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1 CHAPTER 10 The Cost of Capital Professor Cambry Finance 515 Managerial Finance 10-14-2010

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Page 1: Fin 515 week 6

1

CHAPTER 10

The Cost of Capital

Professor CambryFinance 515Managerial Finance10-14-2010

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Topics in Chapter Cost of Capital Components

Debt Preferred Common Equity

WACC

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What types of long-term capital do firms use? Long-term debt Preferred stock Common equity

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Capital Components Capital components are sources of

funding that come from investors. Accounts payable, accruals, and

deferred taxes are not sources of funding that come from investors, so they are not included in the calculation of the cost of capital.

We do adjust for these items when calculating the cash flows of a project, but not when calculating the cost of capital.

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Before-tax vs. After-tax Capital Costs Tax effects associated with

financing can be incorporated either in capital budgeting cash flows or in cost of capital.

Most firms incorporate tax effects in the cost of capital. Therefore, focus on after-tax costs.

Only cost of debt is affected.

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Historical (Embedded) Costs vs. New (Marginal) Costs The cost of capital is used

primarily to make decisions which involve raising and investing new capital. So, we should focus on marginal costs.

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Cost of Debt Method 1: Ask an investment

banker what the coupon rate would be on new debt.

Method 2: Find the bond rating for the company and use the yield on other bonds with a similar rating.

Method 3: Find the yield on the company’s debt, if it has any.

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A 15-year, 12% semiannual bond sells for $1,153.72. What’s rd?

60 60 + 1,00060

0 1 2 30i = ?

-1,153.72

...

30 -1153.72 60 1000

5.0% x 2 = rd = 10% N I/YR PV FVPMT

INPUTS

OUTPUT

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Component Cost of Debt Interest is tax deductible, so the

after tax (AT) cost of debt is: rd AT = rd BT(1 - T) rd AT= 10%(1 - 0.40) = 6%.

Use nominal rate. Flotation costs small, so ignore.

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Cost of preferred stock: PP = $113.10; 10%Q; Par = $100; F = $2.

Use this formula:

rps =Dps

Pps (1-F)=

0.1($100)

$116.95(1-0.05)

=$10

$111.10= 0.090=9.0%

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Time Line of Preferred

2.50 2.502.50

0 1 2 ∞rps=?

-111.1

...

$111.10=DQ

rPer

= $2.50rPer

rPer =$2.50

$111.10= 2.25%; rps(Nom) = 2.25%(4) = 9%

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Note: Flotation costs for preferred are

significant, so are reflected. Use net price.

Preferred dividends are not deductible, so no tax adjustment. Just rps.

Nominal rps is used.

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Is preferred stock more or less risky to investors than debt? More risky; company not required

to pay preferred dividend. However, firms want to pay

preferred dividend. Otherwise, (1) cannot pay common dividend, (2) difficult to raise additional funds, and (3) preferred stockholders may gain control of firm.

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Why is yield on preferred lower than rd? Corporations own most preferred stock,

because 70% of preferred dividends are nontaxable to corporations.

Therefore, preferred often has a lower B-T yield than the B-T yield on debt.

The A-T yield to investors and A-T cost to the issuer are higher on preferred than on debt, which is consistent with the higher risk of preferred.

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Example:

rps = 9% rd = 10% T = 40%

rps, AT = rps - rps (1 - 0.7)(T)

= 9% - 9%(0.3)(0.4) = 7.92%rd, AT = 10% - 10%(0.4) = 6.00%

A-T Risk Premium on Preferred = 1.92%

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What are the two ways that companies can raise common equity? Directly, by issuing new shares of

common stock. Indirectly, by reinvesting earnings

that are not paid out as dividends (i.e., retaining earnings).

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Why is there a cost for reinvested earnings? Earnings can be reinvested or paid

out as dividends. Investors could buy other

securities, earn a return. Thus, there is an opportunity cost

if earnings are reinvested.

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Cost for Reinvested Earnings (Continued) Opportunity cost: The return

stockholders could earn on alternative investments of equal risk.

They could buy similar stocks and earn rs, or company could repurchase its own stock and earn rs. So, rs, is the cost of reinvested earnings and it is the cost of equity.

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Three ways to determine the cost of equity, rs:

1. CAPM: rs = rRF + (rM - rRF)b= rRF + (RPM)b.

2. DCF: rs = D1/P0 + g.3. Own-Bond-Yield-Plus-Risk

Premium:

rs = rd + Bond RP.

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CAPM Cost of Equity: rRF = 7%, RPM = 6%, b = 1.2.

rs = rRF + (rM - rRF )b.

= 7.0% + (6.0%)1.2 = 14.2%.

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Issues in Using CAPM Most analysts use the rate on a

long-term (10 to 20 years) government bond as an estimate of rRF.

More…

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Issues in Using CAPM (Continued) Most analysts use a rate of 5% to

6.5% for the market risk premium (RPM)

Estimates of beta vary, and estimates are “noisy” (they have a wide confidence interval).

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DCF Cost of Equity, rs: D0 = $4.19; P0 = $50; g = 5%.

rs = D1

P0

+ g =D0(1+g)

P0

+ g

= $4.19(1.05)$50

+ 0.05

= 0.088 + 0.05= 13.8%

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Estimating the Growth Rate Use the historical growth rate if

you believe the future will be like the past.

Obtain analysts’ estimates: Value Line, Zack’s, Yahoo.Finance.

Use the earnings retention model, illustrated on next slide.

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Earnings Retention Model Suppose the company has been

earning 15% on equity (ROE = 15%) and retaining 35% (dividend payout = 65%), and this situation is expected to continue.

What’s the expected future g?

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Earnings Retention Model (Continued) Growth from earnings retention model:

g = (Retention rate)(ROE) g = (1 - payout rate)(ROE) g = (1 – 0.65)(15%) = 5.25%.

This is close to g = 5% given earlier. Think of bank account paying 15% with retention ratio = 0. What is g of account balance? If retention ratio is 100%, what is g?

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Could DCF methodology be applied if g is not constant? YES, nonconstant g stocks are

expected to have constant g at some point, generally in 5 to 10 years.

But calculations get complicated. See the “Web 10B” worksheet in the file “FM12 Ch 10 Tool Kit.xls”.

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The Own-Bond-Yield-Plus-Risk-Premium Method: rd = 10%, RP = 4%. rs = rd + RP rs = 10.0% + 4.0% = 14.0%

This RP CAPM RPM. Produces ballpark estimate of rs.

Useful check.

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What’s a reasonable final estimate of rs?Method Estimate

CAPM 14.2%

DCF 13.8%

rd + RP 14.0%

Average 14.0%

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Determining the Weights for the WACC The weights are the percentages of

the firm that will be financed by each component.

If possible, always use the target weights for the percentages of the firm that will be financed with the various types of capital.

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Estimating Weights for the Capital Structure If you don’t know the targets, it is

better to estimate the weights using current market values than current book values.

If you don’t know the market value of debt, then it is usually reasonable to use the book values of debt, especially if the debt is short-term. (More...)

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Estimating Weights (Continued) Suppose the stock price is $50,

there are 3 million shares of stock, the firm has $25 million of preferred stock, and $75 million of debt.

(More...)

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Estimating Weights (Continued) Vce = $50 (3 million) = $150

million. Vps = $25 million. Vd = $75 million. Total value = $150 + $25 + $75 =

$250 million.

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Estimating Weights (Continued) wce = $150/$250 = 0.6 wps = $25/$250 = 0.1 wd = $75/$250 = 0.3

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What’s the WACC?WACC = wdrd(1 - T) + wpsrps + wcers

WACC = 0.3(10%)(0.6) + 0.1(9%) + 0.6(14%)

WACC = 1.8% + 0.9% + 8.4% = 11.1%.

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What factors influence a company’s WACC? Market conditions, especially

interest rates and tax rates. The firm’s capital structure and

dividend policy. The firm’s investment policy. Firms

with riskier projects generally have a higher WACC.

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Is the firm’s WACC correct for each of its divisions? NO! The composite WACC reflects

the risk of an average project undertaken by the firm.

Different divisions may have different risks. The division’s WACC should be adjusted to reflect the division’s risk and capital structure.

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The Risk-Adjusted Divisional Cost of Capital Estimate the cost of capital that

the division would have if it were a stand-alone firm.

This requires estimating the division’s beta, cost of debt, and capital structure.

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Pure Play Method for Estimating Beta for a Division or a Project Find several publicly traded

companies exclusively in project’s business.

Use average of their betas as proxy for project’s beta.

Hard to find such companies.

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Accounting Beta Method for Estimating Beta Run regression between project’s

ROA and S&P index ROA. Accounting betas are correlated

(0.5 – 0.6) with market betas. But normally can’t get data on new

projects’ ROAs before the capital budgeting decision has been made.

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Divisional Cost of Capital Using CAPM Target debt ratio = 10%. rd = 12%. rRF = 7%. Tax rate = 40%. betaDivision = 1.7. Market risk premium = 6%.

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Divisional Cost of Capital Using CAPM (Continued)

Division’s required return on equity:rs = rRF + (rM – rRF)bDiv.

rs = 7% + (6%)1.7 = 17.2%.WACCDiv. = wd rd(1 – T) + wc rs

= 0.1(12%)(0.6) + 0.9(17.2%)

= 16.2%.

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Division’s WACC vs. Firm’s Overall WACC? Division WACC = 16.2% versus

company WACC = 11.1%. “Typical” projects within this

division would be accepted if their returns are above 16.2%.

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What are the three types of project risk? Stand-alone risk Corporate risk Market risk

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How is each type of risk used? Stand-alone risk is easiest to

calculate. Market risk is theoretically best in

most situations. However, creditors, customers,

suppliers, and employees are more affected by corporate risk.

Therefore, corporate risk is also relevant.

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A Project-Specific, Risk-Adjusted Cost of Capital Start by calculating a divisional

cost of capital. Use judgment to scale up or down

the cost of capital for an individual project relative to the divisional cost of capital.

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Costs of Issuing New Common Stock When a company issues new

common stock they also have to pay flotation costs to the underwriter.

Issuing new common stock may send a negative signal to the capital markets, which may depress stock price.

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Cost of New Common Equity: P0=$50, D0=$4.19, g=5%, and F=15%.

re =D0(1 + g)P0(1 - F)

+ g

= $4.19(1.05)$50(1 – 0.15)

+ 5.0%

= $4.40$42.50

+ 5.0% = 15.4%

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Cost of New 30-Year Debt: Par=$1,000, Coupon=10% paid annually, and F=2%. Using a financial calculator:

N = 30 PV = 1000(1-.02) = 980 PMT = -(.10)(1000)(1-.4) = -60 FV = -1000

Solving for I: 6.15%

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Comments about flotation costs: Flotation costs depend on the risk of the

firm and the type of capital being raised.

The flotation costs are highest for common equity. However, since most firms issue equity infrequently, the per-project cost is fairly small.

We will frequently ignore flotation costs when calculating the WACC.

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Four Mistakes to Avoid Current vs. historical cost of debt Mixing current and historical

measures to estimate the market risk premium

Book weights vs. Market Weights Incorrect cost of capital

components

See next slides for details.(More ...)

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Current vs. Historical Cost of Debt When estimating the cost of debt,

don’t use the coupon rate on existing debt.

Use the current interest rate on new debt.

(More ...)

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Estimating the Market Risk Premium When estimating the risk premium for

the CAPM approach, don’t subtract the current long-term T-bond rate from the historical average return on common stocks.

For example, if the historical rM has been about 12.2% and inflation drives the current rRF up to 10%, the current market risk premium is not 12.2% - 10% = 2.2%! (More ...)

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(More...)

Estimating Weights Use the target capital structure to

determine the weights. If you don’t know the target weights,

then use the current market value of equity, and never the book value of equity.

If you don’t know the market value of debt, then the book value of debt often is a reasonable approximation, especially for short-term debt.

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Capital components are sources of funding that come from investors. Accounts payable, accruals, and

deferred taxes are not sources of funding that come from investors, so they are not included in the calculation of the WACC.

We do adjust for these items when calculating the cash flows of the project, but not when calculating the WACC.

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Chapter 11

The Basics of Capital Budgeting:

Evaluating Cash Flows

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Topics Overview and “vocabulary” Methods

NPV IRR, MIRR Profitability Index Payback, discounted payback

Unequal lives Economic life

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What is capital budgeting? Analysis of potential projects. Long-term decisions; involve large

expenditures. Very important to firm’s future.

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Steps in Capital Budgeting Estimate cash flows (inflows &

outflows). Assess risk of cash flows. Determine r = WACC for project. Evaluate cash flows.

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Independent versus Mutually Exclusive Projects Projects are:

independent, if the cash flows of one are unaffected by the acceptance of the other.

mutually exclusive, if the cash flows of one can be adversely impacted by the acceptance of the other.

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Cash Flows for Franchise L and Franchise S

10 8060

0 1 2 310%L’s CFs:

-100.00

70 2050

0 1 2 310%S’s CFs:

-100.00

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NPV: Sum of the PVs of all cash flows.

Cost often is CF0 and is negative.

NPV = ∑n

t = 0

CFt

(1 + r)t.

NPV = ∑n

t = 1

CFt

(1 + r)t. - CF0 .

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What’s Franchise L’s NPV?

10 8060

0 1 2 310%L’s CFs:

-100.00

9.0949.5960.1118.79 = NPVL NPVS = $19.98.

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Calculator Solution: Enter values in CFLO register for L.

-100

10

60

80

10

CF0

CF1

NPV

CF2

CF3

I = 18.78 = NPVL

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Rationale for the NPV Method NPV = PV inflows – Cost

This is net gain in wealth, so accept project if NPV > 0.

Choose between mutuallyexclusive projects on basis of higher NPV. Adds most value.

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Using NPV method, which franchise(s) should be accepted? If Franchise S and L are mutually

exclusive, accept S because NPVs > NPVL .

If S & L are independent, accept both; NPV > 0.

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Internal Rate of Return: IRR

0 1 2 3

CF0 CF1 CF2 CF3

Cost Inflows

IRR is the discount rate that forcesPV inflows = cost. This is the sameas forcing NPV = 0.

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NPV: Enter r, solve for NPV.

IRR: Enter NPV = 0, solve for IRR.

= NPV ∑n

t = 0

CFt

(1 + r)t.

= 0 ∑n

t = 0

CFt

(1 + IRR)t.

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What’s Franchise L’s IRR?

10 8060

0 1 2 3IRR = ?

-100.00

PV3

PV2

PV1

0 = NPV Enter CFs in CFLO, then press IRR: IRRL = 18.13%. IRRS = 23.56%.

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40 40 40

0 1 2 3

-100

Or, with CFLO, enter CFs and press IRR = 9.70%.

3 -100 40 0

9.70%N I/YR PV PMT FV

INPUTS

OUTPUT

Find IRR if CFs are constant:

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Rationale for the IRR Method If IRR > WACC, then the project’s

rate of return is greater than its cost-- some return is left over to boost stockholders’ returns.

Example:WACC = 10%, IRR = 15%.

So this project adds extra return to shareholders.

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Decisions on Projects S and L per IRR If S and L are independent, accept

both: IRRS > r and IRRL > r.

If S and L are mutually exclusive, accept S because IRRS > IRRL .

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Construct NPV Profiles Enter CFs in CFLO and find NPVL

and NPVS at different discount rates: r NPVL NPVS

0 50 40 5 33 2910 19 2015 7 1220 (4) 5

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NPV Profile

-10

0

10

20

30

40

50

0 5 10 15 20 23.6Discount rate r (%)

NPV

($)

IRRL = 18.1%

IRRS = 23.6%

Crossover Point = 8.7%

S

L

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r > IRRand NPV < 0.

Reject.

NPV ($)

r (%)IRR

IRR > rand NPV > 0

Accept.

NPV and IRR: No conflict for independent projects.

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Mutually Exclusive Projects

8.7

NPV

%

IRRS

IRRL

L

S

r < 8.7: NPVL> NPVS , IRRS > IRRL

CONFLICT

r > 8.7: NPVS> NPVL , IRRS > IRRL

NO CONFLICT

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To Find the Crossover Rate Find cash flow differences between the

projects. See data at beginning of the case.

Enter these differences in CFLO register, then press IRR. Crossover rate = 8.68%, rounded to 8.7%.

Can subtract S from L or vice versa, but easier to have first CF negative.

If profiles don’t cross, one project dominates the other.

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Two Reasons NPV Profiles Cross Size (scale) differences. Smaller project

frees up funds at t = 0 for investment. The higher the opportunity cost, the more valuable these funds, so high r favors small projects.

Timing differences. Project with faster payback provides more CF in early years for reinvestment. If r is high, early CF especially good, NPVS > NPVL.

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Reinvestment Rate Assumptions NPV assumes reinvest at r

(opportunity cost of capital). IRR assumes reinvest at IRR. Reinvest at opportunity cost, r, is

more realistic, so NPV method is best. NPV should be used to choose between mutually exclusive projects.

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Modified Internal Rate of Return (MIRR) MIRR is the discount rate which

causes the PV of a project’s terminal value (TV) to equal the PV of costs.

TV is found by compounding inflows at WACC.

Thus, MIRR assumes cash inflows are reinvested at WACC.

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10.0 80.060.0

0 1 2 310%

66.0 12.1158.1

-100.010%

10%

TV inflows-100.0PV outflows

MIRR for Franchise L: First, find PV and TV (r = 10%)

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Second, find discount rate that equates PV and TV

MIRR = 16.5% 158.1

0 1 2 3

-100.0

TV inflowsPV outflows

MIRRL = 16.5%

$100 = $158.1(1+MIRRL)3

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To find TV with 10B: Step 1, find PV of Inflows First, enter cash inflows in CFLO

register: CF0 = 0, CF1 = 10, CF2 = 60, CF3 = 80

Second, enter I = 10.

Third, find PV of inflows: Press NPV = 118.78

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Step 2, find TV of inflows. Enter PV = -118.78, N = 3, I = 10,

PMT = 0.

Press FV = 158.10 = FV of inflows.

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Step 3, find PV of outflows. For this problem, there is only one

outflow, CF0 = -100, so the PV of outflows is -100.

For other problems there may be negative cash flows for several years, and you must find the present value for all negative cash flows.

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Step 4, find “IRR” of TV of inflows and PV of outflows. Enter FV = 158.10, PV = -100, PMT

= 0, N = 3. Press I = 16.50% = MIRR.

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Why use MIRR versus IRR? MIRR correctly assumes

reinvestment at opportunity cost = WACC. MIRR also avoids the problem of multiple IRRs.

Managers like rate of return comparisons, and MIRR is better for this than IRR.

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Normal vs. Nonnormal Cash Flows Normal Cash Flow Project:

Cost (negative CF) followed by a series of positive cash inflows.

One change of signs. Nonnormal Cash Flow Project:

Two or more changes of signs. Most common: Cost (negative CF), then

string of positive CFs, then cost to close project.

For example, nuclear power plant or strip mine.

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Inflow (+) or Outflow (-) in Year0 1 2 3 4 5 N NN- + + + + + N- + + + + - NN- - - + + + N+ + + - - - N- + + - + - NN

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Pavilion Project: NPV and IRR?

5,000 -5,000

0 1 2r = 10%

-800

Enter CFs in CFLO, enter I = 10.NPV = -386.78IRR = ERROR. Why?

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NPV Profile

450

-800

0400100

IRR2 = 400%

IRR1 = 25%

r

NPV

Nonnormal CFs--two sign changes, two IRRs.

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Logic of Multiple IRRs At very low discount rates, the PV

of CF2 is large & negative, so NPV < 0.

At very high discount rates, the PV of both CF1 and CF2 are low, so CF0 dominates and again NPV < 0.

In between, the discount rate hits CF2 harder than CF1, so NPV > 0.

Result: 2 IRRs.

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1. Enter CFs as before.2. Enter a “guess” as to IRR by

storing the guess. Try 10%:10 STO

IRR = 25% = lower IRR(See next slide for upper IRR)

Finding Multiple IRRs with Calculator

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Now guess large IRR, say, 200:200 STO

IRR = 400% = upper IRR

Finding Upper IRR with Calculator

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0 1 2

-800,000 5,000,000 -5,000,000

PV outflows @ 10% = -4,932,231.40.TV inflows @ 10% = 5,500,000.00.MIRR = 5.6%

When there are nonnormal CFs and more than one IRR, use MIRR:

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Accept Project P? NO. Reject because MIRR = 5.6%

< r = 10%.

Also, if MIRR < r, NPV will be negative: NPV = -$386,777.

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Profitability Index The profitability index (PI) is the

present value of future cash flows divided by the initial cost.

It measures the “bang for the buck.”

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Franchise L’s PV of Future Cash Flows

10 8060

0 1 2 310%

Project L:

9.0949.5960.11

118.79

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Franchise L’s Profitability Index

PIL =PV future CFInitial Cost

$118.79=

PIL = 1.1879

$100

PIS = 1.1998

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What is the payback period? The number of years required to

recover a project’s cost,

or how long does it take to get the business’s money back?

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Payback for Franchise L

10 8060

0 1 2 3

-100

=

CFt

Cumulative -100 -90 -30 50

PaybackL 2 + 30/80 = 2.375 years

0

2.4

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Payback for Franchise S

70 2050

0 1 2 3

-100CFt

Cumulative -100 -30 20 40

PaybackS 1 + 30/50 = 1.6 years

0

1.6

=

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Strengths and Weaknesses of Payback Strengths:

Provides an indication of a project’s risk and liquidity.

Easy to calculate and understand. Weaknesses:

Ignores the TVM. Ignores CFs occurring after the

payback period.

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10 8060

0 1 2 3

CFt

Cumulative -100 -90.91 -41.32 18.79Discountedpayback 2 + 41.32/60.11 = 2.7 yrs

PVCFt -100

-100

10%

9.09 49.59 60.11

=

Recover invest. + cap. costs in 2.7 yrs.

Discounted Payback: Uses discounted rather than raw CFs.

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S and L are mutually exclusive and will be repeated. r = 10%.

0 1 2 3 4

Project S:(100)Project L:(100)

60

33.5

60

33.5 33.5 33.5Note: CFs shown in $ Thousands

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NPVL > NPVS. But is L better?

S LCF0 -100 -100

CF1 60 33

NJ 2 4I 10 10

NPV 4.132 6.190

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Equivalent Annual Annuity Approach (EAA) Convert the PV into a stream of

annuity payments with the same PV.

S: N=2, I/YR=10, PV=-4.132, FV = 0. Solve for PMT = EAAS = $2.38.

L: N=4, I/YR=10, PV=-6.190, FV = 0. Solve for PMT = EAAL = $1.95.

S has higher EAA, so it is a better project.

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Put Projects on Common Basis Note that Project S could be

repeated after 2 years to generate additional profits.

Use replacement chain to put on common life.

Note: equivalent annual annuity analysis is alternative method, shown in Tool Kit and Web Extension.

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Replacement Chain Approach (000s).Franchise S with Replication:

NPV = $7,547.

0 1 2 3 4

Franchise S:(100) (100)

60 60

60(100) (40)

6060

6060

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Compare to Franchise L NPV = $6,190.

0 1 2 3 4

4,1323,4157,547

4,13210%

Or, use NPVs:

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NPVS = $3,415 < NPVL = $6,190.Now choose L.

0 1 2 3 4

Franchise S:(100)

60 60(105) (45)

60 60

Suppose cost to repeat S in two years rises to $105,000.

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Economic Life versus Physical Life Consider another project with a 3-

year life. If terminated prior to Year 3, the

machinery will have positive salvage value.

Should you always operate for the full physical life?

See next slide for cash flows.

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Economic Life versus Physical Life (Continued)

Year CF Salvage Value

0 ($5000) $5000

1 2,100 3,100

2 2,000 2,000

3 1,750 0

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CFs Under Each Alternative (000s)

0 1 2 3

1. No termination (5) 2.1

2 1.75

2. Terminate 2 years (5) 2.1

4

3. Terminate 1 year (5) 5.2

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NPVs under Alternative Lives (Cost of capital = 10%) NPV(3) = -$123. NPV(2) = $215. NPV(1) = -$273.

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Conclusions The project is acceptable only if

operated for 2 years. A project’s engineering life does

not always equal its economic life.

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Choosing the Optimal Capital Budget Finance theory says to accept all

positive NPV projects. Two problems can occur when

there is not enough internally generated cash to fund all positive NPV projects: An increasing marginal cost of capital. Capital rationing

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Increasing Marginal Cost of Capital Externally raised capital can have

large flotation costs, which increase the cost of capital.

Investors often perceive large capital budgets as being risky, which drives up the cost of capital.

(More...)

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If external funds will be raised, then the NPV of all projects should be estimated using this higher marginal cost of capital.

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Capital Rationing Capital rationing occurs when a

company chooses not to fund all positive NPV projects.

The company typically sets an upper limit on the total amount of capital expenditures that it will make in the upcoming year.

(More...)

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Reason: Companies want to avoid the direct costs (i.e., flotation costs) and the indirect costs of issuing new capital.

Solution: Increase the cost of capital by enough to reflect all of these costs, and then accept all projects that still have a positive NPV with the higher cost of capital.(More...)

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Reason: Companies don’t have enough managerial, marketing, or engineering staff to implement all positive NPV projects.

Solution: Use linear programming to maximize NPV subject to not exceeding the constraints on staffing.

(More...)

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Reason: Companies believe that the project’s managers forecast unreasonably high cash flow estimates, so companies “filter” out the worst projects by limiting the total amount of projects that can be accepted.

Solution: Implement a post-audit process and tie the managers’ compensation to the subsequent performance of the project.

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CHAPTER 12

Cash Flow Estimation and Risk Analysis

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Estimating cash flows: Relevant cash flows Working capital treatment Inflation

Risk Analysis: Sensitivity Analysis, Scenario Analysis, and Simulation Analysis

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Proposed Project $200,000 cost + $10,000 shipping

+ $30,000 installation. Economic life = 4 years. Salvage value = $25,000. MACRS 3-year class.

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Annual unit sales = 1,250. Unit sales price = $200. Unit costs = $100. Net operating working capital

(NOWC) = 12% of sales. Tax rate = 40%. Project cost of capital = 10%.

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Incremental Cash Flow for a Project Project’s incremental cash flow is:

Corporate cash flow with the projectMinus

Corporate cash flow without the project.

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Treatment of Financing Costs Should you subtract interest expense or

dividends when calculating CF? NO. We discount project cash flows with

a cost of capital that is the rate of return required by all investors (not just debtholders or stockholders), and so we should discount the total amount of cash flow available to all investors.

They are part of the costs of capital. If we subtracted them from cash flows, we would be double counting capital costs.

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Sunk Costs Suppose $100,000 had been spent last

year to improve the production line site. Should this cost be included in the analysis?

NO. This is a sunk cost. Focus on incremental investment and operating cash flows.

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Incremental Costs Suppose the plant space could be

leased out for $25,000 a year. Would this affect the analysis?

Yes. Accepting the project means we will not receive the $25,000. This is an opportunity cost and it should be charged to the project.

A.T. opportunity cost = $25,000 (1 - T) = $15,000 annual cost.

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Externalities If the new product line would decrease

sales of the firm’s other products by $50,000 per year, would this affect the analysis?

Yes. The effects on the other projects’ CFs are “externalities”.

Net CF loss per year on other lines would be a cost to this project.

Externalities will be positive if new projects are complements to existing assets, negative if substitutes.

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What is the depreciation basis?

Basis = Cost + Shipping + Installation $240,000

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Annual Depreciation Expense (000s)Year % X (Initial

Basis) = Depr.1 0.33 $240 $79.2

2 0.45 108.0

3 0.15 36.0

4 0.07 16.8

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Annual Sales and CostsYear 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4

Units 1250 1250 1250 1250

Unit Price

$200 $206 $212.18 $218.55

Unit Cost

$100 $103 $106.09 $109.27

Sales $250,000

$257,500

$265,225

$273,188

Costs $125,000

$128,750

$132,613

$136,588

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Why is it important to include inflation when estimating cash flows? Nominal r > real r. The cost of

capital, r, includes a premium for inflation.

Nominal CF > real CF. This is because nominal cash flows incorporate inflation.

If you discount real CF with the higher nominal r, then your NPV estimate is too low.

Continued…

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Inflation (Continued) Nominal CF should be discounted

with nominal r, and real CF should be discounted with real r.

It is more realistic to find the nominal CF (i.e., increase cash flow estimates with inflation) than it is to reduce the nominal r to a real r.

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Operating Cash Flows (Years 1 and 2)

Year 1 Year 2Sales $265,225 $273,188Costs $132,613 $136,588Depr. $36,000 $16,800EBIT $96,612 $119,800Taxes (40%) $18,320 $8,300NOPAT $57,967 $27,480+ Depr. $36,000 $79,200Net Op. CF $93,967 $106,680

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Operating Cash Flows (Years 3 and 4)

Year 3 Year 4Sales $265,225 $273,188Costs $132,613 $136,588Depr. $36,000 $16,800EBIT $96,612 $119,800Taxes (40%) $38,645 $47,920NOPAT $57,967 $71,880+ Depr. $36,000 $16,800Net Op. CF $93,967 $88,680

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Cash Flows due to Investments in Net Operating Working Capital (NOWC)

SalesNOWC

(% of sales)

CF Due toInvestmen

t in NOWC

Year 0 $30,000 -$30,000Year 1 $250,000 $30,900 -$900Year 2 $257,500 $31,827 -$927Year 3 $265,225 $32,783 -$956Year 4 $273,188 $0 $32,783

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Salvage Cash Flow at t = 4 (000s)Salvage Value $25Book Value 0Gain or loss $25Tax on SV 10Net Terminal CF

$15

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What if you terminate a project before the asset is fully depreciated? Basis = Original basis - Accum.

deprec. Taxes are based on difference

between sales price and tax basis. Cash flow from sale = Sale

proceeds- taxes paid.

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Example: If Sold After 3 Years for $25 ($ thousands) Original basis = $240. After 3 years, basis = $16.8

remaining. Sales price = $25. Gain or loss = $25 - $16.8 = $8.2. Tax on sale = 0.4($8.2) = $3.28. Cash flow = $25 - $3.28 = $21.72.

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Example: If Sold After 3 Years for $10 ($ thousands) Original basis = $240. After 3 years, basis = $16.8 remaining. Sales price = $10. Gain or loss = $10 - $16.8 = -$6.8. Tax on sale = 0.4(-$6.8) = -$2.72. Cash flow = $10 – (-$2.72) = $12.72. Sale at a loss provides tax credit, so

cash flow is larger than sales price!

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Net Cash Flows for Years 1-3

Year 0 Year 1 Year 2Init. Cost -

$240,0000 0

Op. CF 0 $106,680 $120,450NOWC CF -$30,000 -$900 -$927

Salvage CF

0 0 0

Net CF -$270,000

$105,780 $119,523

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Net Cash Flows for Years 4-5

Year 3 Year 4Init. Cost 0 0Op. CF $93,967 $88,680NOWC CF -$956 $32,783Salvage CF 0 $15,000Net CF $93,011 $136,463

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Enter CFs in CFLO register and I = 10.NPV = $88,030.IRR = 23.9%.

0 1 2 3 4

(270,000) 105,780 119,523 93,011 136,463

Project Net CFs on a Time Line

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(270,000) MIRR = ?

0 1 2 3 4

(270,000) 105,780 119,523 93,011 136,463102,312

144,623

140,793

524,191

What is the project’s MIRR? (000s)

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Calculator Solution Enter positive CFs in CFLO. Enter I = 10.

Solve for NPV = $358,029.581. Now use TVM keys: PV = -358,029.581,

N = 4, I = 10; PMT = 0; Solve for FV =

524,191. (This is TV of inflows) Use TVM keys: N = 4; FV = 524,191;

PV = -270,000; PMT= 0; Solve for I = 18.0.

MIRR = 18.0%.

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Cumulative:

Payback = 2 + 44/93 = 2.5 years.

0 1 2 3 4

(270)*

(270)

106

(164)

120

(44)

93

49

136

185

What is the project’s payback? (000s)

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What does “risk” mean in capital budgeting? Uncertainty about a project’s

future profitability. Measured by σNPV, σIRR, beta. Will taking on the project increase

the firm’s and stockholders’ risk?

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Is risk analysis based on historical data or subjective judgment? Can sometimes use historical data,

but generally cannot. So risk analysis in capital

budgeting is usually based on subjective judgments.

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What three types of risk are relevant in capital budgeting? Stand-alone risk Corporate risk Market (or beta) risk

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Stand-Alone Risk The project’s risk if it were the

firm’s only asset and there were no shareholders.

Ignores both firm and shareholder diversification.

Measured by the σ or CV of NPV, IRR, or MIRR.

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0 E(NPV)

Flatter distribution,larger , largerstand-alone risk.

NPV

Probability Density

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Corporate Risk Reflects the project’s effect on

corporate earnings stability. Considers firm’s other assets

(diversification within firm). Depends on project’s σ, and its

correlation, ρ, with returns on firm’s other assets.

Measured by the project’s corporate beta.

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Profitability

0 Years

Project X

Total FirmRest of Firm

Project X is negatively correlated to firm’s other assets, so has big diversification benefits.

If r = 1.0, no diversification benefits. If r < 1.0, some diversification benefits.

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Market Risk Reflects the project’s effect on a

well-diversified stock portfolio. Takes account of stockholders’

other assets. Depends on project’s σ and

correlation with the stock market. Measured by the project’s market

beta.

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How is each type of risk used? Market risk is theoretically best in

most situations. However, creditors, customers,

suppliers, and employees are more affected by corporate risk.

Therefore, corporate risk is also relevant.

Continued…

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Stand-alone risk is easiest to measure, more intuitive.

Core projects are highly correlated with other assets, so stand-alone risk generally reflects corporate risk.

If the project is highly correlated with the economy, stand-alone risk also reflects market risk.

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What is sensitivity analysis? Shows how changes in a variable

such as unit sales affect NPV or IRR.

Each variable is fixed except one. Change this one variable to see the effect on NPV or IRR.

Answers “what if” questions, e.g. “What if sales decline by 30%?”

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Sensitivity AnalysisChange From Resulting NPV

(000s)Base level r Unit

salesSalvage

-30% $113 $17 $85

-15% $100 $52 $86

0% $88 $88 $88

15% $76 $124 $90

30% $65 $159 $91

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88

NPV(000s)

Unit Sales

Salvage

r

Sensitivity Graph

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Results of Sensitivity Analysis Steeper sensitivity lines show

greater risk. Small changes result in large declines in NPV.

Unit sales line is steeper than salvage value or r, so for this project, should worry most about accuracy of sales forecast.

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What are the weaknesses ofsensitivity analysis? Does not reflect diversification. Says nothing about the likelihood

of change in a variable, i.e. a steep sales line is not a problem if sales won’t fall.

Ignores relationships among variables.

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Why is sensitivity analysis useful? Gives some idea of stand-alone

risk. Identifies dangerous variables. Gives some breakeven information.

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What is scenario analysis? Examines several possible

situations, usually worst case, most likely case, and best case.

Provides a range of possible outcomes.

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Best scenario: 1,600 units @ $240Worst scenario: 900 units @ $160Scenario Probability NPV(000)Best 0.25 $279Base 0.50 88Worst .025 -49

E(NPV) = $101.5σ(NPV) = 116.6

CV(NPV) = σ(NPV)/E(NPV) = 1.15

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Are there any problems with scenario analysis? Only considers a few possible out-

comes. Assumes that inputs are perfectly

correlated--all “bad” values occur together and all “good” values occur together.

Focuses on stand-alone risk, although subjective adjustments can be made.

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What is a simulation analysis? A computerized version of scenario

analysis which uses continuous probability distributions.

Computer selects values for each variable based on given probability distributions.

(More...)

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NPV and IRR are calculated. Process is repeated many times

(1,000 or more). End result: Probability distribution

of NPV and IRR based on sample of simulated values.

Generally shown graphically.

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Simulation Example Assumptions Normal distribution for unit sales:

Mean = 1,250 Standard deviation = 200

Triangular distribution for unit price: Lower bound = $160 Most likely = $200 Upper bound = $250

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Simulation Process Pick a random variable for unit

sales and sale price. Substitute these values in the

spreadsheet and calculate NPV. Repeat the process many times,

saving the input variables (units and price) and the output (NPV).

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Simulation Results (1000 trials)(See Ch 12 Mini Case Simulation.xls)

Units Price NPVMean 1260 $202 $95,914St. Dev. 201 $18 $59,875CV 0.62Max 1883 $248 $353,238 Min 685 $163 ($45,713)Prob NPV > 0

= 97%.

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Interpreting the Results Inputs are consistent with specified

distributions. Units: Mean = 1260, St. Dev. = 201. Price: Min = $163, Mean = $202, Max

= $248. Mean NPV = $95,914. Low

probability of negative NPV (100% - 97% = 3%).

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Histogram of Results

0%

2%

4%

6%

8%

10%

12%

NPV

Prob

abili

ty o

f NPV

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What are the advantages of simulation analysis? Reflects the probability

distributions of each input. Shows range of NPVs, the

expected NPV, σNPV, and CVNPV. Gives an intuitive graph of the risk

situation.

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What are the disadvantages of simulation? Difficult to specify probability

distributions and correlations. If inputs are bad, output will be

bad:“Garbage in, garbage out.”

(More...)

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Sensitivity, scenario, and simulation analyses do not provide a decision rule. They do not indicate whether a project’s expected return is sufficient to compensate for its risk.

Sensitivity, scenario, and simulation analyses all ignore diversification. Thus they measure only stand-alone risk, which may not be the most relevant risk in capital budgeting.

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If the firm’s average project has a CV of 0.2 to 0.4, is this a high-risk project? What type of risk is being measured?

CV from scenarios = 0.74, CV from simulation = 0.62. Both are > 0.4, this project has high risk.

CV measures a project’s stand-alone risk.

High stand-alone risk usually indicates high corporate and market risks.

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With a 3% risk adjustment, should our project be accepted? Project r = 10% + 3% = 13%. That’s 30% above base r. NPV = $65,371. Project remains acceptable after

accounting for differential (higher) risk.

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Should subjective risk factors be considered? Yes. A numerical analysis may not

capture all of the risk factors inherent in the project.

For example, if the project has the potential for bringing on harmful lawsuits, then it might be riskier than a standard analysis would indicate.

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What is a real option? Real options exist when managers can

influence the size and risk of a project’s cash flows by taking different actions during the project’s life in response to changing market conditions.

Alert managers always look for real options in projects.

Smarter managers try to create real options.

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What are some types of real options? Investment timing options Growth options

Expansion of existing product line New products New geographic markets

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Types of real options (Continued) Abandonment options

Contraction Temporary suspension

Flexibility options