Question Booklet Series :– ç'u iqfLrdk fljht %& A

Booklet Code No. :- iqfLrdk dksM la[;k %&

9 9 0 1 2 8 ↑

Candidate must fill the above number correctly, in the OMR Sheet

Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. Questions : 120 vuqer le; % 90 feuV Code - D16MYX6FTS01 ç'uksa dh dqy la[;k : 120

Roll No. : OMR Answer Sheet No. : vuqØekad % _______________________ vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk la[;k: _______________________

Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : ____________________________________________________________ vH;FkÊ dk uke %

Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature vH;FkÊ ds gLrk{kj _______________________ d{k fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj _______________________

IMPORTANT:– Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process. 1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will be in

different series (combination of booklet code no. and series). You must write correct Booklet Code No. and Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage. IMPORTANT NOTE– 1 : The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet series and booklet code no. hence you must write correct question booklet series and booklet code no. Any mistake in filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet series and booklet code no. the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole responsibility lies on the candidate. IMPORTANT NOTE– 2 : Candidates must ensure that their biometric thumb impression has been taken. This is candidates responsibility to give their biometric impression. In case you fail to do so, You may be debarred from selection process.

2. There shall be negative marking. 1/3 mark will be deducted for wrong answer. Each question carries equal mark. Also refer OMR Sheet for detailed instruction.

3. Ask invigilator to sign on your admit card. If the same is not got signed by you, your candidature shall be liable to be rejected.

4. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet.

5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED.

6. DO NOT scribble or do rough work or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. DO NOT wrinkle or fold or staple it. 7. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material

is NOT allowed inside the examination hall. 8. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet. No

other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work. 9. Return the complete Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not take

this Question Booklet or any part thereof or OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a punishable offence.

10. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. Further question paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation purposes.

fgUnh esa vuqns”k vfUre i`’B ¼Back cover½ ij fn;k x;k gSA

APTITUDE1. Match LIST–I with LIST–II and select the correct

answer using the codes given below the lists: LIST–I LIST–II (Monuments) (Builder) A. Arhai-Din-Ka-Jhompra 1. Ala-ud-din-Khilji at Ajmer B. Hauz-I-Khas at Delhi 2. Shahjahan C. Fortress of Adilabad 3. Muhhamad Tughlaq D. Taj Mahal at Agra 4. Qutub-ud-din Aibak (1) A4, B2, C3, D1 (2) A3, B1, C4, D2 (3) A4, B1, C3, D2 (4) A3, B2, C4, D1

1. lwph– I dks lwph– II ls feyk,a ,oa dksMks dk ç;ksx djrs gq, lgh mÙkj dk p;u djsa%

lwph– I lwph– II ¼Lekjd½ ¼fuekZrk½

A. vtesj esa v<+kbZ fnu dk 1. vykmíhu f[kyth

>ksiM+k

B. fnYyh esa gkSt[kkl 2. “kkgtgk¡

C. vkfnykckn dk fdyk 3. eqgEen rqxyd

D. vkxjk esa rktegy 4. dqrqcqíhu ,scd

(1) A4, B2, C3, D1 (2) A3, B1, C4, D2 (3) A4, B1, C3, D2 (4) A3, B2, C4, D1

DIRECTIONS: Complete the following series. funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr Js.kh dks iw.kZ djsaA

2. Question figure ¼ç”u vkÑfr½ Answer figure ¼mÙkj vkÑfr½

? 2. (1) (2) (3) (4)

DIRECTIONS: Study three different positions of the cube given below with numbers 1 to 6 written on its faces and answer the question.

3. The number on the bottom face of figure C is? (1) 6 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) None of these

funsZ”k% 1 ls 6 la[;kvksa }kjk buds eq[k ij vafdr fd;s x, ?kuksa ds rhu

fofHké fLFkfr;ksa dk v/;;u djsa ,oa ç”u dk mÙkj nsaA

3. fp= C ds ry&eq[k ij la[;k D;k gS\

(1) 6 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

4. Complete the series: 6, 14, 26, 42, 62, 86, ? (1) 114 (2) 115 (3) 116 (4) 118

4. Js.kh dks iw.kZ djsa%

6, 14, 26, 42, 62, 86, ? (1) 114 (2) 115 (3) 116 (4) 118

5. Find out the wrong number in sequence. 2, 6, 12, 20, 28, 42, 56 (1) 28 (2) 42 (3) 56 (4) 12

5. Js.kh esa xyr la[;k dk p;u djsaA

2, 6, 12, 20, 28, 42, 56 (1) 28 (2) 42 (3) 56 (4) 12

6. The ratio of 250 ml to 2 liters is: (1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 6 (3) 1 : 8 (4) 1 : 9

6. 250 feyh yhVj vkSj 2 yhVj dk vuqikr gS%

(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 6 (3) 1 : 8 (4) 1 : 9

7. If A : B = 2 : 3, B : C = 4:5 C : D = 6 : 7, then A : B : C : D is: (1) 18 : 24 : 30 : 35 (2) 16 : 24 : 30 : 35 (3) 16 : 22 : 30 : 35 (4) None of these

7. ;fn A : B = 2 : 3, B : C = 4:5 C : D = 6 : 7, rks A : B : C : D gS%

(1) 18 : 24 : 30 : 35 (2) 16 : 24 : 30 : 35 (3) 16 : 22 : 30 : 35 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

8. Choose the pair that is different from the remaining pairs. (1) Iron : Hematite (2) Aluminum : Bauxite (3) Lead : Galena (4) Magnesium : Magnetite

8. og tksM+k pqusa tks nwljs ckdh tksM+ksa ls fHké gksA

(1) ykSg % ghesVkbV (2) ,Y;qfefu;e % ckWDlkbZV (3) lhlk % xsysuk (4) esfXuf”k;e % esXusVkbZV

(SET-01) [ 9 9 0 1 2 8 ] D16MYX6FT [ A–1 ]

DIRECTIONS: Answer the following questions based on the given information.

A family consists of six members U, V, W, X, Y and Z. There are two married couples in the family. • X has two unmarried children. • W is the grandmother of Y who is the sister of V. • V loves his father Z.

9. How many females are there in the family? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 3 or 4

funsZ”k% uhps nh xbZ lwpukvksa ds vk/kkj ij fuEufyf[kr ç”uksa ds mÙkj nsaA

,d ifjokj esa N% lnL; U, V, W, X, Y ,oa Z gSaA ifjokj esa nks fookfgr tksM+s gSaA

• X ds nks vfookfgr cPps gSaA

• ^W* ^Y* dh xzkUMenj gS tks ^V* dh cgu gSA • ^V* vius firk ^Z* ls I;kj djrk gSA

9. ifjokj esa fdruh efgyk,a gSa\

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 3 ;k 4

10. In a certain code language, ‘SELECTION’ is coded as ‘RDKDBSHNM’, then what will the code for ‘EXAM’ in that language? (1) KWBN (2) DWZL (3) DWBL (4) FWZL

10. fdlh fuf”pr dksM Hkk’kk esa ^SELECTION* dks ^RDKDBSHNM*

dksM fd;k tkrk gS] rks mlh dksM Hkk’kk esa ^EXAM* dks D;k dksM

fd;k tk,xk\

(1) KWBN (2) DWZL (3) DWBL (4) FWZL

11. What is Gaofen-4? (1) An Aircraft (2) A Satellite (3) A Fighter Plane (4) An Assault Rifle

11. Gaofen-4 D;k gS\ (1) ,d gokbZ;ku (2) ,d mixzg (3) ,d yM+kdw foeku (4) ,d vlksYV jkbZQy

12. Who recently became first Indian shooter to win skeet medal for India at a world cup? (1) Abhinav Bindra (2) Mairaj Ahmad Khan (3) Gagan Narang (4) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathor

12. vHkh gky gh esa fo”o di esa Hkkjr ds fy;s LdhV ¼skeet½ esMy thrus okyk çFke Hkkjrh; fu”kkusckt cuk\

(1) vfHkuo fcUæk (2) eSjkt vgen [kku (3) xxu ukjax (4) jkT;o/kZu flag jkBkSj

13. Who among the following was the first sultan of Tughlaq dynasty? (1) Firuz Tughlaq (2) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq (3) Ghiasu-ud-din Tughlaq (4) Nasir-ud-din-Muhammad Tughlaq

13. rqxyd jktoa”k dk çFke lqYrku fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&Fkk%

(1) fQjkst+ rqxyd

(2) eqgEen fcu rqxyd

(3) fx;klqfíu rqxyd

(4) ulh:íhu eqgEen rqxyd

14. Dr. C.V. Raman was awarded Nobel Prize for his work connected with which of following phenomenon of Radiation? (1) Scattering (2) Diffraction (3) Interference (4) Polarization

14. MkW- lh-oh- jeu dks ukscsy iqjLdkj fn;k x;k tks fofdj.k dh fdl

lao`fÙk ls lEcfU/kr Fkk\

(1) çdh.kZu (2) foorZu (3) O;frdj.k (4) /kzqohdj.k

15. Alveoli is a part of: (1) Heart (2) Lung (3) Kidney (4) Ovary

15. ,yosvksykbZ bldk ,d fgLlk gS%

(1) ân; (2) QsQM+k (3) xqnkZ (4) v.Mk”k;

16. Ammonia is converted into urea in? (1) Liver (2) Stomach (3) Kidney (4) Intestine

16. veksfu;k] ;wfj;k esa cnyrh gS%

(1) ;Ñr esa (2) vkek”k; esa

(3) o`ô esa (4) vk¡= esa

17. Joshna Chinappa belongs to the game: (1) Swimming (2) Badminton (3) Squash (4) Boxing

17. tks”kuk fpuIik fdl [ksy ls lEcfU/kr gS%

(1) rSjkdh (2) cSMfeUVu (3) LDok”k (4) ckWfDlax

18. A shopkeeper sells an article for Rs. 190 at a loss of 5%. If he wants to sell the article at 10% profit then what should be the selling price (in Rs.)? (1) 210 (2) 240 (3) 230 (4) 220

18. ,d nqdkunkj ,d lkeku dks 190 #i, esa 5% dh gkfu ij csprk

gSA ;fn og lkeku dks 10% ds ykHk ij cspuk pkgrk gS rks foØ;

ewY; D;k gksuk pkfg, ¼#i, esa½\

(1) 210 (2) 240 (3) 230 (4) 220

(SET-01) [ 9 9 0 1 2 8 ] D16MYX6FT [ A–2 ]

DIRECTIONS: Answer the question based on the following information.

• There are five friends. • They are standing in a row facing south. • Jayesh is to the immediate right of Alok. • Pramod is the only person between Bhagat and Subodh. • Subodh is the only person between Jayesh and Pramod.

19. Who is in the middle? (1) Bhagat (2) Jayesh (3) Pramod (4) Subodh

funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”u dk mÙkj fuEu lwpukvksa ds vk/kkj ij nsaA

• ik¡p fe= gSa

• os ,d drkj esa nf{k.k fn”kk dh vksj eq[k djds [kM+s gSaA

• t;s”k vyksd ds Bhd nkfgus [kM+k gSA

• çeksn] Hkxr ,oa lqcks/k ds e/; dsoy vdsyk O;fä gSA

• lqcks/k] t;s”k ,oa çeksn ds e/; dsoy vdsyk O;fä gSA

19. dkSu chp esa gS\

(1) Hkxr (2) t;s”k (3) çeksn (4) lqcks/k

20. In a certain code language, ‘Water’ is coded as ‘Paani’, ‘Paani’ is coded as ‘Meetha’, ‘Meetha’ is coded as ‘Namkeen’ and ‘Namkeen’ is coded as ‘Tasty’. Then how will ‘Namkeen Paani’ be coded in that language? (1) Tasty Meetha (2) Meetha Tasty (3) Water Tasty (4) Meetha Water

20. fdlh fuf”pr dksM Hkk’kk esa ^Water* dks ^Paani* dksM fd;k tkrk gS] ^Paani* dks ^Meetha* dksM fd;k tkrk gS] ^Meetha* dks ^Namkeen* dksM fd;k tkrk gS ,oa ^Namkeen* dks ^Tasty* dksM fd;k tkrk gS] rks ^Namkeen Paani* dks mlh dksM Hkk’kk esa D;k dksM fd;k tk,xk\

(1) Tasty Meetha (2) Meetha Tasty (3) Water Tasty (4) Meetha Water

21. Which is the highest peacetime gallantry Award of India? (1) Shaurya Chakra (2) Param Vir Chakra (3) Ashoka Chakra (4) Kirti Chakra

21. Hkkjr dk loksZPp “kkfUrdky ohjrk iqjLdkj dkSu&lk gS\

(1) “kkS;Z pØ (2) ije ohj pØ (3) v”kksd pØ (4) dhfrZ pØ

22. The Union executive consists of: (1) President and Vice President (2) President, Vice President and Council of Ministers

with Prime Minister as the Head (3) President and Prime Minister (4) President and Council of Ministers with prime minister

as a head

22. la?k dk;Zikfydk esa 'kkfey gksrs gSa%

(1) jk"Vªifr ,oa mijk"Vªifr

(2) jk"Vªifr] mijk"Vªifr ,oa ea=h ifj"kn ftlesa ç/kkuea=h mudk

eqf[k;k gksrk gS

(3) jk"Vªifr ,oa ç/kkuea=h

(4) jk"Vªifr ,oa ea=h ifj"kn ftlesa ç/kkuea=h mudk eqf[k;k gksrk gS

23. In which of the following groups of hemispheres is India located? (1) Northern & Eastern Hemisphere (2) Eastern & western Hemisphere (3) Southern & Northern Hemisphere (4) Eastern& Southern Hemisphere

23. xksyk/kZ ds fdl leqnk; esa Hkkjr fLFkr gS%

(1) mÙkjh ,oa iwoÊ xksyk/kZ

(2) iwoÊ ,oa if”peh xksyk/kZ

(3) nf{k.kh ,oa mÙkjh xksyk/kZ

(4) iwoÊ ,oa nf{k.kh xksyk/kZ

24. Haber-Bosch industrial Process is used in converting this substances into fertilizer: (1) Ammonia (2) Atmospheric nitrogen (3) Non reactive gases (4) Carbon di-oxide

24. gscj&cks”k vkS|ksfxd çfØ;k fuEu rRoksa dks QVÊykbt+j esa cnyus ds

fy;s ç;qä gksrh gS%

(1) veksfu;k (2) okrkoj.kh; ukbZVªkstu (3) xSj fØ;k”khy xSlsa (4) dkcZu MkbZ&vkWDlkZbM

25. 543

32

)13(?)28561()2197( =×÷

(1) (13)2 (2) (√13)–2

(3) (√13)7 (4) None of these

25. 543

32

)13(?)28561()2197( =×÷

(1) (13)2 (2) (√13)–2

(3) (√13)7 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

26. Ratan loses 15% by selling a camera for Rs. 680. For how much should he sell the camera to gain 15% on it: (1) Rs. 920 (2) Rs. 800 (3) Rs. 640 (4) None of these

26. jru dks ,d dSejk dks 680 #i, esa cspdj 15% dh gkfu gksrh gSA

15% dk ykHk çkIr djus ds fy;s mls fdrus esa dSejk cspuk pkfg,%

(1) 920 #i, (2) 800 #i, (3) 640 #i, (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

27. A pipe can fill a tank in 20 hrs. Due to a leak in the bottom, it is filled in 40 hrs. If the tank is full, how much time will the leak take to empty it? (1) 25 hrs. (2) 30 hrs. (3) 40 hrs. (4) 35 hrs.

27. ,d ikbZi ,d Vadh dks 20 ?kaVs esa Hkj ldrh gSA bldh ryh esa fjlko ds dkj.k ;g 40 ?kaVs esa Hkjrh gSA ;fn Vadh iwjh Hkjh gqbZ gS] rks fjlko ds dkj.k [kkyh gksus esa fdruk le; ysxk\

(1) 25 ?kaVs (2) 30 ?kaVs (3) 40 ?kaVs (4) 35 ?kaVs

(SET-01) [ 9 9 0 1 2 8 ] D16MYX6FT [ A–3 ]

28. A circular road runs around a circular ground. If the radius of the ground is 7 m and the difference between the circumferences of the outer circle and the inner circle is 44 m then the area of the road is: (1) 426 m2 (2) 462 m2

(3) 246 m2 (4) 642 m2

28. ,d o`Ùkh; lM+d ,d o`Ùkh; eSnku ds pkjksa rjQ cuh gqbZ gSA ;fn

eSnku dh f=T;k 7m gS vkSj ckgjh o`Ùk ,oa vkUrfjd o`Ùk dh

ifjf/kvksa dk vUrj 44m gS rks lM+d dk {ks=Qy gksxk%

(1) 426 m2 (2) 462 m2

(3) 246 m2 (4) 642 m2

29. Two pipes can fill a cistern separately in 20 minutes and 40 minutes respectively and a waste pipe can drain off 35 gallons per minute. If all three pipes are opened, the cistern gets filled in an hour. What is the capacity of the cistern? (1) 500 gallons (2) 600 gallons (3) 750 gallons (4) 800 gallons

29. nks ikbZi ,d Vadh dks i`Fkd :i ls Øe”k% 20 feuV ,oa 40 feuV esa Hkj ldrs gSa ,oa ,d osLV ikbZi 35 xSysu çfr feuV dh nj ls ikuh fudkyrk gSA ;fn lHkh rhuksa ikbZi [kksys tkrs gSa rks Vadh ,d ?kaVs

esa Hkj tkrh gSA Vadh dh {kerk D;k gS\

(1) 500 xSysu (2) 600 xSysu (3) 750 xSysu (4) 800 xSysu

30. Choose the missing last three letters from the alternatives which are common of all the six letters.

(1) NAD (2) OIL (3) AVE (4) INO

30. fodYiksa ls foyqIr vfUre rhu v{kjksa dks pqusa tks fd lHkh N% v{kjksa

ds fy;s loZfu’B gksa%

(1) NAD (2) OIL (3) AVE (4) INO

31. What is union government’s UDAY scheme? (1) Scheme for financial restructuring of debt of power

distribution companies (2) Scheme of voluntary disclosure of undisclosed income

as announced in recent budget (3) Scheme of housing for poors. (4) Scheme of NPA’s waiver of public sector banks

31. la?k ljdkj dh UDAY ;kstuk D;k gS\ (1) fctyh forj.k dEifu;ksa ds _.k dh foÙkh; iquZlajpuk gsrw ,d

;kstuk

(2) gky gh esa ?kks’k.kk fd;s x, ctV esa xSj&?kksf’kr vk;ksa dh LoSfPNd

?kks’k.kk dh ;kstuk

(3) xjhcksa ds fy;s x`g ;kstuk

(4) lkoZtfud {ks= ds cSdksa ds fy;s xSj&fu’iknu djus okyh lEifÙk;k¡

dks ekQ djus dh ;kstuk

32. Which State is bound by Bangaladesh from three sides: (1) Mizoram (2) Meghalaya (3) Tripura (4) West Bengal

32. dkSu&lk jkT; rhu rjQ ls ckaXykns”k ls f?kjk gqvk gS%

(1) fet+̈ je (2) es?kky; (3) f=iqjk (4) if”pe&caxky

33. We can not see during a fog because of: (1) Reflection of light (2) Internal reflection (3) Scattering of light (4) None of these

33. ge /kqa/k ds nkSjku fdl dkj.k ugha ns[k ldrs%

(1) çdk”k dk ijkorZu (2) vkUrfjd ijkorZu

(3) çdk”k dk fc[kjko (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

34. Match List–I (temple/Heritage site) with List–II (State) and select the correct answers using the codes given below: List–I List–II 1. Brihadeshwara Temple A. Orissa 2. Dilwara Temple B. Tamil Nadu 3. Lingraja Temple C. Karnataka 4. Hampi Group of Mountains D. Rajasthan E. Kerala

(1) A1, C2, E3, D4 (2) B1, D2, A3, C4 (3) B1, C2, A3, D4 (4) A1, D2,E3,C4

34. lwph&I ¼efUnj@/kjksgj LFky½ dks lwph&II ¼jkT;½ ls lqesfyr djsa ,oa uhps fn;s x, dksMks dk ç;ksx djrs gq, lgh mÙkj pqusaA

lwph&I lwph&II 1. c`gns”oj efUnj A. mM+hlk

2. fnyokM+k efUnj B. rfeyukMw

3. fyaxjkt efUnj C. dukZVd

4. igkM+ks dk gEih leqnk; D. jktLFkku

E. dsjy

(1) A1, C2, E3, D4 (2) B1, D2, A3, C4 (3) B1, C2, A3, D4 (4) A1, D2,E3,C4

35. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest? (1) Character, file, record, field, database (2) Character, record, field, file, database (3) Character, field, record, file, database (4) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database

35. fuEu esa ls dkSu lkoZ MkVk rRoksa dks fuEure ls fo”kkyre Øe esa

j[krk gS\

(1) djSDVj] Qkby] fjdkMZ] QhYM] MkVkcsl

(2) djSDVj] fjdkMZ] QhYM] Qkby] MkVkcsl

(3) djSDVj] QhYM] fjdkMZ] Qkby] MkVkcsl

(4) fcV] ckbV] djSDVj] fjdkMZ] QhYM] Qkby] MkVkcsl

(SET-01) [ 9 9 0 1 2 8 ] D16MYX6FT [ A–4 ]

GENERAL ENGLISH

DIRECTIONS: In this section each sentence has three parts indicated by (1), (2) and (3). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error. If you find an error in any one of the parts (1), (2) and (3) indicate your response by blackening the letter related to that part in the OMR sheet provided. If sentence has no error, indicate this by blackening ‘(4)’ which stands for no error. Errors may belong to grammar, usage etc.

36. I dare (1)/ not to (2)/ go to my father (3)/ No error (4).

DIRECTIONS: the following item consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words. Select the word opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

37. ENHANCING (1) Reducing (2) Boosting (3) Increasing (4) Contracting

38. The following sentences are given in reported speech. Change these sentence into direct speech: The teacher said that the sun rises in the east. (1) The teacher says, “The sun rises in the east”. (2) The teacher said, “The sun rises in the east”. (3) The teacher says, “The sun rose in the east”. (4) The teacher said, ”The sun rose in the east”.

39. Identify the incorrect plural forms among the followings: (1) Steps- daughter (2) Daughters-in-law (3) Potatoes (4) Calves

DIRECTIONS: Use correct tense and fill in the blank to make the correct sentence.

40. He ......... to Kolkata yesterday. (1) went (2) has gone (3) will be going (4) was gone

41. Find out the correctly spelt word. (1) Acquaintence (2) Acquaintance (3) Acquaintince (4) Acquintence

42. Choose the correct spelt word. (1) Detereorate (2) Deteriorate (3) Detiriorate (4) Detireorate

43. Choose the correct alternative to complete the sentence. This child ........ if the train had not stopped quickly: (1) Will have been killed (2) Would have been killed (3) Had been killed (4) Had had been killed

44. Fill in the blank with correct preposition. Butter is made ......... milk. (1) Of (2) From (3) By (4) Through

45. In this question, a sentence has been given in active voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in passive voice and mark your answer in answer sheet. The king gave him a reward: (1) He was given by the king a reward (2) He was given the reward by a king (3) He was given a reward by the king (4) A reward was given by him to the king

36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.

(SET-01) [ 9 9 0 1 2 8 ] D16MYX6FT [ A–5 ]

TECHNICAL (APTITUDE)46. A wheel of radius R is fitted with an axle of radius r, If

the Weight ‘W’ can be lifted by the axle rope when power ‘P is applied on the wheel rope, then the mechanical efficiency of wheel and axle is denoted by:

(1) rR (2)

WP

(3) R . Pr . W (4) None of these

46. f=T;k R ds ,d ifg;s esa r f=T;k dk ,Dly fQV gqvk gS] tc ifg;s

dh jLlh ij “kfDr ‘P’ dk iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gS rks ,sDly jLlh }kjk ‘W’ Hkkj mBk;k tk ldrk gS] ml fLFkfr esa ifg;s vkSj ,sDly dh

e”khuh n{krk fuEu }kjk O;Dr dh tkrh gS%

(1) rR (2)

WP

(3) R . Pr . W (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

47. For holding the irregular shape job in lathe machine which of the following chuck to be used? (1) Three Jaw or Universal chuck (2) Independent or 4 – Jaw chuck (3) Collet chuck (4) Magnetic chuck

47. [kjkn dh e”khu ij vfu;r vkdkj ds d`R;d dks Fkkes j[kus ds fy,

fuEu esa ls fdl izdkj ds pd dk iz;ksx fd;k tkuk pkfg,%

(1) f=tcM+k vFkok lkoZf=d pd

(2) Lora= vFkok 4-tcM+k pd (3) dksysV pd

(4) pqacdh; pd

48. Which of the following methods are based on capillary action: (1) Resistance welding (2) Soldering (3) Thermit welding (4) Adhesive bonding

48. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lh fof/k dSfiyjh fØ;k ij vk/kkfjr gS\

(1) izfrjks/k osYMu (2) lksYMju (3) FkfeZV osYMu (4) vklatd ca/ku

49. Calculate the machining time for drilling 4 holes of 16 mm dia. Each on a flange from the following data. Flange thickness = 30 mm, cutting speed = 22 m/min., feed =0.2 mm/rev: (1) 1 min (2) 1.47 min (3) 2.47 min (4) None of these

49. 16 feyhehVj O;kl ds 4 lqjk[k cjekus ds fy, e”khuu le; dh x.kuk djsa] ftuesa ls izR;sd fuEu MkVk ds ¶ysat ij gksxkA ¶ySat dh

eksVkbZ = 30 feyhehVj] drZu xfr = 22 m/min.] izHkj.k =0.2 mm/rev% (1) 1 feuV (2) 1.47 feuV (3) 2.47 feuV (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

50. Any object placed behind vertical plane (VP) and below horizontal plane (HP) then object lie in: (1) Fourth quadrant (2) Third quadrant (3) Second quadrant (4) First quadrant

50. dksbZ Hkh oLrq ftls Å/okZ/kj lery ¼ohih½ ds ihNs vkSj {kSfrt lery

¼,pih½ ds uhps j[kk tkrk gS] og fuEu esa gksrh gS%

(1) pkSFkk o`Rr ikn (2) rhljk o`Rr ikn (3) nwljk o`Rr ikn (4) igyk o`Rr ikn

51. Skew surface is a surface which: (1) Inclined to PP (2) Inclined to HP (3) Inclined to VP (4) Inclined to HP, VP and PP

51. frjNh lrg ,slh lrg gksrh gS tks%

(1) PP dh rjQ vkur gksrh gS

(2) HP dh rjQ vkur gksrh gS

(3) VP dh rjQ vkur gksrh gS

(4) HP, VP vkSj PP dh rjQ vkur gksrh gS

52. Which letter indicate hard grade grinding wheel: (1) A to H (2) Q to Z (3) I to P (4) A to K

52. dkSu&lk v{kj dBksj xzsM vi?k’kZ.k ifg;s dk ifjpk;d gS\

(1) A ls H rd (2) Q ls Z rd (3) I ls P rd (4) A ls K rd

53. A grinding wheel is specified as: W-A-60-M-V-22: The symbol M represents. (1) Grit size (2) Grade (3) Structure (4) Bond type

53. ,d vi?k’kZ.k ifg;k vkxs of.kZr ds vuqlkj fof”k’Vhd`r gS% W-A-60-M-V-22: izrhd M fuEu dk ifjpk;d gS% (1) fxzV dk vkdkj (2) xzsM (3) lajpuk (4) ca/ku dksfV

54. If ‘W’ is the power in watts, ‘V’ is the voltage in volts and ‘I’ is the current in amperes, then which of the following relation is correct? (1) V = W.I (2) W = V.I

(3) I = W.V (4) IVW =

54. ;fn okV esa ‘W’ fo|qr gS] oksYVksa esa V oksYVrk gS vkSj ‘I’ ,sEih;j esa /kkjk gS rks fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk laca/k lgh gS\

(1) V = W.I (2) W = V.I

(3) I = W.V (4) IVW =

(SET-01) [ 9 9 0 1 2 8 ] D16MYX6FT [ A–6 ]

55. Match list-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list: List –I List-II (Material properties) (Test to be determine properties) A. Ductility 1. Impact test B. Toughness 2. Fatigue test C. Endurance limit 3. Tension test D. Resistance to 4. Hardness test penetration CODES: (1) A3, B2, C1, D4 (2) A4, B2, C1, D3 (3) A3, B1, C2, D4 (4) A4, B1, C2, D3

55. lwph I dks lwph II ds lkFk lqesfyr djsa vkSj lwph ds uhps fn, x,

dksM dk iz;ksx djrs gq, lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa%

lwph–I lwph–II ¼inkFkZ dk xq.k/keZ½ ¼fo”ks’krk,a fu/kkZfjr djus ds fy,

ijh{k.k½

A. rU;rk 1. la?kV~V ijh{k.k B. pheM+iu 2. Jkafr ijh{k.k C. lgu”khyrk lhek 3. ruu ijh{k.k D. fuos”ku ds fy, izfrjks/k 4. dBksjrk ijh{k.k

dksM% (1) A3, B2, C1, D4 (2) A4, B2, C1, D3 (3) A3, B1, C2, D4 (4) A4, B1, C2, D3

56. According to Indian Standard specifications 70H7g8 means that 1. Actual size is 70 mm 2. Tolerance grade for hole is 7 3. Tolerance grade for shaft is 8 Which of the statements made above are correct? (1) 1 and 2 (2) 1 and 3 (3) 2 and 3 (4) 1, 2 and 3

56. Hkkjrh; ekud fof”kf’V;ksa ds vuqlkj 70H7g8 dk vFkZ gS%

1. okLrfod vkdkj 70 mm gS 2. fNnz ds fy, lfg’.kqrk xzsM 7 gS 3. “kS¶V ds fy, lfg’.kqrk xzsM 8 gS

mDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lgh gS\

(1) 1 rFkk 2 (2) 1 rFkk 3 (3) 2 rFkk 3 (4) 1, 2 rFkk 3

57. The Spot resistance welding operates with: (1) Low current and high voltage (2) High current and low voltage (3) Low current and low voltage (4) High current and high voltage

57. LFky izfrjks/k osYMu fuEu ds lkFk izpkfyr gksrk gS%

(1) U;wu /kkjk vkSj mPp oksYVrk

(2) mPp /kkjk vkSj U;wu oksYVrk

(3) fuEu /kkjk vkSj U;wu oksYVrk

(4) mPp /kkjk vkSj mPp oksYVrk

58. The Electric current value in the arc welding is decided by: (1) Plate thickness (2) Speed of travel (3) Electrode size (4) Welded length

58. vkdZ osYMu esa fo|qr /kkjk eku fuEu }kjk r; fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) IysV dh eksVkbZ

(2) ;k=k dh pky

(3) bysDVªksM dk vkdkj

(4) osfYMr yackbZ

59. A 50 mm diameter rod is to be turned on a lathe at a cutting speed of 20 m/min. The required spindle speed should be approximately (Nearest): (1) 105 rpm (2) 121 rpm (3) 128 rpm (4) None of these

59. 50 mm O;kl dh ,d NM+ dks 20m/min dh drZu pky ij [kjkn ij [kjknu fd;k tkuk gSA visf{kr fLiaMy pky yxHkx fuEu gksuh

pkfg, ¼lfédV½%

(1) 105 rpm (2) 121 rpm (3) 128 rpm (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

60. Determine the cutting speed in machining a work piece of 200 mm diameter rotating at a speed of 100 rpm: (1) 32.5 m/min (2) 62.8 m/min (3) 105.45 m/min (4) None of these

60. 200 mm O;kl ds ,d d`R;d ij 100 rpm dh pky ij ?kw.kZu okys d`R;d ds e”khuu ds fufeRr drZu pky Kkr djsa%

(1) 32.5 m/min (2) 62.8 m/min (3) 105.45 m/min (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

61. Negative rake is provided on: (1) HSS tool (2) Carbide tool (3) Cast iron tool (4) Mild steel tool

61. fuEu ij _.kkRed jsd dk izko/kku fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) HSS vkStkj (2) dkckZbM vkStkj

(3) <yoka yksgk vkStkj (4) e`nq bLikr vkStkj

62. The flat portion of rectangular cross section provided at the end of tapered shank is known as: (1) Neck (2) Shank (3) Tang (4) Flank

62. Vsifjr “kSad ds var esa miyC/k djk, tkus okys vk;rkdkj vuqizLFk

ifjPNsn dk piVk fgLlk dgykrk gS%

(1) xzhok (2) “kSad (3) iqPN (4) ik”oZ

(SET-01) [ 9 9 0 1 2 8 ] D16MYX6FT [ A–7 ]

63. The order of machinability of grey cast iron, low carbon steel magnesium alloy, and monel metal is: (1) Magnesium alloy > Grey cast iron > Low carbon steel

> Monel metal (2) Magnesium alloy > Monel metal > Low carbon steel >

Grey cast iron (3) Grey cast iron > Magnesium alloy > Low carbon steel

> Monel metal (4) Grey cast iron >Low carbon steel > Magnesium alloy >

Monel metal

63. /kwlj <yok¡ ykSg] fuEu dkcZu LVhy eSXuhf'k;e feJ /kkrq ,oa ekWuy

/kkrq dh e'khuuh;rk dk Øe gS%

(1) eSXuhf'k;e ,sykW; ¼feJ /kkrq½ > /kwlj <yok¡ yksgk > fuEu dkcZu LVhy > ekWuy /kkrq

(2) eSXuhf'k;e ,sykW; > ekWuy /kkrq > fuEu dkcZu LVhy > /kwlj <yok¡ yksgk

(3) /kwlj <yok¡ yksgk > eSXuhf'k;e ,sykW; > fuEu dkcZu LVhy > ekWuy /kkrq

(4) /kwlj <yok¡ yksgk > fuEu dkcZu LVhy > eSXuhf'k;e ,sykW; > ekWuy /kkrq

64. Coefficient of friction depends on: (1) Weight of the body (2) Area of contact (3) Surface characteristics (4) Angle of inclination of surface

64. ?k’kZ.k xq.kkad fuEu ij fuHkZj djrk gS%

(1) fudk; dk Hkkj

(2) laidZ {ks=

(3) lrg dh fof”k’Vrk,a

(4) lrg dk vkufr dks.k

65. In drop forging, forging is done by droping: (1) The work piece at high velocity (2) The hammer at high velocity (3) The die with hammer at high velocity (4) A weight on hammer to hammer to produce the

requisite impact

65. ikr QkstZu esa QkstZu buesa ls fdls fxjk dj fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) mPp osx ij dk;Z ds VqdM+s dks

(2) mPp osx ij gFkkSM+s dks

(3) mPp osx ij BIis lfgr gFkkSM+s dks

(4) gFkkSM+s ls gFkkSM+s ij Hkkj okafPNr la?kkr mRié djrk gS

66. Two forces 240N and 200N are acting at an angle 60°, then resultant will be: (1) 350 N (2) 382 N (3) 425 N (4) None of these

66. 240N vkSj 200N & nks cy 60° ds dks.k ij fØ;k”khy gS] rks ifj.kke gksxk%

(1) 350 N (2) 382 N (3) 425 N (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

67. A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration of 6m/s2. The distance covered in 6 sec is: (1) 36 m (2) 216 m (3) 108 m (4) None of these

67. ,d fi.M Jkafr ls 6m/lsdaM2 ds vfuojr Roj.k ds lkFk vkxs c<+rk

gSA 8 lsdaM esa r; dh xbZ nwjh gS%

(1) 36 m (2) 216 m (3) 108 m (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

68. Profile of a gear tooth can be checked by: (1) Sine bar (2) Micro-meter (3) Optical pyrometer (4) Optical projector

68. fx;j ds nkars dh izksQkby dh tkap fuEu }kjk dh tk ldrh gS%

(1) lkbu ckj (2) ekbØksehVj (3) izdkf”kd ikbjksehVj (4) izdkf”kd izkstsDVj

69. V-block is used in workshop to check: (1) Roundness of a job (2) Dimensions of oval job (3) Surface roughness (4) Taper on a job

69. dk;Z”kkyk esa V-Cykd dk iz;ksx fuEu dh tkap djus ds fy, fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) d`R;d dh xksykbZ

(2) vaMkdkj d`R;d dh foek,a

(3) lrgh #{krk

(4) d`R;d ij Vsij

70. In oblique cutting system, chip thickness is: (1) Maximum at middle (2) Minimum at sides (3) Minimum at middle (4) Uniform throughout

70. frjNh drZu iz.kkyh esa] fpi dh eksVkbZ gksrh gS%

(1) chp esa vf/kdre

(2) ik”oZ esa U;wure

(3) chp esa U;wure

(4) loZ= ,dleku

71. The extinguisher used for electric fire is: (1) C T C extinguisher (2) CO2 extinguisher (3) Two gallon soda foam extinguisher (4) Methyl Bromide extinguisher

71. fctyh ls yxh vkx ds fy, iz;qDr vfXu”kked gksrk gS%

(1) C T C vfXu”kked

(2) CO2 vfXu”kked

(3) nks xSyu lksMk >kx vfXu”kked

(4) eSfFky czksekbM vfXu”kked

(SET-01) [ 9 9 0 1 2 8 ] D16MYX6FT [ A–8 ]

72. Two grinding wheels of the same specifications behave differently when they are of different diameters because: (1) As diameter increases, wheel appears to be softer

since average force per grit increases (2) As diameter decreases, wheel appears to be softer

since average force per grit increases (3) As diameter increases, material removal rate increases (4) As diameter decreases, concentration of active grains

decreases

72. ,dleku fof”k’Vrkvksa okys nks “kk.k ifg;s vyx&vyx O;kl gksus ij

vyx&vyx rjg dk O;ogkj djrs gSa D;ksafd%

(1) tSls&tSls O;kl c<+rk gS] ifg;k e`nq çrhr gksrk gS D;ksafd çfrfxzV

vkSlr cy c<+ tkrk gS

(2) tSls&tSls O;kl ?kVrk gS] ifg;k e`nq çrhr gksrk gS D;ksafd çfrfxzV

vkSlr cy c<+ tkrk gS

(3) tSls&tSls O;kl c<+rk gS] lkexzh gVkus dh nj c<+ tkrh gS

(4) tSls&tSls O;kl ?kVrk gS] lfØ; nkuksa dk ladsUæ.k ?kV tkrk gS

73. The punching end of centre punch is ground to an angle of: (1) 100° (2) 90° (3) 70° to 90° (4) 90° to 100°

73. dsUnzh; fNnzd dk fNnz.k Nksj fuEu dks.k ij Hkw&laifdZr fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) 100° (2) 90° (3) 70° ls 90° rd (4) 90° ls 100° rd

74. What is the relation between N-m and J (Jules)? (1) 1N-m = 0.981 J (2) 1N-m = 1 J (3) 1 N-m = 9.81 J (4) 1 N-m = 10 J

74. N-m rFkk J ¼twYl½ ds chp D;k laca/k gksrk gS\

(1) 1N-m = 0.981 J (2) 1N-m = 1 J (3) 1 N-m = 9.81 J (4) 1 N-m = 10 J

75. In which of the following the percentage of carbon is higher? (1) Cast Iron (2) High Carbon Steel (3) Wrought Iron (4) Steel

75. fuEu esa ls fdlesa dkcZu dh izfr”krrk mPprj gksrh gS\

(1) <yoka yksgk (2) mPp dkcZu bLikr (3) fiVoka yksgk (4) bLikr

76. If a tapped hole size is 25 mm. and pitch of thread is 3 mm. then what should be the diameter of drill bit to drill the hole before making thread? (1) 25 mm. (2) 24 mm. (3) 21 mm. (4) None of these

76. ;fn VSi pwM+hnkj fNnz dk vkdkj 25 mm gS vkSj pwM+h ds chp dk

varjky 3 mm gS rks cjes dh vuh dk O;kl D;k gksuk pkfg, ftlls

fd pwM+h Mkyus ls igys fNnz dk os/ku fd;k tk lds%

(1) 25 mm. (2) 24 mm. (3) 21 mm. (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

77. At what temperature both centigrade and Fahrenheit scales are equal? (1) 40° (2) –40° (3) 50° (4) –50°

77. dkSuls rkieku ij lsaVhxzsM vkSj QkbjugkbV ekiØe ,dleku gksrs

gSa\

(1) 40° (2) –40° (3) 50° (4) –50°

78. In an alloy of 1 Kg., there is 40% tin and 60% copper. What quantity of tin should be added to the alloy to make the ratio of tin and copper 60:40? (1) 500 gm. (2) 600 gm. (3) 800 gm. (4) None of these

78. 1 Kg dh feJ/kkrq esa 40% fVu rFkk 60% rkack gSA feJ/kkrq esa fVu dh fdruh ek=k tksM+h tkuh pkfg, ftlls fd feJ/kkrq esa fVu vkSj

rkacs dk vuqikr fuEukuqlkj gks tk,%

(1) 500 xzke (2) 600 xzke (3) 800 xzke (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

79. At which place of drawing sheet the ‘Title Block’ is drawn: (1) Top right corner (2) Top left corner (3) Bottom right corner (4) Bottom left corner

79. Mªkbax “khV esa dkSu&ls LFkku ij ^VkbVy Cykd* vkjsf[kr fd;k tkrk

gS%

(1) f”k[kj ds nk,a dksus ij

(2) f”k[kj ds ck,a dksus ij

(3) lcls uhps nk,a dksus ij

(4) lcls uhps ck,a dksus ij

80. The full form of LAN is: (1) Local Area Network (2) Line Area Network (3) Land Area Network (4) Local Above Network

80. LAN dk foLrkfjr :i gS%

(1) Local Area Network (2) Line Area Network (3) Land Area Network (4) Local Above Network

(SET-01) [ 9 9 0 1 2 8 ] D16MYX6FT [ A–9 ]

81. Zero error in micrometer means: (1) There is negligible gap between the spindle and the

anvil (2) Micrometer is true (3) Zero mark on the thimble is not visible (4) Zero on thimble and datum line on sleeve do not

coincide when measuring faces are in contact

81. ekbØksehVjksa esa “kwU; =qfV dk vk”k; gS%

(1) fLiaMy vkSj ,fUoy ds chp u ds cjkcj varjky gksrk gS%

(2) ekbØksehVj lgh gS

(3) fFkacy ij vafdr “kwU; fpUg fn[kkbZ ugha nsrk gS

(4) tc ekiu Qyd laidZ esa vkrs gSa rks fFkacy vkSj Lyho ij

funsZ”k js[kk ij “kwU; dk fpUg laikr ugha djrs

82. While measuring with vernier bevel protractor, which part is used normally as reference surface? (1) Stock (2) Blade (3) Dial (4) Disc

82. ofuZ;j oscy izksVSDVj ls ekirs le; lanHkZ lrg ds :i esa lkekU;r%

dkSu&ls fgLls dk iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gS\

(1) Lda/k (2) CysM (3) Mk;y (4) fMLd

83. In design of power screws, Acme threads are preferred over the square threads because Acme threads (1) Offer better efficiency than square threads (2) Have less wear and therefore more life (3) Are easier to machine and permit use of a split nut (4) Require lower torque to raise the load

83. ikoj isapksa ds vfHkdYi esa] oxkZdkj pwfM+;ksa dh vis{kk ,Des pwfM+;ksa dks

ojh;rk nh tkrh gS D;ksafd ,Desa pwfM+;k¡%

(1) LDos;j pwfM+;ksa dh vis{kk csgrj n{krk çnku djrh gS

(2) buesa ?k”kZ.k dk de gksrk gS Qy Lo:i vf/kd vk;q

(3) e’khuksa ds fy, vklku rFkk foikV ¼Split½ uVksa ds ç;ksx dh vuqefr nsrs gSa

(4) Hkkj dks mBkus ds fy, de cy vk?kw.kZ dh t:jr gksrh gS

84. The angle between the butting edges of Single-V and Single-U butt joint is: (1) 30° to 40° (2) 40° to 50° (3) 50° to 60° (4) 70° to 90°

84. ,dy&V rFkk ,dy&U cV laf/k ds VDdjh fdukjksa ds chp dk dks.k gksrk gS%

(1) 30° ls 40° rd (2) 40° ls 50° rd (3) 50° ls 60° rd (4) 70° ls 90° rd

85. In which fit, shaft diameter is larger then the hole diameter? (1) Interference (2) Clearance (3) Transition (4) All of these

85. fdl fQV esa] “kS¶V dk O;kl fNnz ds O;kl dh rqyuk esa vf/kd gksrk

gS%

(1) O;frØe (2) eqDrkarj (3) laØe.k (4) ;s lHkh

86. Which of the following does not come under the class of Fusion welding? (1) Gas Welding (2) Forge Welding (3) Arc Welding (4) Thermit Welding

86. fuEu esa ls dkSu ¶;wtu osYMu dh Js.kh esa ugha vkrk\

(1) xSl osYMu (2) QkstZ osYMu (3) vkdZ osYMu (4) FkfeZV osYMu

87. For most of the jobs which type of reamer is preferred for accurate work? (1) Taper straight flute (2) Parallel spiral flute (3) Morse taper (4) Taper parallel

87. vf/kdka”k d`R;dksa ds fy, ifj”kq) dk;Z ds fy, fdl izdkj ds jhej

dks csgrj le>k tkrk gS\

(1) Vsij lh/kh [kM+h xksy f>fj;ka

(2) lekukarj lfiZy [kM+h xksy f>fj;ka

(3) ekslZ Vsij

(4) Vsij lekukarj

88. Which of the following gauges is used to measure the clearance between two mating parts? (1) Feeler gauge (2) Radius gauge (3) Hole gauge (4) Bore gauge

88. nks esyh fgLlksa ds chp vodk”k ekius ds fy, fuEu esa ls dkSu&ls xst

dk iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gS\

(1) Qhyj xst (2) f=T;k xst (3) fNnz xst (4) cksj izekih

89. Where there is lot of vibration, castle nut is tightened on the bolt and locked with the help of: (1) Cotter pin or split pin (2) Plain washer (3) Spring lock washer (4) Internal tooth lock washer

89. tgka dgha vR;f/kd daiu gksrk gS] dkcys ij nqxZ f<cjh dl nh tkrh

gS vkSj fuEu dh lgk;rk ls mls ykd dj fn;k tkrk gS%

(1) dkVj fiu vFkok foikfVr fiu

(2) lk/kkj.k ok”kj

(3) fLizax ykd ok”kj

(4) vkarfjd nkark ykd ok”kj

(SET-01) [ 9 9 0 1 2 8 ] D16MYX6FT [ A–10 ]

90. For a twist drill bit the angle of twist is: (1) 50° (2) 59° (3) 60° (4) 69°

90. ,safBr cjes dh vuh ds fy, ,saBu dk dks.k gksuk pkfg,%

(1) 50° (2) 59° (3) 60° (4) 69°

91. Which is the metal mixed with steel to produce high speed steel? (1) Chromium (2) Vanadium (3) Nickel (4) Tungsten

91. mPp pky bLikr iSnk djus ds fy, bLikr esa dkSu&lk /kkrq feyk;k

tkrk gS\

(1) Øksfe;e (2) oSusfM;e (3) fudy (4) VaXLVu

92. The thread of a bolt which advances into the nut when turned in the anti – clock wise direction is known as _: (1) Left hand thread (2) Right hand thread (3) Single start Thread (4) Multi start thread

92. dkcys dh pwM+h tksfd okekorZ fn”kk esa iyVs tkus ij f<cjh esa ?kql

tkrh gS] ------ dgykrh gS%

(1) okekorhZ pwM+h

(2) nf{k.kkorhZ pwM+h

(3) ,dy vkjEHkh pwM+h

(4) cgq vkjEHkh pwM+h

93. On an engineering drawing front and side elevations and plan, the projected views are most likely to be: (1) Orthographic (2) Isographic (3) Isometric (4) Ortho-metirc

93. bathfu;jh Mªkbax ds vxzHkkx ij rFkk ik”oZ mn~{ksiksa vkSj vk;kstuk ij]

iz{ksfir n`”; ds vf/kdka”kr% fuEu gksus dh laHkkouk gS%

(1) vkFkksZxzkfQd (2) vkblksxzkfQd

(3) f=lek{k (4) ykafcd

94. Which of the following is not a limit gauge? (1) Ring gauge (2) Snap gauge (3) Wire gauge (4) Plug gauge

94. fuEu esa ls dkSu ,d lhek xst ugha gS\

(1) oy; xst (2) LuSi xst (3) rkj xst (4) Iyx xst

95. In a lathe operation, _____ can be calculated by the

formula M. P. R. X Feed

cut of Length :

(1) Machining time (2) Speed (3) Cutting force (4) Power during cutting

95. [kjkn izpkyu esa----------dh x.kuk vkxs of.kZr lw=

M. P. R. X Feedcut of Length

}kjk dh tk ldrh gS%

(1) e”khuu le; (2) pky (3) drZu cy (4) drZu ds nkSjku ikoj

96. In a riveted joint, distance between two adjacent rivets centre is called pitch (P). If ‘d’ is the diameter of rivet in mm. then the minimum pitch for a riveted joint is calculated by: (1) (d + 20) mm. (2) (d + 30) mm. (3) (d + 40) mm. (4) (d + 50) mm.

96. ,d fjosfVr laf/k esa nks lgorhZ fjosV dsUnzksa ds chp dh nwjh pwM+h

varjky (P) dgykrh gSA ;fn fjosV dk O;kl mm esa ‘d’ gks rks fjosfVr laf/k ds fy, U;wure pwM+h varjky dh x.kuk fuEu }kjk dh

tkrh gS%

(1) (d + 20) mm. (2) (d + 30) mm. (3) (d + 40) mm. (4) (d + 50) mm.

97. The sum of internal angle of a polygon is determined by ________: (1) (2n + 4) × 90 (2) (2n – 4) (3) (2n – 4) × 90 (4) None of these

97. ,d cgqHkqt ds vkarfjd dks.k dk ;ksx---------}kjk r; fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) (2n + 4) × 90 (2) (2n – 4) (3) (2n – 4) × 90 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

98. In a right triangle θ is the angle between base and hypotenuse. If Base = 2 cm. and height = 1 cm. then

the value of θ+

θ2tan1

tan2 is:

(1) 3 (2) 4/5 (3) 2 (4) None of these

98. ,d le f=dks.k esa vk/kkj vkSj d.kZ ds chp dk dks.k θ gSA ;fn

vk/kkj 2cm vkSj ÅapkbZ 1 cm gS rks θ+

θ2tan1

tan2 dk eku gS%

(1) 3 (2) 4/5 (3) 2 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

99. Which one of the following types of hammers is used for forming a rivet head by spreading the shank of the rivet? (1) Ball peen hammer (2) Cross peen hammer (3) Straight peen hammer (4) Soft hammer

99. fjosV dk “kSad foLrkfjr djds ,d fjosV “kh’kZ cukus ds fy, gFkkSM+ksa

dh fuEu dksfV;ksa esa ls fdldk iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gS\

(1) Ball peen hammer (2) Cross peen hammer (3) Straight peen hammer (4) Soft hammer

(SET-01) [ 9 9 0 1 2 8 ] D16MYX6FT [ A–11 ]

100. “The current flowing in an electric circuit is directly proportional to the voltage applied to the circuit”. The statement is known as ________law: (1) Ohm’s (2) Faraday’s (3) Fleming’s (4) Mho’s

100. ^^fdlh fo|qr ifjiFk esa izokfgr gksus okyh /kkjk ifjiFk ij vuqiz;qDr

oksYVrk ds lkFk iw.kZr;k vkuqikfrd gS** ;g dFku-------fu;e dgykrk

gS%

(1) vkse fu;e (2) QSjkMs fu;e (3) ¶ysfeax fu;e (4) Egks fu;e

101. Fire is a combination of: (1) Fuel, light and oxygen (2) Fuel, heat and oxygen (3) Fuel, heat and carbon dioxide (4) Fuel, light and nitrogen

101. vkx fuEu dk ;ksx gksrk gS%

(1) bZa/ku] izdk”k vkSj vkDlhtu

(2) bZa/ku] Å’ek vkSj vkDlhtu

(3) bZa/ku] Å’ek vkSj dkcZu Mk;ksDlkbM

(4) bZa/ku] izdk”k vkSj ukbVªkstu

102. In sheet metal working, shear is provided on punches and dies so that: (1) Press load is reduced (2) Good cut edge is obtained (3) Warping of sheet is minimised (4) Cut blanks are straight

102. 'khV esVy dk;Z esa iUpst ¼fNædks½ vkSj Mkbt ¼BIiksa½ ij vi:i.k

miyC/k djk;k tkrk gS ftlls fd%

(1) çsl Hkkj de gks

(2) vPNk dV fdukjk çkIr gks

(3) 'khV ds lacyu dks U;wure fd;k tk lds

(4) dV Cysad lh/ks gks

103. Which one of the following is a type of permanent joint? (1) Cotter joint (2) Flange coupling (3) Knuckle joint (4) Riveted joint

103. fuEu esa ls dkSu ,d LFkk;h laf/k dh dksfV gS\ (1) dkVj laf/k (2) ¶ySat ;qXeu (3) udy laf/k (4) fjosfVr laf/k

104. Find the correct answer: (1) 1 right angle = 100 grades (2) 1 grade = 100 mniutes (3) 1 minute = 100 seconds (4) All of these

104. lgh mRrj Kkr djsa% (1) ,d ledks.k = 100 xzsM (2) 1 xzsM = 100 feuV (3) 1 feuV = 100 lsdaM (4) ;s lHkh

105. The tool, which is used for laying out large circle is: (1) Trammel (2) Divider (3) Jenny caliper (4) Scriber

105. ftl vkStkj dk iz;ksx fo”kky o`Rr ds vfHkfoU;kl ds fy, fd;k tkrk

gS] og gS%

(1) Vªsey (2) foHkktuh (3) tSuh dSyhij (4) js[kd

106. V block is used to hold round bars. It has a Vee groove which is usually: (1) 30° (2) 60° (3) 90° (4) 120°

106. xksy NM+ksa dks Fkkes j[kus ds fy, V Cykd dk iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gSA blesa ,d Vee [kkapk gksrk gS tks vkerkSj ij fuEukuqlkj gksrk gS%

(1) 30° (2) 60° (3) 90° (4) 120°

107. Which one of the following parts of a universal surface gauge helps to draw parallel lines along a datum edge? (1) Fine adjusting screw (2) Guide pins (3) Base (4) Rocker arm

107. lkoZf=d lery xst dk fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk fgLlk funsZ”k fdukjs ds lkFk&lkFk lekukarj js[kk,a [khapus eas lgk;d gksrk gS\

(1) lw{e lekstu isap (2) ekxZn”kZd fiusa (3) vk/kkj (4) jkdj Hkqtk

108. An optical gauge works on the principle of: (1) Reflection of light rays (2) Polarization of light rays (3) Interferences of light rays (4) Dispersion of light rays

108. çdkf'kd xst+ fdl fl)kUr ij dk;Z djrk gS\

(1) çdk'k fdj.kksa ds ijkorZu

(2) çdk'k fdj.kksa ds /kzqo.k

(3) çdk'k fdj.kksa ds O;frdj.k

(4) çdk'k fdj.kksa ds ifj{ksi.k ¼çdh.kZu½

109. A belt can transmit maximum power when the total tension of the drive is: (1) Equal to the centrifugal tension (2) Twice the centrifugal tension (3) Three times the centrifugal tension (4) Four times the centrifugal tension

109. ,d csYV vf/kdre “kfä lapfjr djrk gS tc MªkbZo dk dqy ruu

gksrk gS%

(1) vidsUæh ruu ds cjkcj

(2) vidsUæh ruu dk nqxquk

(3) vidsUæh ruu dk frxquk

(4) vidsUæh ruu dk pkj xquk

(SET-01) [ 9 9 0 1 2 8 ] D16MYX6FT [ A–12 ]

110. Cotter joint is used to transmit: (1) Axial tensile load only (2) Axial compressive load only (3) Combined axial and twisting load only (4) Axial tensile or compressive load

110. dkWVj lfU/k fdls lapfjr djus esa ç;qä gksrk gS%

(1) dsoy v{kh; ruu Hkkj

(2) dsoy v{kh; lEihMu Hkkj

(3) dsoy la;qXe v{kh; ,oa ,saBu Hkkj

(4) v{kh; ruu vFkok lEihMu Hkkj

111. Which of the following surface hardening processes needs no quenching?

(1) Induction hardening (2) Flame hardening (3) Nitriding (4) Case carburising

111. fuEukafdr esa ls fdu i`"B dBksjhdj.k çØeksa dks eTt'khru dh dksbZ vko';drk ugha gksrh gS%

(1) çsj.k dBksjhdj.k (2) Tokyk dBksjhdj.k (3) ukbVªkbMhdj.k (4) i`"B dkcZu O;kiu

112. The blank diameter used in thread rolling will be: (1) Equal to minor diameter of the thread (2) Equal to pitch diameter of the thread (3) A little larger than the minor diameter of the thread (4) A little larger than the pitch diameter of the thread

112. pwM+h csYyu esa ç;qä fjäd ¼CySad½ O;kl gksxk%

(1) pwM+h ds y?kq O;kl ds cjkcj

(2) pwM+h ds fip O;kl ds cjkcj

(3) pwM+h ds y?kq O;kl ls FkksM+k lk cM+k

(4) pwM+h ds fip O;kl ls FkksM+k lk cM+k

113. Which one of the following manufacturing processes requires the provision of ‘gutters’? (1) Closed die forging (2) Centrifugal casting (3) Investment casting (4) Impact extrusion

113. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl fuekZ.k çØe esa ukyh ¼xVj½ dh O;oLFkk dh vko”;drk gksrh gS\

(1) lao`Ùk BIik QkstZu (2) vidsUæh <ykbZ

(3) fuos’k <ykbZ (4) la?kê cfgosZ/ku

114. The formula to find the drilling time to drill a plate of thickness = T is __ where, F = feed, N = rpm, is: (1) T / D × N=time (2) N / D × t=time (3) T / f × N=time (4) T × f × N=time

114. eksVkbZ okyh ,d IysV dks cs/kus esa yxus okyk cs/ku dky dks çkIr djus ds fy;s lw= = T gS & tgk¡ F = Hkj.k] N = rpm] gS%

(1) T / D × N=time (2) N / D × t=time (3) T / f × N=time (4) T × f × N=time

115. Two equal forces of magnitude 10 Newton act at an angle of 90°. Their resultant is equal to: (1) 10 N. (2) 10.√2 N. (3) 10.√3 N. (4) 20 N.

115. 10 U;wVu okys vkdkj ds nks leku cy 90° ds dks.k ij dk;Z djrs gSaA mudk ifj.kkeh fdlds cjkcj gksxk%

(1) 10 N. (2) 10.√2 N. (3) 10.√3 N. (4) 20 N.

116. A baloon lifting in air follows the following principle: (1) Law of gravitation (2) Archimedes principle (3) Principle of buoyancy (4) All the above

116. ok;q esa Åij mBrk gqvk xqCckjk fdldk fu;e vuqlj.k djrk gS%

(1) xq:Rokd"kZ.k dk fu;e

(2) vkdZfefMt dk fu;e

(3) mRIykodrk dk fu;e

(4) mi;qZä lHkh

117. Which of the following processes is commonly used for hardening gear tooth: (1) Cold working (2) Quenching (3) Dispersion hardening (4) Induction hardening

117. fx;j VwFk dks dBksj cukus ds fy, fuEu esa ls fdl çfØ;k dks lkekU;r% ç;ksx esa ykrs gSa%

(1) dksYM ofd±x (2) Dosfpax (3) fMlilZu gkMZfuax (4) baMD”ku gkMZfuax

118. The angle between the tool face and the ground end surface of flank, is known as: (1) Clearance angle (2) Rake angle (3) Cutting angle (4) Lip angle

118. ik'Zo ds vkStkj Qyd rFkk HkwlEidZu fljk i`"B ds chp ds dks.k dks

buesa ls fdl uke ls tkuk tkrk gS%

(1) vodk'k dks.k (2) ufr dks.k

(3) drZu dks.k (4) vks"B dks.k

119. The taper 0.6 inch per foot is known as: (1) Morse taper (2) Brown and sharpe taper (3) Jarno taper (4) Metric taper

119. 0.6 bap izfrQqV dk Vsij dgykrk gS% (1) ekslZ Vsij (2) Hkwjk vkSj rh{.k Vsij

(3) tkuksZ Vsij (4) ehVjh Vsij

120. The metal powder used in Thermit welding of steel is: (1) Al (2) Cu (3) Pb (4) W

120. bLikr ds FkfeZV osYMu esa ç;ksx fd;k tkus okyk /kkrq ikmMj gS%

(1) Al (2) Cu (3) Pb (4) W

(SET-01) [ 9 9 0 1 2 8 ] D16MYX6FT [ A–13 ]

egRoiw.kZ%& fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i<+saA vius ç”uksa ds mÙkj ç”u&iqfLrdk esa u yxk,a vU;Fkk p;u çfØ;k ls vkidh

ik=rk oafpr dj nh tk;sxhA

1. viuk mÙkj fy[kuk çkjEHk djus ls igys viuh ç'u iqfLrdk dh Hkyh&Hkk¡fr tk¡p dj ysa] ns[k ysa fd blesa 120 ç'u gSaA çR;sd ç'u iqfLrdk dh fljht fHké gksxh ¼ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht dk la;kstu½A vkidks OMR mÙkj if=dk ij lgh

ç'u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k fy[kuk gSA iqu% ;g Hkh ij[k ysa fd blesa fçafVax laca/kh vFkok vU; fdLe dh dksbZ

deh ugha gSA ;fn fdlh çdkj dh dksbZ deh gks rks i;Zos{kd dks lwfpr djsa vkSj ç”u&iqfLrdk cnydj ,d u;h iqfLrdk ysaA bl lanHkZ esa

fdlh Hkh çdkj dh dksbZ f'kdk;r ij ckn esa dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA

egRoiw.kZ uksV & 1 % vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk vH;FkÊ ds ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ds la;kstu ls ewY;kafdr dh

tk;sxhA vr% vkidks vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k fy[kuk pkfg,A buesa ls fdlh

,d esa Hkh xyrh gksus ij vkidh vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk fujLr gks ldrh gSA vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk esa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k

,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ugha Hkjus ij vH;FkÊ ds mÙkj if=dk dk ewY;kadu ugha fd;k tk;sxk ftldh ftEesnkjh Lor% vH;FkÊ dh gksxhA

egRoiw.kZ uksV & 2 % vH;FkÊ ;g lqfuf”pr djsa fd mudk v¡xwBs dk fu”kku ck;ksesfVªd e”khu }kjk fy;k x;k gSA ck;ksesfVªd e”khu ij

v¡xwBs dk fu”kku nsus dh ftEesnkjh Lor% vH;FkÊ dh gksxhA vxj vki bls nsus esa vlQy jgrs gSa] rks vkidks p;u çfØ;k ls oafpr

fd;k tk ldrk gSA

2. xyr mÙkj ds fy, 1/3 _.kkRed vadu gksxkA çR;sd ç”u ds vad leku gSaA foLr`r tkudkjh ds fy, mÙkj i=d dk voyksdu djsaA 3. d{k&fujh{kd ls vius ços”k&i= ij gLrk{kj vo”; djok,aA ;fn vkius gLrk{kj ugha djok;k rks vkidh ik=rk jí dj nh tk,xhA

4. ;g ,d oLrqijd fdLe dh ijh{kk gS ftlesa çR;sd ç'u ds uhps Øekad (1) ls (4) rd pkj çLrkfor mÙkj fn;s gSaA vkids fopkj esa tks

Hkh mÙkj lgh@loZJs"B gS mldks vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i= esa fn;s funsZ'k ds vuqlkj fpfUgr dhft,A vius mÙkj ç'u iqfLrdk esa u yxk,A

5. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lHkh dk;ks± ds fy, uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls fy[ksaA vks-,e-vkj mÙkj if=dk ij vksoy dks iw.kZ :i

ls dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj fn, x, mÙkj dks cnyk ugha tk ldrkA 6. mÙkj&i= ij u rks jQ+ dk;Z djsa u gh vkSj fdlh çdkj dk fu'kku vkfn yxk,a ;k bls eksaM+sA 7. dsYdqysVj] LykbM:y] eksckbZy] dsYdqysVj ?kfM+;k¡ ;k bl çdkj dh dksbZ Hkh ;qfä ,oa fdlh Hkh v/;;u@lanHkZ lkexzh vkfn dk ç;ksx

ijh{kk d{k esa oftZr gSA 8. jQ+ dk;Z iqfLrdk esa fdlh Hkh [kkyh LFkku esa fd;k tkuk pkfg,] vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij dksbZ Hkh jQ+ dk;Z u djsaA fdlh vU;

dkx+t ij bls djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA 9. ijh{kk dh lekfIr ds i'pkr~ viuh iwjh ç'u&iqfLrdk rFkk mÙkj&if=dk i;Zos{kd dks okil dj nsaA ç'u iqfLrdk ;k blds fdlh Hkkx

vFkok OMR mÙkj if=dk dks ijh{kk d{k ls ckgj ys tkuk oftZr gS ,slk djuk nUMuh; vijk/k gSA 10. gj ,d ç'u ds fy, dsoy ,d gh mÙkj bafxr djsaA ,d ls vf/kd mÙkj nsus ij ç'u dk dksbZ vad ugha fn;k tk,xkA mÙkj esa dksbZ Hkh

dfVax ;k vksojjkbZfVax ekU; ugha gksxhA iqu% ç'u i= f}Hkk"kh; ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ esa gSA fgUnh laLdj.k esa fdlh Hkh fHkérk gksus ij

ewY;kadu ds fy, vaxzsth laLdj.k dks vfUre ekuk tk;sxkA