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1). From 7:00 AM to 11:00 AM it rained 2.25 inches. At 11:00 AM the rainincreased to fall at a rate of 1.25 in. every two hours. How many inches ofrain landed on the ground by 5:00 PM?

a) 7

b) 9.75

c) 6

d) 3.25

e) 7.125

2). The owner of a hobby store needed to calculate the percentage ofcustomers who purchase wood glue. Upon completing his survey, henoticed that 60% of the people that entered his store purchased an item.Of those customers, 15 percent purchased wood glue. What percent of thepeople that entered the store purchased wood glue?

a) 8%

b) 7%

c) 9%

d) 12%

e) 15%

3) If 1/x = 3.5. then 1/(x+2) =

a) 7/9

b) 16/7

c) 7/16

d) 9/7

e) 7/4

4) A store owner is packing small radios into larger boxes that measure 25in. by 42 in. by 60 in. If the measurement of each radio is 7 in. by 6 in. by5 in., then how many radios can be placed in the box?

a) 300

b) 325

c) 400

d) 420

e) 480

5) Frank is 15 years younger then John. In 5 years John will be twice as oldas Frank. How old will Frank be in four years?

a) 8

b) 10

c) 12

d) 11e) 16

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6) A store owner decided to raise the price of a particular item by exactly10%. Of the following which is NOT the new price?

a) $1.10

b) $8.80

c) $11.00

d) $57.30

e) $78.10

7) The price of a candy bar is $1.00. The price of a ten pack of the samecandy bar is $7.40. The ten pack of candy bars is what percentagecheaper then purchasing ten candy bars individually?

a) 18%

b) 26%

c) 32%d) 48%

e) The prices are same

In a certain department store, which has four sizes of a specific shirt,there are 1/3 as many small shirts as medium shirts, and 1/2 as manylarge shirts as small shirts. If there are as many x-large shirts as largeshirts, what percent of the shirts in the store are medium?

a) 10%

b) 25%c) 33%

d) 50%

e) 60%

9) A new apartment complex purchased 60 toilets and 20 shower heads. Ifthe price of a toilet is three times the price of a shower head, whatpercent of the total cost was the cost of all the shower heads?

a) 9%

b) 10%

c) 11%

d) 13%

e) 15%

10) A car averages 55 mph for the first 4 hours of a trip and averages 70mph for each additional hour. The average speed for the entire trip was60 mph. How many hours long is the trip?

a) 6

b) 8

c) 11d) 12

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e) 11

11) In 1991, was the number of people in City A three times greater thenthe number of people in City B?

1) In 1991, there were approximately 1.1 million more people in City A

than in City B.2) In 1991, the 300,000 Catholics in City A made up 20% of its population,and the 111,000 Buddhists in City B made up 30% of its population.

a) if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is notsufficient to answer the question.

b) if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is notsufficient to answer the question.

c) if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer thequestion asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the

question asked, and additional data specific to the problem areneeded.

12) (165)2 (164)2 =

a) 1

b) 100

c) 229

d) 329

e) 349

13) If the ticket sales s for a company increases 25% from standard salesto 60 tickets sold, then 60 s =:

a) 7

b) 12

c) 18

d) 30

e) 48

11) All of the tickets for 2 music concerts, X and Y, were either purchasedor given away, and the ratio of X tickets to Y was 2 to 1. Of the totalnumber of X tickets and Y tickets, what percentage was purchased?

1) The total number of X tickets and Y tickets, is 240.

2) Of the X tickets, exactly 60% were purchased, and of the Y tickets,exactly 80% were purchased.



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d) if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.

e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the


15) If a and b are positive integers, is a + 4b odd?

1) b is even.

2) a is odd.





e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer thequestion asked, and additional data specific to the problem areneeded.

16) If q is a multiple of prime numbers, is q a multiple of r?

1) r < 4.

2) q = 18.





e) if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the


17) How many integers between 100 and 150, inclusive, cannot be evenlydivided by 3 nor 5?

a) 35

b) 27

c) 25

d) 26

e) 28

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18) Susan wants to put up fencing around three sides of her rectangularyard and leave a side of 20 feet unfenced. If the yard has an area of680 square feet, how many feet of fencing does she need?

a) 38

b) 44c) 72

d) 88

e) 97

19) Which of the following equations has a root in common with x2 6x +5 = 0?

a) x2 + 1 = 0

b) x2 x 2 = 0

c) 2x

2

2 = 0d) x2 2x 3 = 0

e) x2 10x 5 = 0

20) A computer store regularly sells all stock at a discount of 20 percentto 40 percent. If an additional 25 percent were deducted from thediscount price during a special sale, what would be the lowestpossible price of a part costing $16 before any discount?

a) $6.80

b) $7.20

c) $9.60

d) $11.30

e) $11.80

21) If basis points are defined so that 1 percent is equal to 100 basispoints, then 75.5 percent is how many basis points greater than65.5 percent?

a) .01

b) .10

c) 10d) 100

e) 1000

22) If x + 8y = 20 and x = -3y, then y =

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

e) 823) If 2x + y = 10 and x = 3, what is x y

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a) -3

b) -1

c) 0

d) 1

e) 3

24) If a triangle has a base B and the altitude of the triangle is twice thebase, then the area of the triangle is

a) .5AB

b) AB

c) .5AB2

d) B2

e) 2B2

25) If y/x = 1/3 and x + 2y = 10, then x is

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

e) 6

S E C T I O N B

VERBAL REASONING ( 20 QUESTIONS 30 MINUTES )

DIRECTIONS :- ENITRE SECTION B IS DIVIDED INTO THREE PASSAGES.READ EACH PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND ANSWER QUESTIONS MENTIONEDBELOW.

PASSAGE I

QUESTION NO 1-6

If one always ought to act so as to produce the best possiblecircumstances, then morality is extremely demanding. No one couldplausibly claim to have met the requirements of this simpleprinciple. . . . It would seem strange to punish those intending to do good

by sentencing them to an impossible task. Also, if the standards of rightconduct are as extreme as they seem, then they will preclude thepersonal projects that humans find most fulfilling.

From an analytic perspective, the potential extreme demands of moralityare not a problem. A theory of morality is no less valid simply because itasks great sacrifices. In fact, it is difficult to imagine what kind ofconstraints could be put on our ethical projects. Shouldnt we reflect onour base prejudices, and not allow them to provide boundaries for ourmoral reasoning? Thus, it is tempting to simply dismiss the objections tothe simple principle. However, in Demands of Morality, Liam Murphy takes

these objections seriously for at least two distinct reasons.

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First, discussion of the simple principle provides an excellent vehicle for adiscussion of morality in general. Perhaps, in a way, this is Murphysattempt at doing philosophy from the inside out.. . . Second, Murphysstarting point tells us about the nature of his project. Murphy must takeseriously the collisions between moral philosophy and our intuitive sense

of right and wrong. He [must do so] because his work is best interpretedas intended to forge moral principles from our firm beliefs, and not toproscribe beliefs given a set of moral principles.

[Murphy] argues from our considered judgments rather than to them. . .For example, Murphy cites our simple but firmly held beliefs assupporting the potency of the over-demandingness objection, andnowhere in the work can one find a source of moral values divorced fromhuman preferences.

Murphy does not tell us what set of firm beliefs we ought to have.Rather, he speaks to an audience of well-intentioned but unorganized

moral realists, and tries to give them principles that represent theirconsidered moral judgments. Murphy starts with this base sense of rightand wrong, but recognizes that it needs to be supplemented by reasonwhere our intuitions are confused or conflicting. Perhaps Murphy is lookingfor the best interpretation of our convictions, the same way certain legalscholars try to find the best interpretation of our Constitution.

This approach has disadvantages. Primarily, Murphys arguments, even ifsuccessful, do not provide the kind of motivating force for which moralphilosophy has traditionally searched. His work assumes and argues interms of an inner sense of morality, and his project seeks to deepen that

sense. Of course, it is quite possible that the moral viewpoints of humanswill not converge, and some humans have no moral sense at all. Thus, it isvery easy for the moral skeptic to point out a lack of justification andignore the entire work.

On the other hand, Murphys choice of a starting point avoids many of theproblems of moral philosophy. Justifying the content of moral principlesand granting a motivating force to those principles is an extraordinarytask. It would be unrealistic to expect all discussions of moral philosophyto derive such justifications. Projects that attempt such a derivation havevalue, but they are hard pressed to produce logical consequences for

everyday life. In the end, Murphys strategy may have more practicaleffect than its first-principle counterparts, which do not seem any morelikely to convince those that would reject Murphys premises.

1) The author suggests that the application of Murphys philosophy to thesituations of two different groups:

a) would help to solve the problems of one group but not of the other.

b) could result in the derivation of two radically different moral principles.

c) would be contingent on the two groups sharing the same fundamentalbeliefs.

d) could reconcile any differences between the two groups.

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2) Suppose an individual who firmly believes in keeping promises haspromised to return a weapon to a person she knows to be extremelydangerous. According to Murphy, which of the following, if true, wouldWEAKEN the notion that she should return the weapon?

a) She also firmly believes that it is morally wrong to assist in any way in apotentially violent act.

b) She believes herself to be well-intentioned in matters of right andwrong.

c) The belief that one should keep promises is shared by most members ofher community.

d) She derived her moral beliefs from first-principle ethical philosophy.

3) The passage implies that a moral principle derived from applyingMurphys philosophy to a particular group would be applicable toanother group if:

a) the first group recommended the principle to the second group.

b) the moral viewpoints of the two groups do not converge.

c) the members of the second group have no firmly held beliefs.

d) the second group shares the same fundamental beliefs as the firstgroup.

4) According to the passage, the existence of individuals who entirely lacka moral sense:

a) confirms the notion that moral principles should be derived from the

considered judgments of individuals.b) suggests a potential disadvantage of Murphys philosophical approach.

c) supports Murphys belief that reason is necessary in cases in whichintuitions are conflicting or confused.

d) proves that first-principle strategies of ethical theorizing will have nomore influence over the behavior of individuals than will Murphysphilosophical approach.

5) Which of the following can be inferred about doing philosophy fromthe inside out?

a) Murphy was the first philosopher to employ such an approach.b) It allows no place for rational argument in the formation of ethical

principles.

c) It is fundamentally different from the practice of first-principlephilosophy.

d) It is designed to dismiss objections to the simple principle.

6) A school board is debating whether or not to institute a dress code forthe schools students. According to Murphy, the best way to come toan ethical decision would be to:

a) consult the fundamental beliefs of the board members.

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b) analyze the results of dress codes instituted at other schools.

c) survey the students as to whether or not they would prefer a dresscode.

d) determine whether or note a dress code has ever been instituted in the

schools history.PASSAGE II

QUESTION NO 7-13

Agonistic behavior, or aggression, is exhibited by most of the more thanthree million species of animals on this planet. Animal behaviorists stilldisagree on a comprehensive definition of the term, hut aggressivebehavior can be loosely described as any action that harms an adversaryor compels it to retreat. Aggression may serve many purposes, such asFood gathering, establishing territory, and enforcing social hierarchy. In ageneral Darwinian sense, however, the purpose of aggressive behavior is

to increase the individual animalsand thus, the specieschance ofsurvival.

Aggressive behavior may he directed at animals of other species, or itmay be conspecificthat is, directed at members of an animals ownspecies. One of the most common examples of conspecific aggressionoccurs in the establishment and maintenance of social hierarchies. In ahierarchy, social dominance is usually established according to physicalsuperiority; the classic example is that of a pecking order among domesticfowl. The dominance hierarchy may be viewed as a means of socialcontrol that reduces the incidence of attack within a group. Once

established, the hierarchy is rarely threatened by disputes because theinferior animal immediately submits when confronted by a superior.

Two basic types of aggressive behavior are common to most species:attack and defensive threat. Each type involves a particular pattern ofphysiological and behavioral responses, which tends not to varyregardless of the stimulus that provokes it. For example, the pattern ofattack behavior in cats involves a series of movements, such as stalking,biting, seizing with the forepaws and scratching with tile hind legs, thatchanges very little regardless of the stimulusthat is, regardless of whoor what the cat is attacking.

The cats defensive threat response offers another set of closely linkedphysiological and behavioral patterns. The cardiovascular system beginsto pump blood at a faster rate, in preparation for sudden physical activity.The eves narrow and the ears flatten against the side of the cats head forprotection, and other vulnerable areas of the body such as the stomachand throat are similarly contracted. Growling or hissing noises and erectfur also signal defensive threat. As with the attack response, this patternof responses is generated with little variation regardless of the nature ofthe stimulus.

Are these aggressive patterns of attack and defensive threat innate,

genetically programmed, or are they learned? The answer seems to be acombination of both. A mouse is helpless at birth, but by its l2th day of life

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can assume a defensive threat position by backing up on its hind legs. Bythe time it is one month old, the mouse begins to exhibit the attackresponse. Nonetheless, copious evidence suggests that animals learn andpractice aggressive behavior; one need look no further than the sight of akitten playing with a ball of string. All the elements of attackstalking,

pouncing, biting, and shakingare part of the game that prepares thekitten for more serious situations later in life.

7) The passage asserts that animal social hierarchies are generally stablebecause:

a) the behavior responses of the group are known by all its members.

b) the defensive threat posture quickly stops most conflicts.

c) inferior animals usually defer to their physical superior.

d) the need for mutual protection from other species inhibits conspecificaggression.

According to the author, what is the most significant physiologicalchange undergone by a cat assuming the defensive threat position?

a) An increase in cardiovascular activity

b) A sudden narrowing of the eyes

c) A contraction of the abdominal muscles

d) The author does not say which change is most significant

9) Based on the information in the passage about agonistic behavior, it isreasonable to conclude that:

I. the purpose of agonistic behavior is to help ensure the survival of thespecies.

II. agonistic behavior is both innate and learned.

III. conspecific aggression is more frequent than i aggression.

a) I only

b) II only

c) I and II only

d) I,II and III only

10) Which of the following would be most in accord with the informationpresented in the passage?

a) The aggressive behavior of sharks is closely inked to their need toremain in constant motion.

b) fine inability of newborn mice to exhibit the attack response provesthat aggressive behavior must be learned.

c) Most animal species that do riot exhibit aggressive behavior areprevented from doing so by environmental factors.

d) Members of a certain species of hawk use the same method to prey onboth squirrels and gophers.

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11) The author suggests that the question of whether agonistic behavior isgenetically programmed or learned:

a) still generates considerable controversy among animal behaviorists.

b) was first investigated through experiments on mice.

c) is outdated since most scientists now believe the genetic element to bemost important.

d) has been the subject of extensive clinical study.

12) Which of the following topics related to agonistic behavior is NOTexplicitly addressed in the passage?

a) The physiological changes that accompany attack behavior in cats

b) The evolutionary purpose of aggression

c) Conspecific aggression that occurs in dominance hierarchies

d) The relationship between play and aggression13) The author of this passage is primarily concerned with:

a) analyzing the differences between attack behavior and defensive threatbehavior.

b) introducing a subject currently debated among animal behaviorists.

c) providing a general overview of aggressive behavior in animals.

d) illustrating various manifestations of agonistic behavior amongmammals.

PASSAGE III

QUESTION NO 11 20

The rich analysts of Fernand Braudel arid his fellow Annales historianshave made significant contributions to historical theory and research. In adeparture from traditional historical approaches, the Annales historiansassume (as do Marxists) that history cannot be limited to a simplerecounting of conscious human actions, but must be understood in thecontext of forces and material conditions that underlie human behavior.Braudel was the first Annales historian to gain widespread support for theidea that history should synthesize data from various social sciences,especially economics, in order to provide a broader view of human

societies over time (although Febvre and Bloch, founders of the Annalesschool, had originated this approach).

Braudel conceived of history as the dynamic interaction of threetemporalities. The first of these, the evenmentielle, involved short-liveddramatic events such as battles, revolutions, and the actions of greatmen, which had preoccupied traditional historians like Carlyle.Conjonctures was Braudels term for larger cyclical processes that mightlast up to half a century. The longue duree, a historical wave of greatlength, was for Braudel the most fascinating of the three temporalities.Here he focused on those aspects of everyday life that might remain

relatively unchanged for centuries. What people ate, what they wore, theirmeans and routes of travelfor Braudel these things create structures

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that define the limits of potential social change for hundreds of years at atime.

Braudels concept of the longue duree extended the perspective ofhistorical space as well as time. Until the Annales school, historians hadtaken the juridical political unitthe nation-state, duchy, or whateverastheir starting point. Yet, when such enormous timespans are considered,geographical features may well have more significance for humanpopulations than national borders, In his doctoral thesis, a seminal workon the Mediterranean during the reign of Philip II, Braudel treated thegeohistory of the entire region as a structure that had exerted myriadinfluences on human lifeways since the first settlements on the shores ofthe Mediterranean Sea. And so the reader is given such arcaneinformation as the list of products that came to Spanish shores from NorthAfrica, the seasonal routes followed by Mediterranean sheep and theirshepherds, and the cities where the best ship timber could be bought.

Braudel has been faulted for the imprecision of his approach. With hisRabelaisian delight in concrete detail, Braudel vastly extended the realmof relevant phenomena but this very achievement made it difficult todelimit the boundaries of observation, a task necessary to beginning anysocial investigation. Further, Braudel and other Annales historiansminimize the differences among the social sciences. Nevertheless, themany similarly designed studies aimed at both professional and popularaudiences indicate that Braudel asked significant questions thattraditional historians had overlooked.

11) The primary purpose of the passage is to:

a) show how Braudels work changed the conception of Mediterranean lifeheld by previous historians.

b) evaluate Braudels criticisms of traditional and Marxist historiography.

c) contrast the perspective of the longue duree with the actions of majorhistorical figures

d) outline some of Braudels influential conceptions and distinguish themfrom conventional approaches.

15) The author refers to the work of Febvre and Bloch in order to:

a) illustrate the limitations of the Annale tradition of historicalinterpretation.

b) suggest the relevance of economics to historical investigation.

c) debate the need for combining various sociological approaches.

d) show that previous Annales historians anticipated Braudels focus oneconomics.

16) According to the passage, all of the following are aspects of Braudelsapproach to history EXCEPT that he:

a) attempted to draw on various social sciences.

b) studied social and economic activities that occurred across nationalboundaries.

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There are no ties in any race.Every driver finishes each race.

In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points forfourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first.

If Eugene finishes two places ahead of Chris in the first race, all of thefollowing will be true EXCEPT:

a) Bob finishes ahead of Don.

b) Chris finishes two places ahead of Alan.

c) Don finishes fourth.

d) Bob finishes immediately behind Eugene.

e) Chris finishes ahead of Bob.

2) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into acontest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed

below:

Bob always finishes ahead of Chris.Alan finishes either first or last.Eugene finishes either first or last.There are no ties in any race.Every driver finishes each race.


If Don finishes third in the third race, which of the following must be true

of that race?a) Alan finishes first.

b) Eugene finishes first.

c) Bob finishes second.

d) Chris finishes second.

e) Alan finishes fifth.

3) Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into acontest that consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listedbelow:



If Eugenes total for the six races is 36 points, which of the following mustbe true?

a) Bobs total is more than 36 points.

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b) Chriss total is more than 36 points.

c) Alans total is 36 points.

d) Dons total is less than 36 points.

e) Dons total is 36 points.



In each race, two points are awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for

fourth, six points for third, eight points for second, and ten points for first.If Alan finishes first only once, and Don finishes second exactly twice, thelowest total number of points that Bob can earn in the race is:

a) 32 points.

b) 38 points.

c) 40 points.

d) 44 points.

e) 48 points.




If Alan finishes first in four races, which of the following could earn a totalof fewer than 26 points in the six races?

a) Bob only.

b) Chris only.

c) Don only.

d) Eugene of Chris.

e) Don or Chris.


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If Frank enters the third race and finishes behind Chris and Don, which ofthe following must be true of that race?

a) Eugene finishes first.

b) Alan finishes sixth.

c) Don finishes second.

d) Frank finishes fifth.

e) Chris finishes third.7) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problemsgetting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination thatdoes not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this.

She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue,and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and twopairs of shoes, black and brown.

The blue skirt cannot be worn with red or brown stockings.Gray does not go well with brown.Black does not go well with brown.

If Jane wears black shoes she will not wear:

a) red stockings.

b) a blue skirt.

c) a white blouse.

d) blue stockings.

e) a sky blue blouse.

Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problems

getting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination thatdoes not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this.



If Jane is color blind and is unable to determine what outfits went welltogether, how many possible clothing combinations could she have?

a) 24

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b) 32

c) 36

d) 44

e) 48

9) Jane works at a fashion design company, and is having problemsgetting dressed for work. She refuses to wear any color combination thatdoes not go well together as many of her clients may look down upon this.



If Jane wears a brown skirt and a white blouse, she could:a) not wear blue stockings.

b) not wear brown shoes.

c) not wear black shoes.

d) wear blue stockings.

e) wear red stockings.




Jane buys a gray scarf. If she wears the new scarf, then she could:

a) not wear blue stockings.

b) not wear brown stockings.c) not wear black shoes.

d) wear a white blouse.

e) wear black stockings.


She has two pairs of skirts, brown and blue; three blouses, white, sky blue,and gray; four pairs of stockings, red, black, brown, and blue; and two

pairs of shoes, black and brown.

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Jane will never wear:

a) blue and red together.b) white and red together.

c) gray and blue together.

d) white and black together.

e) white and red together.

12) Two men, Barry and David, and two women Ann and Cathy aredoctors. One is a surgeon, one a dentist, one an optometrist, and one is ageneral practitioner. They are seated around a square table, with oneperson on each side.

1) Barry is across from the dentist.2) David is not across from the surgeon.3) The optometrist is on Anns immediate left.4) Cathy is the general practitioner.5) The surgeon and general practitioner are married to each other.6) The general practitioner is not on Cathys immediate left.7) The general practitioner is across from the optometrist.

Which of the following must be true?

a) Barry is the dentist.

b) The surgeon and general practitioner are women.c) The dentist is across from the surgeon.

d) David is the surgeon.

e) Cathy is across from Ann.

13) Two men, Barry and David, and two women Ann and Cathy aredoctors. One is a surgeon, one a dentist, one an optometrist, and one is ageneral practitioner. They are seated around a square table, with oneperson on each side.

1) Barry is across from the dentist.

2) David is not across from the surgeon.3) The optometrist is on Anns immediate left.4) Cathy is the general practitioner.5) The surgeon and general practitioner are married to each other.6) The general practitioner is not on Cathys immediate left.7) The general practitioner is across from the optometrist.

If both women leave the table, the

a) optometrist and dentist remain.

b) surgeon and optometrist remain.

c) surgeon and general practitioner remain.d) general practitioner and dentist remain.

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e) general practitioner and optometrist remain.

11) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends all daySaturday and Sunday and no other days. The bank has hired twomanagers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operationofficers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day whenworking.

A manager must be on duty each day.The managers cannot work on the same day.At least two tellers must be working on the same day.W and X will not work on the same day.S and Z will only work on Saturday.No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee mustwork on Saturday or Sunday.

Which of the following could be false?

a) If U works on Saturday, then V works on Sunday.

b) If X works on Saturday, then W works on Sunday.

c) T can work either day.

d) If W works on Saturday and Y works on Sunday, then X works onSunday.

e) If U works on Sunday, then X works on Saturday.

15) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends all daySaturday and Sunday and no other days. The bank has hired two

managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operationofficers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day whenworking.

A manager must be on duty each day.The managers cannot work on the same day.At least two tellers must be working on the same day.W and X will not work on the same day.S and Z will only work on Saturday.No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must

work on Saturday or Sunday.Which one of the following is an acceptable group of employees that couldwork on Saturday?

a) ZWYST

b) UVWYZS

c) VWXST

d) UZST

e) VWZS

16) A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends all daySaturday and Sunday and no other days. The bank has hired two

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managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operationofficers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day whenworking.


What is the greatest number of employees that can work on Saturday?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

e) 6



If W works on Sunday, then which one of the following must be true?

a) X works on Saturday

b) Y works on Saturday

c) T works on Saturday

d) Z works on Saturday

e) U works on Saturday


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A manager must be on duty each day.The managers cannot work on the same day.At least two tellers must be working on the same day.W and X will not work on the same day.S and Z will only work on Saturday.

No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee mustwork on Saturday or Sunday.

Which one of the following must be true?

a) T always works on the same day as Y.

b) S never works on the same day as U.

c) Z never works on the same day as X.

d) If W works on Sunday, then Y always works on Saturday.

e) Only two tellers work on Saturday.


A manager must be on duty each day.The managers cannot work on the same day.At least two tellers must be working on the same day.W and X will not work on the same day.

S and Z will only work on Saturday.No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee mustwork on Saturday or Sunday.

Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of theemployees who have the possibility of working on Sunday?

a) UWYZ

b) UWYS

c) UVWXT

d) UVWXYT

e) UVWXYTS

20) In the earliest stages of common law, a party could have their caseheard by a judge only upon the payment of a fee to the court, and thenonly if the case fit into one of the forms for which there existed a writ. Atfirst the number of such formalized cases of action was very small, butjudges invented new forms which brought more cases and greaterrevenues.

Which of the following conclusions is most strongly suggested by theparagraph above?

a) In most early cases, the plaintiff rather than the defendant prevailed.

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b) One of the motivating forces for the early expansion in judicial powerwas economic considerations.

c) The first common law decisions were inconsistent with one another anddid not form a coherent body of law.

d) Early judges often decided cases in an arbitrary and haphazardmanner.

e) The judiciary at first had greater power than either the legislature orthe executive.

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