2 YEAR CHEMISTRY

SOLUTION EXPERT ACADEMY

Shahzaib Naz Page 1

2nd

YEAR

CHEMISTRY TEST SERIES

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CHAPTER 1

MCQS Q.1. The concept of atomic number was introduced by

(A) Al-Razi (B) Dobereiner (C) Moseley (D) Mendeleev Q.2. The basic of Modern Periodic Law is

(A) Electron affinity (B) Atomic mass

(C) Ionization energy (D) Atomic number

Q.3. One of the following is not a periodic property:

(A) Ionization energy (B) Density (C) Atomic radius (D) Mass number Q.4. Lanthanide contraction occurs in the elements for which electrons filling occur in:

(A) 3d (B) 5d (C) 4f (D) 5f Q.5. Which is the pair of metalloids?

(A) Na & K (B) F & Cl (C) As & Sb (D) Cu & Au Q.6. Mark the correct statement.

(A) all lanthanides are present in the same group (B) all alkali metals are present in the same group

(D) all noble gases are present in the same period Q.7.

Keeping in view the size of atoms, which order is correct one? (A) Mg>Sr (B) Ba>Mg (C) Lu>Ce (D) Cl>I


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Q.8. Which statement is correct? (B) Na

+ is larger than Na atom (A) Na

+ is smaller than Na atom

(C) Cl- is smaller than Cl atom (D) Na

+ and Na has equal size

Q.9. Smaller the size of an ion

(A) Lesser is the polarizing power (B) Lesser is the degree of hydration

(C) Greater is the electron affinity (D) Greater is the degree of hydration Q.10. Keeping in view the size of atoms, which order is correct one?

(A) Mg>Sr (B) Ca>Be (C) N>P (D) Br>I Q.11. Correct order according to atomic size in the following is

(A) Na>K (B) O>N (C) Be>Mg (D) Cl>F

Q.12. Mark the correct statement. (A) Ionization energy of calcium is lower than that of barium (B) Ionization energy of calcium is lower than that of magnesium (C) Ionization energy of calcium is higher than that of beryllium (D) Ionization energy of calcium is lower than that of strontium

Q.13. The element which shows higher ionization energy value:

(A) B (B) C (C) N (D) O Q.14. Correct order of electropositive character of Rb, Na & K is:

(A) Na > K >Rb (B) Rb> K > Na (C) Na >Rb> K (D) K >Rb> Na

Q.15. Alkali metals are strong reducing agents because: (A) These are metals (B) Their atomic radii are large (C) They are monovalent (D) Their ionization energies are very low

Q.16. Mark the correct statement. (A) Electron affinity is the measure of energy required to remove an electron

(B) Electron affinity is the measure of energy released by adding an electron (C) Electron affinity is the measure of energy required to excite an electron (D) Electron affinity is the measure of energy released by removing an electron

Q.17. Maximum electron affinity values for nitrogen are

(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) None

Q.18. Which is correct statement? (A) metallic character increases down the group (B) metallic character increases across the periods (C) metallic character remains down the group (D) metallic character decreases down the

group Q.19. Which statement is incorrect? (A) all metals are good conductors of electricity (B) all metals are good conductors of heat (C) all metals form positive ions (D) all metals form acidic oxides

Q.20. Mark the correct statement:

(A) Metals form basic oxides (B) Metals form acidic oxides (C) Metals are non-conductor of electricity (D) Metals have tendency to accept electron

Q.21. Which one of the following has maximum number of binding electrons? (A) Al (B) Mg (C) C (D) N Q.22. Mark the correct statement.

(A) Melting points of halogens decrease down the group (B) Melting points of halogens increase down the group (C) Melting points of halogens remains same throughout the group (D) Melting points of halogens first increase and then decrease down the group


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Q.23. Among the following ionic halides, which has highest melting and boiling points (A) Iodides (B) Chlorides (C) Bromides (D) Fluorides Q.24. The hydration

energy is minimum for:

(A) Cs+

(B) K+

(C) Na+

(D) Li+

Q.25. Which ion will have maximum value of heat of hydration?

(D) Ba+2

(A) Na+

(B) Cs+2

(C) Mg+2

Q.26. Which one of following elements can have only negative oxidation states? (A) Br (B) F (C) I (D) Cl Q.27. Which of the following will form polymeric halides?

(A) sodium (B) calcium (C) beryllium (D) carbon

Q.28. Mark the correct statement. (A) Covalent character of metal halides increases across periods (B) Boiling points of group IV-A hydrides decreases down the group (C) Ionic character of hydrides increases across periods (D) Basicity of IIA oxides decreases down the group.

Q.29. Which of the following has highest boiling point in group IVA hydrides?

(A) SnH4 (B) SiH4 (C) GeH4 (D) CH4 Q.30. Hydrides of group IA are

(A) Ionic (B) Metallic (C) Covalent (D) Interstitial

Q.31. Ionic hydride among the following is (A) NH3 (B) CHs (C) NaH

Q.32. Which of the following is more acidic oxide? (A) Cl2O (B) Cl2O7 (C) SiO2

Q.33. Amphoteric oxide is formed by (A) Ca (B) Cu (C) Fe

(D) AlH3

(D) SO2

(D) Zn Q.34. Which one is amphoteric oxide?

(A) CaO (B) SO3 (C) ZnO (D) Li2O

Q.35. Which statement is correct?


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(A) Hydrogen resembles in properties with IA, IVA and VIIA elements (B) Hydrogen resembles in properties with IIIA, IVA and VA elements (C) Hydrogen resembles in properties with IIA, IVA and VIA elements (D) Hydrogen resembles in properties with IIA, IIIA and VIIA elements

SHORT QUESTIONS Q.1: Zn, Cd, Hg was placed with alkaline earth metals in Mendeleev’s table. How this

confusion is removed in the modern periodic table? Q.2: What are the improvements made by Moseley in Mendeleev’s periodic table? Q.3: Why oxides of metals are basic while non-metals are acidic in nature? Q.4: Why size of cation is smaller while size of anion is greater than parent atom? Q.5: Why atomic radius decreases from left to right within period and increases from top

to bottom within a group? Q.6: What is lanthanide contraction? Q.7: Define Ionization energy. How ionization energy varies in periods and groups?

Q.8: Why 2nd

ionization energy is greater than 1st

one? Q.9: Why ionization energy decreases down the group and increases across a period?

Q.10: How electron affinity varies in periods and groups?

Q.11: Why 2nd

electron affinity is shown with positive sign? Q.12: How melting points change across short periods? Q.13: Why diamond is non-conductor while graphite is conductor of electricity? Q.14: What is hydration energy? How it varies in periodic table? Q.15: The hydration energies of ions are in the following

order; Al+3

>Mg+2

>Na+1

. Explain. Q.16: Why heat of hydration of alkali metal ions decreases down the group? Q.17: Justify that ZnO is an amphoteric in nature? Q.18: Why oxidation state of noble gases is zero? Q.19: Why metallic character increases down the group? Q.20: Why hydrogen can be placed at the top of group IA elements in the periodic table? Q.21: In what respects hydrogen resembles with those of group IVA elements? Q.22: Hydrogen can be placed at the top of group VIIA elements in the periodic table.

Justify

LONG QUESTIONS Q.1. What are the improvements made in the Mendeleev’s periodic table? Q.2. What is modern periodic table? Explain groups and period in the modern

periodic table. Q.3. Define atomic radius of an atom. Explain the trend of atomic radii in periods

and groups. Q.4. Define ionization energy. Explain trend of ionization energy in group in group

and periods. Q.5. Define electron affinity. Explain the trend of electron affinity in groups and periods. Q.6. Explain the trend of melting point in groups and periods of periodic table. Q.7. Define hydration energy. Explain trend of hydration energy of ions in groups

and periods. Q.8. What are hydrides? What types of hydrides are formed of normal elements of

periodic table? Q.9. What are oxides? Explain acid-base characters of normal elements of periodic table. Q.10. How does justify the position of hydrogen at the top of group IA? Q.11. Discuss

the position of hydrogen is group IV-A of periodic table. Q.12. Justify the position of hydrogen at the top of group IV-A of periodic table. Q.13. Justify the position of hydrogen at the top of group IA and VII-A in the periodic table. Q.14. What are halides? Give their types and properties.


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CHAPTER 2

MCQS Q.1. Which one of the following is not an alkali metal?

(A) francium (B) rubidium (C) radium (D) caesium

Q.2. Carnallite is a mineral of

(A) Na (B) Mg (C) Be (D) Ca

Q.3. The word alkali is derived from which language?

(A) Arabic (B) French (C) Greek (D) German Q.4. Which one of the following does not belong to alkaline earth metals? (A) Be (B) Rn (C) Ba (D) Ra

Q.5. The element caesium resembles with

(A) Ca (B) Cr (C) Both (D) None

Q.6. Sodium and potassium constitute, of earth’s crust:

(A) 4% (B) 5% (C) 2.4% (D) 10%

Q.7. Elements of group IIA are called

(A) alkali metals (B) Alkaline earth metals

(C) Coinage metals (D) Halogens

Q.8. Elements of group IA give colors in flame. It is due to their:

(A) Low melting point (B) Softness

(C) Low ionization potential (D) Single electron in valence shell

Q.9. Which statement is true?

(A) lithium gives violet flame (B) sodium gives ceramic red flame

(C) caesium gives blue flame (D) all are incorrect

Q.10. Which set of elements is good loser of electrons?

Q.11. (A) F2, Cl2, Br2 (B) N, P, As (C) O2, S, Se (D) Li, Na, K

Chile saltpeter has chemical formula

Q.12. (A) Na2B4O7 (B) KNO3 (C) Na2CO3.H2O (D) NaNO3

Which one of the following is soda ash?

(A) Na2CO3.2H2O (B) Na2CO3 (C) NaHCO3 (D) NaOH

Q.13. The compound CaSO4.2H2O has common name (D) calcite

(A) dolomite (B) epsom (C) gypsum

Q.14. Point out ore of potassium

(A) dolomite (B) cryolite (C) bauxite (D) carnallite

Q.15. Alkali metals are chemically similar because (A) their atomicity is one (B) their outermost electron have same principle quantum number (C) their valence shell electronic configuration is same (D) of their molecular nature

Q.16. The oxides of beryllium are

(A) acidic (B) basic (C) amphoteric (D) neutral

Q.17. The elements of group IA react violently with water and make the solution: (A) Neutral (B) Amphoteric (C) Acidic (D) Basic

Q.18. Be+2

has strong tendency to form covalent bonds in its compounds due to the

Q.19.

reason that: (A) It has high ionic potential (B) It has low ionic potential

(C) It has high polarizing power (D) It has low ionization energy The metal which has same hardness as that of iron is

(A) Be (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Ba

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Q.20. Compared with alkaline earth metals, the alkali metals exhibit:

(A) Low ionization energies (B) Greater hardness

(C) High boiling point (D) Smaller ionic radii Q.21. Which of the following properties is more applicable to alkaline earth metals

than to alkali metals?

(A) Lower electronegativities (B) Less basic hydroxides

(C) Lower ionization potentials (D) Large ionic radii

Q.22. LiNO3 decomposes to give products

(A) Li2O + NO2 + O2 (B) Li2O + NO + O2

Q.23. (C) Li2O + NO (D) Li2O2 + NO2 + O2

Only alkaline earth metal, which will form peroxide?

(A) Be (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Ba

Q.24. Which of the following sulphates is not soluble in water?

(A) sodium sulphate (B) potassium sulphate (C) zinc sulphate

(D) barium sulphate

Q.25. Which one of the sulphate is insoluble in water?

Q.26. (A) Na2SO4 (B) Cs2SO4 (C) BaSO4 (D) None of these

Down’s cell is used to prepare

(A) caustic soda (B) baking soda (C) sodium metal (D) hydrogen Q.27. In Down’s cell, if moisture is present then, most likely products are: Q.28. (A) Na, Cl2 (B) NaOH, H2 (C) Na, HCl (D) H2O2

Calcium chloride is added to NaCl in Down’s cell to

(A) decrease solubility (B) decrease melting point

(C) decrease dissociation (D) decrease conductivity Q.29. Which is deposited at cathode during electrolysis of brine in diaphragm cell? Q.30. (A) Na (B) H2 (C) O2 (D) Cl2

In Nelson’s cell, the solution coming out of cathode compartment contains 11%

NaOH; the %age of NaCl in the solution is:

(A)18% (B) 16% (C) 50% (D) 2%

Q.31. Nelson cell is used to prepare

Q.32. (A) NaOH (B) Na-metal (C) Na2CO3 (D) NaCl

Sulphur is an important constituent of

(A) chlorophyll (B) plant (C) protein (D) all

Q.33. Cement contains gypsum:

(A) 3% (B) 2% (C) 0.2 % (D) 0.3%

Q.34. Soda lime is often employed to remove both

(A) carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulphide (B) carbon dioxide and water

(C) carbon dioxide and nitrogen dioxide (D) water and nitrogen dioxide

SHORT QUESTIONS Q.1: Write down formulae of natron, halite, sylvite, beryl and asbestos. Q.2: Why limewater turns milky on passing CO2? What happens when excess of CO2 is

Q.3: passed through limewater?

What is milk of magnesia? Write down its use.

Q.4: What is effect of heat on NaNO3 and LiNO3?

Q.5: Why aqueous solution of Na2CO3 is basic in nature?

Q.6: What is the function of calcium in plant growth?

Q.7: Write down three advantages of Down’s cell.

Q.8: What is the role of gypsum in cement industry?

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Q.9: What is plaster of paris? How is it prepared? Q.10: What is clinker? Why 2% gypsum is added in the cement? Q.11: What is lime mortar? How is it prepared? Q.12: Why lime is added to acidic soils? Q.13: How lime and sand are used to make glass? Q.14: Why alkali and alkaline earth metals are the most reactive elements in periodic table?

Q.15: Justify that BeO is amphoteric oxide. Q.16: Write down the four points in which lithium differs from its family. Q.17: Write down the formula of natron and dolomite. Q.18: What is the role of gypsum in agriculture? Q.19: What happens when lithium carbonate and sodium carbonate are heated and

beryllium is treated with caustic soda? Q.20: What is the role of lime of agriculture?

LONG QUESTIONS LONG QUESTIONS

Q.1. What happen when:

(i) Lithium carbonate is heated (ii) Be is treated with NaOH (iii) Lithium hydride is treated with water (iv) Lithium hydroxide is heated to red

Q.2. box

Explain the trends in any four chemical properties of alkaline earth metals. Q.3. Write down point regarding peculiar behavior of lithium from other family members. Q.4. Compare the chemical behaviors of lithium with magnesium. Q.5. Describe the diagram, the manufacturing of sodium by Down’s cell. Q.6. Describe manufacture of sodium hydroxide by Nelson cell method. Q.7. Describe role of gypsum in industry (Give eight points).

Q.8. Explain peculiar behavior of beryllium.

Q.9. Give formulas of the followings.

Q.10.

(a) Dolomite (b) Sylvite (c) Trona (d) Chile saltpetre

Discuss two roles of lime in agriculture and six role of lime in industry.

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CHAPTER 3

MCQS Q.1. Aluminium oxide is

(A) acidic (B) basic (C) amphoteric D) neutral Q.2. Which electronic configuration corresponds to an element of group IIIA in

periodic table? (B) 1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 4s

2

(A) 1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

1

(C) 1s2 2s

2 2p

6 (D) 1s

2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

3

Q.3. The chemical composition of colemanite is

Q.4. (A) Ca2B6O11.5H2O (B) CaNaB5O9.8H2O (C) CaB4O7.4H2O D) Na2B4O7.4H2O

Which will form an ion with +3 oxidation state?

(A) carbon (B) beryllium (C) aluminium D) silicon Q.5. The element having less than four electrons in the valence shell but it is not a

metal?

(A) B (B) Ga (C) Al (D) In

Q.6. Which is not present abundantly in earth crust?

(A) sodium (B) aluminium (C) silicon D) oxygen

Q.7. Tincal is a mineral of

(A) Al (B) B (C) C D) Si

Q.8. Chief ore of aluminium is

Q.9. (A) Na3AlF6 (B) Al2O3.H2O (C) Al2O3.2H2O D) Al2O3

What is the composition of mica?

(A) KH2Al3(SiO4)3 (B) K2HAl(SiO4)3 (C) NaAlSiO4.3H2O (D)

NaKSiO4.10H2O

Q.10. What is chemical name of borax?

(A) Sodium borate (B) Sodium orthoborate

(C) Sodium tetraborate (D) Sodium metaborate

Q.11. Which is non-metal among IIIA group elements?

(A) boron (B) aluminium (C) indium (D) gallium

Q.12. The chemical formula of clay is

(A) Al2O3.H2O (B) K2O.Al2O3.6SiO2

Q.13. (C) Al2O3. (SiO2) 2.2H2O (D) Na3AlF6

Kaolin is a mineral of

(A) carbon (B) magnesium (C) silicon (D) sodium

Q.14. The aqueous solution of borax is

(A) acidic (B) neutral (C) basic (D) corrosive

Q.15. The metal which does not give borax bead test

(A) nickel (B) aluminium (C) cobalt (D) copper Q.16. In borax bead test, when borax is heated with cobalt oxide, it forms beads of

(A) black color (B) blue color (C) red color (D) green color

Q.17. Boric acid reacts with caustic soda to produce

(A) colemanite (B) boric anhydride

(C) borax (D) sodium metaborate

Q.18. Boric acid cannot be used

(A) as antiseptic in medicine (B) for washing eyes (C) in soda bottles D) for enamels and glazes

Q.19. When boric acid is heated up to 160oC, it gives:

(A) B2O3 (B) H2BO3 (C) HBO3 (D) H2B4O7

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Q.20. When H3BO3 reacts with NaOH, salt formed is (A) Na3BO3 (B) Na2B4O7 (C) NaBO2 (D) NaH2BO3

Q.21. Which metal is used in flash light photography because of its activity? (A) Iron (B) Copper (C) Zinc (D) Aluminium

Q.22. Which metal is used in thermite process due to its activity?

(A) iron (B) copper (C) aluminium D) zinc

Q.23.Aluminum is corroded in coastal places near the sea, because protective oxide film: (A) Reacts with sea water (B) in removed by sea water

(C) is attacked by salt present in sea water (D) Reacts with sand particles.

Q.24. Which of the following elements belongs to group IVA?

(A) aluminium (B) lead (C) sulphur D) barium

Q.25. The rigid highly undercooled liquid is called:

(A) Silicone (B) Silica glass (C) Water glass (D) Vitreous glass

Q.26. Which naturally occurring substance is SiO2? (D) sylvite

(A) cryolite (B) haematite (C) quartz

Q.27. The chemical name of dry ice is:

(A) Solid benzene (B) Solid carbon dioxide

(C) Solid CO (D) Silica

Q.28. The peculiar character of carbon from other family members is due to: (A) Its very small size (B) No- metallic character

(C) Catenation (D) All of the above

Q.29. Asbestos is commonly used to make

(A) wall board (B) black board (C) hard board (D) soft board

Q.30. Which one of the following is used in cosmetics?

(A) Talc (B) Sodium sulphate

(C) Asbestos (D) Aluminium sulphate

Q.31. Chemical garden is formed by using compound

(A) Soap stone (B) Sodium silicate

(C) Asbestos (D) Sodium carbonate Q.32. The viscosity of silicones increases by ________ when temp is dropped from

100oC to 0

oC:

(A) 100 Times (B) 4 Times (C) 50 Times (D) No change Q.33. Which is not correct?

(A) On heating conductivity of metal decreases (B) On heating conductivity of semiconductor decreases (C) Mobility of electrons increases when semiconductor absorbs the light (D) On heating conductivity of semiconductor increases

Q.34. Litharge or Massicot is the oxide of lead; it is formed in different forms. It gives red colour in the crystalline form:

(A) Rhombic (B) Triclinic (C) Tetragonal (D) Cubic Q.35. The stable yellow modification of lead chromate is:

(A) Triclinic (B) Hexagonal (C) Tetragonal (D) Monoclinic

SHORT QUESTIONS Q.1: How aluminium metal is used to remove air bubbles from molten metals? Q.2: What is borax? Write down its preparation from colemanite and boric acid. Q.3: What is chemical garden?

Q.4: Describe chemistry of borax bead test.

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Q.5: Give four uses of borax. Q.6: How does borax serve as water softening agent? Q.7: What is the effect of heat on orthoboric acid? Q.8: Why aqueous solution of borax is alkaline in nature? Q.9: Give uses of boric acid. Q.10: How boric acid reacts with NaOH and C2H5OH? Q.11: Why CO2 is non-polar in nature? Q.12: How carbon behaves differently from other members of its own group? Q.13: Why is CO2 acidic in nature? Q.14: Why CO2 is gas while SiO2 is solid in nature? Q.15: What are the uses of sodium silicate? Q.16: Why are liquid silicones preferred over ordinary organic lubricants? Q.17: Why HNO3 is stored in Al bottles? (Why aluminium does not react with nitric acid?) Q.18: What is the effect of temperature on semiconductors? Q.19: How aluminium reacts with caustic soda, halogens and sulphuric acid? Q.20: Why aluminium is not found as free element? Q.21: Write down uses of aluminium. Q.22: Write down two properties of boron which are different from its family. Q.23: In which way aluminium becomes water soluble by using NaOH? Q.24: In what respects, carbon behaves differently from other members of group IV-A?

LONG QUESTIONS

LONG QUESTIONS Q.1. How boron differ from other family member. Give four points.

Q.2. What are silicones? Discuss properties of silicones.

Q.3. Write down the reactions of boric acid with:

Q.4. (a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Water (c) Na2CO3 (d) NaOH Write the chemical reactions of aluminum with:

Q.5. (a) Nitrogen gas (b) Chlorine (c) HCl (d) Conc.H2SO4

Write down two methods for preparation of borax. What is effect of heat on borax?

Q.6.

Give uses of Borax.

Write a note on silicates of aluminium.

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CHAPTER 4

MCQS Q.1. Which of the following element of VA group has highest ionization energy?

(A) N (B) P (C) As (D) Bi

Q.2. Among VA group, most electronegative element is

(A) P (B) As (C) Sb (D) N

Q.3. Which of the following does not show allotropy?

(A) N (B) P (C) As (D) Bi Q.4. Out of all the members of group VIA, highest melting and boiling point is shown

by

(A) Te (B) Se (C) S (D) Pb

Q.5. Which of the following elements is most metallic?

(A) Bi (B) Sb (C) As (D) P

Q.6. Which element gives acidic oxide?

(A) N (B) As (C) Sb (D) Bi

Q.7. What is the nature of bonds in N2O5? (B) Only Coordinate

(A) Covalent and Coordinate

(C) Only covalent (D) Only ionic

Q.8. Nitrogen (N2) molecule is less reactive due to:

(A) High electronegativity (B) Stable electronic configuration (C) High dissociation energy (D) Small atomic radius

Q.9. NO2 is called (B) Nitrous oxide

(A) Nitrogen peroxide

(C) Nitric oxide (D) Nitric anhydride

Q.10. Laughing gas is chemically

(A) N2O (B) N2O3 (C) NO (D) NO2

Q.11. Oxidation of NO in air produces

(A) N2O5 (B) N2O3 (C) N2O (D) NO2

Q.12. FeSO4 forms brown ring with:

(A) NO2 (B) N2O3 (C) NO (D) N2O4

Q.13. Which of the following is a reddish brown gas?

Q.14. (A) N2O (B) N2O5 (C) NO (D) NO2

One of the following acts as both as an oxidizing and reducing agent which is

that?

(A) H2SO4 (B) HNO3 (C) HCl (D) HNO2

Q.15. The brown gas formed when metal reduces HNO3 is

Q.16. (A) N2O (B) N2O5 (C) NO (D) NO2

Zinc reacts with very conc. nitric acid to form a gas

Q.17. (A) N2O (B) NH4NO3 (C) NO2 (D) NO

Which of the following is evolved when copper reacts with dilute nitric acid? (A) NO (B) NO2 (C) N2O (D) NH4NO3

Q.18. The metal which gives NO on reaction with dilute HNO3 (D) Sn

(A) Zn (B) Cu (C) Hg

Q.19. Gold dissolves in aqua regia to form

Q.20. (A) AuCl3 (B) AuI3 (C) AuI2 (D) Au2(SO4)3

The most reactive allotropic form of phosphorous is

(A) White (B) Red (C) Black (D) None of these

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Q.21. Bone ash contains (A) 80% P (B) 80% calcium phosphate

(C) 90% P (D) 90% calcium phosphate

Q.22. Which of the following is not the property of phosphorous?

(A) It means light bearing (B) It does not exist free in nature (C) Rich source of phosphorous is bone ash (D) It does not exist in allotropic

form Q.23. What are possible products for hydrolysis of PCl3? Q.24. (A) PH3 + HClO (B) H3PO4 + HCl (C) H3PO3 + HClO (D) H3PO3 + HCl

+3 oxidation state of phosphorous is associated with:

(A) Phosphorous acid (B) Metaphosphoric acid (C) Hypophosphorous acid (D) Orthophosphoric acid

Q.25. Ortho phosphoric acid has melting point

(A) 49°C (B) 45°C (C) 41°C (D) 45°C

Q.26. Which is the following is a tribasic acid?

Q.27. (A) H3PO4 (B) H3PO3 (C) Both A&B (D) None of these

Which of the following cannot expand its outer shell of electrons beyond the

octet?

(A) O (B) S (C) Se (D) Te

Q.28. S, Se, Te and Po are called

(A) coinage metals (B) chelates (C) halogens (D) chalcogens

Q.29. Atomic number of Te is

(A) 52 (B) 60 (C) 65 (D) 80

Q.30. Which of the following contains 48% oxygen?

(A) SiO2 (B) BaCO3 (C) CaCO3 (D) H2O2

Q.31. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired electrons?

Q.32. (A) O2 (B) O22+

(C) O2+1

(D) O22-

Which of the following is called oil of vitriol?

(A) H2S (B) H2SO3 (C) H2SO4 (D) HNO3

Q.33. SO3 is not absorbed in water directly to form H2SO4 because

(A) reaction does not go to completion (B) reaction is quiet slow Q.34. (C) reaction is highly exothermic (D) SO3 is insoluble in water

Which catalyst is used in contact process?

(A) FeS2 (B) V2O5 (C) Ag2O (D) Fe2O3

Q.35. Conc. H2SO4 dehydrates the oxalic acid into:

(A) CO2 + H2O (B) CO + H2O

(C) C + H2O (D) CO + CO2 + H2O

Q.1: Why phosphorous and other members of group VA show more than one oxidation

states?

Q.2:How nitrogen differs from other members of family?

Q.3: How nitrogen dioxide is prepared from (a) lead nitrate (b) Cu + HNO3

Q.4: Justify that NO acts as an oxidizing agent.

Q.5: What is ring test?

Q.6: Show with two examples that NO2 is oxidizing agent.

Q.7: Justify that sulphuric acid is dehydrating agent by writing two equations.

Q.8: Show with two examples that HNO2 is strong reducing agent.

Q.9: Write down reactions of HNO3 with Zn. Q.10: Nitric acid is strong oxidizing agent. Give three examples to support the statement. Q.11: What is the effect of heat on phosphoric acid?

Page | 13



Q.12: What is aqua regia? How it dissolves gold?

Q.13: Write down reaction of P2O5 with cold and hot water.

Q.14: Write down two chemical reactions of NO in which it acts as reducing agent. Q.15: Differentiate between oxygen and sulphur. Q.16: What is the basic principle of contact process? Q.17: What is the effect of temperature on NO2? Q.18: Why is SO3 dissolved in H2SO4 but not in water? Q.19: P2O5 is powerful dehydrating agent. Prove giving examples. Q.20: H2SO4 is strong oxidizing agent. Give three examples to support the statement. Q.21: Give four uses of nitric acid. Q.22: Write down reaction of P2O3 with cold and hot water. Q.23: Write down reactions of PCl5 and PCl3 with water. Q.24: Give names of four elements which do not react with water. Q.25: Describe similarities between oxygen and sulphur Q.26: Give uses of sulphuric acid. Q.27: Phosphoric acid is tribasic acid. Justify it by giving its reactions with NaOH.

LONG QUESTIONS

LONG QUESTIONS Q.1. Discuss Birkeland Eyed process for manufacture of HNO3.

Q.2. Justify with one example of each that HNO3 is an acid, an oxidizing agent and

Q.3.

nitrating agent.

Write down the chemical equations when dilute HNO3 reacts with:

Q.4. (a) Copper (b) Manganese (c) NaOH (d) Zn Write down the balance chemical equation and name of products formed with conc.

HNO3 reacts will: (c) Hg

(d) Ag

Q.5.

(a) Zn (b) Sn

Give reactions HNO3 with: (i) C (ii) S (iii) Mg (iv) H2S Q.6. Write the properties of white phosphorous. How it is converted to red phosphorous.

Q.7. Describe methods for preparation P2O5. P2O5 is a powerful dehydrating agent. Justify

Q.8. the statement by four examples.

Give eight points of similarities of oxygen and sulphur.

Q.9. Write contact process for the manufacturing of sulphuric acid.

Q.10. Give reactions of H2SO4 with:

Q.11. (i) Oxalic acid (ii) starch (iii) Sulphur (iv) H2S H2SO4 acts as dehydrating agent and oxidizing agent. Support your answer with two

example of each.

Page | 14




CHAPTER 5

MCQS Q.1. Which halogen occurs naturally in positive oxidation state?

(A) fluorine (B) chlorine (C) bromine (D) iodine

Q.2. The element which causes burn to skin that heals slowly:

Q.3. (A) F2 (B) Br2 (C) Cl2 (D) I2

Which one of the following is present in solid state at room temperature?

Q.4.

(A) F2 (B) Cl2 (C) Br2 (D) I2

Point out correct statement about halogens (A) they can displace each other from solution of their compounds with metals (B) they are all capable of showing several oxidation states (C) they are all diatomic and form divalent ions (D) they are diatomic and form univalent ions

Q.5. Which is violet in colour in gaseous form?

(A) fluorine (B) bromine (C) chlorine (D) iodine Q.6. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) bond energy of F2 is less than Cl2 (B) bond energy of Cl2 is less than I2

Q.7. (C) bond energy of Cl2 is less than F2 (D) bond energy of Cl2 is less than Br2

Which halogen will react spontaneously with Au to form Au3+

?

Q.8. (A) F2 (B) Cl2 (C) Br2 (D) I2

Hydrogen bond is strongest among the molecules of

(A) HI (B) HBr (C) HCl (D) HF Q.9. Which of the following hydrogen halide is the strongest reducing agent?

(A) HI (B) HBr (C) HCl (D) HF Q.10. Which of the following hydrogen halide is the weakest acid in solution?

(A) HI (B) HBr (C) HCl (D) HF Q.11. Bond angle in OF2 is

(B) 120° (C) 107° (D) 105° (A) 180° Q.12. The anhydride of HClO4 is

Q.13. (A) ClO3 (B) Cl2O7 (C) Cl2O5 (D) ClO2

Which is the strongest acid?

Q.14.

(A) HClO (B) HClO2 (C) HClO3 (D) HClO4

Which one of the following oxyacids is the strongest oxidant? (A) HClO3 (B) HClO (C) HClO4 (D) HClO2

Q.15. Oxidation state of chlorine in HClO4 is (C) +1 (D) -1 (A) +7 (B) -7

Q.16. Which of the following halogens will not form oxyacid? (A) Cl (B) F (C) Br (D) I Q.17. Which one is chlorous acid?

Q.18. (A) HClO (B) HClO2 (C) HClO3 (D) HClO4

Which one is perchloric acid:

Q.19. (A) HC O (B) HC O2 (C) HC O3 (D) HC O4

Chlorine heptoxide reacts with water to form

(A) hypochlorous acid (B) chloric acid

(C) perchloric acid (D) chlorine and oxygen

Q.20. In the preparation of Cl2 from HCl, MnO2 acts as:

(A) Reducing agent (B) Dehydrating agent

(C) Oxidizing agent (D) Catalytic agent Page | 15



Q.21. Halogens react with H2S, and:

(B) Are reduced

(A) Form sulphur oxide

(C) Are oxidized (D) None of these

Q.22. Bleaching powder may be produced by passing chlorine over

(A) calcium carbonate (B) hydrated calcium sulphate

(C) anhydrous calcium sulphate (D) calcium hydroxide

Q.23. For bleaching powder which is incorrect?

(A) Reacts with dilute acid to release Cl2 (B) Light yellow colored powder

(C) Highly soluble in water (D) Oxidizing agent

Q.24. What is the formula of Teflon?

(A) CCl3.F2 (B) (C2F4)n (C) (CF2CCl)n (D) CCl3.F Q.25. The deficiency of iodine in diet causes a disease in human beings called:

(A) Beri-Beri (B) Night blindness (C) Goiter (D) Rickets

Q.26. Silver bromide is used in: (A) Paints (B) Photography (C) Ceramics (D) Gasoline

Q.27. Halogen which is present in Teflon

(A) fluorine (B) chlorine (C) bromine (D) iodine Q.28. Which is used as non-stick coating for cooking pans?

(A) freon (B) teflon (C) bakelite (D) nylon-6,6 Q.29. An element which has highest ionization energy and tends to be chemically

inactive would be

(A) alkali metal (B) transition metal (C) noble gas (D) halogen

Q.30. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of outer most energy level of zero group elements?

(C) s2p

5 (D) s

2p

6 (A) s

2p

2 (B) s

2p

4

Q.31. Which of the following inert gases is used in fluorescent tubes and in radio

Q.32.

Q.33.

Q.34.

Q.35.

tubes? (A) He (B) Ne (C) Ar (D) Rn Gas used as a cooling medium in nuclear reactors is

(A) He (B) Ne (C) Ar (D) Kr

Xenon has kinds of oxides

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1

Which is second most abundant element in the universe?

(A) H2 (B) He (C) O (D) C

Radon is used in the radiotherapy of cancer. Its best source is (A) Liquefaction of air (B) Radioactive decay of Ra-226 (C) Fraction distillation of mixture of noble gases (D) All above

SHORT QUESTIONS Q.1: How fluorine is different from others members of family? Q.2: What is disproportionation reaction? Q.3: Why fluorine is strong oxidizing agent than chlorine? Q.4: On what factors oxidizing power of halogens depends? Q.5: Why HF is weaker reducing agent? Q.6: How halogen acids are ionized in water? Q.7: Why HF is weaker acid than HI? Q.8: How activity of bleaching powder is measured? Or What is available chlorine?

Page | 16



Q.9: What happens when bleaching powder reacts with CO2, HCl and NH3? Q.10: What iodized salt? Q.11: Why iodine has metallic luster? Q.12: Write down uses of noble gases. Q.13: What is structural formula of Teflon? Mention its two uses. Q.14: The acidic strength of the oxyacids of halogens increases with in number of

oxygen atoms. Why? Q.15: Describe Hasenclever’s method for the formation of bleaching powder.

Q.16: Which halogen is used as an antiseptic and which gives violet flames? Q.17: What are freons? Q.18: Give two applications of iodine. Q.19: What is halothane? Mention its one use. Q.20: Give four uses of halogens. Q.21: Write uses of bleaching powder.


Q.1. How does fluorine differ from its family members?

Q.2. What are commercial uses of halogens and their compounds? Q.3. Give modern method for preparation of bleaching powder. Give its uses. Q.4. How does bleaching powder reacts with:

Q.5. (i) NH3 (ii) HCl (ii) HCl (iii) H2O (iv) dil H2SO4

What happens when bleaching powder reacts with:

Q.6.

(i) dil. H2SO4 (ii) Conc. H2SO4 (iii) NH3 (iv) HI

Discuss the relative reactivity of halogens as oxidizing agent.




CHAPTER 6

MCQS Q.1. Which one of the following is typical transition element?

(A) Zn (B) Cd (C) Hg (D) Cr

Q.2. f-block elements are called

(A) outer transition elements (B) inner transition elements

(C) middle transition elements (D) none

Q.3. Which is non-typical transition element?

(A) Cr (B) Mn (C) Fe (D) Zn

Q.4. Group VIB of transition elements contains

(A) Zn, Cd, Hg (B) Fe, Ru, Os (C) Mo, Cr, W (D) Mn, Te, Re

Q.5. The total number of transition elements is (A) 10 (B) 40 (C) 58 (D) 38

Q.6. The outer electronic configuration of an atom is 3d6, 4s

2. The atom is:

(A) Mn (B) Zn (C) Fe (D) Cu

Q.7. The electronic configuration of 29Cu is: (C)[Ar] 3d10

4s1

(D) [Ar] 3d10

4s2

(A)[Ar] 3d9 4s

2 (B) [Ar] 3d

9 4s

1

Q.8. Which of the following has greatest number of unpaired electrons?

(A) Fe+2

(B) Mn+2

(C) Fe (D) Cr+3

Q.9. The first transition series starts with

(A) Sc (B) Y (C) La (D) Ac

Q.10. The total number of d-block elements is (A) 10 (B) 40 (C) 20 (D) 30

Q.11. The total number of transition elements in 4th

period is

(A) 10 (B) 8 (C) 8 (D) 18

Q.12. Which is non-typical transition element?

(A) Cr (24) (B) Mo (42) (C) Fe (26) (D) Cd (48) Q.13. One of the following statements is not true in case of transition elements: (A) All the ions are colorless (B) Variable oxidation states

(C) Mostly partially filled d-orbitals (D) Complex formation Q.14. The strength of binding energy of transition elements depends upon (A) number of electron pairs (B) number of unpaired electrons

(C) number of neutrons (D) number of protons

Q.15. Which one shows more paramagnetic behaviour?

(A) Fe (B) Cu (C) Zn (D) Sc

Q.16. The color of transition metals is due to (A) d-d transitions of electrons (B) paramagnetic nature of transition elements (C) ionization energies (D) loss of s-electrons

Q.17. Which one of the following elements does not show variable oxidation state? (A) Sc (B) Cu (C) V (D) Zn

Q.18. Coordination number of Pt in [PtCl(NO2)(NH3)4] is

(D) -4 (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 Q.19. If the complex ion is negatively charged, then the name of the metal ends in:

(A)-O (B) -ate (C)-yl (D) -ic



Q.20. What is the formula of tetraamminechloronitroplatinum(IV)sulpahte? (A) [Pt(NH3)4(NO2)]SO4 (B) [PtCl (NO2) (NH3)4]SO4

Q.21. (C) [Pt(NO2) Cl(NH3)4]SO4 (D) [Pt(NH3)4(NO2)Cl]SO4

The %age of carbon in different types of iron products is in the order (A) cast iron>wrought iron>steel (B) wrought iron>steel>cast iron (C) cast iron>steel>wrought (D) cast iron = steel>wrought iron

Q.22. Types of ligands in [PtCl(NO2)(NH3)4]+2

(C) 6 (D) 5

(A) 4 (B) 3

Q.23. Oxidation number of iron in K4[Fe(CN)6] is (LHR 2009;SGD 2015) (A) +2 (B) +3 (C) -2 (D) zero

Q.24. The geometrical shape of the complex ion [MnCl4]2-

is:

(A) Tetrahedral (B) Octahedral

(C) Trigonal bipyramidal (D) Square Planar

Q.25. The transition metal complex, [Cu(NH3)4]+2

has geometry

(A) trigonal pyramidal (B) square planar

(C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral

Q.26. The geometry of complexes possessing d2sp

3 hybridization is

(A) trigonal (B) square planar (C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral

Q.27. Coordination number of iron in K4[Fe(CN)6] is (D) 6

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4

Q.28. Which set of hybrid orbitals produces octahedral geometry? (D) dsp 2

(A) sp3

(B) d2sp

3 (C) dsp

3

Q.29. Coordination number of Pt in [PtCl(NO2)(NH3)4]+2

is (D) -4

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6

Q.30. The formula of limonite ore of iron is:

Q.31. (A) Fe2O3 (B) Fe3O4 (C) Fe2O3 3H2O (D) FeS

The purest form of iron is

(A) Wrought iron (B) Cast iron (C) Pig iron (D) Steel

Q.32. The %age of carbon in steel is

(A) 2.5-4.5% (B) 0.25-2.5% (C) 0.12-0.25% (D) 0.2-0.7% Q.33. Aluminum is added to the steel when manufactured at the end to:

(A) Protect it from rusting (B) Remove slag

(C) Form alloy steel (D) Remove bubbles of gases

Q.34. Water pipes are protected from rust by:

(A) Tin plating (B) Galvanizing with Zn

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

Q.35. All the chromates are mostly:

(A) Deep red (B) Yellow (C) Bluish green (D) White

Q.1: SHORT QUESTIONS Differentiate between typical and non-typical transition elements.

Q.2: Why transition elements show variable oxidation states?

Q.3: What is paramagnetism?

Q.4: Define interstitial compounds.

Q.5: Why transition metals are coloured?

Q.6: Define central metal ion and ligand.

Q.7: Define coordination number and coordination sphere.

Q.8: What are chelates?

Q.9: Give IUPAC names of K4[Fe(CN)6] and [PtCl(NO2)(NH3)4]SO4. Page | 19



Q.10: What are commercial forms of iron?

Q.11: KMnO4 is a strong oxidizing agent. Justify giving examples.

Q.12: What is chromyl chloride test? Q.13: How many unpaired electrons have Cr (24) and Ag (47). Q.14: Why does damaged tin plated iron get rusted quickly? Q.15: How does the process of galvanizing protect iron from rusting?

OR What is sacrificial corrosion?

Q.16: How entrapped bubbles are removed from steel? Q.17: Write down names and formulae of iron ores. Q.18: Give uses of potassium dichromate.

LONG QUESTIONS

Q.1 Give two methods for preparations of K2CrO4 and K2Cr2O7 in each case.

Q.2. What is corrosion? Discuss electrochemical theory of corrosion. Q.3. Describe the manufacturing of wrought iron from east iron with pudding furnace.

Q.4. Define the following with examples.

(i) Coordination number (ii) Coordination sphere

Q.5. (ii) Ligand (iv) Chelate

Give systematic name of following complexes.

(i) [Fe(H2O) 6]2+

(ii) K2[PtCl6] Q.6. (iii) K4[Fe(CN)6] (iv) [CO(NO2)6(NH3)3] Hoe does Potassium permanganate reacts with the following? Q.7. (a) H2S (ii) FeSO4 (iii) Oxalic acid (iv) KOH Distinguish between cathode coating and anode coating of iron.

Q.8. Explain Bessemer’s process for preparation of steel.

Q.9. Explain open hearth process for the manufacture of steel.

Q.10. KMnO4 acts as an oxidizing gent. Give four reactions in support of your answer.

Page | 20




CHAPTER 7

MCQS Q.1. The chemist who synthesized urea from ammonium cyanate

(A) Grignard (B) Kolbe (C) Berzelius (D) Wohler Q.2. Which of the following is an organic compound?

Q.3. (A) HCN (B) CO2 (C) NaHCO3 (D) CCl4

The boiling point range of petroleum ether is

(D) 30-90 0C (A) 5-20 0C (B) 10-30 0C (C) 20-60 0C

Q.4. Petroleum is a mixture of: (A) Alkanes & alkenes (B) Alkanes (C) Alkynes (D) More than 10% heterocyclic compounds.

Q.5. The reaction C8H18 C3H6 + Fragments:

(D) Is cracking (A) Is catalytic oxidation (B) Is isomerization (C) Is synthesis Q.6. Liquid hydrocarbons are converted in to a maximum number of gaseous hydrocarbons by:

(A) Distillation (B) Oxidation (C) Hydrolysis (D) Cracking Q.7. The process used to improve the quality of gasoline is

(A) thermal cracking (B) combustion (C) reforming (D) steam

cracking

Q.8. Octane number 100 is given to

(A) n-heptane (B) n-octane

(C) 2,2,4-trimethyl pentane (D) 2,2,4-trimethyl octane Q.9. Which of the following is not heterocyclic compound?

(A) Thiophene (B) Furan (C) Anthracene (D) Pyrrole Q.10. Which one of the following is alcohol?

(A) CH3COOH (B) CH3OCH3 (C) CH3CH2OH (D) CH3CH2Br

Q.11. CO2H is a functional group as (C) Carboxyl (D) Hydroxyl (A) Alkoxy (B) Carbonyl

Q.12. The general formula (RCO)2O represents: (D) A ketone (A) An ether (B) An acid anhydride (C) An ester

Q.13. A double bond consists of

(A) Two sigma bonds (B) One sigma and one Pi bond

(C) One sigma and two Pi bonds (D) Two Pi bonds Q.14. Which set of hybrid orbitals has planar triangular geometry?

(D) dsp2

(A) sp (B) sp2

(C) sp3

Q.15. Type of hybridization of carbon in methane is

(D) dsp2

(A) sp (B) sp2

(C) sp3

Q.16. Linear geometry is associated with which set of orbitals

(D) dsp2

(A) sp (B) sp2

(C) sp3

Q.17. In carbonium ion, the carbon bearing the positive charge is:

(D) sp2-hybridized (A) dsp

2- hybridized (B) sp-hybridized (C) sp

3-hybridized

Q.18. Type of hybridization of carbon in ethane is

(D) dsp2

(A) sp (B) sp2

(C) sp3

Q.19. Each carbon is sp3- hybridized in the class

(A) Alkynes (B) Alkenes (C) Ketones (D) Alkanes

Page | 21



Q.20. Bond angle between sp2 hybrid orbitals is

(A) 180˚ (B) 109.5˚ (C) 104.5˚ (D) 120˚

Q.21. Type of hybridization of carbon in HCHO is (D) dsp 2

(A) sp (B) sp2

(C) sp3

Q.22. Hybridization of carbon in dimethyl ether is

(A) sp (B) sp2

(C) sp3

(D) None

Q.23. One of the following molecule is sp2-hybridized

(A) Ethane (B) Ethyne (C) Ethene (D) Methane Q.24. Indicate the number of chain isomers that can be obtained from the C6H14? (A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4

Q.25. In tertiary butyl alcohol, tertiary carbon is attached to

(A) three hydrogen atoms (B) one hydrogen atoms

(C) two hydrogen atoms (D) no hydrogen atoms

Q.26. Ethers show the phenomenon of

(A) position isomerism (B) cis-trans isomerism

(C) metamerism (D) functional group isomerism

Q.27. n-Butanol and diethyl ether are:

(A) Geometrical isomers (B) Position isomers

(C) Chain isomers (D) Functional group isomers

Q.28. C3H7OH is the functional group isomer of:

Q.29. (A) CH3COC2H5 (B) CH3OC2H5 (C) C2H5OC2H5 (D) (C2H5)2C = O

The type of isomerism exhibited by maleic acid and fumaric acid is: (A) Functional group isomerism (B) Cis-trans isomerism

(C) Optical isomerism (D) Positional isomerism

Q.30. Isomerism exhibited by acetic acid and HCOOCH3 is: (D) Functional

(A) Positional (B) Geometrical (C) Chain

Q.31. The number of possible isomers of C4H10 are (D) 3

(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 2

Q.32. Dimethyl ether show the phenomenon of which type of isomerism (A) metamerism (B) functional group isomerism

(C) tautomerism (D) chain isomerism

Q.33. Which class of organic compounds shows metamerism

(A) Ethers (B) Alkenes (C) Aldehydes (D) Alkanes

Q.34. Tautomerism arises due to shifting of

(A) Sigma electrons (B) Pi-electrons (C) Neutron (D) Proton

Q.35. Which class of organic compounds cannot show metamerism

(A) Ethers (B) Ketones

(C) Aldehydes (D) Secondary amines

SHORT QUESTIONS SHORT QUESTIONS

Q.1: What is the importance of Wohler’s work in chemistry?

Q.2: Define carbonization?

Q.3: Define cracking. Write names of different types of cracking.

Q.4: What is reforming?

Q.5: Define heterocyclic compounds.

Q.6: Define functional group. Write down three functional groups containing oxygen.

Q.7: Define isomerism with example.

Or

Write down isomers of C2H6O.




Q.8: What is functional group isomerism? Q.9: What is cis-tans isomerism?

Q.10: Why is there free rotation around sigma bond but not around pi-bond? Q.11: Define tautomerism. Q.12: What are homocyclic compounds? Q.13: Define chain isomerism. (Give isomers of pentane). Q.14: What is isomerism? Give names of five types of structural isomerism. Q.15: Describe two features of organic compounds. Q.16: There is no cis-trans isomerism in 1-butene but 2-butene shows. Q.17: How quality of gasoline can be improved? Q.18: Define position isomerism with example.

LONG QUESTIONSESTIONS

Q.1. What is meant by hybridization? Give the structure of ethane and ethyne.

Q.2. Draw the shapes of CH4, C2H4 and C2H2 by using hybridization approach. Q.3. Define the following giving one example of each. Positional isomerism,

functional isomerism, metamerism, tautomerism, Q.4. What is difference between metamerism and cis-trans isomerism? Illustrate

with exact. Q.5. What is isomerism? Discuss positional isomerism and geometrical isomerism. Q.6. Discuss in detail cis-trans isomerism. Q.7. How organic compounds are classified. Give suitable example of each type. Q.8. Write important features of organic compounds. Q.9. Write a note on cracking of hydrocarbons.

Q.10. Explain reforming of petroleum with the help of suitable example. Q.11. Define hybridization. Discuss sp

3 hybridization with the help of methane molecule.

Q.13. Explain sp3 mode of hybridization with an example.

Page | 23




CHAPTER 8

MCQS Q.1. The presence of double bond in a compound is the sign of

(A) saturation (B) substitution (C) unsaturation (D) none

Q.2. When potassium acetate is electrolyzed, we get:

Q.3. (A) C3H8 (B) C2H2 (C) C2H4 (D) C2H6

Hydrogenolysis of alkyl halides yield:

(A) Alcohols (B) Alkenes (C) Alkanes (D) Alkynes Q.4. As compared to boiling points of linear chain isomers, the boiling points of

branched chain alkanes are:

(A) Higher (B) Lower

(C) Same (D) Does not depend upon branching

Q.5. Which types of reactions are given by alkanes?

(A) polymerization (B) Substitution (C) elimination (D) addition

Q.6. Catalytic oxidation of methane produces

Q.7. (A) CO + H2O (B) C + H2O (C) CO + H2 (D) CO2 + H2O

Formula of chloroform is

(A) CH2Cl2 (B) CHCl3 (C) CH3Cl (D) CCl4

Q.8. When methane reacts with Cl2 in the presence of diffused sunlight, the products

obtained are

(A) chloroform (B) chloromethane and dichloromethane

(C) carbon tetrachloride (D) all

Q.9. Preparation of vegetable ghee involves

(A) oxidation (B) substitution (C) addition (D) hydrogenation Q.10. Addition of unsymmetrical reagent to unsymmetrical alkene follows (A) Hund’s rule (B) Pauli Exclusion principle

(C) Auf bau principle (D) Markonikov rule

Q.11. Olefins are:

(A) Alkenes (B) Compounds having double bonds

(C) Saturated hydrocarbons (D) Unsaturated compounds Q.12. n- Propyl bromide on treatment with ethanolic potassium hydroxide produces:

(A) Propane (B) Propanol (C) Propyne (D) Propene Q.13. Which one of the following is Baeyer’s reagent?

(A) Aqueous Br2 water (B) Neutral permanganate (C) Acidic KMnO4 (D) Alkaline KMnO4

Q.14. Addition of O2 in ethene in the presence of Ag2O gives:

(D) Acetic acid (A) Ethylene oxide (B) Ethane (C) Ethanol

Q.15. When ethene is heated to 400 C under100 atmospheric pressure in the presence of 0.1% O2 the product is:

(A) CO2 + H2O (B) Ethylene oxide (C) Ethyl alcohol (D) Polyethylene Q.16. Which is the most reactive hydrocarbon?

(A) ethane (B) acetylene (C) ethylene (D) benzene Q.17. Ozonolysis of ethene causes C-C bond breaking, the product is

(A) formaldehyde (B) acetaldehyde

(C) ethylene glycol (D) ethylene chlorohydrin Q.18. Mustard gas is prepared by the reaction of S2Cl2 with

(D) methane (A) ethane (B) ethyne (C) ethene

Page | 24



Q.19. Formula of marsh gas is

(A) CH4 (B) C2H4 (C) C3H8 (D) C4H10

Q.20. Which one is not the use of mustard gas?

(A) Used in 1st

world war (B) Powerful vesicant (C) High boiling liquid (D) High boiling gas

Q.21. Hydrogenolysis of alkyl halide takes place in the presence of catalyst (A) N2H4/KOH (B) Pd/C (C) Zn-Hg/HCl (D) Ni-Al alloy

Q.22. Wolf-Kishner reduction reduces aldehydes to

(A) Alkane (B) Alkyne (C) Alkene (D) Alcohol Q.23. Which gas is used in artificial ripening of fruits?

(A) ethene (B) ethane (C) acetylene (D) propane Q.24. β,β-dichloro ethyl sulphide is commonly called

(A) biogas (B) phosgene (C) marsh gas (D) mustard gas Q.25. Which of the following will have minimum bond length between two carbon

atoms?

(A) C2H2Br2 (B) C2H6 (C) C2H4 (D) C2H2

Al 2 O3

Q.26. The product of reaction is CH CH + NH3 ? 300 o

C

(A) CH3 CH2 NH2 (B) NH2 CH = CH NH2

(C) CH3 CN (D) CH3 CH2 CN Q.27. When alkyne other than ethyne react with water in the presence of HgSO4 and 10% H2SO4 it forms:

(B) Pri. alcohol

(A) Sec. alcohol

(C) Ketone (D) Carboxylic acid

Q.28. Synthetic rubber is made by polymerization of

(A) ethane (B) acetylene (C) ethylene (D) benzene Q.29. Alkynes are non-polar. They are soluble in

(A) Benzene (B) Diethyl ether (C) Toluene (D) All Q.30. When calcium carbide is treated with water, we get

(A) Ethene (B) Ethyne (C) Ethane (D) Ethanol Q.31. Vinyl acetylene reacts with HCl to give

(A) polyacetylene (B) chloroprene (C) divinyl acetylene (D) butene Q.32. Chloroprene is used for making

(A) Rubber (B) Petrol (C) Propane (D) Liquid fuel Q.33. Which compound has acidic hydrogen?

(A) Butane (B) 1-Butene (C) 1-Butyne (D) 2-Butyne Q.34. Acetylene polymerizes to make

(A) Benzene (B) Butane

(C) Hexane (D) 1,3,5-Cycylohexatriene Q.35. Acetylene has characteristics ethereal smell resembling that of

(A) Ginger (B) Vinegar (C) Garlic (D) Onion

Q.1: SHORT QUESTIONS Why sigma bonds are inert?

Q.2: Describe Clemmenson and Wolf-Kishner reduction.

Q.3: Define nitration of methane.

Q.4: Why alkanes are less reactive than alkenes

Q.5: What is Raney nickel and for what it is used?

Q.6: What is Lindlar catalyst? Where is it used?

Q.7: How will you prepare trans-2-butene? Page | 25



Q.8: How will you establish that ethylene contains double bond? Q.9: Why alkynes are less reactive than alkenes?

Q.10: State Markonikov rule. Q.11: How will you convert ethene into ethyl alcohol? Q.12: Write down industrial preparation of acetylene. Q.13: How will you convert acetic acid into methane? Q.14: Write down the reaction of ethyne with alkaline KMnO4 solution. Q.15: How ethane can be converted into ethanol? Q.16: Starting from ethyne, how will you prepare ethanal? Q.17: Write down the formula of vinyl bromide and isobutylene. Q.18: How does ethyne react with AgNO3/NH4OH and Cu2Cl2/NH4OH? Q.19: How methane is converted into formaldehyde? Q.20: How ethene is converted in to polythene? Q.21: What are different uses of methane? Q.22: How does ethyne react with hydrogen and halogen acid?


Q.1. Write four methods for preparation of alkanes. Q.2. Explain Kolbe’s electrolytic method with mechanism for preparation of alkane. Q.3. Explain free radical mechanism for the reaction of chlorine with methane in the

presence of sunlight. Q.4. Write mechanism of Kolbe’s method to prepare alkyne. Q.5. Describe one method each for preparation ethane, ethane and ethyne. How would

you establish that benzene is a polymer of acetylene. Q.6. How will you distinguish among ethane, ethene and ethyne?

Q.7. What happens when ethyne is reacted with KMnO4, acidic water in HgSO4, NH3 and HBr?

Q.8. Describe preparation of ethyne by dehydrohalogenation of vicinal dihalide and Kolbe electrolytic method.

Q.9. Describe preparation of ethene by any two methods. How will you establish that ethene contains double bond?

Q.10. What happens when ethene is reacted with KMnO4, O3, HBr and S2Cl2?

Page | 26




CHAPTER 9

MCQS Q.1. Aromatic hydrocarbons are derivatives of

(A) alkanes (B) benzene (C) alkenes (D) cyclohexane

Q.2. Aromatic hydrocarbons burn with sooty flame because

(A) they have high percentage of carbon (B) they have ring structure

(C) they have high percentage of hydrogen (D) they resist reaction with air

Q.3. In which compound, benzene rings are isolated?

(A) Diphenyl methane(B) Naphthalene (C) Anthracene (D) Phenanthrene

Q.4. Amongst the following, polycyclic compound is:

(A) Xylene (B) Naphthalene (C) Styrene (D) Cumene

Q.5. The benzene molecule contains

(A) one double bond (B) two double bonds

(C) three double bonds (D) delocalized -electron cloud

Q.6. Molecule of benzene contains:

(A) Three double bonds (B) Two double bonds

(C) One double bond (D) Four double bonds

Q.7. Total number of π-electrons in benzene are

(A) 3 (B) 12 (C) 6 (D) 18

Q.8. In benzene, each carbon is: (C) sp3 hybridized dsp

2

(A) sp hybridized (B) sp2 hybridized (D)

hybridized

Q.9. Carbon-carbon bond length in benzene is

(A) 154 pm (B) 134 pm (C) 120 pm (D) 139 pm

Q.10. C-C bond length in benzene is

(A) 1.20 Å (B) 1.397 Å (C) 1.34 Å (D) 1.54 Å

Q.11. Resonance energy of benzene is:

(A) 150.5 kJ/ mole (B) 140.5 kJ/ mole (C) 155 kJ/ mole (D) 145 kJ/ mole

Q.12. Total number of resonance structures of benzene are

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 4 Q.13. The electrons of benzene are not readily available for weak electrophiles

because it has:

(A) sp2 hybridization (B) Planar hexagonal structure

(C) Delocalization of electrons (D) All of these

Q.14. The conversion of n-hexane into benzene by heating in the presence of Pt catalyst

is called

(A) isomerization (B) aromatization (C) dealkylation (D) rearrangement

Q.15. Aromatization of n-heptane gives:

(A) Cycloheptane (B) Cyclohexane (C) Benzene (D) Toluene

Q.16. Benzene can be prepared by polymerization of:

(A) Ethane (B) Ethane (C) Acetylene (D) Propene

Q.17. Benzene is prepared from cyclohexane by

(A) hydration (B) hydrogenation

(C) dehydration (D) dehydrogenation

Q.18. Which compound is the most reactive one?

(A) ethene (B) benzene (C) ethane (D) ethyne

Q.19. Which of the following can be used as catalyst during halogenation of benzene?

(A) H2SO4 (B) HNO3 (C) V2O5 (D) AlCl3 Page | 27



Q.20. Nitration of toluene takes place at

(A) m-position (B) p-position (C) o-position (D) both B & C Q.21. During nitration of benzene, the active nitrating agent is

(A) NO2 (B) HNO3 (C) NO2+

(D) NO3+

Q.22. The electrophile in aromatic sulphonation is

(A) H2SO4 (B) SO3 (C) HSO4-

(D) SO3+

Q.23. Among the following, the compound that can be most readily sulphonated is

(A) toluene (B) nitrobenzene (C) benzene (D) chlorobenzene Q.24. Which of the following acid can be used as catalyst used in Friedel-Crafts

reactions?

(A) H2SO4 (B) HNO3 (C) V2O5 (D) AlCl3 Q.25. Anhydrous AlCl3 is used in Friedel Craft’s reaction because it is:

(A) Soluble in ether (B) Electron deficient (C) Electron rich (D) Insoluble in chloride and aluminium ions

Q.26. Which of the following acid can be used as catalyst for halogenation of benzene? (A) Pt (B) HNO3 (C) Ni (D) AlCl3 Q.27. When toluene reacts with methyl

chloride in presence of anhydrous AlCl3, it forms: (A) 1, 3, 5-Trimethyl benzene (B) Diphenyl methane

(C) m-Xylene (D) o- and p-Xylene Q.28. Which of the following acid can be used as catalyst used in Friedel-Crafts reactions?

Q.29.

(A) Cu-Ni (B) HNO3 (C) Zn (D) AlCl3

Meta directing group: (A) Release electrons to the benzene ring (B) Withdraw electrons from benzene ring (C) Neither release nor withdraw electrons (D) None of these

Q.30. Meta chloronitrobenzene is prepared by

(A) Nitration of chlorobenzene (B) Nitration of metachlorobenzene

(C) Nitration of benzene (D) chlorination of nitrobenzene Q.31. Which of the following group is not meta directing?

(A) –NH2 (B) -COOH (C) –COR (D) –CHO Q.32. Which of the following group is ortho and para directing?

(A) –NO2 (B) -COOH (C) –CH3 (D) –CHO HNO2 +H2SO4

Q.33. Toluene: 100°C

(A) Orthonitrotoluene (B) m-nitrotoluene

(C) p-nitrotoluene (D) 2,4,5-TNT

Q.34. Benzene cannot undergo

(A) substitution (B) addition (C) elimination (D) oxidation Q.35. Benzene cannot undergo:

(A) Substitution (B) Addition

(C) Oxidation (D) Polymerization

Page | 28



SHORT QUESTIONS Q.1: What are the results of X-ray studies of benzene molecule? Q.2: Define resonance and resonance energy. Q.3: Write two objections to Kekule formula of benzene. Q.4: Give mechanism of nitration. Q.5: Give mechanism of acylation. Q.6: Give mechanism of alkylation. Q.7: Convert benzene into m-chloronitrobenzene. Q.8: Why benzene is less reactive than alkenes? Q.9: Convert benzene into p-chloronitrobenzene. Q.10: Write down three reactions in which benzene acts as unsaturated compound.

Q.11: Write down mechanism of halogenation of benzene. Q.12: How benzene is converted into oxalic acid? Q.13: How benzene is converted into benzoic acid? Q.14: Draw resonance structures of benzene. Q.15: What are monocyclic and polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons? Q.16: How hexane and heptane are converted into benzene and toluene respectively? Q.17: Write a reaction when mixture of benzene vapours and oxygen gas is passed

over vanadium pentoxide? Q.18: Write names and draw structures of three possible isomers of xylene. Q.19: Write down mechanism of sulphonation of benzene. Q.20: What is Wurtz-Fittig reaction? Q.21: What are major products when chlorine reacts with toluene in the presence

of sunlight?


Q.1. Discuss orientation in electrophilic substitution reactions of benzene. Q.2. What are Friedel-Crafts reactions of benzene? Describe mechanism of acylation

and alkylation. Q.3. Describe mechanism of nitration and alkylation. Q.4. Explain structure of benzene on the basis of atomic orbital treatment. Q.5. Explain mechanism of halogenation of benzene. Q.6. Draw mechanism of sulphonation and nitration of benzene.

Page | 29




CHAPTER 10

MCQS Q.1. In primary alkyl halides, halogen is attached to that carbon atom which is further attached to how many carbon atoms?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Q.2. Which of the following is Geminal-dihalide?

Q.3. (A) CH3CHBrCH2Br (B) CH3CHBrCH2Br (C) BrCH2CH2Br (D) CH3CHBr2

Alkyl halides are considered to be very reactive compounds towards nucleophiles

because (A) they have an electrophilic carbon (B) they have an electrophilic carbon and good leaving group

s(C) they have an electrophilic carbon and bad leaving group (D) they have an nucleophilic carbon and good leaving group

Q.4. The order of reactivity of alkyl halide for particular alkyl group is (A) fluoride>chloride>bromide>iodide (B) chloride>bromide> fluoride>iodide

(C) iodide>bromide>chloride>fluoride (D) bromide>iodide >chloride> fluoride Q.5. Aryl halides are less reactive towards electrophiles than alkyl halides due to: (A) High boiling point (B) Resonance

(C) Stability of carbonium ions (D) None of these

Q.6. Which is more reactive alkyl halide?

(A) alkyl iodide (B) alkyl bromide (C) alkyl chloride (D) alkyl fluoride Q.7. Which of the following is a poor leaving group?

Q.8. (A) –HSO4 (B) –I (C) –NH2 (D) –Br Which one of the following is not a nucleophile?

Q.9. (A) H2O (B) H2S (C) NH3 (D) BF3

Electrophile among the following is

Q.10. (A) H2O (B) Cl2 (C) NH3 (D) BF3

Which one of the following is best nucleophile? (D) C2H5O

-

Q.11. (A) H2O (B) NO (C) NH3

Which one is the best leaving group

(C) Cl-

(D) F-

(A) I-

(B) Br-

Q.12. Which one of the following is not nucleophile?

(A) H3O+

(B) CN-1

(C) NH3 (D) SO3

Q.13. H3O+ has lone pair of electrons. It cannot act as

(D) Ether (A) Nucleophile (B) Strong acid (C) Lewis acid Q.14. Species deficient in electrons are called

(A) Bases (B) Electrophiles (C) Nucleophiles (D) Oxidizing agent

Q.15. SN2 reaction can be best carried out by

(B) secondary alkyl halide (A) primary alkyl halide

(C) tertiary alkyl halide (D) all

Q.16. The reaction of ethyl bromide with aqueous solution of KOH gives:

(A) Ethane (B) Ethene (C) Ethanol (D) Methanol

Q.17. SN2 reactions are (B) bimolecular (C) trimolecular (D) tetramolecular (A) unimolecular

Q.18. In SN2 reaction, rate of bond formation is ………..the bond breakage? (A) equal to (B) less than

(C) greater than (D) cannot be predicted

Page | 30



Q.19. SN1 reactions are given by

(B) Secondary alkyl halides (A) Primary alkyl halides

(C) Tertiary alkyl halides (D) Secondary alcohols

(A) the concentration of substrate (B) the concentration of nucleophile (C) concentration of nucleophile as well as nucleophile (D) none

(A) first order kinetics (B) 2ndorder kinetics

(C) 3rd order kinetics (D) zero order kinetics

Q.22. For which mechanism, 1st

step is same

(A) E1 and E2 (B) E1 and SN1

(C) E2 and SN2

(D) E1 and SN2

Q.23. Dehydrohalogenation of ethyl chloride yields:

(A) Ethyne (B) Ethylene

(C) Ethoxy ethane (D) Mixture of ethane and ethoxy ethane

Q.24. -elimination is bimolecular elimination when it involves:

(A) First order kinetics (B) Second order kinetics

(C) Third order kinetics (D) Zero order kinetics

Q.25. Ethyl bromide reacts with lead sodium alloy to form:

(A) Na-methoxide (B) Na-ethoxide

(C) Tetraethyl lead (D) Tetraethyl bromide

Q.26. Reduction of alkyl halides with Zn + HCl gives:

(A) Alcohol (B) Alkene (C) Alkane (D) Ketone

Q.27. Grignard reagent is reactive due to

(A) Presence of halogen atom (B) Presence of Mg bond

(C) Polarity of C-Mg bond (D) none

Q.28. When CO2 is made to react with ethyl magnesium iodide, followed by acidic

hydrolysis. The product formed is

(A) propane (B) propanol (C) propanoic acid (D) propanal

Q.29. Grignard’s reagent gives alkanes with:

(A) Water (B) Ethylamine (C) Ethanol (D) All of them Q.30. When n-butyl magnesium iodide is treated with water, the product is:

(A) Propane (B) Alcohol (C) n-Butane (D) Iso-butane Q.31. Which of the following reacts with Grignard reagent to give primary alcohols

(A) Expoxide (B) Peroxide (C) Super oxide (D) Hydrogen oxide

Q.32. The reaction of CO2 and RMgX in acidic media gives? (D) Propanal (A) Propane (B) Propanoic acid (C) Propanol

Q.33. Cyanogen chloride reacts with ethyl magnesium bromide to give (A) CH3CH2Cl (B) CH3CH2CN (C) CH3CH2Br (D) C4H10

Q.34. Which compound is formed when CH3OH reacts with CH3MgBr

(A) Ethane (B) Ethanol (C) Methane (D) Acetone

Q.35. Which compound is formed when CH3CH2OH reacts with Grignard reagent (A) Alkane (B) Alcohol (C) Ether (D) Alkene

Page | 31



SHORT QUESTIONS Q.1: Define alkyl halides. Write down their classification. Q.2: What is best method for the preparation of alkyl halides? Q.3: Describe down Wurtz reaction. Q.4: Define electrophile and nucleophile. Q.5: What are leaving group and substrate? Q.6: What are nucleophilic substitution reactions? Give example. Q.7: Convert ethyl bromide into butane, ethene and propanoic acid Q.8: Prepare ethyl thioalcohol and ethyl acetate from ethyl bromide. Q.9: How Grignard reagent reacts is used to prepare carboxylic acids? Q.10: How Grignard reagent is used to get primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols?

Q.11: How does Grignard reagent react with epoxides? Q.12: Discuss reactivity of alkyl halide on the basis of bond energy. Q.13: Write down mechanism of SN1 reaction? Q.14: Describe mechanism of E2 reaction. Q.15: How ethyl bromide reacts with aqueous and alcoholic KOH? Q.16: Write down mechanism of SN2 reaction. Q.17: Prepare ethyl halide from ethyl alcohol by two methods. Q.18: Convert ethyl bromide into ethane.

LONG QUESTIONS

Q.1.

LONG QUESTIONS What are SN1 reactions? Give mechanism.

Q.2. Write in detail note on the mechanism of bimolecular nucleophile substitution (SN2)

Q.3.

reaction.

What do you understand by the term of -elimination reactions? Q.4. Prepare the followings using ethyl bromide as starting material.

Q.5. (i) Ethane (ii) Ethene (iii) n-butane (iv) TEL Convert ethyl bromide into:

Q.6. (i) Propane (ii) Ethyl cyanide (iii) Ethene (iv) Ethane How ethyl magnesium bromide reacts with the followings:

Q.7. (i) CO2 (ii) (CH3)2CO (iii) CH3CHO (iv) H2O How will you get primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols from Grignard’s reagent?

Q.8. What are SN-reactions? Differentiate between SN1 and SN2 reactions. Q.9. How would you prepare the following compounds starting from Grignard’s reagent?

(i) Alkane (ii) Carboxylic acid (iii) 2-butanol (iv) 1-butanol

Page | 32




CHAPTER 11

MCQS Q.1. Which shows maximum hydrogen bonding with water?

Q.2. (A) CH3OCH3 (B) C2H5OH (C) C6H5OH (D) CH3OH

Which compound will have maximum repulsion with water?

Q.3. (A) C6H6 (B) C2H5OH (C) C6H5OH (D) CH3OCH3

Which is called universal solvent?

Q.4. (A) CH3-O-CH3 (B) H2O (C) C2H5OH (D) CH3OH

Which of the following has maximum hydrogen bonding?

Q.5. (A) CH3OH (B) C2H5OH (C) C6H5OH (D) CH3OCH3

Which shows maximum hydrogen bonding?

Q.6. (A) C2H6 (B) C2H5OH (C) C2H5Cl (D) CH3-O-CH3

Which is more soluble in water?

Q.7. (A) C6H5OH (B) C2H5OH (C) C6H13OH (D) CH3-CO-CH3

Dihydric alcohol among the following is

(A) Ethylene glycol (B) Glycerol (C) Phenol (D) Cholesterol

Q.8. Which enzyme is not used in fermentation?

(A) diastase (B) invertase (C) urease (D) zymase

Q.9. Rectified spirit contains about alcohol

(A) 95% alcohol (B) 98% alcohol (C) 80% alcohol (D) 85% alcohol

Q.10. Sequence of enzymes in alcohol fermentation is:

(A) Zymase – Maltase – Diastase (B) Maltase – Diastase - Zymase

(C) Diastase – Maltase – Zymase (D) Diastase – Zymase – Maltase

Q.11. Enzyme maltase catalyzes the hydrolysis of

(A) Starch to maltose (B) Ethyl alcohol to acetaldehyde

(C) Maltose to glucose (D) Glucose to ethyl alcohol

Q.12. Which enzyme is not involved in the fermentation of starch?

(A) diastase (B) maltase (C) invertase (D) zymase

Q.13. Alcohol obtained in fermentation never exceeds

(A) 10% (B) 14% (C) 16% (D) 95%

Q.14. Alcohol obtained in fermentation is only up to

(A) 10% (B) 12% (C) 20% (D) 95%

Q.15. Most reactive alcohol when O-H bond breaks

(A) primary alcohol (B) tertiary alcohol (C) secondary alcohol (D) methyl alcohol

Q.16. Order of reactivity of alcohols when C-O bond breaks is: (A) Tertiary alcohols > Secondary alcohols > Primary alcohols (B) Primary alcohols > Secondary alcohols > Tertiary alcohols (C) Secondary alcohols > Primary alcohols > Tertiary alcohols (D) Secondary alcohols > Tertiary alcohols > Primary alcohols

Q.17. The reaction of ethanol with K2Cr2O7 and H2SO4 to give CH3CHO is called: (A) Rearrangement (B) Reduction (C) Hydrolysis (D) Oxidation

Q.18. One of the following is elimination reaction. Which is that?

(A) Nitration of benzene (B) Hydroxylation of C2H4

(C) Dehydration of alcohol (D) Chlorination of CH4

Q.19. Lucas reagent used to distinguish the primary, secondary & tertiary alcohols consist of:

(A) HBr & MgCl2 (B) HBr & ZnCl2 (C) HCl & ZnCl2 (D) HCl & MgCl2

Page | 33



Q.20. Ethanol can be converted into ethanoic acid by

(A) hydrogenation (B) oxidation (C) decarboxylation (D) fermentation

Q.21. Isopropyl alcohol on oxidation gives

(A) Acetaldehyde (B) Ether (C) Acetone (D) Propene

Q.22. Methyl alcohol cannot be used as

(A) as a solvent (B) as an anti-freezing agent

(C) as a substitute for petrol (D) for denaturing of ethanol

Q.23. Which of the following is the strongest acid?

(A) Water (B) Alcohol (C) Carboxylic acid (D) Phenol

Q.24. Which of the following is weakest acid?

(A) Ethyl alcohol (B) Benzoic acid (C) Phenol (D) Water

Q.25. Carbolic acid is

(A) Methyl alcohol (B) carbonic acid (C) Phenol (D) Chloroform

Q.26. Phenol on hydrogenation in the presence of ‘Ni’ gives:

(A) Cyclohexanol (B) Cyclohexane (C) Benzene (D) None of these

Q.27. Phenol can be identified by the test

(A) Baeyer’s test (B) bromine water (C) chlorine water (D) Lucas test Q.28. Phenol reacts with acetyl chloride in the presence of base to form

(A) acid (B) aldehyde (C) alcohol (D) ester

Q.29. Picric acid is obtained by nitration of:

(A) Benzene (B) Cresol (C) Phenol (D) Aniline

Q.30. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting with

(A) Acetal (B) Methanol (C) Ethanal (D) Formaldehyde

Q.31. Diethyl ether is partially soluble in:

Q.32. (A) Dil. HCl (B) Conc. H2SO4 (C) Water (D) Conc. KOH

Which of the following is un-symmetrical ether?

Q.33. (A) CH3-O-C3H7 (B) CH3-O-CH3 (C) C2H5-O-C2H5 (D) All of these

According to Lewis, ethers behave as

(A) acid (B) base (C) neutral (D) amphoteric

Q.34. When diethyl ether reacts with PCl5, the product is

(A) Ethyl alcohol (B) Ethyl chloride

(C) Oxonium ion (D) Triethyl phosphine

Q.35. Following represents ether

(A) Sodium ethoxide (B) Ethylene oxide (C) Diphenyl oxide (D) Both B and C

SHORT QUESTIONS Q.1: Differentiate between monohydric and polyhydric alcohols.

Q.2: How wood spirit is prepared from water gas?

Q.3: How ethanol is obtained from molasses?

Q.4: Why alcohol obtained in fermentation process never exceeds 14%?

Q.5: How ethyl alcohol is denatured?

Q.6: How will you chemically differentiate between methanol and ethanol?

Q.7: Ethyl alcohol is a liquid but ethyl chloride is gas. Why?

Q.8: What is Lucas test for the distinction of primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols?

Q.9: Ethanol gives different products with sulfuric acid under different conditions. Give

reactions. Q.10: Why water has higher boiling points than ethanol? Q.11: Why phenol shows acidic behavior? Q.12: Convert phenol into Bakelite.

Page | 34




Q.13: How will you prepare diethyl ether by Williamson synthesis? Q.14: Convert phenol into picric acid. Q.15: Write down uses of ethanol. Q.16: Write down uses of methanol. Q.17: How ethanol reacts with phosphorous halides? Q.18: Write uses of carbolic acid. Q.19: Write two methods for the preparation of phenol. Q.20: Write down reaction of diethyl ether with HI and PCl5. Q.21: What happens when ethyl alcohol reacts with ammonia and thionyl chloride? Also

mention reaction conditions.

Q.1. LONG QUESTIONSONS

How ethyl alcohol is obtained by fermentation of starch and molasses?

Q.2. How will you distinguish between primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols by Lucas

Q.3. test?

Convert methanol to ethanol and ethanol to methanol.

Q.4. Describe industrial preparation of ethanol. How will you distinguish between

Q.5. methanol and ethanol?

Give two methods for preparation of phenol. How does phenol react with?

Q.6. (i) conc. HNO3 (ii) conc. H2SO4 Give chemical reactions of phenol with:

Q.7. (i) NaOH (ii) Zn dust (iii) CH3COCl (iv) conc. H2SO4

Write the reactions of ethyl alcohol with:

Q.8. (i) Na metal (ii) SOCl2 (iii) NH3 (iv) K2Cr2O7/H2SO4

What is Dow’s method for preparation of phenol? Explain acidic behavior of phenol. Q.9. Give reaction of ethyl alcohol with:

(i) conc. H2SO4 at 180°C (ii) I2 and NaOH (ii) PCl3 (iv) PCl5

Page | 35




CHAPTER 12

MCQS Q.1. The general formula of aldehydes is:

(A) CnH2nO (B) CnH2n (C) CnH2nOH (D) CnH2n+2O Q.2. A “-CHO” group can be present:

(A) At 2nd

carbon atom of the carbon chain (B) Only at the end of carbon atoms

(C) At any position in carbon atoms (D) In between carbon chain Q.3. According to IUPAC system, aldehydes are:

(A) Alkenes (B) Alkanals (C) Alkynes (D) Alkanes Q.4. Which of the following has highest boiling point?

(A) methanal (B) ethanal (C) propanal (D) 2-hexanone Q.5. The carbon atom of carbonyl group is

(B) sp2 hybridized

(A) sp hybridized

(C) sp3 hybridized (D) dsp

2 hybridized

Q.6. Formalin is (A) 10% solution of formaldehyde in water (B) 20% solution of formaldehyde in water (C) 40% solution of formaldehyde in water (D) 60% solution of formaldehyde in water

Q.7. Dry distillation of a mixture of calcium acetate and calcium formate gives: (A) Propanal (B) Acetaldehyde (C) Acetone (D) Formaldehyde Q.8. Acetone reacts with HCN to form cyanohydrin. It is an example of (A) nucleophilic addition (B) electrophilic addition

(C) nucleophilic substitution (D) electrophilic substitution Q.9. Acetaldehyde reacts with HCN to form cyanohydrin. It is an example of (A) nucleophilic addition (B) electrophilic addition

(C) nucleophilic substitution (D) electrophilic substitution Q.10. Which of the following will react with both aldehydes and ketones? (A) Grignard reagent (B) Fehling reagent

(C) Benedict solution (D) Tollen’s reagent Q.11. Formaldehyde gives an addition product with methyl magnesium iodide which

Q.12.

on aqueous hydrolysis gives:

(A) CH3CHOHCH3 (B) C2H5OH (C) CH3OH (D) (CH3)2CHOH

Which of the following compounds undergo aldol condensation? (A) C2H5CHO (B) CH3COCH3 (C) CH3CHO (D) All of these

Q.13. The compounds which contain an alcohol group as well as an aldehyde group are called:

(A) Alkanols (B) Aldols (C) Aldehydes (D) Sterols Q.14. Cannizzaro’s reaction is not given by

(A) formaldehyde (B) benzaldehyde

(C) acetaldehyde (D) trimethylacetaldehyde

Q.15. Cannizzaro’s reaction is not given by CHO

(A) HCHO (B) CH3CHO (C)

(D) (CH3)3C-CHO

Q.16. Which is disproportionate reaction?

(A) Aldol condensation (B) Cannizzaro reaction

(C) Haloform reaction (D) Acid catalyzed reaction

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Q.17. Which compound will not undergo iodoform test on treatment with I2/NaOH?

(A) acetone (B) butanone (C) 3-pentanone (D) acetaldehyde Q.18. Which one does not react with hydroxylamine?

(A) Methanal (B) Ethanal (C) Ethanol (D) Acetone

Q.19. Which one has yellow or orange crystalline precipitate?

(A) Acetone hydrazone (B) Ethanal oxime

(C) 2,4-DNPH (D) Bisulphite addition product

Q.20. Aldehydes react with ethanol in presence of HCl gas to form:

(A) Acetone (B) Ethylal

(C) Acetal (D) Acetyl chloride

Q.21. Formation of acetaldehyde from ethanol is

(A) Reduction (B) Oxidation (C) Addition (D) Substitution

Q.22. Aldehydes on reduction form

(A) Primary alcohols (B) Secondary alcohols

(C) Tertiary alcohols (D) Ketones

Q.23. Ketones are prepared by oxidation of

(A) primary alcohol (B) secondary alcohol (C) tertiary alcohol (D) none of these

Q.24. Which is most difficult to oxidize?

(A) C2H5CHO (B) CH3CHO (C) HCHO (D) CH3COCH3

Q.25. Which of the following compound will react with Tollen’s reagent?

(A) CH3CHO (B) CH3COCH3

(C) CH3COOH (D) CH3COCH2CH3

Q.26. When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling’s solution, it gives precipitates of:

(A) CH3COOH (B) Cu2O (C) Cu (D) CuO

Q.27. Fehling’s solution is:

(A) Acidified AgNO3 (B) Ammonical AgNO3 solution (C) Acidified CuSO4 (D) CuSO4, NaOH & Rochelle salt

Q.28. Silver mirror test is given by:

(A) Aldehydes (B) Ketones (C) Ethers (D) Acids

Q.29. Silver mirror test is given by:

(A) Ethyl alcohol (B) Diethyl ether (C) Acetaldehyde (D) Acetone

Q.30. Methyl ketones are characterized by

(A) Tollen’s reagent (B) iodoform test

(C) Benedict’s reagent (D) Fehling solution

Q.31. Silvering of mirrors involve the use of

(A) Tollen’s reagent (B) Benedict’s reagent

(C) Fehling’s reagent (D) Baeyer’s reagent

Q.32. Which of the following will react with Benedict solution?

(A) Acetone (B) Acetaldehyde

(C) Propanoic acid (D) Dimethyl ether

Q.33. Which test is called silver mirror test?

(A) Tollen’s reagent (B) Benedict’s reagent

(C) Fehling’s reagent (D) Sodium nitroprusside test

Q.34. Aldehydes and ketones can be detected by

(A) Tollen’s reagent (B) Benedict’s reagent (C) 2,4-DNPH test (D) Sodium nitroprusside test Q.35. The compound which gives positive test with Fehling solution is

(A) Acetone (B) Ethyl acetate (C) Acetic acid (D) Formaldehyde

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SHORT QUESTIONS Q.1: Write down industrial preparation of methanal. Q.2: Write down industrial preparation of ethanal. Q.3: Write down laboratory preparation of methanal and ethanal. Q.4: Write down mechanism of addition of HCN to carbonyl compounds. Q.5: What is Cannizzaro reaction? What types of aldehydes give this reaction? Q.6: Differentiate between 2-pentanone and 3-pentanone. Q.7: Distinguish between methanal and ethanal. Q.8: Convert formaldehyde into metaformaldehyde. Q.9: Convert acetaldehyde into paraldehyde. Q.10: Write down uses of formaldehyde.

Q.11: Write uses of acetaldehyde. Q.12: What is Tollen’s reagent? Where is it used? Q.13: What is Fehling solution test? Q.14: What is Benedict’s solution test? Q.15: How lactic acid is prepared from ethanal? Q.16: Convert ethanal into 2-butenal. Q.17: Give reactions of acetaldehyde with HCN and ethanol. Q.18: Write reactions of phenyl hydrazine with acetaldehyde and acetone. Q.19: Write reactions of hydroxyl amine with ethanal and propanone. Q.20: Write reactions of hydroxyl amine and NaOH with ethanal.

LONG QUESTIONS

LONG QUESTIONS Q.1. Give two methods for preparation of each of formaldehyde and acetaldehyde. Q.2. How does acetaldehyde react with the following reagent:

(i) CH3MgI (ii) NaHSO3 (iii) NH2–OH (iv)

Q.3. K2Cr2O7/H2SO4

Give reactions of acetaldehyde with the following:

Q.4. (i) NaBH4/H2O (ii) NH2-NH2 (iii) C2H5MgI (iv) HCN What is Aldol condensation reaction? Give its mechanism.

Q.5. Define Cannizarro’s reaction with two example.

Q.6. What is a haloform reaction? Give two examples.

Q.7. Prepare the following compounds from carbonyl compounds. (i) Lactic acid (ii) Paraldehyde

Q.8. (iii) Ethanal oxime (iv) Crotonaldehyde

Describe the mechanism of the reaction of sodium bisulphite with acetone. Give

Q.9. importance of this reaction.

How formaldehyde reacts with following.

Q.10. (i) HCN (ii) NaHSO3 (iii) Conc. NaOH (iv) H2/Pt Give the mechanism of addition of HCN to acetone.

Q.11. How 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazones are prepared? Write mechanism of ammonia

Q.12.

derivative with carbonyl compound in general.

Show equations of CH3CHO and acetone with methyl magnesium bromide followed

by acidic hydrolysis.

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CHAPTER 13

MCQS Q.1. A carboxylic acid contains

(A) a hydroxyl group (B) a hydroxyl and carboxyl group

(C) a carboxyl group (D) a carboxyl and aldehydic group

Q.2. Which of the following is not a fatty acid?

(A) acetic acid (B) butanoic acid (C) propanoic acid (D) phthalic acid

Q.3. Which compound is polyprotic acid?

Q.4. (A) CH3COOH (B) C6H4(OH)COOH (C) (COOH)2 (D) C6H5OH

Which is the origin of formic acid?

(A) Milk (B) Butter (C) Red ants (D) Oils

Q.5. Acetic acid was first isolated from

(A) butter (B) red ants (C) vinegar (D) milk

Q.6. Suffix used in the naming of carboxylic acid is: (A)− (B)− (C)− (D) –

Q.7. The carbon atom of a carboxyl group is hybridized (D) dsp2

(A) sp (B) sp2

(C) sp3

Q.8. Which is phthalic acid? COOH COOH

Q.9. (A) HCOOH (B) CH3COOH (C) (D) COOH

Which of the following alcohols are readily oxidized to give carboxylic acids on

reacting with K2Cr2O7? (C) Tertiary (D) Diols

(A) Primary (B) Secondary

Q.10. Ethanol can be converted into ethanoic acid by

(A) oxidation (B) hydration

(C) fermentation (D) dehydrogenation

Q.11. Acetic acid exists as dimer in benzene due to:

(A) Presence of hydrogen at carbon (B) Condensation reaction

(C) Presence of carboxylic group (D) Hydrogen bonding

Q.12. Carboxylic acids act as dimer in

(A) water (B) benzene (C) alcohol (D) all Q.13. A cyclic dimer of acetic acid is formed when it is added to benzene. The number

of oxygen atoms in dimer ring is/are

(A) one (B) four (C) two (D) three

Q.14. Which one has highest boiling point?

(A) HCOOH (B) CH3CH2COOH

(C) CH3COOH (D) CH3CH2CH2COOH

Q.15. The reaction of acetic acid with sodium metal gives:

(A) CO (B) CO2 (C) HCHO (D) H2

Q.16. Formic acid and acetic acid can be distinguished with:

(A) Sodium carbonate (B) Caustic soda

(C) Ammonical AgNO3 (D) Help of litmus Q.17. An aqueous solution of an organic compound reacts with sodium carbonate to

produce carbon dioxide gas. Which of the following could be the organic compound?

(A) CH2=CH-CH3 (B) CH3COOC2H5

(C) CH3CHO (D) CH3CH2COOH

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Q.18. Ester, amylacetate has the flavour of

(A) Raspberry (B) Apricot (C) Orange (D) Banana

Q.19. When acetic acid reacts with ethyl alcohol in the presence of conc. sulphuric acid, product formed is (A) CO (B) CH3COOC2H5 (C) CO2 (D) HCHO

Q.20. Organic compounds having fruity smell are (A) Carboxylic acids (B) Ethers (C) Alcohols (D) Esters

Q.21. Organic compounds X and Y react together to form an organic compound Z. What type of compounds are X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

(A) Alcohol ester Acid

(B) Acid ester Alcohol

(C) Ester alcohol Acid

(D) Alcohol acid Ester Q.22. Acetamide is prepared by

(A) heating ammonium acetate (B) heating methyl cyanide (C) heating ethyl acetate (D) hydrolysis of methyl cyanide Q.23. Which of the following cannot be prepared directly from acetic acid?

(A) acetamide (B) acetic anhydride (C) acetyl chloride (D) ethyl acetate

Q.24. Which reagent is used to reduce carboxylic acid to an alcohol?

(A) Ni/H2 (B) Pd/H2 (C) Pt/H2 (D) LiAlH4

Q.25. Acetic acid reacts with LiAlH4 to give:

Q.26. (A) C2H6 (B) C3H7OH (C) C6H5CH2OH (D) C2H5OH

Acetic acid is manufactured by

(A) distillation (B) fermentation (C) ozonolysis (D) esterification

Q.27. The acid used for the seasoning of food is

(A) formic acid (B) benzoic acid (C) acetic acid (D) butyric acid

Q.28. Which of the following acid is used to prepare synthetic fibre?

(A) formic acid (B) carbonic acid (C) acetic acid (D) butyric acid

Q.29. Which of the following amino acid is basic?

(A) Glutamic Acid (B) Glycine (C) Alanine (D) Histidine

Q.30. NH2 CH2 COOH is formula of: (C) Lysine (D) Alanine

(A) Histidine (B) Glycine

Q.31. Which of the following is neutral amino acid?

(A) histidine (B) lysine (C) valine (D) aspartic acid

Q.32. Which of the following is not an amino acid?

(A) Aniline (B) Lysine (C) Alanine (D) Aspartic acid Q.33. The strecker synthesis is employed for the preparation of amino acids when

HCN and ammonia is treated with the substrate:

(A) Alcohol (B) Carboxylic Acid (C) Ketone (D) Aldehyde

Q.34. The nature of lysine amino acid is

(A) acidic (B) neutral (C) basic (D) amphoteric



Q.1: SHORT QUESTIONS Convert 2-butene and methyl cyanide into acetic acid.

Q.2: Give mechanism of esterification.

Q.3: How acetic acid is converted into acetamide and acetyl chloride?

Q.4: What is Zwitter ion?

Q.5: What are neutral amino acids?

Q.6: Write down Strecker method for amino acid preparation.

Q.7: What is peptide bond? Write down formula of dipeptide. Q.8: Differentiate between polypeptide and protein. Q.9: Write uses of acetic acid. Q.10: Write mechanism of reaction between acetic acid and ammonia. Q.11: Write down flavours of different esters used in daily life. Q.12: Describe reactions of carboxylic acids in which hydrogen atom of -COOH group

is involved. Q.13: What are essential and non-essential amino acids? Q.14: Why carboxylic acids have high boiling points than alcohols?

Draw a dimer of carboxylic acid. Q.21: Discuss acidic and basic character of amino acids. Q.22: Write down formula of dipeptide. Q.23: How acetic acid is converted into methane and acetic anhydride? Q.15: What happens when following compounds are heated? ammonium

acetate, sodium formate and soda lime, calcium acetate Q.16: Convert acetic acid into ethanol and ethane. Q.17: Write down formula of tartaric acid and lactic acid. Q.18: What are aliphatic and aromatic carboxylic acids? Q.19: How hydrolysis of ester lead to formation of acetic acid? Q.20: Prepare alcohol and alkane from carboxylic acid.


Q.1. How will you prepare acetic acid from:

(i) Grignard reagent (ii) Primary alcohol

Q.2. (iii) Methyl nitrile (iv) Acetaldehyde

Give equation to show the reactions of acetic acid with:

Q.3. (i) Na2CO3 (ii) C2H5OH (iii) SOCl2 (iv) PCl5

Discuss the mechanism of reaction between carboxylic acid and thionyl chloride. Q.4. Write structural formula of:

(i) Phthalic acid (ii) Ethanedioic acid

Q.5. (iii) Glycine (iv) Benzoic acid

Discuss the mechanism of the reaction between carboxylic acid and ethyl alcohol.

Q.6. How would you covert acetic acid into the followings:

Q.7. (i) Methane (ii) Acetyl chloride (iii) Acetamide (iv) Acetic anhydride How acetic acid reacts with ammonia? Give its mechanism.

Q.8. What are amino acids? Give their two methods of preparations. Q.9. Define amine acids. What is difference between protein and polypeptide?

Q.10. What is glacial acetic acid? Give three methods for the preparation of acetic acid.




CHAPTER 14

MCQS Q.1. In which process small molecules are converted into macromolecules? (A) cracking of petroleum fractions (B) fractional distillation of crude oil

(C) polymerization of ethene (D) hydrolysis of proteins

Q.2. Plastics cause pollution problem because many plastics

(A) are made from petroleum (B) are very inflammable

(C) burn to form toxic fumes (D) decompose to form toxic products

Q.3. Which of the following is synthetic polymer?

(A) starch (B) polyester (C) animal fat (D) cellulose

Q.4. Among following, addition polymer is

(A) polystyrene (B) nylon 6,6 (C) terylene (D) epoxy resin

Q.5. The fibre which is made up of acrylonitrile is

(A) rayon fibre (B) polyester (C) acrylic fibre (D) PVC Q.6. A polymeric substance that is formed in the liquid state and then hardened to a

rigid solid is called

(A) fibre (B) plastic

(C) varnish (D) polyamide resin

Q.7. Teflon, polystyrene and neoprene are all:

(A) Copolymers (B) Monomers

(C) Homopolymers (D) Condensation polymers

Q.8. Which one of the following is condensation polymer?

(A) PVC (B) Polystyrene (C) Polythene (D) Nylon-6,6

Q.9. Polymerization of acrylonitrile gives

(A) rayon fibre (B) polyester fibre (C) acrylic fibre (D) PVC

Q.10. Epoxy resins are fundamentally

(A) polyamide (B) poly ethers (C) polyesters (D) polyvinyls Q.11. Which of the following compounds is found abundantly in nature?

(A) Cellulose (B) Fructose (C) Starch (D) Glucose

Q.12. Potato, rice, maize and wheat are the major sources of:

(A) Fructose (B) Starch (C) Sucrose (D) Glucose

Q.13. Starch is a polymer of

(A) fructose (B) α-D-glucose (C) sucrose (D) lactose

Q.14. Which one is disaccharide?

(A) Glucose (B) Fructose (C) Sucrose (D) Raffinose

Q.15. Which one is monosaccharide?

(A) Starch (B) Fructose (C) Sucrose (D) Cellulose

Q.16. Starch is

(A) Monosaccharide (B) Oligosaccharide (C) Polysaccharide (D) Disaccharides

Q.17. Starch is

(A) monosaccharide (B) oligosaccharide (C) polysaccharide (D) protein

Q.18. The animal starch is:

(A) Glucose (B) Glycogen (C) Fructose (D) Sucrose

Q.19. After digestion proteins change into:

(A) Amino acids (B) Glucose (C) Glycol (D) Fatty acids

Q.20. The protein part of enzyme is called:

(A) Substrate (B) Activator (C) Co-enzyme (D) Apoenzyme

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Q.21. The extent of unsaturation of fat or oil is measured by:

(A) Saponification value (B) Oxidation number

(C) Iodine number (D) Reduction number

Q.22. Vegetable oils are

(A) Polyesters (B) Glycerides of unsaturated fatty acids

(C) Essential oils (D) fatty acid

Q.23. Oils and fats rancid when placed in humid air. This is because oxidative cleavage

of them give foul smell

(A) Hydrogen sulphide (B) Aldehydes

(C) Fatty acids (D) Both B and C

Q.24. Which of the following is an ester?

(A) Soap (B) Starch (C) Dacron (D) Cholesterol Q.25. Which of the following serve as excellent insulators for the animal body?

(A) Fats (B) Starch (C) Enzymes (D) Vitamins Q.26. Which one of the following statement is incorrect about glucose and fructose? (A) both are soluble in water (B) both are naturally occurring

(C) both are carbohydrates (D) both are disaccharides

Q.27. Which one of the following is not present in all proteins?

(A) nitrogen (B) carbon (C) sulphur (D) hydrogen

Q.28. The reaction between fat and caustic soda is called

(A) esterification (B) hydrogenolysis (C) saponification (D) fermentation

Q.29. Vegetable oils are

(A) unsaturated fatty acids (B) glycerides of unsaturated fatty acids

(C) glycerides of saturated fatty acids (D) essential oils obtained from plants

Q.30. Which one of the following is water soluble vitamin?

(A) niacin (B) riboflavin (C) trypsin (D) ascorbic acid

Q.31. Which enzyme hydrolyses fats?

(A) zymase (B) lipase (C) invertase (D) urease

Q.32. Enzyme used for the treatment of blood cancer in children is:

(A) Cellulase (B) Urease

(C) L-asparaginase (D) Lactic dehydrogenase

Q.33. The optimum PH of salivary amylase is

(A) 5.4 to 6.9 (B) 5.4 to 7.9 (C) 6.4 to 6.9 (D) 6.4 to 7.4

Q.34. Enzyme used locally to stop the blood from wound

(A) Insulin (B) L-asparginase (C) Thrombin (D) Zymase

Q.35. Which of the following is not present in RNA?

(A) cytosine (B) uracil (C) thymine (D) guanine

SHORT QUESTIONS Q.1: What are polymers? Give two examples.

Q.2: What are macromolecules (polymers)? Give their classification.

Q.3: What is degree of polymerization?

Q.4: What are different types of polymers on the basis of heat effect?

Q.5: What is addition polymerization? Give example.

Q.6: What are condensation polymers? Give example of polyester.

Q.7: What are carbohydrates? How are they classified?

Q.8: How polyvinyl chloride is prepared?

Q.9: Describe and draw open and cyclic structure of fructose.

Q.10: Give the structure of amylopectin.

Q.11: What are proteins? Write down their classification.

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Q.12: Describe the importance of proteins. Q.13: What are uses of lipids? Q.14: What is saponification? Q.15: How fats are hydrolyzed? Q.16: Define saponification number, iodine number and acid number. Q.17: What is hardening of oils? Q.18: What is rancidity of fats? Why it occurs Q.19: Draw structure of cholesterol. Q.20: Discuss the classification of enzymes. Q.21: Name various factors affecting enzyme activity. Q.22: Differentiate between DNA and RNA. Q.23: Discuss epoxy resins. What are their uses?

LONG QUESTIONS

Q.1. Write a note on cholesterol. Q.2. Just name four factors affecting the activity of enzymes. Q.3. Explain different type of polymers with an example of each. Q.4. How polyamide resins are formed? Give equation for the preparation of Nylon

6,6 and write its two uses. Q.5. What are carbohydrates? Describe monosaccharides and oligosaccharides. Q.6. Discuss three chemical properties of lipids with the help of reactions. Q.7. Describe various classes of enzymes. Q.8. What are addition polymers? Discuss with the mechanism of polystyrene.

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CHAPTER 15

MCQS Q.1. The micronutrients are required are in range

(A) 4-40 g (B) 6-200 g (C) 6-200 kg (D) 4-40 kg

Q.2. Which three elements are needed for healthy plant growth?

(A) N,S,P (B) N,P,K (C) N, Ca, P (D) N, K, C

Q.3. The macronutrients are required are in range

(A) 5-50kg (B) 5-100kg (C) 5-150kg (D) 5-200kg

Q.4. Macronutrient for soil is

Q.5. (A) N2 (B) Cu (C) Zn (D) Fe

Which one of the following is trace element:

(A) Copper (B) Nitrogen (C) Sulphur (D) Calcium

Q.6. Which one is micronutrient?

(A) Nitrogen (B) Phosphorous (C) Boron (D) Potassium

Q.7. Micro-nutrients for plants are those which:

(A) Retard the growth of plants (B) Are required in very small amount

(C) Are required in very large amount (D) None of these

Q.8. Nitrogen present in some fertilizers helps plants

(A) fight against diseases (B) to produce fat

(C) to undergo photosynthesis (D) to produce proteins

Q.9. Ammonium nitrate fertilizer is not used for which crop

(A) wheat (B) cotton (C) sugar cane (D) paddy rice

Q.10. The percentage of nitrogen in ammonium nitrate is

(A) 46% (B) 50% (C) 40% (D) 33% Q.11. Point out the set of raw material which is most suitable for manufacture of urea: Q.12. (A) H2O, N2 & H2 (B) H2, CO2 & H2O (C) CH4, N2 & CO2 (D) H2, N2 & CO2

Indicate the fertilizer which is the source of phosphorous for plants:

(A) Muriate of potash (B) Urea

(C) Calcium Superphosphate (D) Noshader

Q.13. Percentage of nitrogen in urea is:

(A) 76% (B) 56% (C) 46% (D) 86%

Q.14. The fertilizer which contains 46% nitrogen

(A) Urea (B) Ammonium nitrate

(C) Ammonia (D) Ammonium cyanate

Q.15. Diammonium phosphate contains

(A) 18% nitrogen (B) 85% plant nutrients

(C) 48% P2O5 (D) 10% nitrogen

Q.16. What is the composition of rock phosphate?

Q.17. (A) Ca3(PO4)CaF2 (B) Ca3(PO4)2 (C) Ca(H2PO4)2 (D) CaH3PO4

One of the following fertilizers provides nitrogen and phosphorous both to the

plants; indicate that:

(A) Potassium nitrate (B) Diammonium phosphate

(C) Calcium superphosphate (D) Urea

Q.18. Phosphorous helps the growth of

(A) root (B) stem (C) leaves (D) seed Q.19. During the manufacturing process of cement, the temperature of decomposition

zone goes up to

(A) 500˚C (B) 800˚C (C) 1300˚C (D) 1500˚C

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Q.20. Which is not a calcarious material? (A) lime (B) clay (C) marble (D) marine shell

Q.21. One of the following materials is calcarious in nature. Which is that?

(A) Shale (B) Marine shells (C) Blast furnace slag (D) Clay

Q.22. Which sequence of steps is correct for the manufacture of cement?

(A) Mixing, heating, grinding, crushing (B) Crushing, heating, mixing, grinding

(C) Crushing, mixing, heating, grinding (D) Crushing, grinding, mixing, heating

Q.23. In cement industry, the composition mixture of clay and lime stone in the raw

material has:

(A) 55% lime stone and 15% clay (B) 15% lime stone and 55% clay (C) 25% lime stone and 75% clay (D) 75% lime stone and 25% clay

Q.24. How many zones through which charge passes in rotary kiln?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

Q.25. The percentage of lime in Portland cement is

(A) 1.0% (B) 62% (C) 2.5% (D) 22%

Q.26. Cement contains gypsum:

(A) 3% (B) 2% (C) 0.2 % (D) 0.3%

Q.27. One of the following is argillaceous material?

(A) lime (B) clay (C) marble (D) marine shell

Q.28. Argillaceous material used for manufacture of cement provides

(A) Basic components (B) Amphoteric components

(C) Acidic components (D) Both A and C Q.29. Which woody raw material is used for the manufacture of paper pulp?

(A) cotton (B) baggase (C) poplar (D) rice straw

Q.30. The word paper is derived from which reedy plant?

(A) poplar (B) papyrus (C) sun flower (D) rose Q.31. Point out the non-woody raw material used for making pulp and paper:

(A) Fur (B) Wheat straw (C) Eucalyptus (D) Poplar Q.32. Which one of the processes of pulp making is mostly used in Pakistan? (A) Neutral sulphite semi-chemical process (B) Sulphite process (Acidic)

(C) Kraft process (Alkaline) (D) None of these Q.33. One of the following substances is used for bleaching the pulp. What is that?

Q.34. (A) NaOH (B) Na2SO3 (C) NaCl (D) NaClO Which substance is used as filler or additive in paper making?

(A) Cellulose (B) Starch (C) Epsom salt (D) Lime

Q.35. Which one of the following is non-woody raw material used for making pulp and paper?

(A) Poplar (B) Eucalyptus (C) corn straw (D) fur

SHORT QUESTIONS Q.1: What is a need for fertilizers?

Q.2: What are essential chemical nutrient elements?

Q.3: What are the qualities of good fertilizer?

Q.4: What is the importance of nitrogen fertilizers?

Q.5: Write formulae and names of two phosphatic fertilizers.

Q.6: What is the importance of potassium fertilizers?

Q.7: What is clinker? Q.8: Define cement. Write down raw materials. Q.9: What is composition of Portland cement?

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Q.10: Why wet process is preferred over dry process? Q.11: What are different zones of kiln in cement industry? Q.12: What is meant by setting of cement? Write down reactions taking place in 24 hours. Q.13: Define paper. Write down raw materials for paper. Q.14: What is paper? What are different pulping processes? Q.15: Why NH4NO3 is not useful in paddy rice fields? Q.16: What is the prospect of cement industry in Pakistan? Q.17: Draw paper making machine.

LONG QUESTIONS Q.1. Write essential qualities of good fertilizer. Q.2. How urea is manufactured on industrial scale? Give its different steps by giving

flow sheet diagram. Q.3. What are phosphatic fertilizers? How are they prepared? Mention the role of

fertilizer in the growth of plants. Q.4. Define comment. Write down the five stages in the manufacturing of Portland

cement by wet process. Q.5. Describe different zones of the rotary kiln with temperature in the manufacture

of cement, Q.6. What is setting of cement? Explain the reaction taking place in first 24 hours. Q.7. Describe neutral sulphite semi chemicals process of pulping of paper. Q.8. Discuss the major six components of paper making machine. Q.9. What are the common bleaching agents in paper industry in Pakistan?

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CHAPTER 16

MCQS Q.1. Ecosystem is the smaller unit of

(A) atmosphere (B) biosphere (C) lithosphere (D) hydrosphere

Q.2. The substance which is classified as secondary pollutant

(A) Ammonia (B) Nitric oxide

(C) Ozone (D) Sulphur trioxide

Q.3. Which is secondary pollutant?

Q.4. (A) CO (B) H2CO3 (C) SO2 (D) CO2

Component of environment which contains all water bodies is

(A) atmosphere (B) biosphere (C) lithosphere (D) hydrosphere

Q.5. Which gas is the cause of asthma?

Q.6. (A) O3 (B) SO2 (C) O2 (D) CO2

Which gas is the most toxic?

Q.7. (A) CO (B) SO2 (C) C (D) CO2

A gas which burns with blue flame

Q.8. (A) CO (B) N2 (C) NO (D) CO2

Which one is not the property of CO?

(A) Help in photosynthesis (B) Lighter than air

(C) Water soluble (D) Highly toxic

Q.9. The residence time of NO is:

(A) 4 days (B) 3 days (C) 1 day (D) Few hours

Q.10. The percentage of carbon dioxide in atmosphere is

(A) 0.01 (B) 0.02 (C) 0.03 (D) 0.04

Q.11. Which gas is not pollutant?

Q.12. (A) NO2 (B) SO2 (C) CO (D) CO2

The pH of unpolluted rain is

(A) 5.6 (B) 6-5.6 (C) 6.5-6.0 (D) less than 5 Q.13. One of the following substances causes acid rain. Which is that? Q.14. (A) Hydrocarbons (B) Chlorofluorocarbons(C) SO3 (D) O3

Which of the following is not a component of acid rain?

Q.15. (A) HCl (B) HNO3 (C) H2O2 (D) H2SO4

The acidification of soil and rocks can leach the metals like Al, Hg, lead and

calcium which causes: (A) Damaging of leaves (B) Accumulation of these metals in fishes (C) Damaging of the building materials (D) All of the above

Q.16.

Q.17.

Q.18.

The pH of acidic rain is

(A) 7-6.5 (B) 6-5.6 (C) 6.5-6.0 (D) less than 5

Peroxy acetyl nitrate is secondary pollutant and it is________irritant

(A) lungs (B) eyes (C) kidney (D) throat

Ozone is present in which layer of atmosphere?

(A) Troposphere (B) Mesosphere (C) Thermosphere (D) Stratosphere

Q.19. Ozone is present in the form of layer in the stratosphere and surrounds the globe at a distance of:

(A) 25–28 km (B) 50–60 km (C) 10–15 km (D) 15–20 km

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Q.20. A single chloride radical can destroy ozone molecules up to

(A) 100 (B) 1000 (C) 10000 (D) 100000

Q.21. Thickness of atmosphere is_______km

(A) 10 (B) 100 (C) 1000 (D) 10000

Q.22. The fungicides are the pesticides that

(A) control the growth of fungus (B) kill insects

(C) kill herbs (D) kill plants

Q.23. Which of the following is major pollutant in leather industries?

(A) lead (B) copper

(C) Chromium (VI) (D) chromium (III)

Q.24. The main pollutant of leather industries is the waste water containing the salt of

(A) lead (B) copper (C) Chromium (D) sodium Q.25. Which of the following factors is not used to determine the quality of water?

(A) Available chlorine (B) COD

(C) BOD (D) Dissolved oxygen

Q.26. The water having dissolved O2 less than ……… is polluted: (D) 10ppm

(A) 2ppm (B) 4ppm (C) 5ppm

Q.27. Which of the following is employed to improve the quality of raw water?

(A) Incineration (B) Dehydration (C) Aeration (D) Reduction

Q.28. In purification of potable water, the coagulant used is

(A) nickel sulphate (B) copper sulphate (C) barium sulphate (D) alum

Q.29. The hard water contains

(A) Ca and Mg salts (B) Chlorides of Na and K

(C) carbonates of Na and K (D) sulphates of Al

Q.30. To avoid formation of toxic compounds in water with chlorine, which is used for

disinfecting water?

Q.31. (A) KMnO4 (B) O3 (C) alum (D) chloramines

Water is disinfected by a substance to avoid toxification:

(A) KMnO4 (B) O3 (C) Alums (D) Cl2

Q.32. Which is carcinogenic class of compounds?

(A) Dioxins (B) Esters (C) Alums (D) Ethers

Q.33. Disinfection of water by chlorine is done by production of

Q.34. (A) NH2Cl (B) NCl3 (C) HOCl (D) NHCl2

The temperature in the non-rotating chamber in the incineration of industrial

and hazardous waste process has a range (C) 950 to 1300 0C (D) 500 to 900 0C

(A) 900 to 1000 0C (B) 250 to 500 0C Q.35. Newspaper can be recycled again and again by how many times?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

SHORT QUESTIONS Q.1: Write name of components of environment.

Q.2: What is unpolluted and acidic rain?

Q.3: What are disadvantages of acid rain?

Q.4: What is smog?

Q.5: What are main conditions for the formation of photochemical smog? Q.6: Define environment pollutant. What are primary and secondary pollutants?

Q.7: Define ecosystem.

Q.8: How chlorofluorocarbons destroy ozone? Or why is ozone layer depleting?

Q.9: What are detergents? How they affect the quality of water?

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Q.10: What is dissolved oxygen? Q.11: What is biochemical oxygen demand? Q.12: What is chemical oxygen demand? Q.13: What are the advantages of aeration of water? Q.14: What is leachate? Q.15: How recycling of waste is carried out? Q.16: What are the main sources of SO2 as air pollutant? Q.17: Describe natural sources of hydrocarbons in atmosphere. Q.18: How do leather tanneries pollute water?

LONG QUESTIONS

Q.1. LONG QUESTIONS

Name the components of environment. Give approximate composition of atmosphere

Q.2. and lithosphere.

What is acid rain and how it effects our environment? Q.3. What is smog? Give its types. Write its main cause. Q.4. Discuss ozone as blessing. How it is destroyed by CFCs? Q.5. How is oil spillage affecting the marine life? Q.6. Write methods for purification of water. Explain the process of disinfection of water

Q.7. chlorine.

How pesticides are dangerous to human being? Comment.

Q.8. How water is purified by: (i) aeration (ii) coagulation

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