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(ACADEMIC SESSION 2011-2012)

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

1.

2.

3.

4.

A seat marked with Reg. No. will be alloted to each student. The student should ensure that he/sheoccupies the correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student,both the students shall be removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penaltyimposed uponthem.

Student can not use log tables and calculators or anyother materialin the examination hall.

Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or thecentre incharge.

Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question ismissing.

izR;sd fo|kFkhZ dk jftLVs'ku ua- ds vuqlkj LFkku fu;r gS rFkk os vius fu;r LFkku ij gh cSBsaA ;fn dksbZ fo|kFkhZ fdlhnwljs fo|kFkhZ ds LFkku ij cSBk ik;k x;k rks nksuksa fo|kfFkZ;ksa dks ijh{kk d{k ls ckgj dj fn;k tk,xk vkSj nksuksa dks dksbZ vUtqekZuk Hkh Lohdk;Z gksxkA

fo|kFkhZ ijh{kk d{k esa yksx Vscy] dsYdwysVj ;k fdlh vU; lkexzh dk mi;ksx ugha dj ldrk gSA

ijh{kk ds le; fo|kFkhZ dks ijhoh{kd }kjk fn;s x;s funsZ'kksa dh ikyuk djuk vko';d gSA

iz'u i= gydjus ls igys fo|kFkhZ vk'oLr gks tk, fd blesalHkh ist layXu gSa vFkok ughaA5. 1 mark wil l be deducted for every wrong answer.

Guessing of answer is harmful.

6.

Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while

A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble withthe help of HB Pencil / Blue or Black Ball Point Pen as the correct answer(s) of the questionattempted.

OMR HB

izR;sd lgh mkj ds vad gSaA

ijh{kkFkhZ dks gy fd;sx;s iz'u dk mkj mkj iqfLrdk esa lgh LFkku ij isfUly @ uhys ,oa dkys ckWy ikWbUV isuds }kjk mfpr xksys dks xgjk djds nsuk gSA

MAJOR TESTDATE : 04 05 2012ALLENAIPMT Mains(Full Syllabus)

TA R G E T : P R E - M E D I C A L 2 0 1 2

LEADER, ACHIEVER & ENTHUSIAST COURSE

Corporate OfficeALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE

SANKALP, CP-6, INDRA VIHAR, KOTA-324005

PHONE : +91 - 744 - 2436001, Fax : +91-744-2435003

E-mail: [email protected] Website: www.allen.ac.in

Medium : Hindi

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04052012

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2012

PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER, ACHIEVER & ENTHUSIAST COURSE

MAJOR TEST

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. An astronomical telescope has a large aperture

to-

(1) reduced spherical aberration

(2) have high resolution

(3) increase span of observation

(4) have low dispersion

2. a, b& gis current gain of common base, common

emitter & common collector, configaration

respectively, then correct relation between a, b

& g is :-

(a)1

ba =

b +(b) g= b+ 1

(c)1

1b =

-a(d)

1

ab =

-a(1) Only a, b (2) a, b & c

(3) a, b & d (4) Only b, d

3. If amount of heat given to a system be 10 Cal

and work done on the system be 12J, then change

in internal energy of the system is

(1) 2 Joule (2) 30 Joule

(3) 54 Joule (4) 22 Joule

4. The image formed by an objective of a compound

microscope is-

(1) virtual and diminished

(2) real and diminished

(3) real and enlarged

(4) virtual and enlarged

5. Determine root mean square voltage across RLfor

given half wave rectifier :-

~ 1kW

200(peak)

Sinousoidal? (V )rms

20:1

(1) 10 V (2)10

Vp

(3) 5V (4) 5 2

6. Light from a hydrogen discharge tube is incident

on the cathode of a photo electric cell, the work

function of the cathode surface is

4.2 eV. In order to reduce the photo current to zero

the voltage of the anode relative to the cathode

must be made :-

(1) 4.2 V (2) 9.4 V

(3) 17.8 V (4) +9.4 V

1. [kxksyhnwjn'khZ esa vfHkn`';d ysUl dkkjd cM+k gksrkgS(1)xksyhfoiFku de djusds fy;s(2) vf/kd foHksnukerk dsfy;s(3)izs{k.k ijkl ckusds fy;s(4)fo{ksi.k de djus dsfy;s

2. a, b oge'k mHk;fu"B vk/kkjmHk;fu"B mRltZd

o mHk;fu"B laxzkgd dskkjk ykHk gSrksa,bogesa lgh

lEcU/k gS :-

(a)1

ba =

b + (b) g= b+ 1

(c)1

1b =

-a(d)

1

ab =

-a

(1)dsoy a, b (2) a, bo c

(3) a, b o d (4) dsoy b, d

3. ,d fudkdks10 Calm"ek nh xbZ rFkk fudkij fd;kx;k dk;Z12JgSA tc fudkdh vkUrfjd tkZ esa ifjorZugksxk :(1) 2 Joule (2) 30 Joule

(3)54 Joule (4) 22 Joule

4. la;qDr lw{en'khZ ds vfHkn`';dkjk cuk izfrfcEc

(1) vkHkklh o NksVk gksrk gS

(2)okLrfod o NksVk gksrk gS

(3)okLrfod o cM+k gksrk gS

(4) vkHkklh o cM+k gksrk gS

5. fn;sx;svZrjax fn"Vdkjh dsfyfuxZr esa oxZ ekewyoksYVrk (V

rms) dk eku gksxk :-

~ 1kW

200(peak)

Sinousoidal? (V )rms

20:1

(1) 10 V (2)10

Vp

(3) 5V (4) 5 2

6. gkbMkstu foltZu ufydk lsmRlftZr izdk'kd izdk'k fo|qr

lsy dsdSFkksM ij fxjrk gSlsy dsdSFkksM dk dk;ZQyu

4.2 eVgSA izdk'k fo|qrkkjk dk eku 'kwUdjus ds fy;s

dSFkksMdslkis{kuksM dk foHko gksxk:-

(1) 4.2 V (2) 9.4 V

(3) 17.8 V (4) +9.4 V

izR;sd iz'u d s vtqZu cudj dj sA

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TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2012

MAJOR TEST

7. To get three images of a single object, one should

have two plane mirrors at an angle of-

(1) 60 (2) 90 (3) 120 (4) 30

8. A uniform copper wire of mass 2.23 103 kg

carries a current of 1 A when 1.7 V is appliedacross it. Calculate its length. Density of copper

is 8.92 103 kg/m3 and its resistivity is

1.7 108 Wm.

(1) 5m (2) 25m (3) 10m (4) 15m

9. The potential energy of a particle of mass m isgiven by

U(x) =0E ; 0 x 1

0 ; x 1

>l

1and l

2are the de-Broglie wavelengths of the

particle. When 0 x 1 and x > 1 respectively.

If the total energy of particle is 2E0, the ratio

1

2

ll

will be :-

(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4)1

2

10. A particle starts from rest its acceleration versus

time (t) is as shown in the figure. The maximum

speed of the particle will be :-

(1) 110 m/s10m/s

2

a(m/s )2

11 t(s)

(2) 55 m/s

(3) 550 m/s

(4) 660 m/s

11. Determine the current drawn from a 12V supply

with internal resistance 0.5W by the infinitenetwork shown in Fig. Each resistor has 1Wresistance.

1W

1W

1W

1W

1W

1W

1W

1W

1W

1W

12V

0.5W1W 1W 1W 1W

(1) 5.2A (2) 7.2A (3) 8A (4) 3.7A

12. A radioactive nuclei is being produced at a

constant rate aper second. Its decay constant isl. I f N

0 are the number of nuclei at time

t = 0, then maximum number of nuclei possible

are :-

(1)a

l

(2) N0+

a

l(3) N

0(4)

la

+ N0

7. fdlh oLrqdsrhu izfrfcEc izkIr djusdsfy;snksleryniZ.kksa dschp dk dks.k gksuk pkfg (1) 60 (2) 90 (3) 120 (4) 30

8. ,d le:i rkcsds rkj dk O;eku2.23 103 kg

gS rFkk 1.7 V bl rkj ij vkjksfir djus ij blesa 1A/kkjk izokfgr gksrh gSA rkj dh yEckbZ Kkr djsA rkcsdk kuRo 8.92 103 kg/m3rFkk bldh izfrjks/kdrk1.7 108 Wm gSA

(1) 5m (2) 25m (3) 10m (4) 15m

9. fdlhmO;eku ds d.k dh fLFkfrt tkZ fuEu izdkj nhtkrh gS

U(x) =0E ; 0 x 1

0 ; x 1

>

0 x 1,oax > 1ds fy;s Mh czksXyh rjaxnSZ e'kl1rFkkl

2gSfn d.k dh dqy tkZ2E

0gSrksvuqikr

1

2

ll gksxk :-

(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4)1

2

10. ,d d.k fojke ls xfr izkjEHk djrk gSbldk Roj.k lexzkQ fp esa fn[kk;k x;k gSA d.k dh vf/kdre pkygksxh :-(1) 110eh/lS-

10m/s2

a(m/s )2

11 t(s)

(2) 55eh/lS-(3) 550eh/lS-(4) 660 eh/lS-

11. fn;s x;s ifjiFk esa0.5WvkUrfjd izfrjks/k rFkk12V emf

dh cSVjhkjk yh xbZkkjk Kkr djs

1W

1W

1W

1W

1W

1W

1W

1W

1W

1W

12V0.5W

1W 1W 1W 1W

(1) 5.2A (2) 7.2A (3) 8A (4) 3.7A

12. ,d jsfM;kslfukfHkdaizfr lSd.M dh fu;r nj lsmRiUu gks jgk gSAkfu;rkadlgSAfn let = 0ijukfHkdks dh lakN

0gSrc vf/kdre lEHko ukfHkdksa dh

lak gS :-

(1)al

(2) N0+

al

(3) N0

(4)la

+ N0

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MAJOR TEST

13. The position of a projectille is given by

x = V0t Kt2m. Where V

0equals 250 m/s and

t is measured in seconds given that the velocity

of this projectille falls to a value of 150 m/s at

t = 5 s. The value of K is :-

(1) 5 ms2 (2) 10 ms2

(3) 20 ms2 (4) 50 ms2

14. When a resistance of 2W is placed across theterminals of a battery, the current is 0.5 A; when

the resistance across the terminals is 5W, thecurrent is 0.25 A. Calculate the emf of the battery.

(1) 2V (2) 1.75V (3) 1.5V (4) 2.5V

15. In the nuclear fusion reaction12H+3

1H 4

2He+ n,

given that the repulsive potential energy between

the two nuclei is 7.7 1014J, the temperature at

which the gases must be heated to initiate the

reaction is nearly :-

[Boltman's constant K = 1.38 1023J/K]

(1) 109K (2) 107K (3) 105K (4) 103K

16. A projectille is thrown with velocity u making

angle qwith vertical. It just crosses the tops oftwo poles each of height h after 1 sec and 3 sec

respectively. The maximum height of projectille

is :-

(1) 9.8 m (2) 19.6 m (3) 39.2 m (4) 4.9 m

17. Two blocks of masses m1= 2 kg. and m2= 5 kg.are moving in same direction along a frictionless

surface with speed 10 m/s. and 3 m/s. respectively.

m2being ahead of m1. An ideal spring with

K = 1120 N/m is attached to the back side of m2.

Maximum compression of the spring when the

blocks collides is :

(1) 0.25 m. (2) 0.5 m. (3) 1 m. (4) 0.1 m.

18. Two like point charges at distance r experiencesforce F. If these charges transferred to two me-

tallic spheres of radius r/4 and placed at same

distance r, then force between two charges :-

(1) Decreases (2) Increases

(3) Becomes 4 times (4) reamins same

19. The maximum velocity of a simple harmonic

motion represented by y 3sin 100t m6

p = +

is

given by:

(1) 300 (2)

3

6

p(3) 100 (4) 6

p

13. fdlh iz{ ks Idh fLF kfrx = V0t Kt2ehVjkjk nh

tkrh gS tgkWV0250 m/sds r qYgSrFkktdks lSd.M

esa ekikx;k g SAg fn;k x;k gS fdt = 5lSd.M ijiz{ksIdk osx150 m/srd fxj x;k gSrksKdk eku gksxk:-

(1) 5 ms2 (2) 10 ms2

(3) 20 ms2 (4) 50 ms2

14. tc2Wizfrjks/k lSy ds fljksa ij tksM+k tkrk gSrkskkjk0.5

AgSrFkk tc5Wizfrjks/k lsy lstksM+k tkrk gSrkskkjk0.25

AgScSVjh dkemfKkr djs

(1) 2V (2) 1.75V (3) 1.5V (4) 2.5V

15. ukfHkdhlay;u vfHkf;k12H + 3

1H 4

2He + nesa nks

ukfHkdksa dschp izfrd"khZ fLFkfrt tkZ7.7 1014 J,gSvfHkf;k izkjEHk djus ds fyxSlks dksfdl rki rd

xeZ djuk pkfg;s :-[oksYVteSu fu;rkadK = 1.38 1023J/K](1) 109K (2) 107K

(3) 105K (4) 103 K

16. fdlh iz{ksIdksm/okZ/kj dslkFk dks.kqcukrsgq;suosxlsiz{ksfir fd;k x;k gSAg leku pkbZhds nkskEHkksds 'kh"kksZ dkse'kiz{ksi.k ds1lSd.M rFkk3lSd.Mi'pkr~ ikj djrk gSA iz{ksI kjk izkIr vf/kdre pkbZgksxh :-(1) 9.8eh- (2) 19.6eh- (3) 39.2eh- (4) 4.9eh-

17. m1= 2 kg.om2= 5 kg.dsnksCykWd leku fn'kk esa?k"kZ.k jfgr lrg ij10 m/s.o3 m/s.dsosx lsxfr'khy

gSaAm2, m1dsvkxsgSAfnd fLizax(K=1120 N/m)

m2dslkFk fp=kuqlkj tqM+h gSrksCykWdksa ds Vdjkusij

bldk vf/kdre ladqpu Kkr dhft;s :

(1) 0.25 m. (2) 0.5 m. (3) 1 m. (4) 0.1 m.

18. rnwjh ij fLFkr nksltkrh vkos'kksa dschp cyFgSAfnbu vkos'kksadksr/4f=T;k dsnkskkfRod xksyksaij LFkkukUrjfrdjdsxksyksa dks leku nwjhrij j[kk tkrk gSrksnksuksa vkos'kksads chp cy :-(1)?kVrk gS (2)crk gS(3)pkj xquk gks tkrk gS (4) vifjorr jgrk gS

19. nh xbZ lehdj.k dsvk/kkj ij y 3sin 100t m6

p = +

d.k dk vfkdre osx Kkr dhft :

(1) 300 (2)3

6

p(3) 100 (4)

6

p

d sbZ H h iz'u ls xyr ugha g su p fg,A

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MAJOR TEST

20. If the coefficient of friction between an insect and

bowl is mand the radius of the bowl is r, maximumheight to which the insect can crowl in the bowl

is :-

(1)

m (2)

L

N

MM

O

Q

PPm

(3)

m (4)

LNM

OQP

m

21. A parallel plate capacitor has potential 20 kV and

capacitance 2 104mF. If area of plate is 0.01m2and distance between the plates is 2mm then

potential gradient is :-

(1) 44 V/m (2) 105V/m

(3) 108

V/m (4) 107

V/m22. Two indentical straight wires are stretched so as to

produce 6 beats/sec. When vibrating

simultaneous. On changing the tension slightly in

one of them the beats frequency remains

unchanged denoting T1and T

2by the higher an

lower initial tensions in the strings then it could be

said while making the above changes in tension:

(1) T2was decreased (2) T

1was increased

(3) T2 was increased (4) None of these

23. A body of mass m rises to height h = R/5 from

the earth's surface, where R is earth's radius. If g

is acceleration due to gravity at earth's surface, the

increase in potential energy is :

(1) mg h (2)

mg h (3)

mgh (4)

mg h

24. When a current elementP

r3

Q

r1

r2

y

x

is placed at point P thenmagnetic field at point

Q is 0 3Id r

4 rm

p

uur r

l then

rr

is :-

(1)1rr

(2)3rr

(3)2

rr

(4) 3rr

25. A wave y = 10 sin (ax + bt) is reflected from a

dense medium at an origin. If 81% of energy is

reflected then the equation of reflected wave is :

(1) y = 8.1 sin (ax - bt)

(2) y = 8.1 sin (ax+bt)

(3) y = 9 sin (bt - ax)

(4) y = 10 sin (ax - bt)

20. ,d dVksjs o dhMsdse k"kZ.k xq.kkadmgSAfn dVksjsdh f=T;krgSrksog vf/kdre pkbZ ftl ij dhM+k igqpik;sxk gksxh

(1)

m (2)

L

NMM

O

QPPm

(3)

m (4)

LNM

OQP

m

21. ,d lekUrj i la/kkfjdk foHkokUrj20 kVrFkkkkfjrk

2 104mFgSAfn IysV dkks=Qy0.01eh2rFkk IysVksa

ds chp nwjh2mm gks rks foHko izo.krk gksxh :-

(1) 44 V/m (2) 105V/m

(3) 108

V/m (4) 107

V/m22. nksle:i lhks rkjksdksbrukkhpk x;k gSfdd lkFk

dafir gksusij6 foLian@lS- mRiUu djrsgSmuesa lsd

esa ruko dks FkksM+k lk cnyus ij foLian vko`fr vifjofrZr

gksrh gSfn rkjksa esa izkjEfHkd rukoT1oT

2, (T

1> T

2)

gksrks ruko dsmi;qDr ifjorZu esa

(1) T2 kVk;k x;k Fkk (2) T

1ck;k x;k Fkk

(3) T2 ck;k x;k Fkk (4)buesa lsdksbZ ugha

23. ,dmnzO;eku dh oLrq i`Foh dh lrg lsh = R/5pkbZrd mBkbZ tkrh gSAfngi`Foh dh lrg ij xq#Ro ds

dkj.k Roj.k gks rks fLFkfrt tkZ esa o`f gksxh :

(1) mg h (2)

mg h (3)

mgh (4)

mg h

24. ,dkkjk vYika'k dksfcUnqPijP

r3

Q

r1

r2

y

x

j[kk x;k gSrks fcUnqQ ij

pqEcdh ks0

3

Id r

4 r

m p

uur rl

gksrks rr

gksxk

(1)1rr

(2)3rr

(3)2

rr

(4) 3rr

25. ,d rjax ftldk lehdj.ky = 10 sin (ax + bt) ewyfcUnw ij n`ek;e lsijkofrZr gksrk gSfn mtkZ dk81%ijkofrZr gksrk gS rksijkofrZr rajx dh lehdj.k gS(1) y = 8.1 sin (ax -bt)

(2) y = 8.1 sin (ax+bt)(3) y = 9 sin (bt - ax)

(4) y = 10 sin (ax - bt)

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MAJOR TEST

26. Two rods of smae length and material transfer a

given amount of heat in 20 seconds. When they

are joined end to end. But when they are joined

lengthwise, then they will transfer same heat in

same conditions in :-

(1) 5 sec. (2) 3 sec.

(3) 1.5 sec. (4) 48 sec.

27. Magnetic field at center of current carrying cir-

cular loop of area A is B then its magnetic mo-

ment is :-

(1)

3 / 2

0

BA

m p (2)1/ 2

0

2BA

m p

(3) 03 / 2

2BAm p (4)

3 / 2

0

2BAm p

28. Binary of given decimal no. 26.75 is :-

(1) 10101.01 (2) 11010.01

(3) 10001.11 (4) 11010.11

29. The pressure temperature (P T) phase diagram

show in fig. corresponds to the

(1) Curve of a fusion of

solid that expand onliquification

(2) Curve of sublimation of

solid that directly go

over to the vapourphase

(3) Curve of fusion of solid

that contract on liquification

(4) Curve of fusion of solid that do not change in

volume upon solidification.

30. Which statement is ture :-

(1) The power factor in a RLC circuit is a measure

of how close the circuit is to expending the

maximum power

(2) A transformer (step-up) changes a low volt-

age into a high voltage. This is based on law

of conservation of energy

(3) The power consumed in an circuit is never

negative

(4) All statments are true

26. leku yEckbZ o inkFkZ dh cuh nks NM+ksa dks fljsls fljsdks tksM+us ijs "ek dh nh xbZ ek=k20 lSd.M esaLFkkukUrfjr djrh gSA ijUrqfnsyEckbZ lstksM+h tkrhgS rc s leku ifjfLFkfr esa "ek dh leku ek=k dks

LFkkukUrfjr djus esa leysaxh :-(1) 5 sec. (2) 3 sec.

(3) 1.5 sec. (4) 48 sec.

27. ,d kkjkokgh o`rh ywi ftldk ks=QyA gSdsdsUnzij pqEcdh ks B gS rks ywi dk pqEcdh vk?kw.kZgksxk :-

(1)

3 / 2

0

BA

m p (2)1/ 2

0

2BA

m p

(3) 0 3 / 22BAm p (4)

3 / 2

0

2BAm p

28. n'keyo iz.kkyh ds26.75dk f}vk/kkjh iz.kkyh(Binarysystem)esa lerqY gksxk (1) 10101.01 (2) 11010.01

(3) 10001.11 (4) 11010.11

29. fpesanf'kZr nkc&rki(phase diagram)dk lEcUkgS

(1) ,dslsBksl dk tks

nzohdj.k esa izlkfjr gksrk gSA(2) ,slsBksl tkslh/ks ok"i

voLFkk esatkrsgSadsmoZikru(sublimation)dk o

(3) ,sls Bksl tks nzohdj.k esaladqfpr gksrs gSadsnzoRo dk o

(4) ,slsBkslftudsBkslhdj.k ij vk;ru ifjofrZr ughagksrk gSdsnzoRo dk o

30.

fuEu esalsdkSulk dFku lR

gS:-

(1),dRLCifjiFk esa 'kf xq.kkadbl rFdk ekidgSfd ifjiFk vf/kdre 'kf OfLFkfr ds fdruklehi gSA

(2),d mPpk;h VklQkWeZj fuEu oksYVrk dks mPp oksYVrkesa ifjorr djrk gSblesa tkZ laj{k.k dk ikyu gksrkgSA

(3),d ifjiFk esa O;f;r 'kf dHkh Hkh .kkRed ugh gksrhgS

(4)mijks lHkh dFku lR gS

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

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04052012



MAJOR TEST

31. In the reaction, A(s)+ B(g)+ Heat 2C(s) +

2D(g) equilibrium is established. The pressure

of B is doubled to reestablish the equilibrium.

The factor by which D is changed is :

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) (4) 32. On addition of one ml. solution of 10% NaCl

to 10 ml. gold sol in presence of 0.025 g ofstarch, the coagulation is just prevented. Thegold number of starch is :

(1) 25 (2) 2.5 (3) 0.25 (4) 0.02533. Match the following :-

(a) Sucrose (p) b-glycosidic linkage(b) Lactose (q) a-glycosidic linkage(c) Starch (r) Non reducing sugar(1) (a r), (b p), (c q)(2) (a q), (b r), (c p)(3) (a q), (b p), (c r)(4) (a r), (b q), (c p)

34. In a mixture of a weak acid and its salt, the ratio

of the concentration of acid to salt is increased

ten fold. The pH of the solution :

(1) Decrease by one

(2) Decrease by one tenth

(3) Increase by one(4) Increases ten fold

35. 3ClO(aq) ClO3(aq)+ 2Cl

reaction is anexample of :-(1) Reduction reaction(2) Oxidation reaction(3) Disproportionation reaction(4) Intra-molecular reaction

36. Bakelite is(1) Thermosetting polymer

(2) Crosslink polymer(3) Condensation polymer(4) All

37. 20 ml. of solution of 0.1M acetic acid is titrated

with 0.1M NaOH solution. After addition of

16 ml NaOH what is the pH of the solution

(pKa = 4.75)

(1) 5.05 (2) 4.15

(3) 5.35 (4) 4.75

31. vfHkf;k esa fuEu izdkj lkELFkkfir gSA(s)+ B(g)+ Heat 2C(s)+ 2D(g)iqu lkELFkkfir djusdsfy;sBdk nkc nqxquk fd;k x;k gSA vcDfdl xq.kkadkjk ifjofrZr gksxk:

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) (4) 32. LVkpZ dh 0.025 gm. ek=k feyh- Lo.kZ ds lkWy

esa lks fM;e DyksjkbM ds 10% lkUnzr k ds feyh-foy;u kjk Ldanu ls jksdrh gSA LVkpZ dh Lo.kZ lakgS

(1) 25 (2) 2.5 (3) 0.25 (4) 0.02533. fuEu dkslwesfyr djsa

(a) Sucrose (p) b-glycosidic linkage(b) Lactose (q) a-glycosidic linkage(c) Starch (r) Non reducing sugar(1) (a r), (b p), (c q)(2) (a q), (b r), (c p)(3) (a q), (b p), (c r)(4) (a r), (b q), (c p)

34. nqcZy vEy o mlds yo.k dsfeJ.k esa vEy rFkk yo.kdh lkUrkvksa dk vuqikr nl xquk ck fn;k tk;s rksfoy;udkpH :(1) 1lskV tkrh gSA(2) 1/10lskV tkrh gSA

(3) 1lsctkrh gSA(4) 10xquk c tkrh gSA

35. vfHkf;k3ClO(aq)ClO

3(aq)+ 2Cl

mnkgj.k gS :-(1) vip;u vfHkf;k(2) vkWDlhdj.k vfHkf;k(3)fo"kehdj.k vfHkf;k(4) vUr%vkf.od vfHkf;k

36. csdsykbV gS(1)rki ncgqyd

(2)kWlfyad cgqyd(3)la?kuu cgqyd(4)lHkh

37. 20 ml. 0.1M,slhfVd vEy foy;u dks0.1M NaOHfoy;u dslkFk vuqekfir fd;k x;kA16 ml NaOHfeykus dscknfoy;u dkpH (pKa = 4.75)D;k gS

(1) 5.05 (2) 4.15

(3) 5.35 (4) 4.75

Take it Easy and Make it Easy

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MAJOR TEST

38. Which of the following carbocation is moststable:-

(1) 3 3 2(CH ) C CH

-

(2) 3 3(CH ) C

(3) 3 2 2CH CH CH

- -

(4) 3 2 3CH CH CH CH

- - -

39. Which of the following substance does notproduce ammonia on reaction with water ?

(1) CaCN2 (2) AlN

(3) Ca(CN)2

(4) Mg3N

2

40.

The unit cell cube length for LiCl(NaCl structure) is 5.14. Assuming anion-

anion contact. Calculate the ionic radius for

chloride ion :-

(1) 3.63 (2) 2.57

(3) 1.815 (4) 5.14 41. If both nitrogen and sulphur are present in an

organic compound and sodium extract isprepared with excess of sodium, formation ofwhich of the following confirms presence of

nitrogen and sulphur(1) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (2) [Fe(CN)5NOS]

4

(3) [Fe(SCN)3]2 (4) 1 & 2 both

42. The hybrid state and oxidation state of two Oatoms in H

2O

2are respectively ?

(1) sp2, 1 (2) sp3, 2 (3) sp3, +1 (4) sp3, 143. What will be the volume of CO2at NTP obtained

on heating 10 grams of (90% pure) limestone(1) 22.4 litre (2) 2.016 litre(3) 2.24 litre (4) 20.16 litre

44. H2C = CH22Br X

2

(i)alc.KOH(ii) NaNH

Y

Re d hot Fetube

Z

Which of the following is false for Z(1) Its ozonolysis product shows cannizzaro's

reaction(2) It can be prepared by reduction of phenol(3) Its reaction with excess of chlorine in

presence of AlCl3gives BHC

(4) It is less acidic than acetylene

38. fuEu esa lslokZf/kd LFkk;h dkcZ/kuk;u gS

(1) 3 3 2(CH ) C CH

-

(2) 3 3(CH ) C

(3) 3 2 2CH CH CH

- -

(4) 3 2 3CH CH CH CH

- - -

39. uhps fn;k x;k dkSulk inkFkZ ty ds lkFk f;k djdsveksfu;k xSl ugha nsrk gS?

(1) CaCN2

(2) AlN

(3) Ca(CN)2 (4) Mg3N2

40. LiCldh bdkbZ dksf"Bdk dhkuhyEckbZ5.14.gSAfn.kk;u&.kk;u Li'kZ ekuk tk;s rks DyksjkbM vk;u dhvk;fud f=T;k Kkr djks:-

(1) 3.63 (2) 2.57

(3) 1.815 (4) 5.14

41. ;fn fdlh dkcZfudkSfxd esa ukbVkstu o lYQj nksuksamifLFkr gSrFkk lksfM;e fu"d"kZ(sodium extract)dkfuekZ.k lksfM;e ds vkf/kDesa fd;k x;k gSrksfuEu esa lsfdldk fuekZ.k ukbV kstu o lYQj dh mifLFkfr n'kkZrk gS

(1) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (2) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4

(3) [Fe(SCN)3]2 (4) 1o2nksuksa

42. H2O2esa nksuksaOijek.kqvksadh ladj.k o vkWDlhdj.k voLFkke'k gS ?

(1) sp2, 1 (2) sp3, 2 (3) sp3, +1 (4) sp3, 1

43. 10xzke(90%'kq)pwuk iRFkj dks xeZ djusijNTPijCO

2dk fdruk vk;ru izkIr gksxk

(1) 22.4 litre (2) 2.016 litre(3) 2.24 litre (4) 20.16 litre

44. H2C = CH22Br X

2

(i)alc.KOH(ii) NaNH

Y

Re d hot Fetube

Z

ZdsfyfuEu esa lsxyr gS(1)bldk vkstksuh vi?kVu mRikn dSuhtkjks vfHkf;k nsrk

gS(2);g QhukWy ds vip;ukjk cuk;k tk ldrk gS(3) AlCl3dh mifLFkfr esa bldh Dyk sjhu ds vkf/kDds

lkFk f;k ijBHCcurk gS

(4);gsflfVyhu dh rqyuk esa de vEyhgSdlh iz'u ij nsj rd

dks ugha A

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MAJOR TEST

45. BeO + C CO + 'X'X + H

2O Be(OH)2+ Y

X and Y in the above sequence arerespectively:-

(1) Be2C and C2H2 (2) Be and CO2(3) Be2C and CH4 (4) Be2C and C2H6

46. A 1.2 M of solution of NaCl is isotonic with2.34M of solution of glucose. Calculate thevan't Hoff's factor of NaCl solution(1) 2.36 (2) 1.50(3) 1.95 (4) 1.00

47. Which of the following is hydrolysed at fastestrate

(1)

Cl

NO2

NO2O N2

(2)

Cl

NO2

NO2

(3)

Cl

NO2

(4)

Cl

48. AgCl is not soluble in aqueous solution of :-

(1) Ammonia (2) KCN

(3) Sodium thiosulphate (4) HNO3

49. The rate of disappearance of SO2 in the reaction2SO2+ O22SO3is 1.28 10

3g/sec thenthe rate of formation of SO3 is(1) 0.64 103 g/sec(2) 0.80 103 g/sec(3) 1.28 103 g/sec(4) 1.60 103 g/sec

50. Which of the following statement is correct

(1) Dipole moment of chlorobenzene is lowerthan cyclohexane(2) Propanol has higher boiling point than

butane(3) pK

bof aniline is more than methylamine

(4) All51. What is wrong about sodium nitroprusside :-

(1) EAN of iron is 36(2) It is homoleptic complex(3) It is used to detect s2 ion

(4) Oxidation number of iron is +2

45. BeO + C CO + 'X'X + H

2O Be(OH)2+ Y

mijksDr vfHkf;k esaXoYe'kgS :-

(1) Be2CrFkkC2H2 (2) BerFkkCO2(3) Be2CrFkkCH4 (4) Be2CrFkkC2H6

46. 1.2 M NaCldkd foy;u2.34MXywdksl dsdfoy;u ds lkFk leijkljh gSANaClfoy;u ds fyokWUVgkWQ xq.kkad dh x.kuk dhft(1) 2.36 (2) 1.50(3) 1.95 (4) 1.00

47. fdldk tyvi?kVu lokZf/kd rhozrk ls gksrk gS

(1)

Cl

NO2

NO2O N2

(2)

Cl

NO2

NO2

(3)

Cl

NO2

(4)

Cl

48. AgClfuEu esa lsfdldstyhfoy;u esavfoysgS:-

(1) veksfu;k (2) KCN

(3)lksfM;e Fkk;kslYQsV (4) HNO349. vfHkf;k2SO2+ O22SO3esaSO2ds foyqIr

gksusdh nj1.28 103g/secgSrcSO3dsfuekZ.k dhnj gS

(1) 0.64 103 g/sec(2) 0.80 103 g/sec(3) 1.28 103 g/sec(4) 1.60 103 g/sec

50. fuEu esa ls lgh dFku gS

(1)lkbDyksgsDlsu dh rqyuk esa DyksjkscsUthu dk fkzqo vk?kw.kZde gksrk gS

(2)izksisukWy dk DoFkukad C;wVsu dh rqyuk esavf/kd gksrk gS

(3)eSfFkysehu dh rqyuk esasfuyhu dkpKb vf/kd gksrk gS

(4)lHkh

51. lksfM;e ukbVksizqlkbM ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku gS:-(1) vk;ju dkEAN 36gSA(2);g gk seksysfIVd ladqy gS(3);gs2dsijh{k.k esa mi;ksxh gS

(4) vk;ju dh vkDlhdj.k lak+2gSA

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MAJOR TEST

52. The standard reduction potential E for the halfreactions are asZn2++ 2eZn ; E = 0.76 V

Fe2++ 2eFe ; E = 0.414 V

The EMF for cell reaction Fe2++ Zn Zn2++ Feis:-

(1) 0.35 V (2) +0.35 V

(3) +1.17 V (4) 1.17 V

53.

NO2

Fe/HCl A 2HNO273K

B 6 5C H OH ; C is

(1)

(2) HO N = N OH

(3) H2N N = N OH

(4) N = N OH

54. Which among the following complexexhibit optical isomerism and having value ofCFSE (2.4 D0 + 3P) ?

(1) [Fe(CN)6]3+ (2) [Pt(NH

3)

4Cl

2]2+

(3) [Cr(en)3]3+ (4) [Co(C

2O

4)

3]3

55. Which of the following expression is correct:

(1) DG = nFE

(2) DG = +nFE

(3) DG = 2.303 RTnFEcell

(4) DG = nF log KC

52. v/kZ vfHkf;kvksa ds ekud vip;u foHko gS

Zn2++ 2eZn ; E = 0.76 V

Fe2++ 2eFe ; E = 0.414 V

lsy vfHkf;kFe2++ Zn Zn2++ Feds fy EMF

gS

(1) 0.35 V (2) +0.35 V

(3) +1.17 V (4) 1.17 V

53.

NO2

Fe/HCl A 2HNO273K

B 6 5C H OH ; CgS

(1)

(2) HO N = N OH

(3) H2N N = N OH

(4) N = N OH

54. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ladqy izdkf'kd leko;ork iznf'kZrdjrk gSrFkk ftlesaCFSE dk eku (2.4 D0 + 3P)gS?

(1) [Fe(CN)6]3+ (2) [Pt(NH

3)

4Cl

2]2+

(3) [Cr(en)3]3+ (4) [Co(C

2O

4)

3]3

55. fuEu esalsdkSulk lEcU/k lgh gS:(1) DG = nFE

(2) DG = +nFE

(3) DG = 2.303 RTnFEcell

(4) DG = nF log KC

LoLFk jgks eLr jgks rFkk i kbZ esa O;Lr jgks A

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MAJOR TEST

56. + (CO + HCl) 2ZnCl X

+ (CH3CO)2O3AlCl

D Y

X + Y OH/D1

Z ; Z is

(1)C C

Ph O Ph

OO

(2) Ph CH = CH

O||C Ph

(3) Ph C|Ph

= CH C||O

- Ph

(4) H3C

3

C|CH

= CH C||O

- Ph

57. Which of the following has zero dipolemoment ?

(1) XeF6 (2) PCl2F3(3) CH

2Cl

2(4) XeF

4

58. The sublimation energy of I2(s) is 57.3 kJ / moland the enthalpy of fusion is 15.5 kJ / mol. Theenthalpy of vaporisation of I2 is :(1) 41.8 kJ / mol (2) 41.8 kJ / mol(3) 72.8 kJ / mol (4) 72.8 kJ / mol

59. H3CCCH2

2 4

Hgdil H SO

+

P 2I / NaOH( )yellowppt

Q R+

Which is correct

(1) R NaOH CaO+D

CH4

(2) R Kolbe'selectrolysis C2H6

(3) P Zn HgHCl

- C3H8(4) All

60. According to MOT bond order of oxygenmolecular ion in O

2[PtF

6] is equals to that of :-

(1) N2 (2) NO(3) CO (4) O2

56. + (CO + HCl) 2ZnCl X

+ (CH3CO)2O3AlCl

D Y

X + Y OH/D1

Z ; ZgS

(1)C C

Ph O Ph

OO

(2) Ph CH = CH

O

||C Ph

(3) Ph C|Ph

= CH C||O

- Ph

(4) H3C

3

C|CH

= CH C||O

- Ph

57. fuEu esa ls fdldk fkzqo vk?kw.kZ 'kwUgS?

(1) XeF6 (2) PCl2F3

(3) CH2Cl2 (4) XeF4

58. I2(s)dh m/oZikru rFkk xyu dh "ek dseku e'k57.3 kJ / molrFkk15.5 kJ / molgSI2dh ok"ihdj.k,UFkSYih dk eku gksxk:(1) 41.8 kJ / mol (2) 41.8 kJ / mol(3) 72.8 kJ / mol (4) 72.8 kJ / mol

59. H3CCCH2

2 4

Hgdil H SO

+

P 2I / NaOH ( )yellowppt

Q R+

dkSulk lgh gS

(1) R NaOH CaO+D

CH4

(2) R Kolbe'selectrolysis C2H6

(3) P Zn HgHCl

- C3H

8

(4)lHkh60. MOTdsvuqlkjO2[PtF6]esavkWDlhtu dsvkf.od vk;u

dk cU/k e fuEu esa ls fdldsleku gS:-

(1) N2

(2) NO

(3) CO (4) O2

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MAJOR TEST

61. Which of the following is related with kidney

failure :-

(1) Ketonurea (2) Polyurea

(3) Pyurea (4) Uremia

62. Blood stains were found at the site of crime. If

DNA fingerprinting is to be used for conviction,

which of the following can be used ?

(1) Erythrocyte (2) Leucocyte

(3) Platelets (4) Serum

63. Sickle cell anaemia is an example of :-

(1) Transition

(2) Transversion

(3) Frame shift mutation

(4) Chromosomal disorder

64. Which of the following make the uterus unsuitable

for implantation :-

(1) Diaphragm

(2) IUD

(3) Artificial insemination

(4) ZIFT

65. Which of the following produces negative

pressure within your thoracic cavity ?

(1) Exhalation

(2) Contraction of the diaphragm muscles(3) Relaxation of the muscles between the ribs

(4) Relaxation of the diaphragm muscles

66. Given diagram show which type of in heritance

(1) Haemophilia (2) Albinism

(3) Phenyl Ketonuria (4) Cystic fibrosis

67. The pancreatic juice contains which of thefollowing active enzymes :-

(1) Nuclosidases

(2) Trypsin

(3) Amylases

(4) All the above

68. In mammals which of the following contains

blood with the highest oxygen content ?

(1) Right atrium (2) Jugular vein

(3) Pulmonary artery (4) Left ventricle

61. fuEufyf[kr esa lsdkSu o`Dd dskjkc gksuslslEcfU/kr

gS :-(1)dhVksu;wfj;k (2)ikyh;wfj;k

(3)ikwfj;k (4);wjsfe;k62. xqukg ds LFkku ij jDr dskCcs ik;s x;sAfn Nkufcu ds

fy;sDNAfQaxjfizafVax dk mi;ksx fd;k tk;srksfuEuesa ls fdldk mi;ksx fd;k tk ldrk gS?(1)bfjFkzkslkbV (2)Y;wdkslkbV(3)IysVysV~l (4)lhje

63. fldy lSyfufe;k fdldk mnkgj.k gS :-(1)VkfUt'ku(2)VkUlolZu(3)se f'kV E;wVs'ku(4)xq.klw=h fodkj

64. fuEufyf[kr esa lsdkSulk mikxHkkZ'kdks Hkwz.k dsjksi.kds fy vuqi;qDr cukrsgSa :-

(1)Mk;kke(2) IUD

(3)d`f=e oh;Zlspu(4) ZIFT

65. fuEu esa ls dkSu vkidh o{k xqgk esa .kkRed nkc mRiUudjrk gS?(1)cfg'olu

(2)Mk;ke i sf'k;ksa dk ladqpu(3)ilfy;ksa ds chp dh isf'k;ksa esa f'kfFkyu(4)Mk;ke dh isf'k;ksa esa f'kfFkyu

66. fn;k x;k fp fdl izdkj dh oa'kkxfr dks n'kkZrk gS

(1)gheksfQfy;k (2)jatdghurk(3)Qhukby dhVksU;wfj;k (4)flfLVdQkbZczksfll

67. vXuk'k;h jl esa fuEufyf[kr esa lsdkSulsUtkbe lf:i esa ik;stkrs gS :-

(1)U;wfDy;kslkbMst

(2)fVIlhu

(3),ekbyst

(4)mijksDr lHkh68. Lru/kkfj;ksa esa fuEu esa lsdkSu mPpre vkWDlhtukVdqDr

jDr j[krk gS ?(1)nka;k vkfyUn (2)tqxyj f'kjk(3)

QqQqlh

keuh(4)

cka;k fuy

Jes'kk eqLdjkrs jgsa A

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MAJOR TEST

69. In a transcription unit RNA polymerase

binds to:-

(1) Promoter (2) Terminator

(3) Induces (4) None of these

70. Bt. toxin can kill which of the following insects :-(1) Tobacco budworm (2) All insects

(3) Beetles, flies (4) 1 & 3

71. Which of the following pair is not correct :-

(1) Epipetalous Brinjal

(2) Epiphyllous Lily

(3) Monoadelphous stamen Chinarose

(4) Polyadelphous stamen Pea

72. Termination codon is :-

(1) AUG (2) UUU(3) UAA (4) UAC

73. Which of the following statement regarding

human skeleton is true :-

(1) Skull skeleton consist of 22 bones

(2) 4 caudal bones fused to form coxal bone

(3) Each fore limb is madeup of 60 bones

(4) Number of cervical vertebral are 12

74. In which of the following plants leaves store

food:-

(1) Pea & onion (2) Garlic & onion

(3) Australian acacia (4) Pitcher plant

75. Which of the following phylum, shows

metamerism ?

A. Annelida B. Mollusca

C. Echinodermata D. Chordata

(1) A and B (2) B and D

(3) B and C (4) A and D

76. Which of the following is most distantly related

to the modern man :-

(1) Australopithecus (2) Dryopithecus

(3) Ramapithecus (4) Pithecanthropus

77. Which of the following is correctly matched:-

(1) a-amino acid Substituted methane

(2) Glycerole Trihydroxy butane

(3) HCNH2|

COOH

|H

Serine

(4)OHOH

HOCH2 UracilNucleotide

69. Vk UlfI'ku bZdkbZ esRNA ihyhesj st fdlls tqM +rkgS :-(1)izeksVj (2)VfeZusVj(3)bUM~;wlj (4)buesa ls dksbZ ugha

70. chVh fo"k fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdu dhVksa dksekj ldrs gS :-(1)rEckdw dh dfydk dhMk(2)lHkh dhV

(3)Hk`ax,eD[kh (4) 1rFkk371. fuEufyf[kr esa lsdkSulk tksM+k lgh ugha gS :-

(1)nyyXu Brinjal(2)ifjnyXu Lily(3),dla?kh i aaqdslj Chinarose(4)cgqla?kh iqadslj Pea

72. lekiu dksMksu gS :-

(1) AUG (2) UUU(3) UAA (4) UAC

73. ekud dadky dslanHkZ esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lRgS :-(1)djksfV dk dadky22 vfLFk;ksa dk cuk gksrk gSA(2) 4dkWMy vfLFk;kla;ksftr gksdj dkWDly vfLFk cukrh gSA(3)izR;sd vxzikn60 vfLFk;ksa dk cuk gksrk gSA(4)xzSo d'ks:dk,sa lak esa12gksrh gSA

74. fuEufyf[kr esa lsdkSulsikniksaesa ifk;kHkkstu laxzfgrdjrh gS :-

(1) Pea & onion (2) Garlic & onion

(3) Australian acacia (4) Pitcher plant

75. fuEufyf[kr dkSulsla?kk.Mh Hkou iznf'kZr djrsgS ?

A.,fufyMk B.eksyLdk

C.bdkbuksMesZVk D.dkWMsZVk

(1) ArFkkB (2) BrFkkD

(3) BrFkkC (4) ArFkkD76. fuEu esa lsdkSu vk/kqfud ekuo dk lclsnwjLFk laca/kh

gS :-(1) vkLVsyksfifFkdl (2)Mk;ksfifFkdl(3)jkekfifFkdl (4)fifFkdsUFkzksil

77. fuEu esa lsdkSulk lqesfyr gS :-(1) a-vehuks vEy izfrLFkk;h feFksu(2)fXyljkWy Vkb gkbMksfDl C;wVsu

(3) HCNH2|

COOH

|H

lsjhu

(4)OHOH

HOCH2 Uracil

U;wfDy;ksVkbM

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78. The presence of bilateral symmetry triploblastic

and jointed appendages is the characteristic feature

of :-

(1) Nereis (2) Wuchereria

(3) Locusta (4) Cucumaria79. A frame shift mutation could result from :-

(1) A base insertion only

(2) A base deletion only

(3) A base substitution only

(4) Either an insertion or a deletion of a base

80. Which of the following statement is true for ABO

blood groups :-

(1) ABO blood groups are controlled by

polygene

(2) The gene (I) has three alleles IA

, IB

and i(3) When I

Aand I

B are present together they

produce similar form of sugar

(4) i allele is dominant over IAallele

81. Which of the following feature is not belong to

reptilia?

(1) Creeping modes of locomotion

(2) Skin is dry and cornified

(3) Four chambered heart

(4) Internal fertilization

82. The original variety of Darwin's finches are :-(1) Seed-eating feature

(2) Insectivorous

(3) Omnivarous

(4) Meat-eating feature

83. In which of following organism male individul

is monosomic as compare to female :-

(1) Birds (2) Grass hopper

(3) Chick (4) Human

84. In following diagram, identified the structure A

A

(1) Notochord (2) Nerve cord

(3) Vertebrae (4) None of the above

85. Reason for falling of hairs in old age is :-

(1) Degeneration of nerve fibres

(2) Contraction of hair papilla

(3) Lake of pigment in hair

(4) Deficiency of vitaminD

78. f}ik'oZ lefefr f=dk sjdh rFkk laf/k;qDr mikxks a dhmifLFkfr fdldk y{k.k gS\

(1) usjhl (2) oqpsjsfj;k

(3)

yksdLVk(4)

dqdqesfj;k79. ,d se f'kV mRifjorZu fdldsifj.kkeLo:i gksldrk gS :-

(1)dsoydkkjdksx(2)dsoydkkjd foyksiu(3)dsoydkkjd izfrLFkkiu(4),dkkjd dsksx vFkok foyksiu

80. ABO:f/kj lewg ds fy;sdkSulk lgh gS :-(1) ABO:f/kj lewg iksyhthUl dskjk fu;fU=r gksrs

gS

(2) thu (I)dh rhufyYl IA, IBo igksrh gS

(3) tcIAo IB,fyyd lkFk mifLFkr gksrh gSrksosleku izdkj dh 'kdZjk cukrh gS

(4) i,fyy IA,fyy ij izHkkoh gksrh gS81. fuEufyf[kr dkSulk y{k.k jsIVhfy;k ls lEca f/kr ugha

gS?(1)jsaxdj pyus dk rjhdk(2)'kq"d o kafxr Ropk(3)pkj os'eh n(4) vkUrfjd fu"kspu

82. MkfoZu dh fpfM;ksadh ewy iztkfr gS :-(1)cht Hk{kh y{k.k(2)dhV Hk{kh(3)lokZgkjh(4)ekal&Hk{kh y{k.k

83. fuEu esa ls fdl ltho esa uj lnL eknk dh rqyuk esaeksukslksfed gksrk gS :-(1)if{k;ksa esa (2)fVsesa(3)pqtsesa (4)euq" esa

84. fuEufyf[kr fp esa lajpukAdks ifgpkfu;s

A

(1)uksVksdkWMZ (2)raf=dk jTtq(3)d'ks:dk,a (4)mijksDr dksbZ ugha

85. o` vk;q esa ckyksa ds fxjus dk dkj.k gS :-(1)raf=dk rarqvksa dk vi?kVu

(2)jkse isfiyk dk ladqpu(3)cky esa o.kZd dk vHkko(4)foVkfeuDdh deh

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MAJOR TEST

86. Given diagram show Morgan experiment between

body colour and eye colour, what will be true for

this experiment :-

(1) The strength of linkage between y and w is

higher

(2) Crossing over between y and w is higher

(3) The strength of linkage between y and w is low

(4) All the above

87. In which of the following plant, nucellar cells

surrounding the embryosac, start diving, protrude

into the embryosac and develop into the embryos ?

(1) Ficus (2) Mangifera

(3) Nucifera (4) Pisum

88. Which of the following are not involved in the

process of breathing in humans ?

(1) Nervous system (2) Diaphragm

(3) Rib muscles (4) Rib-cage

89. Which of the following is related to HGP :-

(1) Expressed sequence Tags (ESTs)

(2) Sequence annotation

(3) Bio informatics

(4) All the above

86. fn;k x;k fp'kjhj dsjax o vkW[kksa dsjax eseekWxZuds iz;ksx dks n'kkZrk gSA bl iz;ksx ds fyD;k lgh gS :-

(1) yowds e lgyXurk dh lkeF;Z T;knk gS

(2) yowds e kWflax vkWoj T;knk gS

(3) yowds e lgyXurk de gksrh gS

(4) mijksDr lHkh

87. fuEufyf[kr fdl ikni esa Hkzw.kdks'k ds vkl&ikl dh dqNchtk.Mdk;h dksf'kdk,foHkkftr gksusyxrh gSvkSj Hkwz.kdks'k

esa izksnc/khizos'kdjdsHkwz.kksadsi esafodflr gkstkrh gS ?(1) Qkbdl (2) esUthQsjk(3) uwlhQsjk (4) ikble

88. fuEu esa lsdkSu ekuo esa laokru dh izf;k esalfEefyrugha gksrk gS?(1)raf=dk ra (2)Mk;ke(3)ilyh dh isf'k;k (4)ilyh iatj

89. HGPlsdkSulk lEcfU/kr gS :-(1),DlizslM lhDosUl VsXl (ESTs)(2)lhDosUluksVs'ku(3)tSo lwpuk izks|ksfxdh(4)mijksDr lHkh

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MAJOR TEST

90. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Geitonogamy is ecologically self pollination

(2) Lupinusplant lack of seed dormancy

(3) Banana is false fruit

(4) Syngamy results formation of zygote91. Examine the figures (A to E) given below and

select the right option out of 1-4, in which all the

structures a, b, c, d, e, f, g & h are identified

correctly :-

(A)'b'

'a'

(B)

'c'

'd'

(C)

(D)

'f'

'e'

(E)

'g'

'h'

(1) a Eye-spot e Sieve pore

b Pellicle f Phloem

c Midrib parenchyma

d Antheridiophore g Secondary cortex

h Epidermis

(2) a Contractile vacuole e Companion cell

b Eye-spot f Sieve tube

c Hold fast element

d Gemma cup g complimentary

cells

h Phellogen

(3) a Eye spot e Sieve tube

b Contractile vacuole element

c Air bladder f Companion cell

d Archegoniophore g Complimentary

cells

h Cork cambium

(4) a Eye spot e Phloem

b Nucleus parenchyma

c Midrib f Sieve pored Archegoniophore g Cork cambium

h Secondary cortex

90. fuEufyf[kr dkSulk dFku lR gS\(1)thVksuksxseh ifjfLFkfrdh i ls Lo ijkx.k gSA(2) ywihulikni esa cht izlqIrkoLFkk dk vHkko gksrk gSA(3)dsykd vkHkklh Qy gSA

(4)fluxseh dsifj.kke Lo:iqXeut dk fuekZ.k gksrk gSA91. uhpsfn fp=ksa(A to E) dh tkp dfj vkSj fn x

fodYiksa lsogd fodYi pqfuftlesa lajpuk,a, b,

c, d, e, f, g,oahlgh igpkuh xbZ gS?

(A)'b'

'a'

(B)

'c'

'd'

(C)

(D)

'f'

'e'

(E)

'g'

'h'

(1) a n`d fcUnq e pkyuh fNnz

b isfydy f yks,e e`nqrd

c ef'kjk g f}rh;d oYdqV

d iaq/kkuh/kj h vf/kpeZ

(2) a ladqpu'khy jl/kkuh e lgdksf'kdk

b n`d fcUnq f pkyuh ufydk rRo

c LFkkiukax g iwjd dksf'kdk,

d xsek di h QSykstu

(3) a n`d fcUnq e pkyuh ufydk rRo

b ladqpu'khy jl/kkuh f lgdksf'kdk

c ok;q vk'k g iwjd dksf'kdk,

d L=h/kkuh/kj h dkx kk

(4) a n`d fcUnq e yks,e e`nqrd

b dsUnzd f pkyuh fNnz

c ef'kjk g dkx kk

d L=h/kkuh/kj h f}rh;d oYdqV

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MAJOR TEST

92. Which of the following statements is incorrect

about given figure?

(1) Mesophyll is differentiated into palisade

parenchyma & spongy parenchyma

(2) Palisade parenchyma is present towards

adaxial epidermis

(3) Position of xylem and phloem in the vascularbundle is towards adaxial epidermis and

abaxial epidermis, respectively

(4) Two distinct patches of sclerenchyma are

present above and below of large vascular

bundle

93. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Lichens, multiply by soredia formation

(2) Plant viruses are generally single stranded

RNA viruses

(3) Katherine Esau was reported in her earlypublication that the curly top virus spreads

through a plant via the phloem tissue

(4) Primary atypical pneumonia disease is caused

by bacteria

94. Match listI (Type of tissues/structures) with

listII (characteristic features of the tissue) and

select the correct answer using the codes given

below the lists

ListI ListII

(Types of tissue/ (Characteristicstructure) features of the tissue)

A. Hydathodes P. Balloon like

protrusions into

tracheary elements,

developed from

xylem parenchyma

B. Collenchyma Q. Mechanical tissue

that consists of living

cells, wall rich in

pectin and cellulosehemicellulose

92. fn xfpds fydkSulsdFku vlR gS

(1)i.kZekskdkEHk e`nqrd o Liath e`nqrd esa foHksfnr

gksrk gS

(2)[kEHk e`nqrd vHk vf/kpeZ dh rjQ gksrk gS

(3)laogu iwy esa tkbyeoa yks,e dh fLFkfr e'k

vHk vf/kpeZ o vik{k vf/kpeZ dh rjQ gksrh gS

(4)cM+slaogu iwy dsij o uhpsnksrd dsnksL=od

iktkrs gS

93. fuEufyf[kr esa lsdkSulk dFku vlR gS?

(1)ykbdsUllksjhfM;k fuekZ.kkjk xq.ku djrsgSaA

(2)ikni okbjl lkekU;r dy lw=hRNAfo"kk.kq gksrs

gSaA(3)dSFksjkbu blk usviusizkjfEHkd izdk'kuksaesag crk;k fd

dyhZVkWi fo"kk.kqikS/ksesayks,e rdkjk QSyrk gSA

(4)izkFkfed viz:ih U;weksfu;k jksx cSDVhfj;kkjk gksrk gSA

94. lwphI (rdksa@lajpukvksa dk dkjdks lwphII (rddh vfHkyk{kf.kd fo'ks"krk,dslkFk lqesfyr dhft vkSjlwfp;ksa dsuhpsfnxdwVksa dk ;ksx djrsgqlgh mkjpqfu,A

lwphI lwphII

(rdksa@lajpukvksa (rdksa dh vfHkyk{kf.kddk dkj) fo'ks"krk,)

A. ty jU/kz P. tkbye iSjUdkbek ls

fodflr okfgdh vo;oksa

esa xqCckjsdsleku fudys

mHkkj

B. LFkwydks.k rd Q.;kaf=d rd ftuesa thfordkssf'kdk, gksrh gSA ftudhfHkfk;ksa esa isfDVuoa

lSY;wykst gSfelSY;wykst dhckgqY;rk gksrh gSA

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MAJOR TEST

C. Periblem R. Occur on leaf tips

responsible for

guttation

D. Tyloses S. Meristematic tissue

responsible for thedevelopment of

cortex

Codes : A B C D

(1) Q R S P

(2) R Q P S

(3) Q R P S

(4) R Q S P

95. External ear is absent in frog and only tympanum

can be seen externally. In frog ear is an organ of:-

(1) Hearing only

(2) Balancing only

(3) Hearing as well as balancing

(4) Neither hearing nor balancing

96.

c

a

b

Structure a, b, c are in given diagram

(1) a = E.R. b = nucleus c = Golgibody

(2) a = Nucleolus b = ER c = Ribosome

(3) a = Ribosome b = Nucleolus c = Golgibody

(4) None of these97. Translocation of Photosynthates is occurs

through:-

(1) Mitochondrion (2) Sieve tubes

(3) Trachieds (4) Vesseles

98. The oxygenation of RuBP in chloroplast, is the

first reaction of photorespiration which produces:-

(1) Pyruvic acid & Acetyl CoA

(2) Phosphoglycerate & Phosphoglycolate

(3) Glucose & Serine

(4) Glycine & Serine

C. oYdqVtu R.fcUnqL=ko dsfymkjnk;h

i.kZ 'kh"kks ij feyrk gSA

D. Vkbyksfll S. dkVsZDl ds fodkl ds

fy

mkjnk;h esfjLVsehrd

dksM~l: A B C D

(1) Q R S P

(2) R Q P S

(3) Q R P S

(4) R Q S P

95. esd esackg~d.kZ vuqifLFkr gksrk gSdsoy d.kZiVg gh ckgjlsfn[kkbZ nsrk gSA esd esa d.kZd vax gSftldk dk;Z gS:-

(1)dsoy Jo.k(2)dsoy lUrqyu(3) Jo.k ds lkFk&lkFk larqyu

(4)u Jo.k u larqyu

96.

c

a

b

fn;sx;s fp esa lajpuka, b, cgS\

(1) a = E.R. b = nucleus c = Golgibody

(2) a = Nucleolus b = ER c = Ribosome

(3) a = Ribosome b = Nucleolus c = Golgibody

(4)blesa lsdksbZ ugha97. izdk'kla'kys"k dk LFkkukarj.k fdlls gksdj ik;k tkrk gS

(1)ekbVksdkWfUM;k (2)pkyuh ufydkvksa

(3)okfgfudk (4)okfgdk

98. gfjr yodksa esaRuBPdk vkWDlhtuhdj.k izdk'k 'oludh izFke vfHkf;k gS tksmRikfnr djrh gS

(1) Pyruvic acid & Acetyl CoA

(2) Phosphoglycerate & Phosphoglycolate

(3) Glucose & Serine

(4) Glycine & Serine

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MAJOR TEST

105. Milestones in the evolution of plants are shown:

I

II

IV

III

Land invasion

Vascular system

I, II, III and IV indicate respectively :-

(1) I = Green algae, II = Bryophytes, III = Ferns,

IV = Cycads

(2) I = Protozoa, II = Lichens, III = Mosses,

IV = Cycads(3) I = Protist, II = Algae, III = Mosses,

IV = Cycads

(4) I = Protist, II = Green algae, III = Ferns,

IV = Mosses

Passage : (Q. No. 106 & 107)

A botanist discovered three plants A, B, and C.

He studied their characters, which are given be-

low in table. Study the following characters and

give the answer of following questions.

A B C

1. Plant body Stem aerial Stem aerial

thallus like and erect and erect

2. Scales Photosynthetic Sporophylls

absent leaves (Tropophylls) non -

externally similar photosynthetic

to leaves of moss

3. Rhizoids Sporangia aggregated Sporangia

unicellular in cones and aggregated

sporophylls in cones

photosynthetic

4. Rhizoids Roots Fruits absent

unbranched adventitious

5. Male sex Male sex organs Antheridia and

organs antheridia and archegonia

antheridia female archegonia absent

and female

archegonia

105. ikniksa esa fodkl dsekbyLVksUl dksiznf'kZr fd;k x;k gS

I

II

IV

III

( )LFkyhlake.kLand invasion

Vascular system( )laogu ra

I, II, IIIrFkkIVe'kfdldks iznf'kZr dj jgsgSa(1) I =gjs'kSoky, II =czk;ksQkbV~l, III =QuZ,

IV =lkbdsM~l(2) I =izksVkstksvk, II =ykbdsUl, III =gkWlZVsYl,

IV =lkbdsM~l(3) I =izksfVLV, II ='kSoky, III =ekWl,

IV =lkbdsM~l(4) I =izksfVLV, II =gjs'kSoky, III =QuZ,

IV =ekWl

x|ka'k

(iz- la-

106,oa

107)

,d ikni oSKkfud usrhu izdkj ds ikniksaA, BrFkkCdks[kkstk vkSj budsy{k.kksdk vu fd;kA tksd rkfydkesa uhpsfn;sx;sgSaA bu y{k.kksa dksvu djdsfn;sx;siz'uksa dsmkj nhft;sA

A B C

1. ikni 'kjhj ruk ok;oh ruk ok;oh

FkSyl leku rFkk m/oZ rFkk m/oZ

2. 'kYd izdk'k la'ys"kh chtk.kqi.kZ

vuqifLFkr ifk;kVksiksfQYl) vizdk'kla'ys"kh

ckgjhi lsekWl

dh ifk;ksadsleku

3. ewykHkkl chtk.kq/kkfu;k 'kadqvksa chtk.kq/kkfu;k

,ddksf'kdh; esa O;ofLFkr rFkk 'kadqvksa esa

chtk.kqi.kZ izdk'kla'ys"kh O;ofLFkr

4. ewykHkkl tM+sviLFkkfud Qy vuqifLFkr

v'kkf[kr

5. uj tuukax uj tuukax iqa/kkuh;k iqa/kkuh;k o

iaq/kkuh;k o o eknk L=h/kkuh;k L=h/kkuh;k

eknk L=h/kkuh;k vuqifLFkr

viuh

kerk dks iwjk olwyus dk iz;kl djsa A

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MAJOR TEST

106. Identify that A plant belongs to which plant group?

(1) Horn worts (2) Psilopsida

(3) Gentales (4) Moss

107. In which plant vessels are present ?(1) B (2) A

(3) C (4) All

108. A cladogram showing evolution of plants given

below. Study it carefully and give the answer of

following question.

Number 3 representing the which group of

plants:-

(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Moss

(3) Diatom (4) Red algae

109. A graph is given below exhibiting evolution of

gametophyte of different plant groups at No. 1

to 6. Identify that number 4representing which

group of plant.

(1) Moss (2) Pteridophyta

(3) Angiosperm (4) Liverwort

106. ifgpkfu;sikniAfdl ikni lewg lslEcfU/kr gS\

(1)gkWuZoV~lZ (2)lkbyksfIlMk

(3) uhVsYl (4) ekWl

107. fdl ikni esa okfgdk,sa ik;h tkrh gS\(1) B (2) A

(3) C (4) All

108. ikniksa ds fodkl dks n'kkZrk gqvk DysMksxzke uhpsn'kkZ;kx;k gSA bldk lko/kkuhiwoZd vu dhfto fuEu iz'udk mkj fnft;sA

vad3ikniksa ds fdl leqg dksiznf'kZr dj jgk gS

(1)MkbuksysftysV~l (2)ekWl

(3)Mk,Ve (4)yky 'kSoky

109. vidks uhpsxzkQ fn;k tk jgk gSa xzkQ fofHkUu ikni leqgksa(1ls6)dsqXedksn~fHkn~ dsfodkl dks iznf'kZr dj jgkgSA igpkfu;svad fdl ikni leqg dks iznf'kZr djjgk gSA

(1)ekWl (2)VsfjMksQkbVk

(3),fUt;ksLiZe (4)fyojoVZTime Management is Life Management

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MAJOR TEST

Para (Q. No. 110 & 111)

A phycologist, while working on the flora of a sea,

noticed a red coloured alga. He collected the alga

from sea and temporily classified it in class

rhodophyceae owing its pigmentation. Later on,

he prepared a pure culture of alga in lab and

studied it in detail. He made the following

observations. Sex organs, true nucleus, true

chromosome and chloroplast were absent.

110. What is the name of above algae :-

(1) Laminaria (2) Polysiphonia

(3) Trichodesmium (4) Batarchospermum

111. Imagine that if this algae found in river and the

sex organs of this alga like that of liver worts, cellorganization and gross life cycle similar to the red

coloured algae which occur in sea, thenname of

this alga will:-

(1) Laminaria (2) Polysiphonia

(3) Funaria (4) Batarchospermum

112. Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Short distance (i) House garden

migration (ii) Density

(B) In situ (iii) Sacred lake

conservation (iv) Influence zone

(C) Copper pollution (v) Locust

(D) Regulative function (vi) Biomass

of forest (vii) Hypertension

(E) Analytic character (viii) Caribou

of community (ix) Production of wood,

fruits

(x) Whale

(xi) Uremia(xii) Growth

(xiii) Marine biosphere

reserve

(xiv) Absorption, storage

and release of gases

and minerals

(xv) Lion

(1) Aviii,x, Biii,xiii, Cvii,xi, Dix,xiv, Eii,vi

(2) Avii,x, Bii,iii, Cviii,xii, Div,xiii, Ei,ix

(3) Av,xi, Bviii,xii, Ci,iii,vi Dix,xiv, Eii,vii

(4) Aviii,xii, Biii,vii, Cii,xi, Dix,xiii, Ei,xiv

x|ka'k

(iz- la-

110,oa

111)

,d 'kSoky foKkuh usfdlh lkxj ds yksjk dk vu djrsle d yky jax dh 'kSoky dks ns[kkA blus'kSoky dkslkxjlsdf=r fd;k rFkk jax ds dkj.k vLFkkbZ rkSj ij bls oxZ

jksMksQkbZlh esa oxh Zd`r dj fn;kA ckn esa bl oSKkfud usiz;ksx'kkyk esa 'kSoky dk 'kq lao/kZu rS;kj fd;k rFkk bldkfoLrkj ls vu fd;kA oSKkfud us 'kSoky ds ckjs esa fuEuisz{k.k izkIr fd;sA ySafxd tuukaxlRdsUnzdlRxw.klwrFkk gfjryod vuqifLFkr FksA

110. mijksDr 'kSoky dk uke D;k gksxk (1) ySfeusfjvk (2) iksfylkbQksfuvk(3) VkbdksMslfe;e (4) csVsdksLijee

111. dYiuk dfj;sfng 'kSoky ufn esa ik;h tkrh rFkk bl

'kSoky ds ySafxd tuu vax fyojoV Z ds tuu vaxk s tSls dksf'kdk laxBu rFkk eksVs rkSj ij thoup mu yky jax dh'kSokyksa dsleku tksleqnz esa ik;h tkrh gSrc bl fLFkfr esabl 'kSoky dk uke gksxk(1) ySfeusfjvk (2) iksfylkbQksfuvk(3) ;qusfjvk (4) csVsdksLijee

112. LrEHkIdksLrEHkIIdslkFk lqesfyr djsa

LrEHk

-ILrEHk

-II

(A) de nwjh vfHkxeu (i) ?kjsyq cxhps

(B) LoLFkkus la{kj.k (ii) l?kurk(C) rkck iznq"k.k (iii) ifo hy

(D) ou dh fu;eudkjh (iv) izHkko ks

f;k (v) fVk

(E) leqnk dk (vi) tSo Hkkj

fo'ys"k.kkRed y{k.k (vii) gkbijVsU'ku

(viii)dkjhckW

(ix) ydM+h rFkk Qyksa dk mRiknu

(x) Ogsy

(xi) ;wjsfe;k(xii) o`f

(xiii)leqh tSo e.My fup

(xiv)xSlksa rFkk kfutksa dk

vo'kks"k.k lxzag.k rFkk

fu"dklu

(xv) 'ksj(1) Aviii,x, Biii,xiii, Cvii,xi, Dix,xiv, Eii,vi

(2) Avii,x, Bii,iii, Cviii,xii, Div,xiii, Ei,ix

(3) Av,xi, Bviii,xii, Ci,iii,vi Dix,xiv, Eii,vii

(4) Aviii,xii, Biii,vii, Cii,xi, Dix,xiii, Ei,xiv

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MAJOR TEST

113. Match the following columns :-

ColumnI ColumnII

(i) U.N. conference of (a) Switzerland

human environment

(ii) IUCN head office (b) Rio de Janerrio

(iii) United nations (c) Stockhom

conference on

desertification

(iv) UNCED earth (d) Nairobi (Kenya)

submmit held at

(1) (i) c (ii) a (iii) d (iv) b

(2) (i) a (ii) b (iii) c (iv) d

(3) (i) b (ii) c (iii) d (iv) a(4) (i) d (ii) d (iii) c (iv) a

114. The correct sequence of process taking place

during plant succession is :

(1) ClimaxCompetitionInvasionNudation

(2) CompetitionInvasionNudationClimax

(3) InvasionNudationClimaxCompetition

(4) NudationInvasionCompetitionClimax

115. When b-cell receptor interacts with antigenic

determinant specific to it, the lymphocyte becomes

activated and divides to form a clone of cells. Thesecells are also transformed into effector cells like

(1) Antibody producing cells

(2) T-cytotoxic cells

(3) T-helper cells

(4) Memory cells

116. In 1796, which English physician done a landmark

experiment in field of vaccination ?

(1) Louis Pastcur (2) Edward Jenner

(3) Von Behring (4) Hippocrates

117. ELISA detects presence of ______ in asample.

(1) Antigen (2) HIV

(3) Antibody (4) Both (1) and (3)

118. Diabetes mellitus is due to :-

(A) Hyper secretion of glucagon

(B) Hyposecretion of Insulin

(C) Insulin resistant nature

(D) Insulin sensitive nature

Which are the true causes :-

(1) A, C (2) B, D(3) A, D (4) Only B and C

113. fuEu dkye feykb;s:-

dkye

Idkye

II

(i) ekuo ik;kZoj.k ij (a) fLoVtjyS.M

U.N. dkUsUl

(ii) IUCNdk eqky (b) fj;ks&fM&tsusfj;ks

(iii) la;q jk"V dkUsal (c) LVkWdgkse

(e:LFkyhdj.k ij)

(iv) UNCED fo'o lEesyu (d) usjksch dsU;k

(1) (i) c (ii) a (iii) d (iv) b

(2) (i) a (ii) b (iii) c (iv) d

(3) (i) b (ii) c (iii) d (iv) a

(4) (i) d (ii) d (iii) c (iv) a

114. ikni vuqe.k dsnkSjku gksusokyh f;kvksa dk lgh egS (1)pje voLFkkizfrLi/kkZlake.kvukPNknu(2)izfrLi/kkZlake.kvukPNknupje voLFkk(3)lake.kvukPNknupje voLFkkizfrLikkZ(4) vukPNknulake.kizfrLi/kkZpje voLFkk

115. tcb-dksf'kdk xzkgh fof'k"V izfrtudrk fu/kkZjd lsvuqf;k djrk gSrksylhdk.kq lfgksdj foHkkftr gksdj

Dyksu fuekZ.k djrh gSAsdksf'kdk;sa vc izHkkoh dksf'kdkvksatSls______esaikUrfjr gkstkrh gS(1) izfrj{kh mRiknd dksf'kdk;sa(2) T-fo"k dksf'kdk dksf'kdk;sa(3) T-lgk;d dksf'kdk;sa(4)Le`fr dksf'kdk;sa

116. o"kZ1796esa fdl vaxszt dk;Z fpfdRld usVhdkdj.k ds{ks esasfrgkfld iz;ksx fd;k?(1)yqbl ik'pj (2),MoMZ tsuj(3)oksu csgfjax (4)fgIikssV~l

117. ,ykbtk ijh{k.kizfrn'kZ esa_______dh mifLFkfr dkstkprk gSA(1)izfrtu (2) HIV(3) izfrj{kh (4) (1)rFkk(3)nksuksa

118. Mk;fcVht esybV~l dk dkj.k gS :-(A)Xyqdkxksu dk vfrL=o.k(B)bUlqfyu dh izfrjks/kdrk(C)bUlqfyu dk vLiL=o.k(D)bUlqfyu dh laosnu'khyrkfuEu esa lsdkSuls fcUnq lR dkj.k gS :-

(1) A, C (2) B, D(3) A, D (4)dsoyBoC

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MAJOR TEST

119. Fill in the box with appropriate words :

Myelinated axon

Unmyelinated axon

C.N.S. & P.N.S.

S.N.S. & ?(a)

Cerebrum

Cerebelluns

Co-ordination of information

?(b)

Sensory nerves

Moter nerves

Affernt

?(c)

A.N.S.

S.N.S. Voluntary muscle(d)

?

(1) (a) - C.N.S, (b) - Less convoluted

(c) - Efferent (d) - Voluntary

(2) (a) - P.N.S. (b) - not convoluted

(c) - Afferent (d) - Involuntary

(3) (a) - A.N.S. (b) - Highly convoluted

(c) - Efferent (d) - Involuntary

(4) (a) - C.N.S. (b) - Highly convoluted

(c) - Efferent (d) - Involuntary

120. The H-zone cotains only thick filaments while theI-band contains only thin filaments. The remainder

of A-Band has :-

(1) Only thick filaments

(2) Only thin filaments

(3) Both thick & thin filaments

(4) Neither thick nor thin filaments

119. fjDr LFkkuksa dsi esa ckWDl Hkjas :

(a)

ekbyhu qDrDtksu

ekbyhu fofguDtksu

C.N.S. P.N.S.vkSj

S.N.S. ?vkSj

izefLr"d

vuqefLr"d

lwpukvksa dk leUo

?(b)

laosnh raf=dk,sa

izsjd raf=dk,sa

vfHkokgh

?(c)

A.N.S.

S.N.S.(d)

?

sfPNd

(1) (a) - C.N.S, (b) -de ofyr(c) - viokgh (d) -,sfPNd

(2) (a) - P.N.S. (b) - vofyr(c) - vfHkokgh (d) - vuSfPNd

(3) (a) - A.N.S. (b) - vfrofyr(c) - viokgh (d) - vuSfPNd

(4) (a) - C.N.S. (b) - vfrofyr(c) - viokgh (d) - vuSfPNd

120. H-zoneesa ekeksVsrarq iktkrsgStcfdI-Bandesaekirysrarq iktkrs gStcfd 'ks"kA-Bandesa gksrsgS :-(1)ek eksVs rarq(2)ek irys rarq(3)nksuksa eksVsvkSj irys rarq(4)eksVs vkSj irysrarq nksuksa ughaA

Your moral dutyis that to proveALLENisALLEN

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04052012TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2012

MAJOR TEST

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /jQ dk;Z ds y;s txg

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