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Faculty of Science, The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda, Vadodara
M. Sc. Entrance Test - 2017
BOTANY
Test Booklet
Time: 10:00am to 12:00noon Date: June 15, 2017 Max marks: 100
Instructions
1. This booklet contains one hundred Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). You are required to
answer all questions.
2. Answer sheet (OMR sheet) has been provided separately. Before you start filling up your
particulars, please ensure that the booklet contains requisite number of pages and that these
are not torn or mutilated. Sheets for rough work have been appended to the test booklet.
3. Ensure to write your Seat number, Name and Booklet Code on the Answer sheet.
4. You must darken the appropriate circles on OMR sheet with a BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN.
It is the sole responsibility of the candidate to meticulously follow the instructions given,
failing which, the computer shall not be able to decipher the correct details which may
ultimately result in loss, including rejection of the OMR answer sheet.
5. Each question carry one mark. There will be negative marking of 0.25 mark for each incorrect
answer.
6. For each question, there is single correct answer. You have to choose the best or the correct
answer. Any overwriting or wrongly filled bubbles will carry negative marking.
7. Use of Calculators & Cell phones or any other electronic devices is not permitted.
8. At the end of the exam duration, ensure to handover OMR answer sheet to the Invigilator.
You may carry Test booklet with you only if you leave at the end of exam duration.
9. In case of violation of the instruction or unfair means, your candidature is liable to be
disqualified.
NAME OF CANDIDATE: __________________________
SEAT NUMBER: _______________
_______________________ _______________________
SIGNATURE OF CANDIDATE SIGNATURE OF INVIGILATOR
Booklet Code
A
3
1. In a group of 50 Flowers, 14 had
Androecium but not Gynoecium and
30 had Androecium. How many
flowers will have Androecium and
Gynoecium both?
A. 30 C. 36
B. 16 D. 20
2. How many times starting from 1:00pm
would the minute and hour hands of a
clock will make an angle of 40o with
each other in the next 6 hours?
A. 6 C. 7
B. 11 D. 12
3. E. coli cells are rod shaped, about 2µm
long and 0.8µm in diameter. What will
be the volume? (V= πr2h)
A. 1 x 10-42 L C. 1 x 10-18 L
B. 4 L D. 4 x 10-18 L
4. If GLA x SS = ANGEL is true in the
decimal system, where E=0 and all
others are different odd digits. Then..
A. A = 3, S = 7, L = 1
B. A = 7, S = 3, L = 1
C. A = 3, S = 9, L = 7
D. A = 9, S = 3, L = 7
5. The average weight of A, B and C is
45kg. If the average weight of A & B be
40kg and that of B & C be 43kg, then
the weight of B is…
A. 17 C. 20
B. 26 D. 31
6. Which of the following is Herbarium of
The M S University of Baroda?
A. MS Herbarium C. MSUBH
B. BARO D. BARD
7. Which of the following is a virus,
recently reported in India from
Ahmedabad in 2017?
A. HPV C. Ebola
B. Avian influenza D. Zika
8. It was first time in 2015, Youyou Tu
was awarded a shared Nobel Prize in
Physiology or Medicine for the
discovery of an important plant
derived drug named…
A. Artemisinin C. Quinine
B. Pilocarpine D. Brevifolia
9. The famous Paris Agreement (Accord
de Paris) is an agreement within
UNFCCC dealing with Greenhouse gas
emissions mitigation. It was signed in
the year…
A. 2017 C. 2016
B. 2015 D. 2014
10. Which of the following is the latest and
promising Genome-editing technology?
A. CRISPR-cas9
B. T-DNA mediated mutagenesis
C. Cre-lox P system
D. Site directed Mutagenesis by PCR
11. The type of error in hypothesis testing
about the sampled population is of
two types. Which of the following is
true for Type II error?
A. If H0 is false and it is rejected
B. If H0 is false and it is not rejected
C. If H0 is true and it is rejected
D. If H0 is true and it is not rejected
12. Which of the following is an epiphytic
Algae?
A. Volvox C. Zygnema
B. Oedogonium D. Chlorella
4
13. Which of the following genus is
classified under Rhodophyta?
A. Batrachospermum C. Dictyota
B. Vaucheria D. Chara
14. Marginal scales are present in which of
the following plant?
A. Selaginella C. Funaria
B. Sphagnum D. Riccia
15. Which group of plants observes an
additional gametophytic stage named
Protonema in their life cycle?
A. Thallophyta
B. Anthocerotopsida
C. Hepaticopsida
D. Bryopsida
16. Which of the following plant bears
group of sporangia on a specialised
structure called as peltate disc of
sporangiophore?
A. Lycopodium C. Isoetes
B. Equisetum D. Psilotum
17. In Marsilea sporocarp, the
microsporangia alone can be best
viewed if the section is taken from…
A. VLS passing through centre
B. VLS passing through periphery
C. LS of the sporocarp
D. TS of the sporocarp
18. A plant bears male strobilus wherein
single microsporophyll is subtended
by one bract. Each microsporophyll
contain single stamen with two to six
microsporangia. Name this plant.
A. Ephedra C. Zamia
B. Araucaria D. Cycas
19. Megasporophyll bearing two ovules is
typical of which of the following
family?
A. Cycadaceae
B. Polypodiaceae
C. Zamiaceae
D. Lycopodiaceae
20. Which of the following statement is
NOT true for somatic embryo?
A. They are non-zygotic embryos
B. They are bipolar
C. It is always developed through
indirect embryogenesis
D. It can be developed through Direct
and Indirect embryogenesis
21. Sonalika & Kalyan Sona are high
yielding varieties of…
A. Rice C. Wheat
B. Maize D. Sugarcane
22. From which of the following, Triticale
was developed?
A. Intergeneric hybridization between
Wheat and Rye
B. Interspecific hybridization between
Wheat and Rye
C. Intergeneric hybridization between
Rice and Barley
D. Interspecific hybridization between
Rice and Barley
23. Choose the correct option for
Biofortification?
A. To improve minerals in plants
B. To improve carbohydrates in plants
C. To improve nutrition for plants
D. To improve nutritional value of plant
5
24. In which of the plant group, xylem
vessels are absent?
A. Cycas C. Pinus
B. Trochodendron D. All of above
25. Sugarcane stem can be distinguished
from sunflower stem based on…
A. Scattered vascular bundles
B. Presence of cambium
C. Absence of pith
D. Presence of Protoxylem
26. Leaf trace is a part of vascular system
that connects…
A. Leaf with Petiole
B. Leaf with stem
C. Stem with Branch
D. Leaf with Flower
27. A student wants to study intercalary
meristem. Which of the following is
best model plant for that?
A. Nephrolepis C. Cycas
B. Zea mays D. Salvadora
28. Which of the following living plant cell
do not have nucleus?
A. Parenchyma C. Sieve tube
B. Companion cells D. Tracheid
29. Which of the following cell type is not
a product of ground meristem?
A. Tracheids C. Pith cells
B. Cortex D. Hypodermis
30. What is the key for secondary anomalous
growth structure in Bignonia?
A. Formation of more Xylem at four
points of cross than Phloem
B. Formation of only Xylem at four
points of cross
C. Formation of more Phloem at four
points of cross than Xylem
D. Formation of only Phloem at four
points of cross
31. Which of the following is not a secretory
tissue?
A. Hydathodes
B. Laticiferous ducts
C. Nectaries
D. Stomata
32. Plant name with no accompanying
description is known as…
A. Tutonym C. Homonym
B. Nomen nudum D. Later homonym
33. Casper Bauhin introduced the concept of…
A. Plant classification
B. Binomial nomenclature
C. Preparation of Herbarium
D. None of the above
34. A standard size of Herbarium sheet is…
A. 10.5 x 15.5 inch
B. 16.5 x 21.5 inch
C. 11.5 x 21.5 inch
D. 11.5 x 16.5 inch
35. Which of the following states the
principle of Potometer functioning?
A. Osmotic Pressure
B. Root Pressure
C. Amount of water absorbed equals
the amount transpired
D. Potential difference between the
tip of the tube and that of plant
36. What form the basis of the system of
botanical nomenclature?
A. Principles C. Rules
B. Recommendations D. Criteria
6
37. The system of classification given by
____ is an artificial system.
A. Hutchinson
B. Linnaeus
C. Bentham and Hooker
D. Engler and Prantle
38. ____ is the one element chosen by the
author as the nomenclatural type.
A. Lectotype C. Holotype
B. Isotype D. Paratype
39. A collection of species bearing a close
resemblance to each other in their
morphological character or the floral
or reproductive part is termed as…
A. Genus C. Family
B. Tribe D. Variety
40. Epirrhizanthes a genus of
polygalaceae family is…
A. Endoparasite
B. Chlorophyll less saprophyte
C. Chlorophyll less parasite
D. None of the above
41. The family Portulacaceae can be
separated from Caryophyllaceae by...
A. Calyx with only two sepals
B. Parietal placentation
C. Infinite numbers of stamens
D. Sessile flowers
42. Which of the following family
commonly have cyathium
inflorescence?
A. Solanaceae C. Tiliaceae
B. Euphorbiaceae D. Poaceae
43. The plants which complete their
lifecycle in one year are called as…
A. Perennials C. Annuals
B. Ephemerals D. Biennials
44. Lamiaceae members are
characterised by the presence of…
A. Gynophore
B. Polypetalous flower
C. Gynobasic style
D. Absence of petals
45. The root developing from anywhere
except the radical is known as…
A. Adventitious
B. Tap Root system
C. Fibrous root system
D. Anchor roots
46. Special leaves which bears floral buds
at their base are known as…
A. Cataphylls
B. Hypsophylls
C. Prophylls
D. Sporophylls
47. Which one of these is an example of
Rhizome?
A. Ginger C. Onion
B. Asparagus D. Carrot
48. When the leaves falls off as soon as
they are formed, it is called as…
A. Deciduous
B. Caducous
C. Persistent
D. Semi-persistent
49. When the plant bears only one type of
flower, i.e. either staminate or
pistillate flowers, such plants are
termed as…
A. Polygamous C. Dioecious
B. Monoecious D. Agamous
7
50. When two or more fruits develop
from a single flower they are called…
A. Composite fruits
B. Parthenocarpic fruits
C. Aggregate fruits
D. True fruits
51. Syconus is a multiple fruit that
develops from a special type of
inflorescence known as…
A. Hypanthodium C. Spadix
B. Cyathium D. Spike
52. Seven kingdom classification is also
called as…
A. Three division system
B. Three domains of life
C. Seven domains of life
D. Seven divisions system
53. Which of the following is an
Archebacteria?
A. Bacillus thuringiensis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Methanococcus jannaschii
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
54. Resolution is defined as the ability of
lens to _____ that are close together
within the specimen.
A. Enlarge the size of specimen
B. Separate between two points
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
55. To observe the Phytoplanktons,
Which of the following microscopy
will be helpful?
A. Dark Field
B. Polarise
C. SEM
D. None of the above
56. Which of the following is NOT correct
sentence?
A. There is absolute relation between
RPM and x g in centrifugation
B. In Gel electrophoresis, negatively
charged proteins migrate towards
anode
C. IR spectroscopy is useful to detect
ketone impurities in alcohol
D. Gel filtration chromatography can
separate two enantiomers
57. Achromatic type of objective lenses
are corrected for chromatic
aberration of _____ colours.
A. Red Only
B. Blue Only
C. Red and Blue both
D. Green and Blue both
58. The equation ∆𝑁𝑛𝑁∆𝑡⁄ indicates
which of the following population
attributes?
A. Absolute natality
B. Specific natality
C. Apparent natality
D. Gross natality
59. Species of trees generally show which
of the following survivorship curve?
A. Highly convex C. Convex
B. Concave D. Diagonal
60. Which of the following ecological
pyramid is never inverted?
A. Biomass C. Energy
B. Number D. Size
61. Which of the following ecosystems
have the highest productivity per unit
area?
A. Deserts B. Agriculture
C. Coral reefs D. Grasslands
8
62. Sacchi disc is an instrument used in
ecology for measurement of…
A. Light C. Energy
B. Temperature D. Heat
63. Pioneer species would generally show
which of the following combination of
characters?
A. r-selected and a concave
survivorship curve
B. r-selected and a convex
survivorship curve
C. k-selected and a concave
survivorship curve
D. k-selected and a convex
survivorship curve
64. An urn-shaped age pyramid would
indicate a ______ population.
A. Steady C. Growing
B. Stable D. Declining
65. Colchicine is used to arrest the cells at
Metaphase. What is mode of its
action?
A. By inhibiting Mitosis promoting
Factor
B. By activating Actin filament
polymerization
C. By destabilizing microtubules
D. By destabilizing intermediate filaments
66. What should be the explant for
developing a haploid plant through
tissue culture in Gymnosperms?
A. Pollen C. Nucellus
B. Endosperm D. A & B both
67. Phylogenetically Fungi are more
closely related to…
A. Animals C. Plants
B. Bacteria D. Archea
68. Entirely new type of food, called
QuornTM mycoprotein is produced
from fungus…
A. Fusarium vinanatum
B. Penicillium roqueforti
C. Sachharomyces cerevisiae
D. Lentinula edodes
69. Cephalosporins is produced from
fungus…
A. Penicillium chrysogenum
B. Acremonium chrysogenum
C. Penicillium griseofulvum
D. Fusidium coccineum
70. Powdery mildew is caused by
members of…
A. Ascomycetes
B. Basidiomycetes
C. Oomycetes
D. Zygomycetes
71. Rice blast disease is caused by…
A. Magnaporthe grisea
B. Rhizopus oryzae
C. Fusarium graminearum
D. Aspergillus flavus
72. CAM photosynthesis is…
A. An adaptation to cold environments
in the tropical areas
B. Prevalent in desert plants that close
their stomata during the day
C. Same as C3 photosynthesis
D. Same as C4 photosynthesis
73. Modern rice varieties are semi-dwarf
because of a mutation in a…
A. ABA biosynthetic gene
B. Auxin biosynthetic gene
C. Ethylene biosynthetic gene
D. GA biosynthetic gene
9
74. ABA and K+ regulates the…
A. Guttation
B. Stomatal aperture
C. Photosynthesis
D. Phototropism
75. Chloroplast stroma lamellae contain…
A. Photosystem I
B. Photosystem II
C. Both Photosystem I & ATP synthase
D. Both B & C
76. Vacuoles in plant cells are involved in
A. Osmotic regulation
B. Storage of Food
C. Storage of secondary metabolites
D. All of the above
77. Seed priming is done to improve…
A. Seed germination
B. Seed quality
C. Seed size
D. Improve seed color
78. Choose the correct statement of the
following:
A. Capability of previously developed,
differentiated cells to initiate cell
divisions and form a new meristem is
called differentiation.
B. Auxin and Cytokinin both stimulates
Root formation
C. The rootstock and scion must be
genetically incompatible for successful
graft union
D. The dormancy in seeds may be due
to physiological immaturity of embryo,
deficiency of some endogenous
growth promoters or excess of
endogenous growth inhibitors.
79. When an angiospermic ovule is
inverted, so that the micropyle faces
the placenta, it is termed as…
A. Amphitropous
B. Campylotropous
C. Orthotropous
D. Anatropous
80. In Lac operon, ____ acts as an inducer.
A. Allolactose
B. Galactose
C. Glucose
D. Lactose
81. DNA primers with high G+C content
has higher melting temperature due
to…
A. More hydrogen bonds
B. More hydrophobic interaction
C. Less hydrophobic interaction
D. Secondary structure formation
82. Loss of A & B class of genes in flower
development will produce Flowers
with…
A. Sepals, Sepals, Stamens, Carpels
B. Petals, Petals, Carpels, Carpels
C. Sepals, Sepals, Carpels, Carpels
D. Carpels, Carpels, Carpels, Carpels
83. Pre-mRNA of the Arabidopsis AUX1
gene is 3190 base pairs long, but the
processed mRNA that is translated is
only 2130 base pairs long. This size
difference occurs primarily as a result
of…
A. Capping
B. Cleavage of Polycistronic mRNA
C. Removal of Poly-A tail
D. mRNA Splicing
10
84. The collection of deleterious alleles in
a population is called as…
A. Deleterious mutation
B. Genetic Drift
C. Genetic Load
D. Inbreeding
85. How many types of gametes will be
produced by a plant having the
genotype of AaBbCC?
A. One C. Four
B. Sixteen D. Nine
86. Which of the following criteria was not
used by Vavilov in his work Centers of
Origin?
A. Genetic Data
B. Cytological Data
C. Physiological Data
D. Plant Geographical distribution
87. Which of the following is correct
Botanical name of Pearl Millet?
A. Pennisetum typhoideum Rich.
B. Paspalum scrobiculatum L.
C. Panicum miliaceum L.
D. Hordeum vulgare L.
88. A toxin which causes accumulation of
twice the normal amount of DNA in a
dividing eukaryotic cell, most likely
blocks the cell cycle…
A. During G0 phase
B. After G1 phase
C. After M phase
D. During G2 phase
89. A monoclonal antibody produced
against a small peptide derived from
protein X, is unable to bind X in an
ELISA. This is because…
A. Peptide antibodies do not bind to
immobilised proteins
B. the peptide epitope is exposed in X
C. monoclonal antibodies cannot be
used in ELISA
D. the peptide epitope is buried in the
interior of X
90. At Et = 20nM and substrate
concentration = 40 µM, the reaction
velocity V0 of an enzyme is 9.6 µM s-1.
Assuming Kcat to be 600 s-1, the KM will
be…
A. 0.1 µM C. 10 µM
B. 1 µM D. 100 µM
91. Addition of uncoulper 2, 4-
Dinitrophenol to actively respiring
mitochondria causes…
A. decrease in ATP production and
increased rate of O2 consumption
B. decrease in ATP production and
decreased rate of O2 consumption
C. increase in ATP production and
increased rate of O2 consumption
D. increase in ATP production and
decreased rate of O2 consumption
92. Which one of the following techniques
can be used to find whether a given
sample contains Glucose or
Galactose?
A. Paper chromatography
B. Thin layer chromatography
C. NMR Spectroscopy
D. UV Spectroscopy
93. An increase in enzyme activity in a cell
is mechanistically due to transcription.
This mechanism can be demonstrated
by…
11
A. Measuring total enzyme activity in
the cell free extract
B. ELISA
C. Northern Blot
D. Western Blot
94. The metabolite pair that is not formed
directly from pyruvate is…
A. Oxaloacetate and Acetaldehyde
B. Alanine and Ethanol
C. Acetyl-CoA and Alanine
D. Lactate and Oxaloacetate
95. The two pathways required for the net
synthesis of glucose from triglycerides
in germinating groundnut seeds are…
A. Hexose monophosphate shunt and
Gluconeogenesis
B. Calvin cycle and Glyoxalate cycle
C. Glycolysis and Cori cycle
D. Glyoxalate cycle & Gluconeogenesis
96. According to Darwin, two different
areas within the same continent have
different species because they have
different…
A. Evolutionary mechanisms
B. Ancestors
C. Environments
D. Evolutionary times
97. Which of the following is role of
Glutamine Synthetase (GS) in Plant
Nitrogen metabolism?
A. Combines Ammonium with
Glutamine using ATP
B. Combines Ammonium with
Glutamate using ATP
C. Synthesize Glutamine using
Oxaloacetate
D. Synthesize Oxaloacetate using
Glutamine
98. Of a phenotypic trait under study, All
the children of affected mother was
found to be affected. Which of the
following is correct for this pedigree?
A. X-linked inheritance
B. Autosomal inheritance
C. Cytoplasmic inheritance
D. Female Mutation
99. A cross of AaBb x AaBb gave progeny
in the ratio of 15:1. Which of the
following type of epistasis is likely to
be there?
A. Recessive Epistasis
B. Dominant Epistasis
C. Duplicate Dominant Epistasis
D. Duplicate recessive epistasis
100. Which of the following correctly
describes Centimorgan.
A. Percentage of recombinant for total
of meiotic events.
B. Numbers of recombinant for Total
progeny
C. Percentage of recombinant for total
progeny
D. Numbers of recombinant for total
of meiotic events.