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Code No: R21013
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
(Com. to CE, ME, CHEM, PE, AME, MM)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1 Six resistors are connected as shown in figure 1?. If a battery having an emf of
30V and an internal resistance of 2 is connected to terminals A and B. Find
i) Current supplied from battery
ii) Potential difference across 8 ohms resistance.
Figure 1
2 a) Explain the basic Principle of DC generator
b) A 6 pole wave wound dc generator is having 50 slots with 25 conductors per slot and
rotating at 1500 rpm. The flux per pole is 0.015 wb, calculate the emf generated?
3 a) Explain the procedure for performing the open circuit test on a single phase
transformer? What is the information obtained from this test?
b) A 230/400 V single phase transformer has 800 turns on primary. The maximum flux
density in the core is 1.5 Wb/m2. Calculate the number of turns on secondary, area of
cross section and maximum flux in the core.
4 a) What are the merits and demerits of induction motor
b) A 4pole, 3-phase, 50Hz star connected alternator has a single layer winding in 36 slots
with 30 conductors per slot. The flux per pole is 0.05wb and winding is full pitched.
Find the synchronous speed and the emf induced on no-load?
5 a) Explain the working of P-N junction diode.
b) Describe the full wave rectifier with neat diagrams?
6 a) Compare the input and output characteristics of BJT in the three configuration?
b) Explain the V-I characteristics of SCR?
7 a)
b)
Describe the induction heating with diagram
Explain various types induction heating and their applications
8 a) Describe the principle of piezo- electric tranducer
b) Discuss how to measure the voltage , current and frequency with CRO
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Code No: R21013
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING (Com. to CE, ME, CHEM, PE, AME, MM)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1 a)
b)
Explain the star to delta transformation with a simple example
Explain the concept of series and parallel circuits
2 a) Explain the purpose of
(i) Pole shoe, (ii) Carbon brushes and (iii) Slotted armature in a DC machine.
b) A dc generator develop an emf of 220V at 1200 rpm with a flux per pole is 0.01 wb.
What will be the flux value to induce the 240 volts at 1400 rpm?
3 a) Explain briefly the operation of a transformer and sketch phasor diagram on no-load
b ) The Short-circuit test is conducted on a 5KVA, 400V/100 V single phase transformer
with 100 V winding shorted. The input voltage at full load current is 40 V. The
wattmeter, on the input reads 250 W. Find the power factor for which regulation at
full load is zero.
4 a) Discuss the principle of operation of 3-Phase induction Motor
b) A 4-pole alternator is run at a speed of 1500rpm. What is the frequency of the armature emf?
If the number of poles is 2 at what speed should it be run so that the armature emf has the
same frequency?
5 Explain the forward and reverse biasing of the P-N junction diode.
6 a) Compare CE, CC and CB amplifier in terms of voltage and current gains and input
and output impedances.
b) How a transistor acts as an amplifier? Explain?
7 Describe the dielectric heating with diagrams? List out its merits and demerits
8 a) Describe the principle of Thermocouple
b) Explain the applications of CRO
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Code No: R21013
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
(Com. to CE, ME, CHEM, PE, AME, MM)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1 Determine the currents in all the bridge arms of the circuit as shown in figure below.
Find the value of the current through the galvanometer, and its direction (G is
galvanometer, and all resistance are in ohms).
2 a) Discuss the Significance of back EMF
b) A 230V motor has an armature circuit resistance of 0.8Ω. If the full load armature
current is 25A and the no load armature current is 6A. Find the change in back e.m.f
from no-load to full-load.
3 a) Explain the procedure for performing the short circuit test on a single phase transformer?
What is the information obtained from this test?
b) A 220/440 V single phase transformer has 1000 turns on primary. The maximum flux
density in the core is 1.2 Wb/m2. Calculate the number of turns on secondary, area of
cross section and maximum flux in the core.
4 a) Describe predetermination of regulation of an alternator from the O.C and S.C tests?
b) If the current in the stator of an 4-pole, 3-phase induction motor has a frequency of 50Hz
and that in the rotor is 2 Hz. Determine the slip and speed of the motor?
5 Explain the operation of a centre tap full wave rectifier. Show its input and output waveforms.
Also list its disadvantages.
6 a) Draw the V-I characteristics of an SCR and explain?
b) Explain the necessity conditions for oscillators
7 a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of induction heating
b) Explain the generation of Ultrasonic’s? Give its applications
8 a) Describe the principle of LVDT.
b) Explain the operating principle of digital multimeter with neat diagram
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Code No: R21013
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
(Com. to CE, ME, CHEM, PE, AME, MM)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1 a) State and explain Ohm’s Law. What is the limitation of Ohm’s Law?
b) Calculate the magnitude and direction of current in the 10 ohms resistor. As shown in
following figure that the power delivered by source is equal to power dissipated in the
resistors. (All resistance is in ohms).
2 a) What are the various types of DC Motors and explain Shunt Wound Motor
b) A 220V motor has an armature circuit resistance of 0.6Ω. If the full load armature
current is 20A and the no load armature current is 5A. Find the change in back e.m.f
from no-load to full-load.
3 a) State and prove the condition for maximum efficiency of a transformer?
b) A 230/115 V single phase transformer takes a no load current of 2A at a power factor of
0.2 lagging with low voltage winding kept open. If the low voltage winding is now
loaded to take a current of 10A at 0.8 pf lagging find the current taken by high voltage
winding.
4 a) Define i) Pitch factor ii) Distribution factor
b) A 6-pole, 100 HP, 3-phase, 440-V, 50Hz induction motor has a slip of 5% on full load.
Calculate the speed of the motor?
5 Explain the operation of a full wave bridge rectifier. Show its input and output
waveforms. Also mention its advantages and disadvantages.
6 a) How to get saturation and cutoff regions in a transistor operation
b) Explain the SCR Characteristics and its applications.
7 a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of dielectric heating
b) Explain the flow detection in ultrasonic with necessary diagram
8 a) Describe the principle of strain gauge.
b) Explain the frequency measurement with CRO
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Code No: R21031
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
ENGINEERING MECHANICS (Com to ME, AE, AME, MM)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1. a) State and prove Varignon’s theorem (or) principle of moments.
b) Two forces of magnitude 240 N and 200 N are acting at a point O as shown in Figure 1. If
the angle between the forces is 60°,determine the magnitude of the resultant force and also
determine the angle β and ϒ as shown in the Figure 1. (7M+8M)
2. Two smooth circular cylinders, each of weight W=1000 N and radius 15 cm are connected at
their centre’s by a string AB of length 40 cm and rest upon a horizontal plane, supporting
above them a third cylinder of weight 2000 N and radius 15 cm as shown in Figure 2. Find the
force S in the string AB and the pressure produced on the floor at the points of contact D and E.
(15M)
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Code No: R21031
3. a) Find the center of gravity of the I section shown in Figure 3.
b) Determine the centroid of the parabolic spandrel. (8M+7M)
4. Determine the Polar moment of inertia of the I-Section shown in Figure, All Dimensions are in
mm. (15M)
5. A truss of span 5 m is loaded as shown in Figure. Find the reactions and forces in the members
marked 4, 5 and 7 using method of sections. (15M)
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Code No: R21031
6. The initial angular velocity of a rotating body is 2 rad/s and initial angular acceleration is zero.
The rotation of the body is according to the relation α = 3t2
- 3. Find (i) angular velocity (ii)
Angular displacement when t= 5 seconds. Consider the angular displacement in radians and
time in seconds. (15M)
7. A tram car weighs 120 kN, the tractive resistance being 5 N / kN. What power will be required
to propel the car at a uniform speed of 20 kmph?
i) On level surface ii) p an incline of 1 in 300 and iii) Down an inclination of 1 in 300? Take
efficiency of motor as 80%. (15M)
8. a) What is solid friction? If a body of weight 70 N is placed on a rough horizontal
plane. To just move the body on the horizontal plane, a push of 20N incline at 20° to the
horizontal plane is required. Find the co-efficient of friction.
b) A uniform ladder of length 10 m and weighing 20 N is placed against a smooth vertical wall
with its lower end 8 m from the wall. In this position the ladder is just to slip. Determine
the co-efficient of friction between the ladder and the floor and Frictional force acting on the
ladder at the point of contact between ladder and floor. (8M+7M)
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Code No: R21031
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
ENGINEERING MECHANICS (Com to ME, AE, AME, MM)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1. a) State and Prove Law of parallelogram of forces.
b) Four forces of magnitude 10kN, 15kN, 20kN and 40 kN are acting at a point O as shown in
Figure The angles made by 10 kN, 15 kN, 20 kN, and 40 kN with X-axis are 30°, 60°, 90°
and 120° respectively. Find the magnitude and direction of the resultant force. (8M+7M)
2. a) A simply supported beam of length 10 m, carries the uniformly distributed load and two
point loads as shown in Figure. Calculate the reactions RA and RB.
b) A simply supported beam of span 9 m carries a uniformly varying load from zero at end A to
900 N/m at end B. Calculate the reactions at the two ends of the support. (7M+8M)
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Code No: R21031
3. a) Find the center of gravity of the L-section shown in Figure.
b) Determine the centroid of the triangle of width b and height h. (7M+8M)
4. a) Determine the mass moment of inertia of the rectangular section About the X-X axis passing
through the C.G. of the section.
b) Determine the mass moment of inertia of a hollow circular cylinder. (8M+7M)
5. Determine the forces in the truss shown in Fig. Which is subjected to horizontal and vertical
loads. Mention the nature of forces in each case. (15M)
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Code No: R21031
6. A solid cylinder weighing 1200 N is acted upon by a force P horizontally as shown in Fig.
Determine the maximum value of P for which there will be rolling without slipping. If P= 1000
N, determine the acceleration of the mass centre and the angular acceleration, given that the co-
efficient of static friction µs = 0.2. and the co-efficient of kinetic friction µk = 0.15. (15M)
7. A cylinder weighing 500 N is welded at a 1m long uniform bar which weighs 200 N as shown
in Fig. Determine the angular velocity when the cylinder comes to lowest position. Determine
the angular acceleration also. Use work energy method. Assume the system is released from
horizontal rest position. (15M)
8. a) A pull of 20 N, inclined at 25° to the horizontal plane, is required just to move a body placed
on a rough horizontal plane. But the required to move the body is 25 N. If the push is
inclined at 25° to the horizontal, find the weight of the body and co-efficient of friction.
b) A Uniform ladder of weight 850 N and of length 6 m rests on a horizontal ground and leans
against a smooth vertical wall. The angle made by the ladder with the horizontal is 65°.
When a man of weight 750N stands on the ladder at a distance of 4m from the top of the
ladder, the ladder is at the point of sliding. Determine the co-efficient of friction between the
ladder and the floor. (8M+7M)
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Code No: R21031
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
ENGINEERING MECHANICS (Com to ME, AE, AME, MM)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1. a) Two forces are acting at a point O as shown in Figure. Determine the resultant in magnitude
and direction.
b) The resultant of two concurrent forces is 1500 N and the angle between the forces is 90°.
The resultant makes an angle of 36° with one of the force. Find the magnitude of each force.
(7M+8M)
2. a) State and prove Lami’s Theorem.
b) A body weighing 2000 N is suspended with a chain AB 2 m long. It is Pulled by a horizontal
force of 320 N as shown in Figure. Find the force in the chain and the internal displacement
(i.e., x) of the body. (6M+9M)
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Code No: R21031
3. a) Locate the center of gravity of the right circular cone of base radius r and height h.
b) Determine the centroid of the section of the concrete dam shown in Figure. (7M+8M)
4. a) State and Prove area moment of inertia perpendicular axis theorem.
b) Determine the moment of inertia of the shaded area shown in Figure. About edge AB.
(6M+9M)
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Code No: R21031
5. A truss of span 9 m is loaded as shown in Fig. Find the Reactions and the forces in the
members of the truss. (15M)
6. Two blocks A and B are released from rest on a 30°, when they are 18m apart as shown in Fig.
The co-efficient of friction under the upper block A is 0.2 and that under the lower block B is
0.4. In what time block A reaches block B? After they touch and move as a single unit, what
will be the contact force between them? Weights of the blocks A and B are 100 N and 80 N
respectively. (15M)
7. Determine the tension in the strings and the velocity of 1500 N block shown in Fig. 5 seconds
after starting from (i) rest (ii) starting with a downward velocity of 3 m/s. Assume pulleys
as weightless and frictionless pulleys. (15M)
8. a) A cord connects two bodies of weights 300 N and 800 N. The two bodies are placed on an
inclined plane and cord is parallel to the inclined plane. The co-efficient of friction for the
weight of 400 N is 0.15 and that for 800 N is 0.4. Determine the inclination of the plane to
the horizontal and the tension in the cord when the motion is about to take place, down the
inclined plane. The body weighing 400 N is below the body weighing 800 N.
b) A screw-jack is used to lift a load of 3 kN. The screw of the screw-jack is square threaded
with two threads to1.2cm. If the co-efficient of friction between the nut and the screw is
0.09 and the outer diameter of the screw is 6 cm, find the force required at the end of the
handle of length 60 cm to lift the load. (8M+7M)
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Code No: R21031
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
ENGINEERING MECHANICS (Com to ME, AE, AME, MM)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1. a) Two forces acting on a body are 500 N and 1000 N as shown in Fig. Determine the third
force F such that the resultant of all the three forces is 1000 N directed at 45° to x-axis.
b) Determine the resultant of three forces acting on a hook as shown in Fig. (8M+7M)
2. Two identical rollers, each of weight W = 1000 N, are supported by an inclined plane and a
vertical wall as shown in Fig. Find the reactions at the points of supports A, B and C. Assume
all the surfaces to be smooth. (15M)
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Code No: R21031
3. a) Determine the center of gravity of a solid hemisphere of radius r from its diametral axis.
b) Determine the centroid of the area shown in Fig. With respect to the axis shown. (7M+8M)
4. a) Find the mass moment of inertia of the solid cone of height h and base radius R about its
axis of rotation.
b) Determine the moment of inertia of the built up section shown in the Fig. About an axis AB
passing through the top most fiber of the section as shown. (9M+6M)
5. Analyse the truss shown in Figure. (15M)
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Code No: R21031
6. a) What is instantaneous axis of rotation. And find the angle of projection, when a body is
projected at an angle such that its horizontal range is 3 times the maximum height.
b) Find the least initial velocity with which a projectile is to be projected so that it clears a wall
of 4 m height located at a distance of 5 m, and strike the ground at a distance 4 m beyond
the wall as shown in Fig. The point of projection is at the same level as the foot of the wall.
(7M+8M)
7. A flywheel weighing 50 kN and having radius of gyration 1m loses its speed from 400 rpm to
280 rpm in 2 minutes. Calculate (15M)
i) The retarding torque acting on it.
ii) Change in its kinetic energy during the above period.
8. a) What about be the value of the angle θ in Fig. So that the motion of the 90 N block impends
down the plane? The co-efficient of friction µ for all the surfaces is 1/3.
b) A body of weight 450 N is pulled up along an inclined plane having inclination 30° to the
horizontal at a steady speed. Find the force required if the co-efficient of the friction
between the body and the plane is 0.25 and force is applied parallel to the inclined plane. If
the distance travelled by the body is 10 m along the plane, find the work done on the body.
(8M+7M)
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Code No: R21021
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
FLUID MECHANICS AND HYDRALICS MACHINES (Com. to EEE, ME, MM)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1 a) What is viscosity? Why it is important in fluid mechanics? Define Kinematic and
dynamic viscosity.
[8]
b) A plate (2m x 2m ), 0.25 mm distant apart from a fixed plate, moves at 40 cm/s
and requires a force of 1 N. Determine the dynamic viscosity of the fluid in
between the plates.
[7]
2 a) Distinguish between (i) steady and unsteady flow (ii) uniform and non-uniform
flow (iii) irrotational and rotational flow.
[8]
b) Calculate the velocity components u and v for the following (i) φ = x +y
(ii) φ = x2 + y
2
[7]
3 a) Derive an expression for the loss of head due to friction in flow through circular
pipes.
[8]
b) A venture meter has its axis vertical, the inlet and throat diameters being 150mm
and 80 mm respectively. The throat has 220mm about inlet and coefficient
discharge is 0.96. Petrol of specific gravity 0.78 flows up through the meter at a
rate of 0.029 m3/s. Find the pressure difference between the inlet and the throat.
[7]
4 A jet with a velocity V strikes normally on a series of at plates moving with a
velocity KV and mounted radially on the periphery of a wheel. Prove that the
efficiency of the plate is given by η = 2K (1 - K).
[15]
5 a) Define (i) Firm and secondary power (ii) Load factor, utilization factor and
capacity factor.
7
b) Discuss in detail the different components of hydroelectric power plants.
[8]
6 A Pelton wheel operates with a jet of 150mm diameter under the head of 500m. Its
mean runner diameter is 2.25 m and it rotates with speed of 375 rpm. The angle of
bucket tip at outlet as150 coefficient of velocity is 0.98, mechanical losses equal to
3% of power supplied and the reduction in relative velocity of water while passing
through bucket is 15%. Find (a) the force of jet on the bucket, (b) the power
developed (c) bucket efficiency and (d) the overall efficiency.
15
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Code No: R21021
7 a) Define specific speed of a turbine. Derive the expression for the specific speed of
turbine.
7
b) Briefly explain about the water hammer in pipes. Discuss the water hammer in
penstock.
8
8 a) How will you obtain an expression for the minimum speed for starting a
centrifugal pump?
7
b) The diameter of an impeller of a centrifugal pump at inlet and outlet are 300mm
and 600 mm respectively. The velocity of ow at outlet is 2.5 m/s and vanes are set
back at an angle of 45o at outlet. Determine the minimum starting speed of the
pump if the manometric efficiency is 75 %.
8
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Code No: R21021
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
FLUID MECHANICS AND HYDRALICS MACHINES (Com. to EEE, ME, MM)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1 a) Define surface tension. Discuss how some insects walk on the surface of the
fluid.
[8]
b) Air is introduced through a nozzle into a tank of water to form a stream of
bubbles. If the bubbles are intended to have a diameter of 2 mm, calculate how
much the pressure of the air at the tip of the nozzle must exceed that of the
surrounding water. Assume that the value of surface tension between air and
water as 72.7 x 10-3 N/m.
[7]
2 a) Write a short note on, Uniform and non uniform flow with suitable example [7]
b) Calculate the unknown velocity components so that they satisfy continuity
equation. (i) u = 2x2; v = xyz; w = ?
[8]
3 a) Write a short note on Flow Nozzle, Turbine flow meter, Darcy Weisbach
Equation
[7]
b) A 150mm X 75mm venture meter with a coefficient of discharge o 0.98 is to be
replaced by an orifice meter having a coefficient of discharge o 0.60.If the both
the meters are to give the same differential mercury manometer reading for a
discharge of 100 liters per second and the inlet diameter is to remain 150mm.
what should be diameter of the orifice.
[8]
4 a) Derive the expression for the force exerted by a jet of water on inclined fixed
plate in the direction of jet.
[7]
b) A jet of water strikes with a velocity of 35m/s a at plate inclined at 300 with
the axis of the jet. If the cross-sectional area of the jet is 25cm2 determine.
(i). The force exerted by the jet on the plane
(ii). The components of the force in the direction normal to the jet.
(iii). The ratio in which the discharge gets divided after striking the plate.
[8]
5 a) Discuss in detail about flow duration curve and mass curve. [7]
b) Discuss the hydroelectric power development in India. Write about any one major
hydroelectric power station in Andhra Pradesh.
[8]
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6 a) Differentiate between Impulse turbine and Reaction turbine. [7]
b) A Powerhouse is equipped with impulse turbines of Pelton type. Each turbine
delivers a power of 14 MW when working under a head 900 m and running at
600 rpm. Find the diameter of the jet and mean diameter of the wheel. Assume
that the overall efficiency is 89%, velocity coefficient of jet 0.98, and speed ratio
0.46.
[8]
7 a) By means of a neat sketch explain the governing mechanism of Francis turbine. [6]
b) A water turbine delivering 10MW power is to be tested with the help of a
geometrically similar 1:8 model which runs at the same speed as the prototype.
(i) Find the power developed by the model assuming the efficiency of the model
and the prototype are equal .
(ii) Find the ratio of the heads and the ratio of mass flow rates between the
prototype and the model.
[9]
8 a) How is the selection of pumps made? Give the operational difficulties commonly
experienced in centrifugal pumps and their remedies.
[7]
b) A single acting reciprocating pump running at 30rpm delivers 0.02 m3/s of
water. The diameter of the piston is 250mm and stroke length 500mm deter-
mine:
(i). The theoretical discharge of the pump.
(ii). Co-efficient of discharge.
[8]
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Code No: R21021
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
FLUID MECHANICS AND HYDRALICS MACHINES
(Com. to EEE, ME, MM)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1 a) Define Specific weight, mass density, vapour pressure and bulk modulus with
appropriate dimensions and units.
[8]
b) A tape of 0.015 cm thick and 1.00 cm wide is to be drawn through a gap with a
clearance of 0.01cm on each side. A lubricant of dynamic viscosity 0.021 Ns/m 2
completely fills the gap for a length of 80 cm along the tape. If the tape can
withstand a maximum tensile force of 7.5 N calculate the maximum speed with
which it can be drawn through the gap.
[7]
2 a) Derive Bernoulli`s equation from Euler`s equation of motion. [8]
b) A pipe through which water is flowing, is having diameters, 20cm and 10cm at
the cross-sections 1 and 2 respectively. The velocity of water at section 1 is given
as 4 m/s. Find the velocity head a sections 1 and 2 and also rate of discharge.
[7]
3 a) What are the different losses in flow through the circular pipes. [7]
b) A pipe is 50mm diameter is 6m long and the velocity of flow of water in the pipe
is 2.5m/s. what loss of head and corresponding power would be saved if the
central 2m length of the pipe is replaced by 75mm diameter pipe, the change of
section being sudden. Assume f = 0.04 for both the pipe.
[8]
4 a) Find an expression for the force exerted by a jet on stationary curved plate,
when the jet strikes the curved plate at the center.
[6]
b) A jet of water of diameter 5 cm moving with a velocity of 40 m/s strikes a
curved fixed symmetrical plate at the center. Find the force exerted by the
jet of water in the direction of the jet, if the jet is detected through an angle
of 1200 at the outlet of the curved plate.
[9]
5 a) What are the different components of hydro power plant? what are the purposes
of providing them.
[7]
b) What is meant by mass curve and explain in detail the construction of mass curve
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Code No: R21021
6 a) Discuss the classification of Hydraulic turbines. [8]
b) A Francis turbine has a wheel diameter of 1.2 m at the entrance and 0.6m at the
exit. The blade angle at the entrance is 900 and the guide vane angle is 15
0. The
water at the exit leaves the blades without any tangential velocity. The available
head is 30m and the radial component of flow velocity is constant. What would
be the speed of wheel in rpm and blade angle at exit? Neglect friction.
[7]
7 a) What do you understand by characteristic curves of Francis turbine? Discuss in
detail.
[7]
b) A model Francis turbine 1/5 of its full size, develops 3kW power at360 rpm
under a head of 1.8m. Find the speed and power of full size turbine operating
under head of 6m, if (i) the efficiency of the model and the full size turbine are
same, (ii) the efficiency of the model turbine is 75% and the scale is considered.
[8]
8 a) What do you mean by characteristic curves of centrifugal pumps? What is
the significance of characteristic curves? Draw the following characteristics
curves for centrifugal pump: Head, Power and Efficiency versus discharge with
constant head.
[8]
b) Two homologous pumps A and B will run at same speed of 600 rpm. The
discharge and head of pump A are 0.4 m3 / sec and 50 m respectively. Determine
the discharge of pump B to lift the discharge by 30 m.
[7]
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R10 SET - 3
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Code No: R21021
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
FLUID MECHANICS AND HYDRALICS MACHINES (Com. to EEE, ME, MM)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1 a) Distinguish between atmospheric, gauge and vacuum pressure. What do you
understand by equality of pressure at the same level in a static fluid?
[8]
b) Two pipes on the same elevation convey water and oil of specific gravity 0.88
respectively. They are connected by a U-tube manometer with the manometric
liquid having a specific gravity of 1.25. If the manometric liquid in the limb
connecting the water pipe is 2 m higher than the other find the pressure difference
in two pipes.
[7]
2 a) What are the different energies of flowing fluid? Explain each of them [8]
b) Water is flowing through a pipe having diameters 20cm and 10cm at sections 1 and
2 respectively. The rate of flow through pipe is 40 liters/second. The section 1 is
6m above the datum and section 2 is 4m above the datum. If the pressure at section
1 is 40 N/cm2, find the intensity of pressure at section 2.
[7]
3 a) Explain with neat sketch the Reynold’s experiment and define Laminar and
Turbulent flow.
[7]
b) A compound piping system consists of a1600m of 0.4m diameter, 1200m of 0.3m
diameter and 800m pf 0.25m diameter cast iron pipes connected in series. Convert
the system to (i) an equivalent length of 0.4m pipe and (ii) an equivalent size pipe
3000m long.
[8]
4 a) Show that the efficiency of a free jet striking normally on a series of plates fixed
mounted on the periphery of wheel never exceeds 50%.
[8]
b) What do you understand by velocity triangles? Why these are important in
hydraulic turbines?.
[7]
5 a) What are the different types of Hydropower plants? Explain each. [8]
b) Differentiate between power house with pondage and power house with storage
with neat diagrams.
[7]
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R10 SET - 4
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Code No: R21021
6 In a vertical shaft inward-flow reaction turbine, the sum of the pressure and kinetic
head at entrance to the spiral casing is 120 m and the vertical distance between this
section and the tail race level is 3 m. The peripheral velocity of the runner at entry
is 30m/s, the radial velocity of water is constant at 9m/s and discharge from the
runner is without swirl. The estimated hydraulic losses are (a) between turbine
entrance and exit from the guide vanes 4.8 m(b) in the runner 8.8m (c) in the draft
tube 0.79 m (d) kinetic head rejected to the tail race 0.46m. Calculate the guide
vane angle and the runner blade angle at inlet and the pressure heads at entry to and
exit from the runner.
[15]
7 a) A large hydraulic turbine is to generate 300KW at 1000rpm under a head of 40m.
For initial testing, a 1:4 scale model of the turbine operates under a head of 10m.
Find the power generated by the model.
[7]
b) What are the unit and Specific quantities? What is the significance of these
quantities hydraulic turbines? Define the specific speed of hydraulic turbine.
[8]
8 a) Explain the terms: slip and negative slip with reference to reciprocating pump. [6]
b) A centrifugal pump delivers water against a net head of 10 m at a speed of 1000
rpm. The vanes are curved backward and make an angle of 30 degrees. The
impeller outside diameter is 30 cm and has a width of 5 cm at the outlet. Determine
the discharge if manometric efficiency is 95%.
[9]
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R10 SET - 4
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Code No: R21022
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS AND FINANCIAL ANALYSIS (Com. to EEE, ME, ECE, EIE, CSE, IT, ECC, BME)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1. a) “Managerial Economics is the integration of economic theory with business practice for
the purpose of facilitating decision making and forward planning by management”.
Explain?
b) Define demand and describe its determinants with suitable examples?
2. a) Differentiate between the following:
i) Point Price elasticity of demand and Arc Price elasticity of demand
ii) Elasticity of demand and elasticity of supply
b) Write briefly about trend projection method?
3. a) What is the relationship between firm’s short run production function and its fixed and
variable costs?
b) Distinguish between:
i) Implicit and Explicit costs
ii) Accounting and Economic costs
4. a) What are the features of Perfect competition?
b) Distinguish between Market skimming pricing and penetrating pricing.
5. a) What are the features of Joint stock Company?
b) Write short note on features of Business cycles.
1 of 2
R10 SET - 1
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Code No: R21022
6. The following are the balances extracted from the books of Rakesh on 31st March 2015.
PARTICULARS AMOUNT (IN RUPEES)
Rakesh Capital 30,000
Rakesh Drawing 5,000
Furniture and Fixtures 2,600
Opening Stock 22,000
Debtors 18,000
Rent from tenants 1,000
Purchases 1,10,000
Sales 1,50,000
Electricity Charges 1,100
Sales return 2,000
Discounts (Dr) 1,600
Bank Overdraft 4,200
Creditors 13,800
Discount (Cr) 2,000
Taxes and Insurances 2,000
General Expenses 4,000
Salaries 9,000
Commission (Dr) 2,200
Carriage on purchases 1,800
Bad debts 800
Adjustments:
Closing stock at the end was Rs 20,060; Depreciate furniture and fixtures by Rs 550.
Prepare Trading, Profit and Loss account and Balance Sheet for the year ended 31st March
2015 after taking the above adjustments.
7. From the following particulars you are required to prepare a statement of proprietary fund:
Capital turnover ratio=2; Fixed Asset turnover ratio=4; Gross profit turnover ratio=20%; Stock
velocity=5; Debtors velocity= 3 months; Creditors velocity is 2.5 months. The gross profit is
Rs 50,000,Reserves and Surplus is Rs 15000 and closing stock was Rs 5000 lesser than
opening stock.
8. Explain briefly the various methods of capital budgeting.
2 of 2
R10 SET - 1
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Code No: R21022
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS AND FINANCIAL ANALYSIS (Com. to EEE, ME, ECE, EIE, CSE, IT, ECC, BME)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1. What do you understand by Elasticity of demand? How do you measure it? What is its
significance?
2. Explain and illustrate the following: and also mention why they arise: a) The Law of Constant
Returns b) The Law of increasing returns.
3. What is opportunity Cost? Give some examples of opportunity cost. How are these costs
relevant for managerial decisions?
4. What is a Market? Explain, in brief, the different Market structures.
5. Explain the merits and demerits of different forms of Business organization and their suitability
with different types of business Activities
6. What are the accounting concepts that govern accounting process? Explain in brief.
7. The following are the extracts from the financial statements of Marvel Ltd. as on 31st March
2014 and 31st March 2015 respectively
31st March 2014
( Amount in Rupees)
31st March 2015
( Amount in Rupees)
Stock 10,000 25,000
Debtors 20,000 20,000
Bills receivable 10,000 5,000
Cash 18,000 15,000
Bills payable 15,000 20,000
Bank Overdraft 2,000
9% Debenture 5,00,000 5,00,000
Sales 3,50,000 3,00,000
Gross Profit 70,000 50,000
Compute Current ratio, Acid test ratio and Stock Turnover ratio and also interpret the result.
8. Compare and contrast with illustration
Accounting rate of return and Payback period method
Net present Value and IRR method
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R10 SET - 2
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Code No: R21022
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS AND FINANCIAL ANALYSIS (Com. to EEE, ME, ECE, EIE, CSE, IT, ECC, BME)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1. Define Managerial Economics. Explain the nature and scope of managerial economics?
2. What is meant by Elasticity of demand? What are the factors governing the potential demand
for a product as either Elastic or Inelastic?
3. Explain how production function is valuable to manufacturer?
4. What are the features of perfect competition? Explain with the help of a diagram how price
output is determined in perfect competition?
5. Define and evaluate partnership form of business organization.
6. What is working capital? What are the factors governing working capital requirement?
Illustrate.
7. Ram Enterprise is considering purchasing a CNC machine. The following are the earnings after
tax from the two alternative proposal under consideration each costing Rs 8,00,000. Select the
better proposal if the company wishes to operate @ 10% rate of return
Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5
Proposal I 80,000 2,40,000 3,20,000 4,80,000 3,20,000
Proposal 2 2,40,000 3,20,000 4,00,000 2,40,000 1,60,000
Present value of Rs 1 @10% 0.909 0.826 0.751 0.683 0.620
8. Journalize the following transactions and post them to ledger.
i) Ram invested Rs 10,000 in cash
ii) He bought goods worth Rs 2000 from Shyam
iii) He bought a machine for Rs 5000 from Lakshman on account
iv) He paid to Lakshman Rs. 2000
v) He sold goods for cash Rs. 3000
vi) He sold goods to A on account for Rs 4000
vii) He paid to Shyam Rs. 1000
viii)He received amount from A Rs. 2000.
1 of 1
R10 SET - 3
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Code No: R21022
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS AND FINANCIAL ANALYSIS (Com. to EEE, ME, ECE, EIE, CSE, IT, ECC, BME)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1. a) What do you understand by demand? What are the different types of demand
b) State the law of demand what its exception are
2. How do you forecast demand for product and services? Explain the method of least squares as a
method of forecasting demand.
3. Do you think monopoly is present in the current business environment? Explain how price
output is determined in monopoly in short run
4. Rahim sells 500 kg of sweets per hour at a rate of Rs 100 per kg. The fixed overhead is Rs 7000
and the variable cost is Rs 25 per kg. There is a proposal to reduce the price by 10%.Calculate
the present PV and present BEP both in units and in Rupees; present level of profit and future
PV ratio and BEP both in units and in Rupees. How many kilograms must be sold to earn
present level of profit?
5. Explain any four pricing methods based on strategy.
6. Based on the following information of the financial ratios prepare Balance sheet of Premier
India Ltd as on 31st March 2015.
Current ratio= 2.5; Liquidity ratio= 1.5; Net working Capital= 6,00,000; Stock turnover ratio=
5; Gross profit to sales =20%. Turnover ratio to net fixed assets (on cost of sales) =2; Average
debt collection period = 2.4 months; Fixed asset to net worth =0.8; Long term debt to capital
and Reserves =7:25.
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R10 SET -4
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Code No: R21022
7. From the following prepare Trading, Profit and loss and Balance Sheet as on 31st March 2015.
Particulars Debit Credit
Capital 20000
Purchases 29000
Sales 55000
Carriage Inwards 5000
Wages outstanding 2000
Plant 20000
Depreciation on plant 4000
Rent received 1000
Salaries and wages 3000
Reserve for bad and doubtful debt 1000
Bad debts 2000
Interest 5000
Premises 20000
Interest paid 5000
Creditors 6000
Opening stock 25000
Loans 38000
Debtors 15000
Adjustment
Closing stock at the end: Rs 40,000
Depreciate building at the rate of 15% per annum.
8. A ltd is considering to purchase a new machine costing Rs 5,85,000. An additional investment
will be required for installation costing Rs 15,000 and for working capital Rs 1,00,000. The
machine has a working life of 5 years and salvage value will be Rs 1,00,000. The working
capital will be released after 5 years. The estimated cash inflows before depreciation and tax are
estimated as follows
Years Cash Inflows (Rupees)
1 1,00,000
2 1,80,000
3 2,50,000
4 2,00,000
5 1,50,000
You can assume straight line method for charging depreciation, cost of capital of 15% and
corporate tax rate of 50%. Should the company purchase the machine?
2 of 2
R10 SET -4
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Code No: R21032
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
THERMODYNAMICS (Com. to ME, AE, AME, MM)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1. a) Energy is a point function. Explain and prove. (8M)
b) Write the differences between microscopic and macroscopic approach.
(7M)
2. a) State the limitations of first law of thermodynamics. (5M)
b) What is a thermal energy reservoir? (5M)
c) Define PMMI and the relevance of it.
(5M))
3. What is Carnot cycle? Explain with the help of suitable diagrams. Derive the
expression for efficiency of Carnot cycle.
15 M
4. a) spherical shell of diameter 50 cm contains steam at a pressure of 40 bar and
0.85 dryness fraction. Calculate the mass of water and steam.
(8M)
b) Explain in detail the formation of steam with the help of T-H diagram indicating
the salient points.
(7M)
5. 0.2 m3 of air at 3 bar and 120
0C is contained in a system. A reversible adiabatic
expansion takes place till the pressure falls to 1.5 bar. The gas is then heated at
constant pressure till enthalpy increases by 75 kJ. Calculate the work done and
the index of expansion, if the above processes are replaced by a single reversible
polytropic process giving the same work between the same initial and final states.
15 M
6. A mixture of ideal gases consists of 3 kg of Nitrogen and 5 kg of carbon dioxide
at a pressure of 4 bar and temperature of 250 C .Find
i) mole fraction of each constituent
ii) equivalent molecular weight of the mixture
iii) Equivalent gas constant of the mixture
iv) Partial pressure and partial volumes v) volume and density of the mixture
vi ) Cp & Cv of the mixture
15 M
7. a) An engine working on Otto cycle has the following conditions: pressure at the
beginning of compression is 1 bar and pressure at the end of compression is
12 bar. Calculate the compression ratio and air - standard efficiency of the
engine. Assume γ = 1.4.
(8M)
b) Sketch the p-V and T-s diagrams of diesel cycle and derive its efficiency.
(7M)
8. Derive the expression for COP of Bell Coleman cycle when the compression
and expansion are isentropic.
( 15M)
1 of 1
SET - 1 R10
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Code No: R21032
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
THERMODYNAMICS (Com. to ME, AE, AME, MM)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1. a) Prove that heat and work are path functions. (8M)
b) Define system and boundaries. Explain various types of system and boundary with
examples.
(7M)
2. a) State the first law of thermodynamics and prove that for non-flow process it leads
to Q=W+∆U.
(8M)
b) An engine operating on a Carnot cycle works with in temperature limits of600 K
and 300 K. If the engine receives 2000 KJ of heat, evaluate the workdone and
thermal efficiency of the engine.
(7M)
3. a) Determine the power required to run a refrigerator that transfers 2000 KJ/minof
heat from a cooled space at 00C to the surrounding atmosphere at 27
0C.The
refrigerator operates on reversed Carnot cycle.
(8M)
b) Derive Clausius inequality and explain the significance.
(7M)
4. a) Explain the following terms relating to steam formation: i. Sensible heat of water
ii. Dryness fraction of steam iii. Enthalpy of wet steam iv. Superheated steam.
(8M)
b) Find the enthalpy and entropy of steam when the pressure is 2 M Pa and the
specific volume is 0.09 m3/kg. Use steam tables only.
(7M)
5. a) Write down the Vander Waal’s equation of state. How does it differ from the
ideal gas equation of state?
(8M)
b) 1kg of CO2 has a volume of 1m
3at100
0C. Compute the pressure by
i. Vander Waal’s equation ii. Perfect gas equation.
Take a = 362850Nm4/(kg−mole)
2 ; b = 0.0423m
3/kg−mole;R = 8314J/kg mole-K
(7M)
6. a) A vessel of 6m3 capacity contains two gases A and B in proportion of 45%
respectively at 300C.If the value of R for the gases is 0.288 kJ /kg. k and
0.295 kJ /kg-K and if the total weight of the mixture is 2 kg, calculate
i) Partial pressure ii) The mean value of R for the mixture.
(8M)
b) Write short notes on
i) Mole fraction ii) Volumetric analysis iii) Dry bulb temperature
1 of 2
(7M)
SET - 2 R10
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Code No: R21032
7. a) Calculate the percentage loss in the ideal efficiency of a diesel engine with
compression ratio 14 if the fuel cut off is delayed from 5% to 8% .
(8M)
b) Compare the Otto cycle and Diesel cycle for the same compression ratios and
same heat inputs.
(7M)
8. a) Explain the difference between the Bell Coleman and Joule cycle of refrigeration. (8M)
b) An air refrigerating plant operates between 1.6 bar and 8 bar. The capacity
of the plant is 5.5 ton. The temperature of the air entering the compressor
and into an air engine is -40C and 29
0C respectively. The compression and
expansion processes are polytropic with exponent n = 1.35. Determine the
COP and the net power input for the plant.
(7M)
2 of 2
SET - 2 R10
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Code No: R21032
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
THERMODYNAMICS (Com. to ME, AE, AME, MM)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1. a) Explain the terms state, path, process and cyclic process. (8M)
b) Explain quasi-static process with examples.
(7M)
2. a) Explain working of constant volume gas thermometer with a neat diagram. (8M)
b) Derive steady flow energy equation.
(7M)
3. a) State the Kelvin-Plank and Clausius statements of the second law of
thermodynamics and establish equivalence between them.
(8M)
b) State and prove Carnot Principle or Carnot theorem.
(7M)
4. a) Explain working of separating and throttling calorimeter. Which type of
calorimeter is used when steam is too wet?
(8M)
b) What is the pure substance? Draw and explain P-T (pressure-temperature)
diagram for a pure substance.
(7M)
5. a) A mass of air is initially at 2600C and 700 KPa and occupies 0.028m
3. The air is
expanded at constant pressure to 0.084m3.Apolytropic process with n = 1.5 is then
carried out, followed by a constant temperature process, which completes a cycle.
All the processes are reversible
i. Sketch the cycle in the P-v &T-s planes ii. Find heat received & rejected in the
cycle iii. Find efficiency (η ) of the cycle.
(8M)
b) What is the difference between ideal gas and a perfect gas? What is equation of
state?
(7M)
6. a) State Dalton's law of partial pressures. (8M)
b) Atmospheric air at 300C and a relative humidity of 65% is cooled at a constant
pressure of 100 kN/m2 to 20
0C. Calculate
i. the final relative humidity and ii. the change in specific humidity.
1 of 2
(7M)
SET - 3 R10
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Code No: R21032
7. a) An engine equipped with a cylinder having a bore of 12 cm and a stroke of 40
cm operates on an Otto cycle. If the clearance volume is 1600 cm3, compute
the air standard efficiency.
(8M)
b) Derive the expression for efficiency of air standard Otto cycle.
(7M)
8. A R-12 vapour compression refrigeration system is operating at a condenser pres-
sure of 10 bar and an evaporator pressure of 2.2 bar. Its refrigeration capacity is
14 tonnes. The values of enthalpy at the inlet and outlet of the evaporator are
650 and 200 kJ/kg. The specific volume at inlet to the reciprocating compressor is
0.085 m3/kg. The index of compression for the compressor is 1.15. Determine:
(a) the power input in kW required for the compressor and
(b) the COP. Take 1 tone of refrigeration as equivalent to heat removal at the
rate of 3.517 kW.
(15 M)
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SET - 3 R10
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Code No: R21032
II B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, June - 2015
THERMODYNAMICS (Com. to ME, AE, AME, MM)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 75
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry Equal Marks
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1. a) Discuss about concept of continuum (8M)
b) Explain causes for irreversibility in detail.
(7M)
2. a) A blower handles 1 kg/sec of air at 200C and consumes a power of 15 kW.
The inlet and outlet velocities of air are 100 m/s and 150 m/s respectively.
Find the exit air temperature, assuming adiabatic conditions.
(8M)
b) Write a note on ideal gas temperature scale.
(7M)
3. a) Prove that " All reversible heat engines operating between the two given thermal
reservoirs have same efficiency".
(8M)
b) State and prove Clasius theorem.
(7M)
4. a) Explain working of throttling calorimeter with the help of diagram. (8M)
b) Derive Clasius Clapeyron equation and explain its significance.
(7M)
5. 1 kg of air at 1.2 bar pressure and 180C is compressed isentropically to 7 bars.
Find the final temperature and the work done. If the air is cooled at the upper
pressure to the original temperature of 180C ,what amount of heat is rejected and
what further work of compression is done.
15 M
6. A vessel of 2m3 capacity contains oxygen at 10 bar and 60
0C. The vessel is
connected to another vessel of4m3 capacity containing carbon monoxide at 1.5 bar
and 250C. A connecting valve is opened and the gases mix adiabatically calculate
i) The final pressure and temperature of the mixture b) Change of entropy of the
oxygen.
Take for oxygen Cv = 21.07kJ/Mol-K
For carbon monoxide Cv = 20.86kJ/Mol-K
15 M
7. a) Explain graphically the variation of the efficiency of Diesel cycle with
compression ratio and cut off ratio.
(8M)
b) A diesel engine has a compression ratio of 15 and heat addition at constant
pressure takes place at 6% of stroke. Find the air standard efficiency of the
engine.
(7M)
8. a) Explain the important components of a simple vapour compression refrigeration
system. Also discuss the functions of each component.
(8M)
b) An air refrigerating plant operates between 1.6 bar and 8 bar. The capacity of the
plant is 5.5 ton. The temperature of the air entering the compressor and into an air
engine is -40C and 29
0C respectively. The compression and expansion processes
are polytropic with exponent n = 1.35. Determine the COP and the net power input
for the plant.
(7)
1 of 1
SET - 4 R10