments and found that a protein digesting enzyme (intestinal protease) functions best when the pH is 8.0 and the temperature is 37oC. During an experiment, the student used some of the procedures listed below.

Procedures Adding more protease Adding more proteinDecreasing the pH to 6.0Increasing the temperature to 45oCDecreasing the amount of light Which procedure would have the least effect on the rate of protein digestion? 9CA. 1 B. 5 C. 3 D. 4

Enzyme Handout

Enzyme Notes

9C 5 of 11

A student completed a series of experiments and found that a protein digesting enzyme (intestinal protease) functions best when the pH is 8.0 and the temperature is 37oC. During an experiment, the student used some of the procedures listed below.

Procedures Adding more protease Adding more proteinDecreasing the pH to 6.0Increasing the temperature to 45oCDecreasing the amount of light

Which two procedures from the experiment above would most likely cause a decrease in the rate of protein digestion? 9C

A. 1 and 4B. 2 and 3C. 3 and 4D. 1 and 5

Enzyme Handout

Enzyme Notes

9C 6 of 11

Enzymes are- 9CA. proteins B. carbohydrates C. nucleotides D. sterols

Enzyme Handout

Enzyme Notes

9C 7 of 11

Without enzymes, the chemical reactions in your body would- 9CA. happen too fastB. occur at much the same rate they do nowC. require a different pHD. occur too slow to support life processes

Enzyme Handout

Enzyme Notes

9C 8 of 11

Enzymes are proteins that help increase the rate of chemical reactions inside cells. These proteins are composed of many simpler molecules called amino acids. Which of the following suggests that the shape of an enzyme determines the enzyme’s function?9CA. Enzymes are specific to a substrate. B. Enzymes are activated by neighboring molecules. C. Enzymes can be found in all life-forms.D. Enzymes can operate in a wide range of conditions.

Enzyme Handout

Enzyme Notes

9C 9 of 11

The enzymes that catalyze cellular reactions are macromolecules made of organic compounds composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. These types of macromolecules are known as 9CA. StarchesB. SugarsC. ProteinsD. Fats

Enzyme Handout

Enzyme Notes

9C 10 of 11

The active site of an enzyme- 9CA. is where the coenzyme is located B. is a specific bulge on an enzyme where an inhibitor bindsC. is a groove on the enzyme where a substrate bindsD. is also known as the allosteric site

Enzyme Handout

Enzyme Notes

9C 11 of 11

Without enzymes, the chemical reactions in your body would- 9CA. happen too fastB. occur at much the same rate they do nowC. require a different pHD. occur too slow to support life processes

Enzyme Handout

Enzyme Notes

9D

Analyze and evaluate the evidence regarding formation of simple organic molecules and their organization into long complex molecules having information such as the DNA molecule for self-replicating life.

3 Questions

9D 1 of 3

Most biomolecules are made up of monomers, or smaller units, joined together to make larger compounds. Which of the following is the best example of a monomer?A. The enzyme amylaseB. A sample of cooking oilC. Monosaccharides or GlucoseD. A strand of DNA

9D 2 of 3

Proteins and polysaccharides are polymers. These polymers are formed by dehydration synthesis. Which statement correctly identifies a difference in the structure of proteins and polysaccharides? 9D

A. Only polysaccharides are comprised of repeating units of cytosine, adenine, guanine, and thymine. B. Only proteins are formed from amino acids joined by peptide bonds. C. Only polysaccharides can be folded and twisted to very specific shapes. D. Only proteins can be large molecules with thousands of subunits.

9D 3 of 3

Large biological molecules are made up of smaller subunits. What are these subunits called? 9D

A. EnzymesB. PolymersC. MonomersD. Cells

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