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WATERFALL PROJECT

MANAGEMENT

INITITATING

I N I T I TaT I N g

The Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK) guide is best described as:

a) a methodology for managing projectsB) a guide to project management processes,

tools, and techniquesC) a guide for project, portfolio, and program

managementD) a standard for project, portfolio, and

program management

Initiating

I N I T I TaT I N g

B) A guide to project management processes, tools, and techniques

I N I T I TaT I N g

Initiating • Stakeholder Management • Identify Stakeholders

as a project progresses, which two plans act as inputs to the Identify

Stakeholders process (13.1)?

I N I T I TaT I N g

Communications management plan and stakeholder

management plan

I N I T I TaT I N g


If a project requires procurements, which of the following would act as an input to the Identify Stakeholders process (13.1)?

a) agreementsB) Project charterC) Project documentsD) OPas

I N I T I TaT I N g

A) AgreementsDuring procurement, agreements could become a course of new or

changing stakeholders.

I N I T I TaT I N g

Initiating • Integration Management • Develop Project Charter

The project manager should be identified and assigned

, preferably during charter development.

I N I T I TaT I N g

As early as possible

I N I T I TaT I N g


The helps create the charter by determining if the expected outcomes justify the

required investment.

I N I T I TaT I N g

Business case

I N I T I TaT I N g


development is a collaboration effort led by the project

manager or sponsor to deepen the understanding of the project’s

purpose, objective, and benefit.

I N I T I TaT I N g

Charter

I N I T I TaT I N g


Initially, the and are sources of

stakeholder identification. Later, agreements or issues may prompt

stakeholder updates.

I N I T I TaT I N g

Charter and business case

I N I T I TaT I N g


Identifying, categorizing, and prioritizing will help the project team define appropriate

engagement levels.

I N I T I TaT I N g

Stakeholders

I N I T I TaT I N g


Which output produced by the Develop Project Charter (4.1)

process is used by the Identify Stakeholders (13.1) process to create

the initial stakeholder list?

I N I T I TaT I N g

Project charter

I N I T I TaT I N g


Which process is completed at the very beginning of a project? Why?

I N I T I TaT I N g

Develop Project Charter (4.1)

The Develop Project Charter process is where the idea of a project becomes a reality. Without the project charter,

there is not a project.

I N I T I TaT I N g


Which of the following is not an Organizational Process asset (OPa) for the Develop Project Charter (4.1) process?

a) Organizational policies, processes, and procedures

B) Internal reporting methodsC) Market demandD) Internal tools, templates, and

other resources

I N I T I TaT I N g

C) Market demandMarket demand is an enterprise

environmental factor (EEF)

I N I T I TaT I N g


Which of the following is not an enterprise environmental factor (EEF) for the Develop Project Charter (4.1) process?

a) Organizational policies, processes, and procedures

B) Compliance requirementC) Market demandD) Ecological requirement

I N I T I TaT I N g

A) Organizational policies, processes, and procedures

Organizational policies, processes, and procedures are examples of

organizational process assets (OPas)

I N I T I TaT I N g


Which output produced by the Identify Stakeholders (13.1) process acts as an input to the Develop Project Charter (4.1) process?

a) Change requestsB) Project document updatesC) Stakeholder registerD) None

I N I T I TaT I N g

D) NoneThe project charter does not change after it is created. It’s one of the only

processes that is not iterative.

I N I T I TaT I N g

Initiating

What is the difference between an OPa and an EEF?

I N I T I TaT I N g

An EEF can be any factor that could or does impact a project and

is outside of the organization’s control. An OPA is any policy, procedure, process, template,

method, etc. that is owned by the organization.

I N I T I TaT I N g


Which data gathering technique leveraged commonly in the Develop

Project Charter process involves interviewing groups of individuals

to learn their expectations and opinions about a proposed product, service, or result?

I N I T I TaT I N g

Focus groups

I N I T I TaT I N g


Charter development by the project manager or

sponsor creates a deeper understanding of the project’s

, , and .

I N I T I TaT I N g

Purposes, objectives, and expected benefits

I N I T I TaT I N g


Is the project charter template considered an OPa or EEF? Why?

I N I T I TaT I N g

The project charter template is considered an OPA as it is a template document used

on the project that is owned by the organization.

I N I T I TaT I N g


are environmental regulations considered to be an OPa

or EEF? Why?

I N I T I TaT I N g

Environmental regulations are EEFs. These regulations

potentially impact the project and are outside of the

project team’s control.

I N I T I TaT I N g


Why are the detailed identification and analysis of stakeholders

important to the success of the project?

I N I T I TaT I N g

Detailed stakeholder identification and analysis helps the project team design customized methods to most

appropriately engage each stakeholder. These customized methods and

approaches increase the effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities

and communications.

PLANNING

P L a N N I N g

The project management plan uses the process to

react to the realities of a constantly changing project environment.

Planning • Scope Management • Plan Scope Management

P L a N N I N g

Change Control

P L a N N I N g

True or False:

When the Develop Project Management Plan (4.2) process

initially begins, it is a fully fledged and comprehensive plan.

Planning • Integration Management • Develop Project Management Plan

P L a N N I N g

Falseat this point in the project, the

project management plan is merely a “shell”, and likely only contains or references the project charter,

business documents, and the stakeholder register.

P L a N N I N g


Which input feeds into the Develop Project Management

Plan (4.2) process to be the foundational input to opening the

project management plan?

P L a N N I N g

Project charter

P L a N N I N g

True or False:

The development of other plans often produces additional

information and realizations that make it necessary to

refine the scope and resource management plans.


P L a N N I N g

TrueThe planning process is iterative. as each plan is created, it is very

common to adjust the scope.

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Scope Management • Collect Requirements

documentation details how each requirement

supports the project’s business needs.

P L a N N I N g

Requirements

P L a N N I N g


The is used to track the status of requirements

throughout the project.

P L a N N I N g

Requirements traceability matrix

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Scope Management • Define Scope

What is the difference between project scope and product scope?

P L a N N I N g

Project scope describes the work performed to deliver a product,

service, or result.

Product scope describes the features and functions of the

actual product, service, or result.

P L a N N I N g


What is the main goal of the scope processes in the Planning Process group?

P L a N N I N g

To build the scope baseline

P L a N N I N g

True or False:

The lowest level of work in the WBS is referred to as the work package.

Planning • Scope Management • Create WBS

P L a N N I N g

TrueThe work package is the lowest level of the WBS and represents the smallest amount of work for which cost and duration can be

estimated and managed.

P L a N N I N g


The WBS should follow the rule: the total

of all work at the lowest level (work packages) should “roll up” so that nothing is left out and no

extra work is performed.

P L a N N I N g

100%

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Schedule Management • Plan Schedule Management

The and are two major

scheduling approaches.

P L a N N I N g

Critical path method; agile

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Schedule Management • Define Activities

Why is the Create WBS (5.4) process completed before the

Define activities (6.2) process?

P L a N N I N g

The Create WBS process identifies the work packages needed to satisfy the project deliverables. The Define Activities process is the first step in transforming the work packages into

the detailed schedule of activities that the team will complete.

P L a N N I N g

True or False:

activity attributes evolve and deepen in description as the

project progresses.


P L a N N I N g

True

P L a N N I N g


have zero duration. They define a point

in time, not an activity.

P L a N N I N g

Milestones

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Schedule Management • Sequence Activities

What is rolling wave planning?

P L a N N I N g

Rolling wave planning is an iterative technique to define

activities where the near-term work is planned in detail and later

work is planned at a high level.

P L a N N I N g


Which of the following relationship types is the most common of the precedence diagramming method?

a) Finish to start (FS)B) Finish to finish (FF)C) Start to start (SS)D) Start to finish (SF)

P L a N N I N g

A) Finish to start (FS).The successor cannot start until the

predecessor has finished.

P L a N N I N g


Which of the following relationship types is the least common of the precedence diagramming method?

a) Finish to start (FS)B) Finish to finish (FF)C) Start to start (SS)D) Start to finish (SF)

P L a N N I N g

D) Start to finish (SF)The successor cannot finish until

predecessor has started.

P L a N N I N g


What is the difference between mandatory and discretionary

dependencies?

P L a N N I N g

Mandatory dependencies are required by the nature of the work or are legally

or contractually required.

Discretionary dependencies are not mandatory, but are preferred, usually

based on best practices.

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Schedule Management • Estimate Activity Durations

What two outputs produced by the Estimate activity Durations

(6.4) process are leveraged by the Develop Schedule (6.5) process to

produce the project schedule?

P L a N N I N g

• Duration estimates• Basis of estimates

P L a N N I N g

True or False:

Duration estimates do not contain any lags.

Planning • Schedule Management • Estimate Activity Durations

P L a N N I N g

True

P L a N N I N g


Which of the following is not a core objective of the Planning Process group?

a) Define the project scope and objectivesB) Define the plans that will govern the projectC) Identify, evaluate, and implement changesD) Develop a course of action

P L a N N I N g

C) The identification, evaluation, and implementation of changes within the project is one of the two core objectives of the Monitoring and

Controlling Process Group. The second core objective of the Monitoring and

Controlling Process Group is to track, regulate, and review process completion.

P L a N N I N g

The process builds on the progress started with the charter by defining in greater detail how the project

will be executed, monitored and controlled, and closed.


P L a N N I N g

Develop Project Management Plan

P L a N N I N g


The project management plan consolidates all subsidiary plans and project baselines. Which of the following is not one of the three project baselines?

a) Scope baselineB) Schedule baselineC) Benefits baselineD) Cost baseline

P L a N N I N g

C) Benefits baselineThe benefits baseline is not one of the project’s three core baselines.

P L a N N I N g


What is name of the plan that documents how the project and product scope will be defined,

validated, and controlled?

P L a N N I N g

Scope management plan

P L a N N I N g


The process describes how the product

and project requirements will be analyzed, documented,

and managed.

P L a N N I N g

Requirements Management Plan (also known as the business

analysis plan)

P L a N N I N g


What are the two key outputs of the Collect Requirements process?

P L a N N I N g

Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix

P L a N N I N g


The requirement documentation details how each requirement

the project’s business need.

P L a N N I N g

Supports

P L a N N I N g


The requirements traceability matrix links each requirement to

the individual that satisfy the requirement.

P L a N N I N g

Deliverables

P L a N N I N g


Which data gathering technique used to collect requirements

involves observing and comparing similar, products, practices, processes, or companies?

P L a N N I N g

Benchmarking

P L a N N I N g


Which data representation technique involves classifying

large numbers of ideas into distinct groups for review and analysis?

P L a N N I N g

Affinity diagramming

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Scope Management • Define Scope

The process builds on the Collect Requirements

process, selecting and defining the final requirements list in

detail and crafting a descriptive scope statement.

P L a N N I N g

Define Scope

P L a N N I N g


The process translates the project scope

statement (created in the 5.3 Define Scope process) into an actionable list of work that must be delivered.

P L a N N I N g

Create WBS

P L a N N I N g


What is the key output created by the Create WBS process?

P L a N N I N g

Scope baselineThe scope baseline consists of the scope statement, WBS, and

WBS dictionary.

P L a N N I N g


The establishes the standard by which work completion is compared throughout the project.

P L a N N I N g

Scope baseline

P L a N N I N g


What information does the WBS dictionary provide?

P L a N N I N g

The WBS dictionary provides detailed information on the

delivery, activity, and schedule of every component in the WBS.

P L a N N I N g


How is the 100% rule used?

P L a N N I N g

The 100% rule is used to confirm that the total of all work at the lowest level (work packages)

“rolls up” to the higher level in a way that no work is omitted and

no extra work is performed.

P L a N N I N g


What is the purpose of the Define activities process?

P L a N N I N g

The Define Activities (6.2) process describes the actions that deliver

the deliverables defined by the Create WBS (5.4) process.

P L a N N I N g


The displays all of the specific actions required to produce the work packages

defined in the WBS.

P L a N N I N g

Activity list

P L a N N I N g


Would the software required to build a network diagram be classified

as an EEF or OPa?

P L a N N I N g

EEFThe software design is outside of the control of the company and

therefore an EEF.

P L a N N I N g


What is the most common relationship type in precedence

diagramming?

P L a N N I N g

Finish to startWhen two activities have a

finish-to-start relationship, the successor cannot start until the

predecessor has finished.

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Schedule Management • Develop Schedule

The process analyzes all schedule data, created by processes 6.2 to 6.4, to define a

comprehensive final schedule model and schedule baseline.

P L a N N I N g

Develop Schedule

P L a N N I N g


What key output created by the Develop Schedule process fully presents the planned start and finish dates for all activities in

a clear visual format?

P L a N N I N g

Project schedule

P L a N N I N g


What is free float?

P L a N N I N g

Free float is the measure of the amount of time an activity can be

delayed without delaying the early start of a successor activity.

P L a N N I N g

What is the difference between free float and total float?


P L a N N I N g

Free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without

delaying the early start of a successor activity.

Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without

delaying the project finish date.

P L a N N I N g


Which question explores the opportunity for fast tracking activities?

“Could these activities be done in parallel?” or “How much faster could this

be done if we added resources?”

P L a N N I N g

“Could these activities be done in parallel?”

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Cost Management • Estimate Costs

The Estimate Costs (7.2), Estimate activity Durations (6.4), and

Estimate activity Resources (9.2) processes all have similar output

structures. What are the three key outputs produced by each

of these processes?

P L a N N I N g

Estimates, basis of estimates, and project document updates

P L a N N I N g


The process develops an approximation of the project’s total monetary

resource need that is used in the Determine Budget process to

create the cost baseline.

P L a N N I N g

Estimate Costs

P L a N N I N g


What are the triangular and beta distribution three-point

estimating equations?

P L a N N I N g

Triangular distribution:cE = (cO + cM + cP) / 3

Beta distribution:cE = (cO + 4*cM + cP) / 6

- Most likely (cM)- Best case (cO)

- Pessimistic (cP)

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Cost Management • Determine Budget

The produced by the Estimate Costs (7.2) process are used to create the cost baseline in

the Determine Budget process.

P L a N N I N g

Cost estimates

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Quality Management • Plan Quality Management

Quality planning should be performed in with

other planning processes.

P L a N N I N g

ParallelThe realities of meeting quality standards may impact cost and

schedule plans.

P L a N N I N g

True or False:

Quality metrics defined in the Plan Quality Management process are

used in later processes to determine the overall quality status and

communicate status to stakeholders.

Planning • Quality Management • Plan Quality Management

P L a N N I N g

TrueQuality metrics describe a

product attribute and how the Control Quality process will

verify compliance to it.

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Resource Management • Plan Resource Management

What is the purpose of the resource management processes?

P L a N N I N g

The resource management processes ensure that sufficient

resources are available at the right place and right time to complete the project work.

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Resource Management • Plan Resource Management

Which chart type is commonly used in the Plan Resource Management

process to clarify and define the roles and responsibilities

of each team member?

P L a N N I N g

RACI chartThe responsibility assignment

chart (RaCI) clarifies the roles of each team member (Responsible,

accountable, Consult, Inform).

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Resource Management • Est. Activity Resources

Working directly with the Estimate Costs process, the

process approximates the total physical and human resources

needs of the project.

P L a N N I N g

Estimate Activity Resources

P L a N N I N g


What is the primary output of the Estimate activity Resources process

that defines what is needed to complete every work package and

activity defined on the WBS?

P L a N N I N g

Resource requirements

P L a N N I N g


In which resource estimating technique are similar activities from previous projects used to

estimate resource needs?

P L a N N I N g

Analogous estimating

P L a N N I N g


When lower-level components are “rolled up” to create an estimate of the higher-level activities, what estimating

activity is being leveraged?

P L a N N I N g

Bottom-up estimating

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Communications Mgmt. • Plan Communications Mgmt.

Which two documents must be updated to reflect the planned

communications activities?

P L a N N I N g

Project schedule and stakeholder register

P L a N N I N g


How are the stakeholder register and requirements documentation

leveraged in the creation of the communications management plan?

P L a N N I N g

Stakeholder communication needs were determined

during the development of the stakeholder register and

requirements documentation. The communications management

plan creates strategies to address each need.

P L a N N I N g


By posting project updates at regularly scheduled intervals on a corporate intranet page that is

accessible to all stakeholders, a project team is using which method of communications?

P L a N N I N g

PullPull communications allow content access at the user’s own discretion. This is ideal when communicating

with large audiences or transmitting complicated information.

P L a N N I N g


One-on-one meetings are an example of which type of

communication method?

P L a N N I N g

InteractiveInteractive communication involves

multi-directional communication between two or more parties.

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Risk Management • Plan Risk Management

Which type of risk describes an uncertain event or condition?

P L a N N I N g

Individual risk

P L a N N I N g


Which type of risk describes the total resulting effect of

all risks on a project?

P L a N N I N g

Overall risk

P L a N N I N g


The Plan Risk Management process is focused on developing processes

for identifying and analyzing risks and what other key risk activities?

P L a N N I N g

Developing and implementing risk responses

In conducting the Plan Risk Responses process, the project team is focused on defining how risks will be both identified and managed to

increase the chance of project success. It is key that the team develop processes for developing

and implementing risk responses to mitigate/avoid negative risks and exploit/enhance

positive opportunities.

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Risk Management • Identify Risks

Which document often used in the Identify Risks process

leverages a predetermined list of risk categories that serve as a framework and starting point for identifying, describing, and

planning for project risks?

P L a N N I N g

Prompt list

P L a N N I N g

Which process determines the aggregate effect of a project’s

individual risks using the prioritized list of risks created as an output of the Perform Qualitative Risk

analysis process?

Planning • Risk Management • Perform Qual. Risk Analysis

P L a N N I N g

Quantitative Risk Analysis process

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Risk Management • Perform Qual. Risk Analysis

What type of matrix is used to rank each individual risk by two factors

(probability, impact)?

P L a N N I N g

Probability-impact matrix

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Risk Management • Plan Risk Responses

What is the term for the strategies developed to address risks with highest impact overall

and individual risks?

P L a N N I N g

Risk responses

P L a N N I N g


are fallback plans developed for use if and

when the selected risk response strategies don’t work.

P L a N N I N g

Contingency plans

P L a N N I N g


What are the two data analysis methods used to evaluate and

select the preferred risk response strategies the during Plan Risk

Responses process?

P L a N N I N g

Alternative analysis and cost-benefit analysis

P L a N N I N g


Which strategy for addressing risk threats involves shifting

ownership of the threat to a third party so that it bears the impact

if the threat occurs?

P L a N N I N g

Transfer

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Stakeholder Management • Plan Stakeholder Engagement

Which plan documents the specific actions and strategies

used to deliver the desired level of stakeholder engagement and

what process creates it?

P L a N N I N g

Stakeholder management plan, which is created as an

output of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process

P L a N N I N g

Planning • Stakeholder Management • Plan Stakeholder Engagement

Which document created by the Identify Stakeholder process is a key input to the Plan Stakeholder

Management process, helping to provide detailed stakeholder

information?

P L a N N I N g

Stakeholder register

EXECUTING

E x E C u T I N g

The Manage project knowledge processes focus on using existing knowledge and

to improve project outcomes.

Executing • Integration Mgmt • Manage Project Knowledge

E x E C u T I N g

Creating / recording new project knowledge

E x E C u T I N g


Which type of knowledge is easily codified using words, images,

and numbers?

E x E C u T I N g

Explicit knowledge

E x E C u T I N g


How does tacit knowledge differ from explicit knowledge?

E x E C u T I N g

Tacit knowledge is personal and difficult to express (beliefs,

insights, experience, “know-how”). In comparison, explicit

knowledge is easily codified into words, images, and numbers.

E x E C u T I N g


upon project closure, what must the project team do with the lessons

learned register?

E x E C u T I N g

At project closure, the lessons learned register is finalized

(through interviews with the team and stakeholders) and then

transferred to the lessons learned repository so that future projects

can leverage the knowledge.

E x E C u T I N g

Executing • Quality Management • Manage Quality

What does quality assurance measure?

E x E C u T I N g

Quality assurance measures the effectiveness of

a project’s processes.

E x E C u T I N g

Executing • Quality Management • Manage Quality

, produced as an output of the Manage Quality process, are used to evaluate the

achievement of quality objectives.

E x E C u T I N g

Test and evaluation documents

E x E C u T I N g

Executing • Resource Management • Acquire Resources

What resource staffing technique provides flexibility in building a

project team as it allows the use of team members spread in different

geographic locations?

E x E C u T I N g

Virtual team

E x E C u T I N g

Executing • Resource Management • Develop Team

The process is focused on transforming the team

resources acquired into a high-performing collaborative team.

E x E C u T I N g

Develop Team

E x E C u T I N g


Which tool and technique is often used during the Develop Team process to strategically open

communication and build teamwork?

E x E C u T I N g

Colocation of team members

Colocation is the act of assigning team members to work in the

same location.

E x E C u T I N g


In which stage of the Tuckman ladder does the team begin to work together and to trust each other?

E x E C u T I N g

Norming

E x E C u T I N g


When the team members meet, learn about their roles, and act

independently at what stage of the Tuckman ladder are they?

E x E C u T I N g

Forming

E x E C u T I N g


In what stage does a team start working well together as a unit and navigating issues smoothly

and effectively?

E x E C u T I N g

Performing

E x E C u T I N g

Executing • Resource Management • Manage Team

During what process does the project manager actively lead

the team, helping them evaluate performance, navigate conflicts,

and make adjustments to deliver outputs?

E x E C u T I N g

Manage Team process

E x E C u T I N g

Executing • Communications Mgmt. • Manage Communications

Define the objective of the Manage Communication process.

E x E C u T I N g

To effectively collect, store, and communicate project information to specific stakeholders to satisfy

needs and foster appropriate engagement.

E x E C u T I N g


Which term is used to define the formatted information that is

transmitted to stakeholders by the Manage Communications process?

E x E C u T I N g

Project communications

E x E C u T I N g


What is the difference between project reports and work

performance reports?

E x E C u T I N g

Project reports are ad hoc reports created in 10.2 Manage

Communications. Work performance reports are the

official project status reports produced as an output of 4.5

Monitor and Control Project Work.

E x E C u T I N g

Executing • Risk Management • Implement Risk Responses

Which input document supplies the specific details of when each risk

response plan is to be used and how it is to be implemented?

E x E C u T I N g

Risk register

E x E C u T I N g

Executing • Risk Management • Implement Risk Responses

Name the interpersonal and team skills that are used as a tool and

technique to ensure that risk responses are fully implemented

during the Implement Risk Responses process.

E x E C u T I N g

Influencing skills

E x E C u T I N g

Executing • Procurement Management • Conduct Procurements

What factors does the team use to evaluate and select the seller that best meets the need of the project and within which process are those

factors created?

E x E C u T I N g

Source selection criteria; created in the Plan

Procurements process

E x E C u T I N g


The provides the seller with the information

required to develop and submit seller proposals.

E x E C u T I N g

Procurement documentation

E x E C u T I N g


What tool and technique is often used to extend the seller pool

outside of the preferred sellers?

E x E C u T I N g

AdvertisingCommon forums for advertising

procurements are trade publications and company websites.

E x E C u T I N g

During which process are the activities defined in the Plan

Stakeholder Engagement process implemented to increase

stakeholder support and minimize resistance?

Executing • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Manage Stakeholder Engagement

E x E C u T I N g

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

E x E C u T I N g


active engagement with stakeholders requires

and skills.

E x E C u T I N g

Communication and negotiation skills

E x E C u T I N g

True or False:

a stakeholder’s ability to influence a project is greatest late in a project.


E x E C u T I N g

FalseStakeholders have the greatest

ability to influence a project early in the project. as the project

progresses and work is completed, there is less that can be influenced.

E x E C u T I N g


What three types of outputs are created as a result of the Manage

Stakeholder Engagement process?

E x E C u T I N g

Change requests, project management plan updates, project

document updates

Change requests and updates to project plans and documents are often generated as engagement

approaches are executed, evaluated, and improved.

MONITORING AND CONTROLLING

M O N I T O R I N g a N D C O N T R O L L I N g

Which of the following is not a type of action that would initiate a change request?

a) Corrective actionsB) Preventative actionsC) Defect repairsD) Progress updates

M/C • Integration Management • Monitor & Control Project Work


D) Progress updatesThe three main drivers for change

requests to improve performance are corrective actions, preventative actions,

and defect repairs. Progress updates alone are not drivers for change requests, but they may convey information that drives

the need for a change request.



Work performance information provides insights into the

effectiveness in meeting project .


ObjectivesWork performance information indicates how the project is performing in scope,

schedule, budget, quality, etc. These results are compared against the project plan to determine the degree of variance

from the plan and if preventative/corrective actions are required.



Which three types of documents provide the baseline standards and

additional performance data needed to assess project progress?


Project plans, project documents, and agreementsThe project plans provide the expected plans and baselines by which progress

is evaluated. The documents can provide progress reports, forecasts, logs, and

standards. The agreements define what contractors must deliver.



What is the difference between root cause analysis and alternatives analysis?


Root cause analysis identifies the main reasons for an issue or

variance between planned and actual performance. Alternatives analysis is used to evaluate and select the best corrective or preventative action to

improve project performance.


M/C • Integration Management • Perform Integrated Change Control

Describe the method by which change requests are recorded

and submitted.


Change requests must be recorded in written form

and entered into the change management system in order to be eligible for evaluation.



Data analysis is used by the to evaluate the

impact of each change request.


Change control board (CCB)

all change requests submitted must be evaluated by a CCB. This board evaluates the total impact

of the proposed change and renders a decision.



Name the three options that the change control board has when

evaluating a change request.


Approve, defer, or reject

Every change request must be approved, deferred, or rejected by the change control board (CCB).



What are the three most common decision-making techniques used by

a change control board to render a final decision on a change request?


Voting, autocratic decision making, and multicriteria

decision making



Which portion of the project management plan must be updated if a change request is submitted, approved, and results in additional costs?

a) WBS dictionaryB) Cost baselineC) Schedule baselineD) Communication plan


B) Cost baselineThe approved change request

authorizes the increase of additional costs for the project. The cost baseline must be adjusted to

reflect the increase.



If a potential problem is identified in a project, but the team does

not believe it justifies the creation of a change request at the

present time, where should the information be recorded?


Issue logThe issue log is used to record and track issues of all magnitudes in the project.

While the issue identified may not currently require a change request, it is

prudent to record it on the issue log so that it may be tracked going forward.


M/C • Scope Management • Validate Scope

What is the difference between the Control Quality and Validate

Scope processes?


Control Quality confirms that quality standards are met.

Validate Scope confirms the customer accepts the deliverables.



What must occur for a verified deliverable to become an

accepted deliverable?


In order for a verified deliverable to become an accepted deliverable, the customer must confirm that

the acceptance criteria have been met. A formal signature confirming

acceptance must be obtained from the customer.



Which two techniques are used to evaluate that verified deliverables

meet acceptance criteria?


Inspection and decision making

Inspection includes measuring, examining, and validating each

deliverable. Decision making, often including voting, is the method by

which a conclusion is reached.



The accepted deliverables produced by the Validate Scope process are forwarded to which

process as an input?


Close Project or Phase


M/C • Scope Management • Control Scope

Define the primary purpose of the Control Scope process.


The Control Scope process is focused on monitoring the

status and managing changes to the scope baseline to

prevent scope creep.



Which key output of the Control Scope process summarizes the

actual scope performance against the scope baseline?


Work performance information



and project documents provide the facts

required to identify significant variances between the

scope performance and the performance baseline.


Work performance dataWork performance data provide

the raw materials that are analyzed within the Control Scope

process to produce the work performance information.


M/C • Schedule Management • Control Schedule

Schedule-related work performance information, such as SV and SPI, are fed back (as inputs)

into which process?


Monitor and Control Project Work

The Monitor and Control Project Work process tracks, summarizes,

and reports on the overall project performance.



The visually displays the amount

of work completed and uncompleted over time.


Iteration burndown chart



Define the primary purpose of the Control Schedule process.


The Control Schedule process involves monitoring and

maintaining an accurate schedule baseline throughout the

completion of the project.


Which of the following is not a method to bring a project schedule back into alignment with the plan?

a) Resource compressionB) Resource optimizationC) Leads and lagsD) Schedule compression



A) Resource compressionResource compression is not

an actual technique. The three common methods are resource

optimization, lead and lag analysis, and schedule compression.


M/C • Cost Management • Control Costs

integrates scope, schedule, and cost to

answer the question, “Has the plan been effective in delivering

the desired results?”


Earned value management (EVM)

EVM integrates the cost, schedule, and scope performance and

evaluates it against the baseline.



State the only difference between the CV and CPI equations.


A division symbolThe equations for CV and CPI are

nearly identical in structure. The only difference is that there is a division

symbol in the CPI equation:

CV = EV - aCCPI = EV / aC



Which type of analysis evaluates the amount of management and contingency reserves

still remaining?


Reserve analysisReserve analysis is used during the Control Costs process to track the

amount of reserves remaining.


M/C • Quality Management • Control Quality

The Control Quality process is generally performed before the

Validate Scope process, although the two processes could be performed

in .


Parallel



What is the primary output of the Control Quality process?


Verified deliverableVerified deliverables confirm that

the project deliverables do what they were intended to do.



Which quality tool is used to help identify the possible root cause

driving a defect?


Cause-and-effect diagramalso known as a fishbone or

Ishikawa diagram, the cause-and-effect diagram helps to identify the

root cause of a defect.


True or False:

The Control Resources process is focused on coordinating both

physical and team resources.

M/C • Resource Management • Control Resources


False The Control Resources process is focused only on the coordination

of physical resources, not team resources.



The act of monitoring and analyzing the actual vs. planned resource

allocation, during the Control Resources process, produces

that can highlight gaps in resources availability.





Throughout a project, the team recognizes two examples of extremely effective resource utilization. Where should this

information be recorded?


Lesson learned register



Name two critical “soft skills” that are often used to obtain additional

resources and solve problems during the Control Resources process.


Negotiation and influence



What type of data analysis is used during the Control Resources

process to better understand the economic impacts of a decision?


Cost-benefit analysis


M/C • Comm. Management • Monitor Communications

During which process was the stakeholder engagement matrix,

which defines the current vs. desired engagement levels, created?


Plan Stakeholder Engagement (13.2) process



Which project document should be updated to record engagement

and communications issues uncovered during the Monitor

Communications process?


Issue log



If a change request was submitted and approved to modify the approach, frequency, or method of communicating information, which document or plan would be least likely to be updated?

a) Communications management planB) Stakeholder engagement planC) Requirements traceability matrixD) Lessons learned register


C) Requirements traceability matrix

updates to the methods of communication would most likely be recorded in the communications management plan, stakeholder engagement plan, and

lessons learned register.


M/C • Risk Management • Monitor Risk

How does the Monitor Risk process differ from the Implement Risk

Responses process?


The Monitor Risks process evaluates the effectiveness of risk responses initiated during the Implement Risk

Responses process.



The communicates whether or not the contingency

reserve remaining is sufficient to meet the risk remaining.


Burndown chart


The risk-related generated as the key output of the Monitor

Risks process is fed back (as an input) into the Monitor and Control Project Work process. This process tracks, summarizes,

and reports on overall project performance.






Name the technique commonly used to determine if the risk management processes are followed and effective.


Audits



Which two types of data analysis are used during the Monitor Risk process to compare the scheduled vs. actual technical accomplishments and to evaluate the impact of risk on contingency reserves?

A) Qualitative risk analysis and quantitative risk analysisB) Technical performance analysis and contingency

analysisC) Technical performance analysis and reserve analysis D) Risk categorization and quantitative risk analysis


C) Technical performance analysis and reserve analysis Technical performance analysis compares technical accomplishments during project

execution with what was scheduled. Reserve analysis is used to determine if

the remaining reserve is adequate.



What type of reserve has been established to account for

knowable-unknowns?


Contingency reserves


True or False:

Changes to procurements require adherence to the company’s internal

change request process.

M/C • Procurement Management • Control Procurements


False Changes to procurements must

adhere to the change control terms defined in the contract.



The Controlling Procurements process generates

and that must be documented in project

documents/plans.


Work performance information and change requests



Describe the process required to close a procurement.


To close the procurement, formal written notice that the contract has been completed must be obtained. The process is formally defined in the contract terms and is usually

completed by the authorized procurement administrator.



What two methods are used to monitor that the deliverables

produced meet the requirements defined in the contract?


Inspections and auditsIn the most simple terms, you inspect things and you audit

processes.


M/C • Stakeholder Mgmt. • Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

The team can improve the effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities by completing all of the following, except:

A) Collecting work performance data generated by the Direct and Manage Project Work process

B) Evaluating if the desired engagement levels are obtained (actual vs. desired)

C) Removing stakeholders who resist project progressD) Generating changes to improve the effectiveness of

engagement activities


C) Removing stakeholders who resist project progress

Stakeholders are only removed from the stakeholder register if they are no longer

impacted by the project. It is not acceptable to remove stakeholders who resist the project. The primary goal of the Monitor Stakeholder

Engagement process is to adjust the strategies used in order to improve the engagement of

stakeholders, especially those resistant.



On which data representation document would it be easy to see which stakeholder currently has

a gap between the actual and desired engagement level?


Stakeholder engagement matrix

The stakeholder engagement matrix, created in the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process,

maps the actual vs. desired engagement level for each stakeholder. This document must be updated throughout the project

to reflect changes.



Which two interpersonal and team skills must be leveraged

when cultivating strong stakeholder engagement on

international projects?


Cultural awareness and political awareness

When developing strong stakeholder engagement it is extremely important

to be aware of the cultural and political environments of the different

stakeholders on your project.



The completion of stakeholder analysis has determined that the

planned engagement activities have failed to deliver the desired level of engagement for a key stakeholder.

What should the team do next?


Complete root cause and then alternatives analysis

Root cause analysis helps define the reasons for a lack of engagement and alternatives analysis develops options to eliminate the variances.



provide insights necessary to understand each

stakeholder’s level of engagement.


Work performance dataWork performance data define the

project status of the type of engagement delivered, which stakeholders are

supportive, and the levels of support. Work performance data and project documents are key inputs to the Monitor Stakeholder

Engagement process.

CLOSING

C L O S I N g

Describe why the Close Project or Phase process is an ideal integration

management process.

Closing • Integration Mgmt. • Close Project or Phase

C L O S I N g

The Close Project process is ideally an integration management process in that it consolidates the

planned work and all documents and translates them into a final form that satisfies the customer and records

information for further learning.

C L O S I N g


Which term is used to describe project deliverables after they have

been inspected and approved by the customer as having met the

acceptance criteria?

C L O S I N g

Accepted deliverable

C L O S I N g


The Close Project process is where the final product is actually handed

over to the customer. In which process did the customer approve

the project deliverable?

C L O S I N g

Validate ScopeThe customer formally approves the project deliverables in the Validate

Scope process.

C L O S I N g


During the Close Project process, your team is investigating the project’s current

risk status and attempting to identify if there are any open risks remaining.

Which project document should the team leverage to investigate these questions?

C L O S I N g

Risk report The risk report provides information

on the risk status and is used to check that there aren’t any open

risks at the end of a project.

C L O S I N g


The Close Project process uses which of the following tools and techniques to evaluate that the closure activities are completed to the appropriate levels?

a) Project management information systemB) Expert judgementC) Product analysisD) Inspection

C L O S I N g

B) Expert judgementExpert judgement is applied when performing administrative closure

activities. These experts ensure that the project or phase is performed to

the appropriate standards.

C L O S I N g


Which two logs should be analyzed prior to closing the project?

C L O S I N g

Issue log and change logThe issue log should be evaluated to

determine if any issues remain that may impact the success of final product

transferred. In analyzing the change log, the team must confirm that all outstanding

change requests are fully implemented before closing the project.

C L O S I N g


Which of the following is not an objective of the Close Project or Phase process?

a) Transfer the finished deliverable to the customerB) Obtain customer approval of the project

deliverablesC) Obtain verification from the customer that

they accept the project deliverablesD) update and archive all project documents

and OPas

C L O S I N g

B) Obtain customer approval of the project deliverables

Customer approval is obtained during the Validate Scope process.

AGILE PROJECT MANAGEMENT

Sourced from PM Master Prep Agile Made Easy in 32 minute video

AGILE OVERVIEW

a g I L E O V E R V I E W

What are the characteristics of a definable work project?

Agile Practice Guide Section 2.1


Definable work projects have clear procedures that have

proved successful on similar projects in the past.


True or False:

High-uncertainty projects have low rates of change, complexity, and risk.



FalseHigh-uncertainty projects have high rates of change, uncertainty, and risk.



Why would exploratory work require the participation of subject

matter experts?


Work that is exploratory includes new design, problem solving,

and work that has not been done before. Therefore, it requires a subject matter experts to

collaborate and solve problems to create a solution.


True or False:

as project uncertainty increases so does the risk of rework.



Trueas a project uncertainty increases,

the risk of rework would also change, as well as the possible need to use a

different approach.



What is the benefit of a team working in small increments?


They are better able to unearth the true customer requirments faster

and more accurately.



Why do iterative and incremental approaches reduce waste

and rework?


The team gains interactive discovery of requirements or incremental deliverables for

feedback. This higher frequency of feedback creates less wasted

work or rework scenarios.



What are the five characteristics of iterative and incremental

approaches?


• Very short feedback loops• Frequent adaption of process• Reprioritization• Regularly updated plans• Frequent delivery



When both technology uncertainty and requirements uncertainty are very high, the project moves beyond complex to

.

a) CompleteB) ConfusedC) ChaoticD) Challenging


C) Chaotic



What are the four types of project life cycles?


• Predictive• Iterative• Incremental• Agile



List the characteristics of the requirements, activities, delivery, and

goal for the predictive life cycle.


• Fixed requirements• Activities are performed once

for entire project• Single delivery• The main goal is to manage cost




goal for the iterative life cycle.


• Dynamic requirements• Activities are repeated until

correct• Single delivery• The main goal is correctness

of solution




goal for the incremental life cycle.


• Dynamic requirements• Activities are performed once

for a given increment• Frequent smaller deliveries• The main goal is speed




goal for the agile life cycle.


• Dynamic requirements• Activities are repeated until

correct• Frequent small deliveries• The main goal is customer value

via frequent delivery feedbacks



Describe the planning process in a predictive life cycle.


The plan drives the work. As much planning is done up front

as possible.



Describe the planning process in an iterative life cycle.


Prototypes and proofs are planned but the outputs are intended to be modified from the plans created in

the beginning.



Describe the planning process in an incremental life cycle.


Teams may plan several successive deliveries in

advance or only one at a time. The deliveries inform the

future project work.


Agile Practice Guide Section 3.1.2

When do projects benefit from iterative life cycles?


Iterative life cycle would benefit a project when complexity is high, when the project incurs frequent

changes, or when the scope is subject to different stakeholders’ views of the desired final product.


True or False:

Iterative life cycles take less time because they are optimized

for speed of delivery rather than learning.



FalseIterative life cycles may take

longer because they are optimized for learning rather

than speed of delivery.



The frequent delivery of small deliverables is called the

.


Incremental life cycle



In an incremental life cycle are completeness and delivery

absolute?


NoCompleteness and delivery are subjective. The team may need

feedback on a prototype and may then choose to deliver a

minimum viable product.



In an agile environment, the team expects requirements to

.


Change



What three categories are organizational and product attributes assessed under?

a) Culture, Team, ProductB) Team, Project, EnvironmentC) Culture, Team, ProjectD) Culture, Team, Environment


C) Culture, Team, Project



What is the value of agile suitability filters?


Agile suitability filters help to assess the likely fit or gaps for using agile approaches

in a project.


assessment models for use in an agile suitability filter should be

completed as a .



GroupThe value of these assessment models is that conversation is

encouraged with the stakeholders of the project.



a combination of predictive, iterative, incremental, and/or agile approaches

is a approach.


Hybrid



Describe the nature of a project that is predominately predictive but

incorporates agile components.


There is a portion of the project that comes with uncertainty,

complexity, or opportunitu for the scope creep. However, the rest of the project can be managed using

a predictive approach.


Agile Practice Guide Section

Why would an entirely agile project choose to inject a

predictive element?


A particular element of the project is non-negotiable and cannot be

executed using an agile approach.



Project teams may design a hybrid life cycle based on project

.


Risks



Why would you not want to make a successful team who is used to a

predictive environment switch to an agile environment overnight?


Agile techniques look and feel very different. Allowing a gradual

transition improves learning and alignment among teams

and stakeholders.



agile frameworks are not customized for the team. The team may need to

practices to deliver value on a regular basis.


Tailor



Which of the following is a factor that would require project tailoring?

a) The flow of work is often interrupted by delays.

B) The quality of the product increments is poor.

C) More than one team is needed to build a product.

D) all of the above


D) All of the above



You are a project manager that wants your team to adopt an agile

mindset. What are the five questions that can help to implement this?


1) How can the project team act in an agile manner?

2) What can the team deliver quickly and obtain early feedback to benefit the next delivery cycle?

3) How can the team act in a transparent manner?4) What work can be avoided in order to focus on

high priority items?5) How can servant-leadership approach benefit

the achievement of the team’s goals?



Why would a siloed organization cause roadblocks when forming a

cross-functional agile team?


The team members needed typically report to different managers and have different metrics by which managers

rate their performance. Managers need to focus on FLOW efficiency and TEAM based metrics rather

than resource efficiency.


Application of Agile in PMBOK Guide Knowledge Areas (According to to the Agile Practice Guide)

Explain the application of agile work process in PMBOK guide

Knowledge area Section 9 Project Resource Management.


The team structure is self organizing, collaborative, with generalizing

specialists. In an uncertain environment, agreements for fast supply (or use of

lean methods) play an important role in controlling cost and schedule.




Knowledge area Section 10 Project Communications Management.


In an agile environment, new project details need to be communicated on a more frequent

and faster basis. Team member access to information should be streamlined, there

should be frequent team checkpoints, and colocating should be implemented as much

as possible. Also, holding transparent, regular stakeholder reviews should be

used to support communication between management and stakeholders.




Knowledge area Section 11 Project Risk Management.


An agile environment (an environment of high-variability) will incur more uncertainty and risk. Incremental work should be reviewed often and

cross-functional teams should utilize knowledge sharing to make sure that risk is understood and

managed. Risk should be considered when selecting the work of each iteration/sprint (and will be

managed throughout). Requirements in agile are kept as a living document and may be prioritized

based on emerging understanding of risk exposure.

AGILE MANIFESTO

PM Master Prep Video

a g I L E M a N I F E S T O

In an agile environment, what enhances agility?



Continuous attention to technical excellence and good

design enhances agility.



What is simplicity and is it essential?


Simplicity is maximizing the amound of work not done,

it is essential.



The best designs and products are a result of what type of team?


The best products emerge from self-organizing teams.



according to the 12 principles of the agile Manifesto, why should

teams reflect regularly?


At regular intervals the team reflects on how to become more effective, then tunes and adjusts

their behavior accordingly.



What are the four values of the agile Manifesto?


• Individuals and interactions over processes and tools.

• Working software over comprehensive documentation.

• Customer collaboration over contract negotiation.

• Responding to change over following a plan.



Continuous Integration, Test at all levels, acceptance Test-Driven Development

(aTDD), Test driven development (TDD) and Behavior-Driven Development

(BDD), Spikes (timeboxed research or experiments) ae all practices that can help a team deliver at their maximum

.


speed



after a team produces an increment of value, what is the first part

of their delivery?


A demonstration, the team then gets feedback and use it

in the next retrospect.


True or False:

The PMO and other interested parties should be encouraged to

attend demonstrations.



TrueThe PMO and other people who

have interest in the project should be encouraged to attend demos so that the people involved with deciding on the project portfolio

can see progress.



as organizations progress to greater agility, there will be obvious need for additional to change the way they interact and

perform their responsibilities.


business units



What problem could arise when agile methods are used for the

collaboration of MuLTIPLE teams?


Insufficient guidance for initiatives that require

collaboration in a program or portfolio.



In a multiteam environment why might a team scale work? What can

be done as an alternative to this?


A team might scale work of several agile projects into a single agile

program or design a structure that supports approaches across the

entire portfolio.



an agile-based PMO approach is based on a

mindset.


customer-collaboration


True or False:

If the PMO is delivering value to its clients, it is less likely that clients will request its services

and adopt its practices.



FalseIf the PMO is delivering value to its clients, it is MORE likely that

clients will request its services and adopt its practices.



Why does an agile PMO need to be multidisciplinary?


In order to support project-specific needs, the PMO needs

to be conversant in several competencies beyond project management itself; different

projects require distinct capabilities.


Agile Practice Guide Section 6.7 -

What are the five key characteristics of an organization that affect its

ability to shift to new information and market needs?


• Geography• Functional Structures• Size of project deliverable• Allocation of people to projects• Procurement-heavy

organizations



When addressing an individual challenge area or implementing a new hybrid or agile approach, it is best to undertake this task

.


Incrementally



Is agile an approach, a method, a practice, a technique,

or a framework?


Any or all of these terms could apply depending on the situation.

PM Master Prep Video

SERVANT LEADERSHIP

S E R Va N T L E a D E R S H I P

What is the ideal project environment for agile practices?

Agile Practice Guide Section 4.2, 4.2.1, 4.2.1.1, 4.2.1.2, 4.2.1.3, 4.2.1.4


There are unknowns, there is a requirement for intense

collaboration, and the customer’s satisfaction is the primary goal.



as a servant leader you should focus on clearing the way for your team to

do their work.


Best



Which of the following IS NOT a responsibility of a servant leader?

a) Educate the stakeholdersB) Support the team through mentoringC) Let the team handle technical project

management activitiesD) Celebrate team success


C) Let the team handle technical project management activities.

a servant leader should HELP with these activities. Servant leaders may have more

experience in techniques and should support the team by providing training or

undertaking these activities.


True or False:

In an agile environment the value of a project manager is not in their position, but in their ability to help

others improve.



True


Agile Practice Guide Section

With what business representative does a cross-functional team

collaborate with and coordinate their work?


The product owner


THE AGILE UMBRELLA

T H E a g I L E u M B R E L L a

Explain the kanban board and kanban method.

Agile Practice Guide Section A3.4


The kanban board is a visualization tool that enables improvements to the flow

of work by making bottlenecks and work quantities visible. The kanban method is an agile technique influenced by the

original kanban inventory control system and used for knowledge work.



What are the two key factors that inspire the use of change management practices in an

agile context?


1) Changes associated with accelerated delivery.

2) Changes associated with agile approaches.



What are the five characteristics of an organization that can more easily

support an agile environment?


1) Executive management’s willingness to change.2) Organization’s willingness to shift the way it

views, reviews, and assesses employees.3) Centralization or decentralization of project,

program, and portfolio management functions.4) Focus on short term budgeting and metrics vs

long term goals.5) Talent management maturity and capabilities.



What is the goal of continuous integration?


Perform incorporation of work into the whole frequently.



Why might we test at all levels?


To see if there is a need for integration testing and where.



What happens at acceptance test-driven development (aTDD)?


The whole team gets together and talks about acceptance criteria for a work product.



In terms of TDD and BDD, writing the automated tests

before writing the project helps to “ -proof”

the product.


mistake



Why are spikes (timeboxed research or experiments) useful?


Spikes are useful for learning a critical, technical or

functional element.


AGILE TEAM EXPLAINED

a g I L E T E a M E x P L a I N E D

as a project manager you want to use the agile manifesto to guide your

team. This allows you to tell them that agile emphasizes how people

are utilized. Is this correct?



Noagile optimizes on the flow of value, with rapid delivery to the customer, rather than how people are utilized.



as a project manager you want your agile team in the same team space.

This is called .


colocating



The failure of a team to use collaboration techniques such as pairing, swarming, and mobbing

can result in mini-waterfalls. Why is this a concern?


Mini-waterfalls occur when a team addresses ALL requirements, then ALL

design, then ALL building. This results in assumptions about the product that are no longer valid or relevant, rather than learning as they progress by delivering

smaller complete features.


AGILE ROLES THREE

PERSPECTIVES

a g I L E R O L E S T H R E E P E R S P E C T I V E S

True or False:

If the customer wants great results then the team must be structured

with only specialist roles to maximize resource efficiency.



FalseThe team’s objective is FLOW efficiency and resources must be optimized throughout the

ENTIRE team.


Describe a distributed (dispersed) team?



Cross-functional teams in different locations.



When a team has a temporarily assigned specialist, it is important

that everyone (team and specialist) have the same expectations in terms of level of commitment.

Why is this important?


Clarity of commitment level needs to be clear so the team can deliver. Part-time assignments can create

risks for the project.


True or False:

The team produces value by focusing on the work.



TrueThe team is focused on the work.



What is the product owner focused on?


The product owner is looking at the bigger picture not just on the

work but on the product goals, product backlog, next sprint, and

overall product lifecycle.


IDEAL AGILE WORKSPACE

I D E a L a g I L E W O R K S P a C E

Agile Practice Guide Section 4.3.5, 4.3.6, 4.3.7

What are ways we can leverage virtual tools if a team is

geographically distributed?


• Document sharing• Video conferencing• Virtual work spaces


The more important cultural norm in an organization willing

to try a new method is enabling a work environment.



Safe



Explain the impact of organizational culture on implementing change.


If the team who needs to drive the strategy is not passionate about the change then you stand little

chance of actually implementing it.


Agile Practice Guide Section 4.3.6, 4,3.7

What is the ideal project environment for agile practices?


• There are unknowns.• Requires intense collaboration.• Customer satisfaction is

primary goal.


Agile Practice Guide Section 4.3.6, 4,3.7

Would a predictable environment that requires little collaboration

and where cost management is the primary goal be ideal

for agile methods?


Noan ideal agile environment has

many unknowns, requires intense collaboration, and customer

satisfaction is the primary goal.



What is a fishbowl window?


A long-lived video conference link that is disperesed between teams, in various locations, and

runs all day so people can engage spontaneously with one another.


AGILE PROJECT CHARTER

a g I L E P R O j E C T C H a R T E R

True or False:

The team charter defines the purpose and working agreement

of the project.

Agile Practice Guide Section 5.1, 5.2


FalseThat defines the project charter.


The vision/purpose of the agile project charter answer

what question?



Who benefits and how?


True or False:

The project release criteria tells you what done looks like.



TrueThis is the part of the project charter

that answers what done looks like.



The flow of work in the project charter answers what questions?


How are we going to work together?


True or False:

Not talking over one another and meeting attendance requirements

are some examples of team charter ground rules.



True



Why might a team charter be useful for an agile team?


Agile teams require team norms and an understanding of how

to work together. Although not required, a team charter may be useful for a team to learn

how to work together.



What is the goal of the team charter?


To create an agile environment where team members can work to the best of their ability as a TEAM.


PRODUCT BACKLOG PREP

P R O D u C T B a C K L O g P R E P

What is the backlog?



The backlog is the ordered list of all the work, presented in story form for the team. Also

known as the product backlog, an ordered list of user centric

requirements that a team maintains for a product.



From a high-level, explain how the process of estimitating costs is different in an agile environment

than predictive.


Since the scope is not fully defined and change is frequent a project may not

benefit from detailed cost calculations. Light-weight estimating methods

can be used to generate a quick high-level forecast of project labor costs

(these can later be adjusted).


USER STORIES

u S E R S T O R I E S

What is the first C of the three C’s of user stories?

Agile Practice Guide Section 5.2.6, Glossary

u S E R S T O R I E S

CardIndex card, annotated with user

story, notes, estimates, etc.


SPRINT PLANNING AND BACKLOG

S P R I N T P L a N N I N g a N D B a C K L O g

True or False:

The team members lead the daily stand-up meeting.



TrueThe scrum master may facilitate the kick-off at the beginning of a project.



For a high-level, explain how the schedule is developed

differently in an agile environment than in predictive.


Agile approaches use short cycles to perform work, review the

results, and adapt as necessary.


DEMO/REVIEW

D E M O / R E V I E W


What does the lean method encourage?


Lean encourages teams to deliver fast by managing flow

by managing work in progress.



When does a demonstration happen in iteration-based agile?


At the end of the iteration.


RETROSPECTIVE

R E T R O S P E C T I V E

True or False:

The team, product owner, and scrum master (facilitator) attend

the retrospective.



True


True or False:

Teams only retrospect at the end of, typically two week, iterations.



FalseTeam members may decide to retrospect when they release something, more than a few weeks have passed since the last

retrospective, when the team is stuck and completed work is not flowing, or when the

team reaches any other milestone.


Application of Agile in PMBOK Guide Knowledge Areas

From a high-level, explain how the role of the team in planning and

managing project work differs in an agile environment than predictive.


In an agile environment the control of planning how the work will be completed is owned by the team. The project manager’s focus is in building a collaborative decision-making environment and making

sure the team has what they need to respond to changes.


MEASURING AGILE PROGRESS

M E a S u R I N g a g I L E P R O g R E S S


Explain the difference between a burndown chart and a burnup chart

in an agile environment.


A burndown chart is a graphical representation of the story points (work) remaining vs the time left

in the timebox. A Burnup chart is a graphical representation of the story

points (work) completed toward the release of a product.



Explain the difference between lead time, cycle time, and response time in a flow-based agile environment.


Lead time in a flow-based agile environment is the total time it takes to deliver an item, measured from the

time it is added to the board to the moment it is completed. Cycle time is the time required to process an item.

Response time is the time the item waits until work starts.



Why is measuring story points often an inaccurate measurement of progress?


Measuring story points is not the same as measuring completed stories or

features. If a team tries to measure story points without completing the actual feature or story, they are measuring

capacity, not finished work.

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