HSM 300- HEALTH SERVICES MANAGEMENTSample Exam for Chapters 19 to 26
1. Hospital Y is locating qualified personnel to form a pool of candidates. Hospital Y is performing the human resources function of a. Recruitmentb. Retentionc. Selectiond. Outsourcing
2. A nurse supervisor from Hospital Y is choosing the right candidate from a pool of applicants. This supervisor is performing the human resources function of a. Recruitmentb. Retentionc. Selectiond. Outsourcing
3. The staffing function includes all of the following excepta. Orienting staffb. Writing proceduresc. Judging performanced. Training staff
4. Effective use of the human resources department includesa. Supervising subordinates in the nursing departments b. Conducting performance appraisals on all managers c. Advising on employment practices and regulationsd. helping managers complete work assignments
5. When terminating an employee, the supervisora. Must determine whether current employees can fulfill
departmental goalsb. Must conduct the exit interview and share findings with human
resourcesc. Documents thoroughly the occurrences leading to the
termination decisiond. Determines whether current skills sets are adequate
6. Intraorganizational turnover occurs
1
a. When an employee moves from one position to another within the same organization
b. When an employee moves from one organization to anotherc. When an employee is oriented to his or her jobd. When an employee’s goals and values match those of the
organization
7. The difference between a job description and job specification is thata. The description tells exactly what duties are in the job, whereas
the specifications tell what the qualifications areb. The description describes the qualifications, whereas the
specifications specify the dutiesc. The description is based on a job analysis, whereas the
specification is notd. The description specifies the duties, whereas the specifications
specify the responsibilities
8. Job analysis involves all of the following excepta. Analyzing the employees and working conditions in the
departmentb. Analyzing the duties and tasks performed c. Analyzing skill requirementsd. Analyzing physical demands
9. When preparing job specifications, the supervisor shoulda. Loosely define the required job knowledge to increase the pool
of applicantsb. Not ask for a higher degree of skill than is absolutely neededc. Set the requirements as high as possible to limit the pool of
applicants to interviewd. Not be concerned with employment laws
10. When vacancies occur, the supervisor shoulda. Immediately recruit a replacement to help determine the
turnover rateb. Contact friends who may be interested in the job before posting
the vacancy with human resourcesc. Analyze the job and related jobs to see if any process
improvements could be achieved that may result in lessening the labor requirement
d. Analyze the job and related jobs to see if any process improvements could be achieved that may result in lessening the instrumentation requirement.
11. Which of the following statements describes outsourcing? 2
a. It is an alternative that works well when a department is functioning well
b. It is an alternative for conducting job analyses in an organizationc. It determines the shifts on which employees will workd. An employer engages a third party to supply staff
12. The selection process represents all of the following except
a. choosing the candidate that meets the job demandsb. matching the applicant’s personality and capability with the
culture of the departmentc. Reviewing the duties and tools necessary to perform the work
and the qualifications required to do the jobd. selecting the candidate who is likely to perform well and will
stay with the organization
13. An employment interview is not something thata. Involves two-way communication between the interviewer and
applicantb. Allows one to learn about the applicant’s background, interests,
and valuesc. Is a precise techniqued. Is more valid for predicting employee behavior than decisions
made on tests alone
14. All of the following are types of employment interview excepta. Structured b. Directive c. Nondirectived. comparative
15. The nondirective interview a. Allows the interviewee to say whatever he or she wants to sayb. Keeps the session structuredc. Pays little attention to what the interviewee wants to say d. Restricts what the interviewee would like to say
3
16. The purpose of a directive employment interview is toa. Locate qualified applicants b. Collect facts and reach a decisionc. Provide training and developmentd. Enhance employee performance
17. A directive interview a. Is the same as a structured interviewb. Follows a format that is not structured c. Is discriminatory in nature d. Uses questions that do not follow a pre-designed format
18. Which of the following items would not appear on an application form?a. Education, degrees, and certificationsb. Previous work experience, dates of employment, and salaryc. Ancestry, marital status, and aged. Address, telephone number, and middle initial
19. The structured interviewa. Permits asking questions that may be considered discriminatoryb. Consists of questions about the personality of previous bosses c. Includes questions about job knowledge and work requirementsd. Should include a human resources representative
20. Which of the following is incorrect about reference checks?a. Human resources should conduct the reference checks.b. The Equal Employment Commission discourages them.c. They require the applicant’s authorization.d. They are used to obtain additional information about the
applicant’s work habits.
21. Supervisors must comply with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission laws during an interview, which meansa. Questions must be job-related
b. Supervisor may be required to hire an unqualified candidate c Questions about spousal tolerance of work hours are acceptable
d. Questions about the national origin of the applicant is acceptable
4
22. When evaluating an applicant one should a. Review the notes taken during the interview, make the hire decision, and speak to
others who may have interviewed the chosen candidateb. Go with the “gut” and make a snap decision before another firm hires the personc. Learn how to recognize over-generalization and avoid the halo effectd. Always seek the help of present employees
23. The halo effecta. Occurs when an interviewer is using one or two characteristics on which to base
all other factors.b. Occurs when the applicant gives all the right answersc. Occurs when one appears angelic during the interview but becomes an unreliable
employee once hiredd. May work favorably or unfavorably for the interviewer
24. The performance appraisal system is nota. A coaching toolb. A planning toolc. A structure toold. A motivational tool
25. Ideally, the performance appraisal willa. Show the employee where and how to improveb. Apply sufficient stress to make the person improvec. Preclude merit increased. Be used as a tactic to intimidate employees
26. An appraisal approach that lists employees in a high-to-low order isa. Group rank orderingb. Individual rankingc. H-L approachd. Paired comparison
27. An appraisal approach that requires the input from subordinates, peers, and superiors is a. Group rank orderingb. Graphic rating scalec. 360-degree feedbackd. BARS
28. An effective appraisal process will identify all of the following excepta. How well the employee is performingb. If process changes could improve the employee’s performance
5
c. How well the supervisor is performingd. The punishment that subordinates deserve
29. An empowered environment is more likely to use which appraisal system?a. Paired comparisonb. Group rank orderingc. BARSd. 360-degree feedback
30. During the annual appraisal process an empowered environment willa. Permit the team to make work assignments to other teamsb. Permit the team to contribute to identifying strengths and weaknesses of its team
membersc. Permit the team to delegate authority for certain duties and grant leaves of
absence for its team membersd. Permit the team to defend team members at all cost
31. Performance appraisals should nota. Be conducted regularlyb. Include a skills inventoryc. Provide timely feedbackd. Occur at the time of wage adjustment
32. A major fault of appraisals is thata. They are subjectiveb. They do not provide feedbackc. They usually occur annuallyd. They are objective
33. The comparative appraisal method includesa. 360 degree feedbackb. Management by objectivec. Behaviorally anchored rating scalesd. Paired distribution
34. An appraisal interview may usea. Directive or unstructured approachb. Listen and tell or win-lose approachc. Problem-solving or combined approachd. Mixed or win-lose approach
35. An interviewing approach that allows the employee to state his or her own appraisal thoughts and then allows the supervisor to state his or hers is known asa. Tell and sell
6
b. Problem solvingc. Directived. Listen and tell
36. When the appraisal interview is being conducteda. The supervisor should resolve any misunderstandings, seek acceptance of the
rating, and secure commitment to future goalsb. The supervisor should rely on the daily interactions he or she has had with the
subordinatec. The supervisor should confirm the mutual understandings, assign the ratings, and
secure commitment to future goalsd. The supervisor should be a constructive listener, briefly answer questions, and
emphasize the subordinate’s shortcomings
37. The supervisor’s role in wage and benefit administration isa. To ensure his or her staff is financially rewarded to the maximum extentb. Limited to making suggestions and recommendationsc. To ensure that internal inequity and external alignment is maintainedd. Limited to what is established by human resources
38. When an internal alignment assessment is being performed, one tool that is helpful isa. BARSb. A job descriptionc. A job evaluationd. A job analysis
39. Absolute standards performance appraisals a. Trims the communication of the grapevineb. Compare one employee to anotherc. Compare job titles in one area with anotherd. Evaluate each employee against written standards
40. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding employee promotions?a. Promotions entail more demands on the individual, more authority, and more
responsibility.b. Promotions will result in larger offices, more important titles, and a secretary.c. Promotions from within are the most widely practiced and often are less
expensive.d. Promotions from within can serve as a strong motivator.
41. An advantage to recruiting from outside the organization is thata. It is often less expensive
7
b. It avoids having to fill two positions in the organizationc. It injects “new blood” or new thinking or expertise into the organizationd. It causes fewer hard feelings among staff within the organization
42. Influencing is nota. A process to achieve goal-directed actionb. Known as motivatingc. Primarily the job of the CEOd. A means for developing an effective work force
43. A good directive a. Is compatible with the objectives of the organizationb. Takes into consideration wage levelsc. Takes into consideration benefit plansd. Takes into consideration the likes of the subordinate
44. Intelligibility includes all of the following excepta. Reasonablenessb. Languagec. Toned. Understanding
45. Two basic techniques of direction area. Planning and organizationb. Participative and closec. Recruitment and retentiond. Training and development
46. In the United States, the more accepted approach to direction isa. Theory Xb. Closec. Consultatived. autocratic
47. An atmosphere of understanding and mutual confidence is fostered when the supervisora. Ensures staff is informed, understand what is expected, and believe the directives
are reasonable b. Provides all directives in writing so that all staff on all shifts have access to the directive
c. Gives directives as commands and staff has an opportunity to debate themd. Uses the autocratic style of directing and gives staff an opportunity to negotiate
them
48. When organizations use do-it group or quality control circle, theya. Add a different structure to the existing channels of communicationb. Develop more effective methods to ensure the work is accomplished
8
c. Require no additional training given their familiarity with the jobsd. Work on issues affected by the Pareto principle
49. Which of the following is true of change?a. Most individuals understand that change is a necessityb. Staff tends to resist change; however, management does notc. Imposing change unilaterally it is the most successful approachd. Communication is important to help staff understand why change is necessary
50. Which of the following contributes to team failure?a. Lack of accountabilityb. Clear goalsc. Effective leadershipd. Role clarity
51. Employee participation in the change process
a. Increases resistance to change b. Reduces the resistance to changec. Inhibits progressd. Is time consuming
52. Motivation results froma. Drive, achievement, efforts, and reinforcementb. Attainment of goals, efforts, and directionc. Efforts, direction, and opportunityd. Drive, efforts, and opportunity
53. Two categories of motivational theory area. Content and proceduresb. Process and contentc. Process and controld. Content and need
54. Need theories include all of the following excepta. Something desiredb. Unsatisfied needsc. Why a behavior is selectedd. Reducing tensions
55. Process theories examinea. The needs that drive individualsb. Why an individual chooses a particular partner to achieve a goalc. How individuals evaluate their satisfaction with a goal that is accomplishedd. Why an individual selects a particular department to work
9
56. Maslow’s hierarchy of needsa. Identifies five tiers of needs, each level of which requires stronger motivationb. Identifies three tiers of needs for individuals of all ages and economic staturec. Prohibits supervisors from recognizing the needs of employees d. eliminates how an organization can help fulfill employee needs
57. The need that is defined as the deficiency need isa. Physiological needb. Esteem needc. Growth needd. achievement need
58. The need that is defined as the growth need isa. Shelter, employmentb. Self-image, achievementc. Love, affectiond. Food, water
59. The need that may never be satisfied isa. Love, affectionb. Self-image, achievementc. Self-actualizationd. employment
60. How does the ERG model differ from Maslow’s theory?a. ERG is a process theory; Maslow’s is a content theory.b. ERG has three categories of needs; Maslow’s has five categoriesc. There is no overlap of the two theorists’ categoriesd. The ERG model is more popular than Maslow’s theory
61. Alderfer’s ERG model states thata. Increased frustration may cause regression of need demands.b. Needs are limited by resources; it is a win-win situation for all persons c. Needs are driven by the situationd. Growth needs cannot be satisfied through personal development
62. Frederick Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory deals witha. Job satisfiersb. Maslow’s satisfiersc. Residential satisfiersd. Processes
63. The two-factor theory speaks of motivating factors asa. Hygiene factors
10
b. The work itselfc. Interpersonal relationsd. Working conditions
64. Administrative policies can keep employees satisfied or dissatisfied. To keep employees satisfied management a. Must compensate employees equally regardless of their position within the
organization b. Should focus on hiring people from the outside to fill supervisory positionsc. Conduct performance appraisals just before a pay adjustmentd. Should provide appropriate fringe benefits
65. The theory that focuses on learned needs isa. Maslow’s hierarchy of needsb. Vroom’s expectancy theoryc. McClelland’s achievement theoryd. Herzberg’s two-factor theory
66. Learned needs includea. Achievement, power, and acceptanceb. Achievement, affiliation, and powerc. Power, satisfiers, and dissatisfiersd. Achievement, power, and motivators
67. While each person will have a core set of learned needs, the degree of needs will vary based ona. Compensationb. The working environmentc. The situationd. The general population
68. Vroom’s expectancy theory has three base elements. They area. Effort, reward, and behaviorsb. Effort, reward, and probability of getting the rewardc. Reward, probability, and abilityd. Probability, satisfier, and effort
69. The human behavior that is motivated by unsatisfied needs has its basis ina. Strength of motivation, personality, stimulib. Last names, supervisor’s health beliefs c. Stimuli, the CEO’S health beliefs d. Personality and food preference
70. A factor that alters one’s perception is a
11
a. Perceptual processb. Stimulic. Barrierd. Attitude
71. Examples of perceptual barriers include all the following excepta. Valuesb. Stereotypesc. Biasd. Halo effect
12
72. Frustrations may be dealt with by all of the following approaches excepta. Resignationb. Aggressionc. Stimulid. Retreat
73. Which of the following describes leadership?a. A nonessential component to facilitating motivationb. A process that influences others to do something voluntarilyc. Represented by a person who is always in a management positiond. Represented by a person who always have formal authority
74. The leadership theory that espouses that leadership is dependent on the situation isa. The early genetic theoryb. The trait theoryc. The contingency approachd. None of the above
75. A leadership approach that is employee centered isa. Emotiveb. Task-orientedc. Objectived. Goal-playing
76. A leader cannot be a leader if there are no:a. Needsb. Followersc. Personal characteristicsd. Monetary funds
77. Which of the following is not true about morale?a. Morale can be improved by offering flexible hoursb. It is emotion affecting attitudes and feelings of individuals about workc. Turnover is lower when morale is lowd. All management personnel must be concerned with employee morale
78. Morale can be exhibited in several ways. Which of the following is not one of those
ways?a. Turnover and absenteeismb. Updated proceduresc. Workers helping coworkersd. sharing ideas
13
79. Which of the following helps management to assess how employees view their jobs?a. Job analysisb. Job pricingc. Turnover auditd. Surveys
80. Morale is affected mostly bya. Supervisionb. Internal factorsc. External factorsd. Friendship
81. To help employees deal with external factors that may be affecting their work, organizations havea. Implemented closer supervision programsb. Initiated disciplinary programs for tardiness and absenteeismc. Offered employee assistance programsd. Provided financial assistance programs
82. When morale is higha. Teamwork is typically present in the work forceb. Productivity is typically below averagec. Turnover is higherd. absenteeism is higher
83. Surveys are used by management toa. Assess how employees view their jobs, benefits, supervisors, and working
conditionsb. Assess how management views their subordinates, benefits, and working
conditionsc. Demonstrate research capabilities of the organizationd. Help train supervisors
84. Surveys that are objectivea. Include questions that are discriminativeb. Provide fill-in-the-blank answer optionsc. Provide multiple-choice answer optionsd. Include questions that will reflect the tendency to say no
85. In an organization, who must be concerned about employee morale?a. The CEOb. Department directorsc. Front-line supervisorsd. All management personnel
14
86. One of the shortcomings of using the observation method to gauge the level of employee morale isa. Supervisors do not take time to use this methodb. By the time it is noticed, the change has already occurredc. It is relatively simple to observe highs and lowsd. Higher management do not recognize this method
87. Full-scale attitude surveys should occura. At least every three monthsb. At least every yearc. At least every three yearsd. At least annually
88. A condition of orderliness in which the members of the enterprise behave sensibly and conduct themselves according to the standards of acceptable behavior is known asa. Moresb. Disciplinec. Expectationsd. Ethics
89. The best discipline isa. Self-disciplineb. Organizational disciplinec. Timely disciplined. Progressive discipline
90. The first step in discipline is toa. Invoke a disciplinary layoffb. Take a surveyc. Obtain the pertinent factsd. Give a verbal warning
91. Mores, unlike discipline, area. Organizationally drivenb. Not eligible for disciplinec. Culture-drivend. Norms
92. A set of self-imposed standards that regulates behavior within an organization area. Moresb. Normsc. Rulesd. Expectations
93. Disciplinary layoffs may
15
a. Positively affect productivityb. Enforce a bad attitude with the employeec. Be detrimental for both the employee and supervisord. increase in the near future
94. Supervisors who fail to take quick disciplinary actiona. Practice Theory Y managementb. May risk weakening moralec. Will be appreciated by their staffd. Can rectify it during the annual appraisal
95. Positive disciplinea. Serves as a warning to others in the departmentb. Allows the supervisor to “get even”c. Inhibits the rights of employeesd. Demonstrates that the supervisor is the boss
96. When an event occurs that requires disciplinary action, the supervisor shoulda. Delay in gathering the facts hoping that the problem will go awayb. Discuss the offense in public to raise the awareness of all employees c. Discuss the offenses in private with the subordinated. Give the subordinate a second chance to alleviate bad feelings
97. The series of actions (1) informal talk, (2) spoken warning, (3) written warning, (4) disciplinary layoff, (5) demotion, and (6) discharge are associated witha. Disciplinary matrixb. Progressive disciplinec. Regressive disciplined. Aggressive discipline
98. The “red-hot-stove” approach has all the following characteristics excepta. It is personalb. It is immediatec. It comes with warningd. It is consistent
99. Disciplinary layoffs are often associated witha. unionsb. no payc. lawsuitsd. loss of business
16
100. When one appeals a disciplinary action of his or her supervisor, the appeal should be directed to:a. The CEO of the organizationb. The supervisor’s supervisorc. Human resourcesd. The courts
Answers to Sample Test (Chapters 19 -26)
1. a 34. c 67. c 100. b2. c 35. d 68. b3. b 36. a 69. a4. c 37. b 70. c5. c 38. c 71. a6. a 39. d 72. c7. a 40. b 73. b8. a 41. c 74. c9. b 42. c 75. a10. c 43. a 76. b11. d 44. a 77. c12. c 45. b 78. b13. c 46. c 79. d14. d 47. a 80. a15. a 48. b 81. c16. b 49. d 82. a17. a 50. a 83. a18. c 51. b 84. c19. c 52. a 85. d20. b 53. b 86. b21. a 54. c 87. c22. c 55. c 88. b23. a 56. a 89. a24. c 57. a 90. c25. a 58. b 91. c26. b 59. c 92. b27. c 60. b 93. b28. d 61. a 94. b29. d 62. a 95. a30. b 63. b 96. c31. d 64. d 97. b32. a 65. c 98. a33. d 66. b 99. b
17