1

Theme 1. ANESTHESIOLOGY IN DENTAL MEDICINE - BIBLIOGRAFIE:

Sub redactia EUGENIA POPESCU, autori CARMEN GABRIELA STELEA, OTILIA

BOIȘTEANU: LOCAL REGIONAL ANESTHESIA IN DENTAL MEDICINE, Ed.,, GR.T.

POPA IAȘI 2017,,

1. *Check the wrong answer on the Gasser's ganglion:

A. Three terminal branches are detached: the ophthalmic, the

maxillary and the mandibular branches.

B. Is located on anterior-inferior face of the petrous part of the

temporal bone.

C. Is located in a fibrous fossa , called Mecke's cave.

D. The ophthalmic nerve is detached from the Gasser's ganglion

E. The tract of the sensory root ends in the concavity of the ganglion.

B Pag,

101

2. *Which statement is correct regarding the external surface of the body of the

mandible:

A. Presents four small medial protuberances

B. It had an external oblique ridge

C. Posterior of the mylohyoid line is the digastrics fossa

D. The mental protuberance is oriented with the base up

E. Under the external oblique ridge between the two premolars is the

mental foramen.

B Pag. 87

3. The correct margin of the malar area is:

A. Superior: the inferior orbital ridge.

B. Posterior: a vertical line overlapped with the maxillary-malar

suture

C. Anterior: the maxillary-malar suture

D. Inferior: a horizontal line stretching from the lower edge of the

malar bone to the wing of the nose.

E. Posterior: a vertical line through the tragus.

CE Pag.96

4. *The sensory innervation of the lower lip is ensured by the:

A. Mental nerve

B. Labial branches of infraorbital bouquet

C. Facial nerve through the mandibular branch

D. Buccal nerve

E. Incisor- canine nerve

A Pag.94

5. The muscular plane from the labial region are:

A. Orbicularis oris

B. Depressor septi

C. Masseter

D. Buccinator

E. Risorius

ABC Pag. 93

6. In children, the locoregional anesthesia shows a series of particularities

determined by the following anatomical factors:

A. The infraorbital foramen is located higher relatjve to the distance

between the inferior edge of the eye and the edge of the alveolar

process

B. The maxillary tuberosity is more tilted

C. The retro-incisive foramen is closer to the gingival edge

D. The mandibular angle is wider

BCDE Pag.26

2

E. The mandibular bone has a spongy structure throughout its entire

surface.

7. The American Heart Association listed the following cardiovascular lesions

requiring caution during dental treatment, with one exception:

A. Coronary artery disease

B. Hypertension

C. Chronic valve lesions

D. Cardiac rheumatism

E. Myocardical infarction

ABCE Pag.33

8. *The normal value of platelet counts is :

A. 150000/dL – 400000/dL;

B. 80000/dL – 100000/dL;

C. 30000/dL – 50000/dL;

D. 100000/dL – 140000/dL;

E. 50000/dL – 80000/dL.

A Pag. 41

THEME 2.

Dental Extraction (pag. 39-41, 42-54, 54-58, 58-61, 61-64, 64-66, 71,72)

9. *Identify the false statement regarding the dry socket:

A. the dry socket is a rare complication of the tooth extraction

B. the dry socket is rare

C. the post extraction socket has an altered aspect

D. the dry socket has a more spectacular symptomatology but

fortunately responds quickly to treatment

E. the alveolar walls are infiltrated and soft

D 72

10. *The tooth extraction do not have the following general contraindications,

with one exception:

A. hepatic dysfunctions, AIDS infection, immunosuppressive drugs,

chemotherapy radiotherapy, cardiovascular disease,

hemorragiparous syndrome diabetes mellitus, acute leukemia,

anticoagulant therapies

B. hemorragiparous syndrome, diabetes mellitus, anticoagulant

therapies, hepatic dysfunctions, chemotherapy radiotherapy, severe

rhinogenic sinusitis, cardiovascular disease, kidney disease, AIDS

infection, immunosuppressive drugs

C. cardiovascular diseases, hemorragiparous syndrome, diabetes

mellitus, acute leukemia, anticoagulant therapies, drug or local

anesthetic allergy, acute dental infections, seizure disorders,

cerebrovascular accidents, hepatic dysfunctions, nephropathy

D. stomatitis, herpes, acute apical periodontitis, acute sinusitis, acute

pericoronitis, abscesses, suppuration

E. bisphosphonate treatment

A 41

11. The following are not indications for tooth extraction:

A. teeth with pulpitis

B. teeth which may cause, produce or maintain local infectious

AE 39

3

complications, regional or general

C. irretrievable remaining roots

D. pulp gangrene and its associated complications

E. teeth with enamel defects

12. The following are not indications for tooth extraction:

A. chronic pulpitis

B. simple decays

C. irretrievable remaining roots

D. pre-inflammatory hyperemia

E. crown fractures

ABDE 39

13. The following are indications for tooth extraction of temporary teeth:

A. teeth affected by physiological rhizalysis within or after the period

of their normal replacement

B. teeth undergoing complications due to pulp gangrene

C. teeth related to traumatic injuries

D. the orthodontist’s advice

E. teeth with coronary injuries

ABCD 40

14. The tooth extraction does not have the following local contraindications:

A. chronic dental infections

B. chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases

C. stomatitis

D. bisphosphonate treatment

E. pregnancy

ABDE 41

15. The instruments required for the extraction of maxillary teeth are the

following:

A. curved forceps

B. mirror

C. straight elevator

D. curve elevator

E. forceps

BCE 44

16. The maxillary central incisors extraction technique involves the following

procedures :

A. the forceps application

B. the index finger of the left hand is placed on the alveolar buccal

process

C. the syndesmotomy

D. the thumb is positioned on the buccal alveolar process

E. the luxation of the tooth using the elevator

ABCE 44

THEME 3.

Chapter 4. Disorders of Permanent Tooth Eruption (pag. 107-108, 108-114, 114-124)

17. *The associated disorders of the tooth eruption are:

A. the dental ectopy

B. the dental crowding

C. the dental inclusion

D 107-

108

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D. the neurological and trophic disorders

E. the dental transpozition

18. *The dental impaction represents:

A. intra-bone or submucus retention of a completely mature tooth after

its eruption period, with no tendency to erupt, usually due to a

certain obstacle.

B. the submucus retention of a partially mature tooth before its

eruption period, with a tendency to erupt

C. the absence of the tooth that has ceased to erupt under the fibro-

mucosa

D. the mucus retention of a completely mature tooth after its eruption

period with no tendency to erupt, usually due to a certain obstacle.

E. the presence of a tooth that has ceased to erupt above the fibro-

mucosa

A 108

19. Which are the chronological disorders of the permanent tooth eruption:

A. the dental crowding

B. the precocious eruption

C. the delayed eruption

D. the neurological disorders

E. the septic complications

BC 107

20. The topographic disorders of the permanent tooth eruption are:

A. the heterotopias

B. the dental transposition

C. the dental inclusion

D. the dental exclusion

E. the precocious eruption

AB 107

21. The considered criteria to determine the surgical steps and the difficulty degree

of the mandibular third molar odontectomy are connected to:

A. the relation with the sinus

B. the relation with the tuberosity

C. the tooth morphology

D. the dimension of the pericoronary (follicular) sack

E. the nature of the overlying tissue

CDE 114

22. The treatment options that can be considered for impacted teeth are:

A. the amputation

B. the dental extraction

C. the guided eruption

D. the modification of dentition only with orthodontic treatment for

impacted molars

E. the modification of dentition only with the orthodontic treatment

BCE 124

23. The radiological examination used in dental impaction can evaluate:

A. the impacted tooth position

B. the relation with the antagonist teeth

C. the possible alergic complication

D. neurological disorders

E. the anatomical proximity (inferior alveolar canal maxillary sinus).

AE 108

24. According to Bucur’s classification the disorders that may happen during

tooth eruption fall into the following categories:

A. associated disorders

B. static disorders

ADE 107

5

C. demographic disorders

D. chronological disorders

E. dynamic disorders

Theme 4.

Chapter 3. Endodontic Surgery (pag.77-99, 99-101, 101-104)

25. *Endodontic surgery techniques aim to:

A. remove the excess gingival margin

B. remove the pathological periodontal tissue

C. remove the pathological periapical tissues

D. remove the tooth

E. none of the above

C 77

26. *Transmaxillary drainage (maxillary osteotomy) is indicated:

A. when the tooth is over filled and close to the sinus

B. when the obturation of the tooth is incomplete

C. when the obturation of the tooth cannot be removed.

D. in cases of apical periodontitis stages 3 and 4

E. all of the above

C 99

27. The main techniques in endodontic surgery refer to:

A. apical resection

B. gingival resection

C. periapical curettage

D. transmaxilary drainage

E. all of the above

ACD 77

28. Some techniques in endodontic surgery refer to:

A. radicular amputation/ hemisection

B. odontectomy

C. dental extraction

D. dental extraction

E. periapical curettage

AE 77

29. Apical resection represents:

A. disposal of the dental apex

B. tightening of the root canal (root canal filling)

C. radicular resection

D. exposal of all root

E. exposal of the tooth

AB 77

30. The purpose of the apical resection is:

A. removal of periapical pathological tissue

B. composite crown filling

C. removal of mouth inflammation and infection

D. cessation of bacterial dispersal from the root canal

E. root canal filling as appropriately as possible

ADE 77

31. The apical resection is indicated when:

A. the crown filling has failed

B. the periodontal treatment has failed

CDE 77

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C. the endodontic treatment is not possible

D. the apex cannot be approached but surgical

E. the preservation of the tooth is desirable

32. Which of the following are indications for the apical resection:

A. results from iatrogenic cases

B. results from lack of instruments

C. results from good endodontic instrumentation

D. results from lack of radiography

E. is made by the patient

AB 77

THEME 5.

Chapter 5. Surgical Preprosthetic Procedures (pag. 127-136, 136-139)

33. *The preprosthetic surgery consists of the:

A. surgical interventions treating the periapical osteitis

B. enucleating the folicule of the tooth

C. preparing for prosthetic surgery

D. first part of the prosthetic surgery

E. surgical interventions aimed at creating the necessary conditions for

the stability of the total denture

E 127

34. *The bone preprosthetic surgery is indicated in cases such as:

A. apparent hypertrophy of the gingival mucosa

B. irregular alveolar crest

C. gingival fibromatosis at the level of maxillary tuberosity

D. short or voluminous labial frenulum;

E. inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia or irritant fibroma due to the

micro traumas

B 127

35. The soft tissue preprosthetic surgery is indicated in the next circumstances:

A. hypertrophy of the gingival mucosa

B. short or voluminous labial frenulum

C. parodontitis marginalis

D. prominent palatal tori

E. gingival fibromatosis at the level of maxillary tuberosity

ABE 127

36. The upper or lower lip frenum:

A. is covered with mucosa

B. is inserted at the level of the lip and alveolar periosteum

C. is formed by the fibrous tissue

D. pathologically can go down to the level of torus

E. with ulceration represent an indication for preprosthetic surgery

ABC 127

37. Conjunctival epithelial hyperplasia:

A. produced by the chronic irritation from an incorrect adapted

B. it is only upper jaw located

C. it is named also denture hyperplasia

D. need one of the preprosthetic surgery methods

E. is a pseudo-tumoral or inflammatory formation

ACDE 130

38. Gingival hyperplasia: CDE 132

7

A. represents the increase of the conjuctival tissue of the alveolar crest

mucosa

B. mostly situated in the maxillary molar area

C. it is excised at the same time with the extraction of the highly

mobile teeth and is followed by its suture

D. consists of a slow progressive inflammatory volume increase of the

gum

E. has an infectious etiology – mechanical hormonal or

medicamentary either located in a certain tooth or in a whole group

of teeth or generalized

39. The fibromatosis of the maxillary tuberosity (tuber maxillae):

A. prevents the wearing of the denture

B. reduces the inter-maxillary distance sometimes determining a direct

contact between the antagonist teeth

C. need an orange slice incision who is practiced in such a way that it

includes the buccal and lingual slope of the formation

D. after the suture is not indicated the application of the rebased

denture

E. represents a volume increase of the conjuctival tissue of the

alveolar crest mucosa in the maxillary molar area

ABCE 133

40. The balancing crest (pendulous tissues):

A. need postoperative the wearing of the rebased denture

B. it is necessary to be postoperative secondary healed.

C. need to be operated an incision around the formation implantation

base practised parallel to the alveolar crest followed by an excision

at the periosteum level and suture

D. is a thin hyperplasia area at the level of an edentate crest

E. result from the wearing of an incorrect adapted denture

ACDE 133

THEME 6.

Oro-maxillo-facial infections

41. *Predisposing factors of infections in the omf territory are:

A. Traumatic injuries

B. Foreign bodies

C. Pyoderma

D. Tooth extractions

E. All of the above

E

42. *Which of the following is the correct sequence of the transosseous path:

A. Periapical, endoosseous, periosseous, subperiostal

B. Pericapical, periosseous, subperiostal, endoosseous

C. Submucosal, soft tissue, subperiostal, periapical

D. Periapical, endoosseous, subperiostal, submucosal/ periosseous

spaces, soft tissues

E. Soft tissues, periosseous spaces/ submucosal, subperiostal,

periapical, endoosseous

D

43. Which of the following signs is encountered in the case of mandibular BD

8

osteomyelitis?

A. Chvostek sign

B. Vincent d’alger sign

C. Horner sign

D. Hypoesthesia in the territory of the mandibular nerve

E. Courvoisier sign

44. The differential diagnosis of the submental abscess does not includes the

following

A. Submandibular space infections

B. Sublingual space infections

C. Vestibular abscess

D. Suppurated submental adenitis

E. Migratory abscess

ACE

45. Etiology of parotidian lodge infections

A. Infratemporal suppurations

B. Maxillary sinusitis

C. Complication of the mandibular fractures

D. Suppurated parotiditis

E. Neighbor lodge (genian, latero-pharyngian)

DE

46. Differential diagnosis of submandibulary lodge isn’t done with

A. Septic phlegmon of the floor of the mouth

B. Whartonitis

C. Periwhartonitis

D. Adenitis

E. Acute cellulitis

BCE

47. Which of the following is true about supramylogyoid lodge infections

A. The skin is shiny in the submandibular region

B. Differential diagnosis with whartonitis and ranula

C. Differential diagnosis cancer of the floor of the mouth

D. Clinical sign swelling of the posterior floor of the mouth

E. Clinical sign-the deformation of the sub-chin area

BCE

48. Which of the following is true about submandibulary lodge incfections

A. In the front they communicate with carotid lodge

B. Posterior and up the parotidiene lodge

C. Content:n. Lingual, the lingual v. And a.

D. Content: 3 lymph-nodes groups

E. Differential diagnosis with adenitis

DE

THEME 7.

Maxillary sinus diseases with dental origins

49. *The diagnostic of maxillary sinusitis of dental origin is based on the

following:

A. The triad: pain, cacosmia, purulent rhinorrhea

B. The triad: pain, fever, cough

C. Clinical signs are not correlated with radiologic and dental

investigations

A

9

D. Clinical signs are sufficient for the diagnosis of maxillary sinusitis

of dental origin

E. The triad: pain, nasal obstruction, serous rhinorrhea

50. *Untreated acute maxillary sinusitis can be followed by the development of:

A. Buccal abscess

B. Masseteric abscess

C. Temporal space abscess

D. Pilonidal abscess

E. Parotid space abscess

A

51. The following maxillary teeth are in close relation with the maxillary sinus:

A. First molar

B. First premolar

C. Second premolar

D. Lateral incisor

E. Third molar

ABCE

52. The following statements are true regarding the maxillary sinus:

A. It is present in the new-born

B. It opens in the inferior meatus

C. Its development is complete at the age of 25

D. Its development is complete at the age of 7

E. It opens in the middle meatus

ACE

53. The contributing factors of the maxillary sinusitis are:

A. Decrease of mucus secretion

B. Local and general factors

C. Chronic inflammation of the sinus mucosa

D. Vitamin therapy

E. Immunosuppression

BCE

54. The determinant factors of maxillary sinusitis of dental origin can be:

A. Oro-nasal fistula

B. Serous pulpitis

C. Periapical osteitis

D. Infected radicular cysts

E. Chronic periodontal disease

ACD

55. The clinical signs of chronic maxillary sinusitis of dental origin are

represented by the following enounces:

A. Presence of bilateral pain and purulent drainage

B. High fever

C. Morning cephalalgia

D. Morning pain in the affected sinus region

E. Overnight pain in the affected sinus region

CD

56. The chronic maxillary sinusitis of dental origin is characterised by the

following statements except for:

A. Moderate local pain in the morning

B. Intense pain during the night

C. Nasal obstruction

D. Moderate local pain when tilting the head downward

E. Intense local pain in orthostatic position

BE

10

THEME 8.

Oro-maxillo-facial traumatology

57. *The most frequent bony traumatic lesion involving the face is:

A. The zygoma

B. The zygoma-malar complex

C. The malar bone

D. The mandible

E. The cricoid bone

D

58. *The percentage of facial trauma by location is:

A. The zygoma 60%

B. The midface 60%

C. The mandible 60%

D. The zygoma-malar complex 60%

E. The mandible 10%

C

59. The following statements about the mechanisms of mandibular fracture are

correct:

A. Pression

B. Compaction

C. Flexion (bending)

D. Concussion

E. Traction (pulling)

ABCE

60. The following statements regarding the symptoms of certainty in mandible

fracture are false:

A. Superficial abrasion

B. abnormal bone mobility , crepitations, crackles

(intra-oral exam–bimanual palpation )

C. Deep wound, Interruption of tissue continuity, abrasion

D. Accumulation of extravagated blood following the breakdown of

deeper or larger blood vessels

E. Malocclusion

ACD

61. By the degree of interest of the thickness of the bone mandible fractures can

be:

A. Direct fractures (at the injury site)

B. Indirect fractures (away from traumatic agent)

C. Partial fractures (limited)

D. Indirect fractures (at the injury site )

E. Total fractures

CE

62. Oro-maxilo-facial trauma is classified as :

A. Mandible fractures

B. Facial fractures (zygoma-malar complex)

C. Hemorrhage

D. Dental-parodontal lesions

E. Masseterin hematoma

ABD

63. Evaluation of a patient with an injury in the territory of cranio-maxillo-facial

has to contain:

A. It has to start with the history

B. The history is not important

C. Clinical examination is essential

ACD

11

D. Will be associated with a photographic documentation

E. Blood tests and Ct-scans are essential

64. The following statements regarding late complications of mandible fractures

are false:

A. temporo-mandibular joint ankylosis

B. constriction

C. asphyxia

D. dissecting haematomas of the floor of the mouth

E. vicious consolidation – incorrect fixation

CD

Theme 9.

Cysts and benign tumors of the oral, cervical and facial soft tissues

65. *The following statements are false concerning the piogen granuloma:

A. It is a reactive hyperplasia of the oral mucosa as response to a local

irritative factor

B. It is a reactive hypertrophy of the oral mucosa as response to a local

irritative factor

C. It was also named botriomicoma

D. It was also named muco-epithelial polyp

E. The gingival form is also named granulomatous epulis

B

66. *The lipoma:

A. Is a mesenchymal malignant tumour

B. Is an epithelial benign tumour

C. Is a vascular benign tumour

D. Is a mesenchymal malignant tumour

E. Soft, slowly growing mass located in the subcutaneous tissue

E

67. The following statements are true concerning the tyroglossal cyst:

A. It is mobilised with the deglutition

B. Usually located in the midline

C. It extends from the base of the tongue to the tip

D. Surgical treatment implies the removal of a portion of the hyoid

bone

E. It is located anterior and beneath the sternocleidomastoid muscle

ABD

68. The brachial cyst must be differentiated from:

A. Carotid glomus tumours

B. Cervical lymph node metastasis

C. Cervical lipoma

D. Dermoid kyst

E. Cervical lymphangiomas

ABCE

69. The differential diagnosis of the dermoid cyst consists of the following

entities:

A. Teratoid cyst

B. Ranula

C. Branchial cyst

D. Submental adenitis

ABDE

12

E. Sublingual space abscess

70. The tyroglossal cyst must be differentiated from the following entities:

A. Brachial cyst

B. Dermoid cyst

C. Ranula

D. Submental adenitis

E. Laterocervical adenitis

BCD

71. The differential diagnosis of the gingival piogen granuloma is not made with:

A. Neurinoma

B. Fibrous epulis

C. Lipoma

D. Malignant tumours of the alveolar ridge mucosa

E. Osteoma

ACE

72. The granulomatous epulis:

A. It is located in the vestibular fold

B. It is the most frequent form of oral piogen granuloma

C. It is located in the interdental space

D. Related to a subgingival cavity or poorly adapted prosthesis

E. Associated with poor oral hygene

BCDE

Theme 10.

Cysts, benign tumours and osteopathies of maxillary bones

73. *Which of the following is a epithelial tumor:

A. Myxoma

B. Cementoblastoma

C. Compound odontoma

D. Complex odontoma

E. Ameloblastic fibroma

D

74. *Keratinizing and calcifying odontogenic cyst is a:

A. Epithelial tumor

B. Mixte tumor

C. Mesenchymal tumor

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

D

75. The following can be said about central fibroma

A. Develop at any age, especially at the olders

B. Develop at any age, especially in children

C. Develop at any age most often in the maxilla

D. Develop at any age most often in the ethmoid

E. Clinical at radiographic aspects unusual

CE

76. Which of the following are mesenchymal tumors:

A. Odontogenic fibroma

B. Odontogenic fibromixoma

C. Complex odontoma

D. Compound odontoma

E. Ameloblastic fibroma

AB

13

77. Which of the following are mixte tumors:

A. Ameloblastic fibroma

B. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

C. Compound odontoma

D. Compound fibroma

E. Cementoblastoma

ABC

78. Ameloblastoma:

A. Is a epithelial tumor

B. Origin: epithelial, from the dental lamina

C. Has a fast growth, short evolution

D. Has a slow growth, short evolution

E. Has a fast growth, fast evolution

AB

79. The following are nonodontogenic epithelial cysts:

A. Naso-palatin canal cyst

B. Aneurysmal bone cyst

C. Stafne bone cyst

D. Dermoid cyst

E. Globulo maxillar cyst

ADE

80. Which of the following is not a nonepithelial cyst:

A. Globulo maxillar cyst

B. Dermoid cyst

C. Aneurysmal bone syst

D. Traumatic bone cyst

E. Stafne bone cyst

AB

Theme 11.

Oro-maxillo-facial malign tumors

81. *The following statement about leukoplakia is correct:

A. White patch that can be scraped

B. Dark patch that can be scraped

C. White patch that cannot be scraped

D. White lesion network like fern life

E. Red stain, vivid, smooth

A

82. *About the ulcerative lesion it can be said.

A. Sessile or pedunculated proliferation

B. Smooth surface or cauliflower

C. Ulceration extending into surface and depth

D. It is also known as an exofitic lesion

E. All statemantes are fals

C

83. Risk factors for cancer of oral cavity:

A. Alcohol

B. Tobacoo

C. Diet and nutrition

D. Drugs

E. Genetic

ABCE

84. The following statements about tobacco are true: ADE

14

A. Changes the oral temperature

B. Increases of Ca+ and K+

C. Decreased saliva

D. Reduction of salivary amylase

E. Biological modification of the oral mucosa

85. The following statements about tobacco are false:

A. Doze risk > 40g ethanol for men

B. Toxic from alcohol = methanol

C. Ethanol is not a co-carcinogenic factor

D. 40 g ethanol = 1 liter of beer

E. Toxic from alcohol = ethanol

BC

86. Premalignant lesions of oral mucosa are :

A. Candida albicans

B. Leukoplakia

C. Lichen Planus

D. Erythroplakia

E. Oral thrush

BCD

87. The following statements about erythroplakia is true :

A. White stain, vivid, smooth

B. Red stain, vivid, smooth

C. It represents an “In situ” carcinoma

D. It is an ulcerative lesions

E. Shapes: agranular (flat), granular

BCE

88. Causes of delayed detection of cancer are :

A. It is noticed by the patient

B. It is not noticed by the patient

C. It is recognized by the dentist

D. Escapes dental exam

E. Hidden areas of risk (lateral tongue, posterior pharynx , floor of

the mouth)

BDE

Theme 12.

The pathology of temporo-mandibular joint

89. *The pathologic TMJ sounds are:

A. Cracks

B. Squeaks

C. Crackles

D. Rhonchi

E. Rubs

B

90. *The otologic signs for TMJ pathology are:

A. Tinnitus

B. Othematoma

C. Ear pain

D. Vertigo

E. Otorrhea

A

91. The pathologic TMJ sounds are: AB

15

A. Pops

B. Squeaks

C. Crackles

D. Rhonchi

E. Rubs

92. The otologic signs for TMJ pathology are:

A. Tinnitus

B. Othematoma

C. Ear pain

D. Vertigo

E. Hearing loss

AE

93. The maxim intrercuspidation:

A. Is obtained by normal opened position

B. It is a loose position

C. Is a position of joint balance, with myocentric relationship

D. Is obtained by normal closed position

E. Is the position of leaving and returning all mandibular movements

DE

94. The centric relation is not defined by

A. Is obtained by normal opened position

B. It is a stable position

C. Is a position of joint balance, with myocentric relationship

D. Is obtained by normal closed position

E. Is a position of joint balance, without myocentric relationship

ABDE

95. The premature contacts are usually found on:

A. The distal cusps of the maxillary teeth

B. The mesial cusps of the mandibular teeth

C. The mesial cusps of the maxillary teeth

D. The distal cusps of the mandibular teeth

E. The distolingual cusp of the second molar

CD

96. In case of TMJ pathology, in the synovial fluid you can find:

A. Germs on direct examination or culture

B. Disodium urate crystals

C. Calcium pyrophosphate

D. Calcium urate crystals

E. Amyloid bodies

ACE

Theme 13.

The pathology of salivary glands

97. *Sialomegalies represent:

A. The decrease in volume of the salivary gland

B. Increased salivary flow

C. The increase in volume of the salivary glands

D. Decreased salivary flow

E. Facial nerve paralysis

C

98. *The preventive treatment of acute bacterial parotitis consists of

A. Removal of the parotid gland

B

16

B. Rehydration to ensure a good salivary flow

C. Antibiotics

D. Pain killers

E. Ligature of the Stenon’s duct

99. The Warthin tumor:

A. Malignant tumor

B. Always unilateral

C. Can be bilateral

D. Benign tumor

E. Linked with smoking

CDE

100. The adenoid cystic carcinoma:

A. It never gives distant metastasis

B. It is associated with nervous invasion

C. It has increased risk of distant metastasis

D. It never involves the facial nerve

E. It is associated especially with bone invasion

BC

101. The following tumors are benign tumors of the salivary glands:

A. Odontoma

B. Pleomorphic adenoma

C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

D. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

E. Warthin tumor

BE

102. The following tumors are benign tumors of the salivary glands:

A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

B. Monomorph adenoma

C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

D. Pleomorphic adenoma

E. Warthin tumor

AC

103. Parotid metastasis:

A. Lymphatic metastasis come from the drained territory: scalp,

auricular region

B. Is never encountered in association with skin cancer in the drained

territory

C. Lymphatic metastasis come from the drained territory: neck and

occipital region

D. Hematogenous metastasis come from the drained territory: scalp,

auricular region

E. Is encountered in association with skin cancer in the drained

territory

AE

104. The following statements are true concerning the c at scratch disease except:

A. Penicillins and retroviral drugs are used for treatment

B. Treponema pallidum is the etiologic agent

C. Rochalimaea henselae is the etiologic agent

D. Listeria monocistogenes is the etiologic agent

E. Cyclins and macrolids are used for treatment

ABD

17

Theme 14.

The surgical treatment of severe dento-maxillar anomalies

105. *Volumetric assessment of orthognatic surgery refers to:

A. Micromandibular: small mandible, and combining promandibular

and macrogenie

B. Macromandibular: large mandible, combining retromandibular

retrogenia

C. Excessive transverse development of the maxilla

D. Micromaxillary (compression of the maxilla): small jaw, combining

retro, infra and endomaxillary

E. Horizontal maxillary deficiency: insufficient transverse

development of the maxilla

D

106. *Radiographic analysis used in orthognatic surgery are:

A. Cephalometric radiographs without panoramic radiograph

B. Only CBCT

C. Conventional CT and MRI

D. Cephalometric radiographs and panoramic radiograph, with or

without other radiographic examinations

E. None of the above

D

107. Indication of orthognathic surgery:

A. Severe abnormalities

B. Failed orthodontic

C. Duration of ortodontic treatment exceeded

D. Oralfacial pain

E. Surgery filling orthodontics

ABCE

108. Goals of orthognathic surgery :

A. Balancing the dental arches

B. Making space for dental implants

C. The optimization of functions

D. Normal phonetic development and maintenance of normal hearing

E. Getting a facial harmony

ACE

109. The cephalometric analysis consist in the following:

A. Maxillary and skull

B. Ears, nose, chin

C. Mandible and nose

D. Maxillary and mandibular teeth

E. Prominence of the chin to the base of mandibular dental arch

ADE

110. The surgical phase of the orthognatic treatment involves the following with

the exceptions:

A. Blood testing

B. Simulation

C. Manufacturing of surgical splints

D. Pulmonary Rx

E. Clinical evaluation and imagistic result documentation

AD

111. Among the classification of dento-facial deformities we find the following

except :

A. abnormal maxillary and mandibular bases abnormal relationship

BCDE

18

between dental arches cellular abnormalities;

B. structural teeth anomalies;

C. chin and nose hystological anomalies;

D. hyperemic apearance of the face skin;

E. eyes position.

112. In the sagittal plane:

A. The mandibular excess - too posterior position of the mandible

B. The maxillary deficiency - too anterior position of the maxilla

C. Mandibular deficiency - too posterior position of the mandible

D. Chin deficiency - too posterior chin

E. Chin excess - too earlier position of the chin

CDE

Theme 15.

Clefts

113. *Cleft lip and palate is:

A. An embryonic anormaly between the 20th-30th

B. An embryonic anormaly between the 35th-45

th

C. An embryonic anormaly between the 10th-15

th

D. An embryonic anormaly between the 15th-20

th

E. An embryonic anormaly between the 25th-25th

B

114. *The following can be said about the distribution of oral clefts:

A. Cleft lip and palate 46%

B. Cleft palate only 33%

C. Cleft lip only 21%

D. AlL of the above

E. None of the above

D

115. Syndrome Treacher Collins-dysostose mandibulofaciale contains:

A. Faun ears

B. Cyclops appearance

C. Malformation of the uvula

D. Coloboma of the lower eyelids and lack of eyelashes

E. Malar hypoplasia

DE

116. Syndrome Goldenhar contains:

A. eye-atrio-vertebral dysplasia

B. abnormalities of the external genital organs

C. mandibular hypoplasia

D. agenesis of parathyroid

E. all of the above

AC

117. Shprintzen Syndrome contains:

A. skin flanges between the pelvis and heel

B. bicycle cleft palate

C. facial asymmetry

D. thymic hypoplasia

E. popliteal strap syndrome

BD

118. The following pathologies are associated with CLP:

A. Trisomy 18

ACD

19

B. Trisomy 15

C. Edwards syndrome

D. Shprintzen Syndrome

E. Trisomy 21

119. The following are true about the secondary palate:

A. Fusion of the maxillary process occurs between the 5th and 7th

embryonic week

B. Fusion fault between a median sagittal partition and two horizontal

partitions, palatal shelves

C. Maxillary process fusion with the internal nasal process

D. The nasal-labial region is forming in front of the incisive foramen

E. Fusion occurs between the 7th and 12th week embryo

BE

120. The following are true about the secondary palate:

A. Fusion of the maxillary process occurs between the 5th and 7th

embryonic week

B. Fusion fault between a median sagittal partition and two horizontal

partitions, palatal shelves

C. Maxillary process fusion with the internal nasal process

D. The nasal-labial region is forming in front of the incisive foramen

E. Fusion occurs between the 7th and 12th week embryo

BE

Theme 16.

ORO-FACIAL PAIN

121. *Glosopharygeal nerv neuralgia implies pain in:

A. TMJ

B. Internal auditory canal

C. Anterior third of the tongue

D. Amygdala

E. Maxilar region

D

122. *Classification of the orofacial pain select the false answer:

A. Musculoskeletal and soft tissue

B. Dentoalveolar

C. Neurological and vascular

D. Psychogenic

E. Visceral

E

123. The etiology of orofacial pain is

A. Peripheral / central

B. Inflammation / irritation +/-

C. Hipotension

D. Vascular or nerve compression +/-

E. Vasodilatation

ABD

124. Classification of the orofacial pain is:

A. Acute stage

B. Subacute stage

C. Chronic stage (pain lasting for more than 3 months)

D. Chronic stage (pain lasting for more than 9 months)

AB

20

E. Subacute stage ( pain lasting for more than 4 months)

125. Drugs used to treat the trigeminal neuralgia :

A. There is no effective drug

B. Carbamazepine, diclofenac

C. The first choice drug therapy consists of 3 drugs

D. The treatment is always surgery

E. Carbamazepine, lamotrigine, baclofen

CE

126. The diagnostic evaluation is made on:

A. The patient's general dates

B. The patient's medical history

C. The characteristics of the pain

D. The associated signs

E. Height and weight

ABCD

127. The treatment of Horton disease is:

A. corticosteroids,

B. immunosuppressive therapy

C. Azithromycin,

D. methotrexate,

E. anti-ADN-a

ABD

128. Clinical features of Horton disease are:

A. Very intense pain, often unilateral

B. Located in the frontal or parietal region

C. Accentuated by coughing, head movements and chewing

D. The temporal artery painful or hard on palpation

E. Involvement of the ophthalmic artery can lead to blindness

ACDE

Theme 17. PEDIATRIC DENTISTRY Pediatric stomatology (Stomatologie comportamentală pediatrică - pag. 43-57, 129-177;

Elemente introductive în pedodonție - pag. 62-81; Pedodonție, traumatisme dento-parodontale

- pag. 29-50, 98-104, 111-141; Pedodonție, distrofii dentare - pag. 20-48; Periodontologie

pediatrică - pag. 43-54, 80-107; Practica pedodontică - pag. 219-248, 207-216, 251-259, 261-

280; cursuri postate pe platforma de e-learning)

129. *Among the characteristics of 3-6 years period is NOT included:

A. egocentrism

B. affectivity

C. lack of imitative character in action and behavior

D. excessive episodic negativity

E. auditory, optical and tactile fear

C Stomatol

ogie

comport

amentală

, pg.50

Slide

no.20,21

–

Childho

od

course

130. *The mandibular temporary teeth erupt before the maxillary ones, with the

exception of:

A. central incisors

B. lateral incisors

C. canines

B Practica

Pedodontică,

Pg.56

Slide

no.7 –

Dental

21

D. 1st premolars

E. 2nd

molars

euption

course

131. Frankl behavioral rating scale class I, is characterized by the following

elements:

A. the child is forceful crying

B. the child accepts the treatment

C. the child refuses the treatment

D. the child respects the dental appointments

E. the child is fearful

ACE Stomatol

ogie

compora

tmentală

pg.136

Slide

no.13 –

Behavioural

manage

ment

course

132. HOM (hand-over-mouth) method is NOT recommended to be used in:

A. too small children

B. children with psycho-mental deficiency

C. too big children

D. adults

E. children without psycho-mental deficiency

AB Stomatol

ogie

comport

amentală

pg.163

Slide

no.42 –

Behavioural

manage

ment

course

133. After FORTIER JP and DEMARS C (1983) the temporary teeth pulp and

pulpal-periodontal pathology comprise the following clinical forms:

A. sept syndrome

B. Turner dental syndrome

C. pulp necrosis without periodontal pathology

D. furcation pathology

E. pulp necrosis with periodontal pathology

ACDE Practica

pedodon

tică

pg.222

Slide 6

Tempora

ry teeth

pulp

disease_1 course

134. Among the local factors that influence the dental eruption are NOT a part the

following:

A. temporary teeth dental trauma

B. premature extraction of temporary teeth

C. chromosomal abnormalities

D. eruptive fevers

E. central nervous system

AB Practica

pedodon

tică

pg.51

Slide 8

135. The following forms are a part of MAGITOT classification of cicatriciale

primary dental dystrophies (stable):

A. number

B. dimension (volume)

C. odontodisplasia

D. structure

E. Moser dental syndrome

ABD Pedodon

ție,

distrofii

dentare,

pg.20

136. Basic steps of cavity preparations in young permanent teeth through

ultraconservative techniques are:

A. partial removal of altered dentine

B. removal of altered enamel

C. achieving the retention shape

BE Practica pedodon

tică

pg.258

Slide 28

22

D. achieving the resistance shape

E. removal of unsupported enamel

Theme 18.

The role of functional factors in the development of the dento-maxillary system

137. *The strong development of goniac angle region is caused by the emphasized

activity of the following muscles:

A. masseter and internal pterygoid

B. masseter and external pterygoid

C. masseter and mylohyoid

D. masseter and hyoid

E. external and internal pterygoid

A Gh.

Boboc,

Pg. 405

138. *The balance between the skeletal and muscle morphology is:

A. immobile

B. temporary

C. absolute

D. relative

E. permanent

D Gh.

Boboc,

Pg. 411

139. The interposition of the lower lip can determine:

A. Upper proclination

B. Lower proclintion

C. Upper retroclination

D. Lower retroclination

E. Upper and lower proclination

AD Gh.

Boboc,

Pg. 443

140. Heterotopically interposition imply the interposition

between dental arches of:

A. Elements that do not belong to dento-maxillary system

B. Elements that belong to dento-maxillary system

C. Fingers

D. Pencil

E. Tongue

ACD Gh.

Boboc,

Pg.437

141. For developing a dento-maxillary anomaly by vicious habits, the following

conditions are needed:

A. The intensity of the vicious habit

B. The duration of the vicious habit

C. The frequency of the vicious habit

D. Pattern factor- forming deformable pattern

E. No answer is correct

ABCD Gh.

Boboc,

Pg 444

Theme 19.

The development of dental occlusion

142. *During mixed dental occlusion development it takes place:

A. the first occlusion height

E Doroba

t,

23

B. the first mesial movement (drift) of the mandible

C. the third occlusion height

D. the second mesial movement (drift) of the mandible

E. the second occlusion height

Stanciu

, pg. 45

143. *In the predental period normally it takes place:

A. the second occlusion height

B. the second mesial movement (drift) of the mandible

C. the third occlusion height

D. the first occlusion height

E. the first mesial movement (drift) of the mandible

E Doroba

t,

Stanciu

,, pg 38

144. Which of the following statements it is NOT true:

A. deciduous teeth break out every 12 months

B. during the first year of life, the alveolar arches become wider and

higher due to the development of the dental excrescences

C. during eruption, the lower incisors have a lingual movement,

determining a decreased arch perimeter

D. dental attrition determines the second mesial movement (drift) of

the mandible

E. the lower central incisors erupt in a more lingual position than the

deciduous incisors

AC Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, pg.40-

42

145. The post-lacteal plane:

A. in mesial step gives a mesialized relation

B. in slight mesial step gives a cusp in intercuspal groove relation

C. in mesial step gives a cusp to cusp relation

D. in straight terminal plane gives a cusp to cusp relation of the first

molar

E. in distal step gives a distalized relation at the molars

ABDE Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, Pg. 43

146. The first permanent molar eruption:

A. gives the second occlusion height

B. modifies the arch form

C. by the mesializing spurt doesn’t reduce the primate space

D. modifies the arch length

E. modifies the form of the arch from semielliptical the semicircle

ABD Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, Pg 45

Theme 20.

The etiopathogeny of dento-maxillary anomalies

147. *The Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by the following aspects, with

one exception:

A. mandibular micro-retrognathia

B. palate cleft

C. anterior crossbite

D. osteo-muscular dystrophy

E. glossoptosis

C Zegan,

Pg.85

148. *Premature loss of temporary teeth can have the following consequences, with

the exception of:

D Doroba

t,

24

A. Serious three-dimensional disorders in the dental arch

B. Dento-alveolar crowding

C. Supereruption of the anatagonist teeth

D. The absence of crossbite

E. Premature contacts and occlusal interferences

Stanciu

, Pg 74

149. At the patients with Turner syndrome, one can observe the following aspects:

A. mandibular retrognathia

B. number dental anomalies

C. mesioclusion

D. shape dental anomalies

E. mandibular prognathia

ABD Zegan,

pg. 85

150. At the patients with Turner syndrome can be observed the following aspects:

A. mandibular retrognathia

B. hypertelorism

C. round face

D. mandibular prognathia

E. distocclusion

ABCE Zegan,

pg. 85

151. Delayed eruption of the permanent teeth can be caused by:

A. Genetic pattern

B. Teratogenic factors

C. General factors

D. Fibrous obstruction

E. Osseous obstruction

ADE Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, Pg 75

Theme 21.

Classification of dento-maxillary anomalies

152. *Division 1 of class II Angle malocclusion is characterized by:

A. Bilateral distalized relation and deep overbite

B. Bilateral mesialized relation and simple deep bite

C. Bilateral distalized relation and open bite

D. Unilateral distalized relation and deep over bite

E. Bilateral distalized relation and simple deep bite

E Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, Pg. 78

153. *Division 2 of class II Angle malocclusion is characterized by:

A. Bilateral distalized relation and deep over bite

B. Bilateral mesialized relation and deep over bite

C. Bilateral distalized relation and open bite

D. Unilateral distalized relation and open bite

E. Bilateral distalized relation and simple deep bite

A DS, Pg.

78

154. The maxillary constriction syndrome classified by the German school has the

following variants:

A. Forced guidance

B. Protrusion with spacing

C. With deep over bite

D. With crowding

E. Protrusion without spacing

BDE Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, Pg. 79

155. The German school classifies the malocclusions in: ACD Doroba

25

A. Maxillary constriction syndrome

B. Disharmonies

C. The crossbite syndrome

D. The progenic syndrome

E. The simple deep bite syndrome

t,

Stanciu

, Pg.

79,80

156. The progenic syndrome described by the German school can be:

A. By condylar guidance

B. By forced guidance

C. False (mandibular prognathia)

D. True

E. False (maxillary retrognathia)

BDE Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, Pg. 80

Theme 22.

The radiological examination in orthodontics

157. The posterior mandibular rotation is characterized by:

A. increased lower face height

B. open gonial angle

C. decreased lower face height

D. strong mandibular condyle with upper and forward development

direction

E. the tendency to deep bite

AB Zegan,

Pg 61

158. The references planes used in lateral cephalometric analysis are the following:

A. Frankfurt plane- Po-Or

B. Cranial base plane - Po-Or

C. Mandibular plane- Nsa-Nsp

D. Maxillary plane- Nsa-Nsp

E. Y axis of growth- S-N

AD Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, Pg155

159. *The Gn point (on the lateral cephalometry) is:

A. The most inferior point of the mental symphysis

B. The most anterior point of the mental symphysis

C. The most posterior point of the mental symphysis

D. The most anterior and inferior point of the mental symphysis

E. The most inferior and posterior point of the mental symphysis

D Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, Pg154

160. In lateral cephalometry analysis, the 3 sides of the Tweed triangle are:

A. Frankfurt plane

B. Simion plane

C. The axis of upper incisor

D. Mandibular plane

E. The axis of lower incisor

ADE Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, Pg163

161. About the Ao-Bo distance the following statements are true:

A. Represents the absolute interbasal sagital discrepancy

B. It is in direct relation with angles SNA, SNB

C. Represents the relative interbasal sagital discrepancy

D. Is in invers relation with ANB angle

E. Completes the skeletal class

ABE Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, Pg164

26

Theme 23.

Class II/1 malocclusion

162. *The class II division 1 Angle malocclusion is characterized by the following

bilateral molar relation:

A. neutral and deep bite

B. mesialized and anterior crossbite

C. distalized and simple deep bite

D. buccal nonocclusion and deep over bite

E. lingual nonocclusion and anterior open bite

C Zegan,

pg 183

163. *The dysfunctional etiological factor of class II division 1 malocclusion is:

A. rachitism

B. hypophysal dwarfism

C. Marfan syndrome

D. simple anterior tongue-thrust

E. premature loss of deciduous teeth in posterior area

D Zegan,

pg 184

164. In class II division 1 Angle dento-maxillary anomalies,can ne observed the

following modification between alveolar and coronal base of the arch:

A. The apical base is small

B. The apical base is big

C. The coronal base is wide

D. The coronal base is narrow

E. No answer is correct

AC Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, pg.

385

165. The facial aspect in class II division 1 Angle malocclusion is characterized by:

A. Pale skin

B. Thick upper lip

C. Thin upper lip

D. Open labial slit

E. Hypertonic mentalis

ACDE Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, pg.

383

166. In class II division 1 Angle malocclusion the following can be observed:

A. Uni- or bilateral hypotonia of nasal muscles

B. Uni- or bilateral hypertonia of nasal muscles

C. Hypertonia of mentalis muscle

D. Hypertonia of lower lip

E. Hypotonia of lower lip

ACD Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, pg

385-

386

Theme 24.

Class II/2 malocclusion

167. *The class II division 2 Angle malocclusion is characterized by the following

bilateral molar relation:

A. neutral and deep bite

B. mesialized and anterior crossbite

C. distalized and deep over bite

D. distalized and simple deep bite

C Zegan,

pg 189

27

E. lingual nonocclusion and anterior open bite

168. *The etiological factors of class II division 1 malocclusion are:

A. genetic

B. functional

C. constitutional

D. general

E. local

A Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, pg

396

169. In malocclusion class II/2 Angle it can be observed:

A. Reduced premolar and molar diameters

B. Incisor retroclination and deep bite

C. Different degrees of dental spacing

D. Open bite

E. Different degrees of dental crowding

ABE Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, pg

398

170. In classII/2 Angle malocclusion, the following clinical signs can be noticed:

A. Superficial labio-mental sulcus

B. Increased height lower face

C. Flattened chin

D. Firmly closed labial slit

E. Accentuated labio-mental sulcus

DE Zegan,

pg 190

171. In class II/2 Angle malocclusion, it can be observed different degrees of

abrasion on:

A. Buccal surface of upper incisors

B. Buccal surface of lower incisors

C. Lingual surface of lower incisors

D. Palatal surface of upper incisors

E. All the answers are correct

BD Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, pg.

398

Tema 25.

Class III malocclusion

172. *Class III malocclusion is characterized by:

A. distalized relation and simple deep bite

B. mesialized relation and anterior crossbite

C. distalized relation and deep over bite

D. normal relation and anterior crowding

E. no answer is correct

B Doroba

t,

Stanciu

,

Pg.405

173. *In class III malocclusion on the cephalometric analisys it can be noticed:

A. SNA angle higher than 800

B. SNB angle lower than 780

C. SNA angle lower than 800

D. Positive ANB angle

E. No answer is correct

C Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, Pg.

406

174. At the clinical facial examination in class III malocclusion it can be noticed:

A. flat face

B. flattened cheeks

C. convex profile

D. concave profile

ABD Doroba

t,

Stanciu

,

Pg.406

28

E. straight profile

175. In class III malocclusion with mesialized closing path, the anterior dento-

alveolar region responasable for the reverse guidance is caractheryzed by:

A. lower proclination

B. upper retroclination

C. upper proclination

D. lower retroclination

E. no answer is correct

AB Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, Pg

408

176. Facial aspect in mandibular prognathia is carachterized by:

A. concave profile

B. reverse lip step

C. rigid and voluntary aspect of the face

D. convex profile

E. flattened face

ABCE Zegan,

pg 207

Theme 26.

The open bite syndrome

177. *Dental phonemes whicg are affected in open bite syndrome are:

A. ‘’B’’

B. ‘’D’’ and ‘’T’’

C. ‘’M’’ and‘’T’’

D. ‘’D’’

E. ‘’C’’ and‘’T’’

B Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, Pg

431

178. *In the open bite syndrome the most frequently involved in muscle disorder is:

A. internal pterygoid

B. masseter

C. buccinators

D. external pterygoid

E. temporal

D Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, Pg

433

179. Which of the following esthetic modifications are seen in open bite syndrome:

A. hyper leptoprosopic pattern

B. labial slit is closed without effort

C. superficial labiomental sulcus

D. accentuated labiomental sulcus

E. a characteristic disharmonious profile

ACE Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, Pg

434-

435

180. In the open bite syndrome, the development disordes of the facial complex

involve:

A. the cranial base

B. the mandible

C. the upper maxillary

D. the dentition

E. alveolar process

ABCE Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, Pg

436-

438

181. In the anterior open bite syndrome , the genetic factor appears in :

A. Rachitism

B. Down syndrome

C. Chondrodystrophies

BC Doroba

t,

Stanciu

, Pg

29

D. The persistence of infant swallowing

E. No answer is correct

419

Theme 27.

Anomalies of the dental system

182. *Complete dental transposition represents::

A. the partial positional interchange of two neighbouring teeth

B. the eruption of a tooth at the distance from the dental arch

C. the partial positional interchange of two antagonist teeth

D. the total positional interchange of two neighbouring teeth

E. the remaining inside the bone of a tooth with completely formed

root and with the apex closed

D Zegan,

Pg 168

183. *Supernumerary teeth do not cause:

A. impaction of teeth

B. dental malpositions

C. occlusal imbalance

D. pathologic root reserbtion of the antagonist teeth

E. pathological diastema

D Zegan,

Pg 158

184. In the etiopathogeny of dental transposition, the following local factors are

involved:

A. disorders in exfoliation of the deciduous tooth

B. disorders in the development of the dental buds

C. inversed sequence of eruption

D. dental trauma

E. delayed dental eruption

ABCE Zegan,

Pg 168

185. The differential diagnosis of heterotopy can be made with:

A. delayed dental eruption

B. dental impaction

C. ectopy

D. dental extraction

E. hipodontia

ABCE Zegan,

Pg 168

186. The surgical-orthodontic treatment of dental impaction consists in:

A. creating the space on the arch

B. removing the etiological causes

C. surgically revealing of the impacted tooth

D. anchoring and drawing of the tooth to the dental arch

E. tooth reimplantation

ABCD Zegan,

Pg 167

Theme 28.

The clinical examination in orthodontics

187. *The clinical facial examination of the patient establishes:

A. chronic general diseases

B. general indication for orthodontic treatment

C Zegan,

pg 101

30

C. the equality of face heights

D. psychological development

E. the beginning of puberty

188. *Functional examination of the patient:

A. establishes the normality or the abnormality of the dento-

maxillarry complex function

B. identifies parafunctions

C. identifies vicious habits

D. all the answers are correct

E. all the answers are incorrect

D Zegan,

pg 105

189. At the clinical facial examination, can be observed the following facial types:

A. Euryprosop

B. Mesocephal

C. Mesoprosop

D. Brachycephal

E. Leptoprosop

ACE Zegan,

pg 100

190. At the clinical facial examination, can be observed the following cephalic

types:

A. Euryprosop

B. Mesocephal

C. Mesoprosop

D. Brachycephal

E. Leptoprosop

BD Zegan,

pg 100

191. The breathing function can be evaluated by the following tests:

A. Comanding 35 rhythmic inspirations

B. Comanding profound inspiration and expiration

C. Clamping the nostrils

D. Comanding 20 rhythmic inspirations

E. The mirror test

BCDE Zegan,

pg 105

Theme 29.

The analysis of the study model in orthodontics

192. *Nominal values of incisor sum are between:

A. 28-35 mm

B. 22-34 mm

C. 27-37 mm

D. 26-39 mm

E. 28-38 mm

A Zegan,

pg 111

193. *In Pont analysis of study model, the incisor sum is calculated by measuring

with compass the biggest mesio-distal coronar distance of:

A. The four lower incisor

B. The two central upper incisor

C. The two central lower incisor

D. The four upper incisor

E. The four lower incisor and the four upper incisor

D Zegan,

pg 111

194. In Pont analysis of study models, maxillary anterior width: AB Zegan,

31

A. Is the distance between the landmarks of upper first premolars

B. Is calculate with the formula Six100/80

C. Is the distance between the landmarks of upper second premolar

D. Is calculate with the formula Six100/64

E. Is calculate with the formula Six100/65

pg 111

195. In Pont analysis of study models, maxillary posterior width:

A. Is the distance between the landmarks of upper first premolars

B. Is calculate with the formula Six100/80

C. Is the distance between the landmarks of upper second premolar

D. Is calculate with the formula Six100/64

E. Is calculate with the formula Six100/85

AD Zegan,

pg 111

196. In Pont analysis of study models, mandibular posterior width:

A. Is the distance between the landmarks of lower first premolars

B. Is calculate with the formula Six100/80

C. Is the distance between the landmarks of lower first molars

D. Is calculate with the formula Six100/64

E. Is calculate with the formula Six100/85

CD Zegan,

pg 111

Theme 30.

Principles in the orthodontic therapy

197. *The orthodontic treatment according to the means used is classified as

follows:

A. prophylactic, interceptive and corrective treatment

B. biomechanical, functional and surgical treatment

C. precocious, normal and late treatment

D. etiological and morpho-functional treatment

E. morpho-functional and surgical treatment

B Zegan,

pg 226

198. *Ingression is a dental movement:

A. in the long axis, towards the occlusal plane

B. bodily movement of the tooth

C. along the root’s long axis

D. in the long axis, towards the maxillary base

E. tipping of the tooth

D Zegan,

pg 249

199. The orthodontic forces can be classified by the intensity of the force in :

A. Extra-oral forces

B. Light forces

C. Intra-oral forces

D. Average forces

E. Intermittent forces

BD Zegan,

pg 246

200. The orthodontic forces can be classified by the rhythm applied in :

A. Extra-oral forces

B. Continuous forces

C. Intra-oral forces

D. Average forces

E. Intermittent forces

BE Zegan,

pg 246

201. Version is a dental movement: AC Zegan,

32

A. tipping of the tooth

B. bodily movement of the tooth

C. the crown and the root move simulataneous, but in different

directions

D. in the long axis, towards the maxillary base

E. in the long axis, towards the occlusal plane

pg 248

Theme 31.

Removable orthodontic appliances

202. *Coffin’s arch has the following action:

A. Radial expansion of maxillary arch

B. Asymmetric expansion of maxillary arch

C. Distalization of teeth from maxillary lateral region

D. Mesialisation of teeth from mandibular lateral region

E. Derotation of teeth from frontal maxillary region

A Zegan,

pg 267

203. *Orthodontic screw develops orthodontic forces:

A. Medium and continuous

B. Light and intermittent

C. Medium and intermittent

D. Light and continuous

E. Light and medium

C Zegan,

pg 267

204. Anchorage elements of biomechanical removable appliances are:

A. Stahl clasp

B. Adams clasp

C. Cantilever spring

D. Labial shield

E. Coffin arch

AB Zegan,

pg 264-

265

205. Double loop spring is indicated in:

A. Palato-version of incisior

B. Vestibulo-version of incisior

C. Rotation of incisior

D. Mesialisation of incisior

E. Ectopy of incisior

AC Zegan,

pg 270

206. About Schwarz applice the following statements are true:

A. It is a mixed removabile appliance

B. It is indicated in maxillary symmetrical compression with

mandibular functional retrusion

C. It has a palatal baseplate and anterior guide plane

D. It has a lingual baseplate and a retroincisal bite plane

E. It is indicated in functional mandibular prognathia

ABC Zegan,

pg 273

Theme 32.

Functional orthodontic appliances

33

207. *The following statements are true about the type III Frankel regulator, with

one exception:

A. is an elastic activator

B. is indicated for the correction of class III malocclusion by

functional causes, in mixed dentition

C. is indicated for the correction of class II/2 maloclusion by

functional causes, in mixed dentition

D. is a miodynamic activator

E. the principle of action is based on the concept of recovery

functional oral space

C Zegan,

pg 285

208. *Robin’s monobloc has the following characteristics, with one exception:

A. is a functional removable appliance

B. is a functional bimaxillary appliance

C. is a functional elastic appliance

D. is a functional passive appliance

E. is a functional rigid appliance

C Zegan,

pg 280

209. According the effects caused on the groups of muscles, functional appliances

are classified as follows:

A. myotonic appliances

B. active appliacens

C. passive appliances

D. myodynamic appliances

E. bimaxillary appliances

AD Zegan,

pg 278

210. According the site they occupied, functional appliances are classified as

follows:

A. myotonic appliances

B. oral appliances

C. passive appliance

D. myodynamic appliances

E. buccal appliances

BE Zegan,

pg 278

211. According the type of action, functional appliances are classified as follows:

A. myotonic appliances

B. active appliances

C. passive appliances

D. miydynamic appliances

E. bimaxillary appliances

BC Zegan,

pg 277

Theme 33.

Retention and relapse in orthodontics

212. *Duration of retention period is influenced by many factors, except:

A. The patient's constitutional type

B. The patient's facial growth type

C. The age when the malocclusion was treated

D. The duration of active orthodontic treatment

E. Patient’s sex

E Zegan,

pg 376

213. *Duration of retention period is influenced by many factors, except: B Zegan,

34

A. The patient's constitutional type

B. The family medical history

C. The duration of active orthodontic treatment

D. The patient's facial growth type

E. The age when the malocclusion was treated

pg 376

214. The general causes of relapse are:

A. The patient’s constitutional type

B. The patient’s facial type

C. The break out of third molars

D. The position of teeth outside of basal bone

E. The patient's endocrine disorders

ABE Zegan,

pg 375

215. The general causes of relapse are:

A. The patient’s facial type

B. Type the patient's facial growth

C. The position of teeth outside of basal bone

D. The patient’s constitutional type

E. Hypocorrection of malocclusion

ABD Zegan,

pg 375

216. The local causes of relapse are:

A. The patient’s facial type

B. The change of intercanine distance

C. The position of teeth outside of basal bone

D. The patient’s constitutional type

E. Hypocorrection of malocclusion

BCE Zegan,

pg 375

Theme 34.

The treatment of dental caries. (Power Point Presentation).

217. In deep caries, infected dentin is removed with:

A. sharp excavators and sharp spoon excavators

B. round burs made of steel rotated at low speed and using air cooling

C. round burs made of tungsten carbide rotated at low speed and using

air cooling

D. sharp dentin hatchets

E. any blunt hand instrument

ABC 67

218. *The LASER used for the removal of altered dentin has the following

advantages:

A. can be used without anesthesia even in deep caries

B. noise related to bur rotation is eliminated

C. it is used without direct contact with the tooth

D. pressure and vibration are eliminated

E. all the advantages mentioned above

E 70

219. Modern conservative preparation of cavities requires that preventive extension

should be done according to:

A. caries risk of each patient

B. oral hygiene

C. dietary habits

D. patient age

ABC 74

35

E. cavity depth

220. Retention form for traditional amalgam restorations involves:

A. parallel walls

B. flat floor

C. convergency of the walls towards occlusal

D. beveled margins

E. additional cavities (dovetail cavity)

ABCE 78

221. The following factors must be considered when finishing the enamel walls and

margins:

A. the direction of the enamel rods

B. caries risk

C. location of the margins

D. the type of restorative material

E. the matrix used for restoration

ACD 82

222. *Amalgam is contraindicated for the restoration of fissure caries:

A. when perfect isolation cannot be achieved

B. in patients with poor hygiene

C. in large cavitated caries

D. in patients with history of allergy to amalgam (lichen planus)

E. multiple occlusal contacts on the surface of the future restorations

D 93-94

223. In class II Black cavities for amalgam restoration, box-only preparation is

indicated in:

A. proximal lesions in the absence of large carious lesion or defective

restoration on the occlusal surface

B. patients with low caries risk

C. patients with good oral hygiene

D. large lesions

E. proximal lesions with absence of occlusal contacts on the future

restorations

ABC 133

224. The amalgam restoration should be burnished:

A. using perfectly polished burnishers

B. immediately after the carving of the restoration and before the

complete hardening of amalgam

C. by moving the instrument with a light pressure from the center

towards the periphery of the restoration

D. by moving the instrument parallel with the margin of the

restoration

E. by moving the instrument from the margin towards the center of the

restoration

ABC 277

Theme 35.

The etiology and pathogeny of dental caries. (Power Point Presentation).

225. Dental caries:

A. is considered to be an infectious disease

B. is irreversible, even in early stage of the lesions

C. can involve any dental surface expose to oral environment

AD 2,3

36

D. is a a dynamic process

E. is an immune disease

226. *The salivary pH:

A. is normally maintained at values close to neutral

B. is identical to the pH of the bacterial plaque

C. is not influenced by the food intake

D. is 5.5 between meals in patients with low caries activity

E. varies with age and systemic health

E 137,13

8

227. *The most part of the salivary buffer capacity is provided by:

A. peroxydase-thyocianate system

B. bicarbonate system

C. lysozyme

D. salivary glycoproteins

E. calcium ions

B 140

228. Salivary lysozyme:

A. inhibits the precipitation of calcium phosphate on the enamel and

dental substitutes

B. interact with monovalent anions resulting in complexes that bind

the bacterial wall

C. activates bacterial autolysins which disrupt the bacterial cell wall

D. can determine bacterial aggregation

E. stimulates the bacterial glucydic metabolism

BCD 113

229. Salivary components with predominant antibacterial activity are:

A. lactoferrin

B. peroxidase

C. glycocalyx

D. enolase

E. Ig As

ABE 112,12

5

230. The salivary Ig As inhibits the bacterial adhesion by:

A. stimulating the bacterial glycolysis

B. binding to the surface of bacterial adhesins

C. neutralizing the negative charge of bacterial surface

D. neutralizing the activity of other enzymes (GTF)

E. stimulating coaggregation of bacteria

BCD 126

231. Some of the following salivary components play a major role in controlling

remineralization:

A. statherin

B. proline-rich proteins

C. histatin

D. cystatin

E. amylase

ABCD 150

232. *The critical pH for enamel is considered to be:

A. 5,2

B. 7

C. 4

D. 3

E. 10

A 254

37

Theme 36.

Anatomical and clinical forms of pulpitis in permanent teeth References:

1. Elements of Endodontic Pathology and Therapy. Liana Aminov, Maria Vataman.”Gr.T.Popa”

Publisher,UMF Iasi 2014.

2. Endodontic courses. ( C, slide)

233. *In partial serous pulpitis:

A. the axial percussion is painful;

B. horizontal percussion is painful;

C. the answer at vitality tests is intense positive with prolonged pain;

D. respond at vitality tests with a high intensity of stimulation;

E. vitality tests are weakly positive;

C 1/91-

92

234. *Subjective symptoms of total acute serous pulpitis are dominated by:

A. violent painful crises alternated with periods of remission;

B. the presence of deep carious process;

C. throbbing pain;

D. positive axial percussion;

E. diffuse pain.

E 1/91-

92

235. The differential diagnosis of pre-inflammatory hyperemia is made with:

A. dentin hypersensitivity and hyperaesthesia;

B. acute partial serous pulpitis

C. chronic open ulcerated pulpitis;

D. chronic proper closed pulpitis;

E. pulp gangrene;

AB 1/88

236. Differential diagnosis of partial acute serous pulpitis is made with:

A. simple dental caries;

B. pre-inflammatory hyperemia;

C. acute total serous pulpitis;

D. acute partial purulent pulpitis;

E. acute total purulent pulpitis.

BCDE 1/91

237. In acute total serous pulpitis at upper jaw tooth , the pain may be diffused to:

A. the neighboring teeth;

B. the opposing teeth;

C. opposite half of the jaw;

D. the temporal area;

E. orbital area.

ABDE 1/92

238. Physical factors that may cause pre-inflammatory hyperemia are:

A. trauma during preparing the cavities of the teeth;

B. trauma during the prosthetic preparation for crown;

C. thermal excitations transmitted by metal fillings;

D. caries therapy with simple medicinal substances;

E. endotoxins bacteria.

ABCD 1/92-

93

239. The following statements about the treatment indications for pre-

inflammatory hyperemia are true:

A. treatment of dental caries and indirect pulp capping;

B. the treatment of dental caries and direct pulp capping in a session,

when pulp chamber is accidentally open;

C. the treatment of dental caries and direct pulp capping in two

ACDE 1/88

38

session, when accidental opening of the pulp chamber;

D. vital amputation;

E. vital extirpation.

240. The axial percussion is positive in the next pulpitis:

A. pre-inflammatory hyperemia;

B. acute partial serous pulpitis;

C. acute total serous pulpitis;

D. acute partial purulent pulpitis;

E. acute total purulent pulpitis.

CE 1/98-

102

Theme 37.

Pulp necrosis and gangrene References:

1. Elements of Endodontic Pathology and Therapy. Liana Aminov, Maria Vataman.”Gr.T.Popa”

Publisher,UMF Iasi 2014.

2. Endodontic courses. ( C, slide)

241. *Causative factors with a positive action in pulp necrosis may be:

A. low-intensity trauma, but repeated;

B. dislocations, intrusions;

C. the higher temperature than 75 ° C;

D. temperatures below 0 ° C.

E. diabetes, hypertension

E 1/106

242. *About of liquefaction necrosis the following are true, except:

A. is an aseptic mortification of pulp;

B. the tooth color is changed;

C. vitality tests with electric stimulus cannot give a false negative

response;

D. biochemical tests are negative;

E. vitality tests by electric stimulus may give a false positive response.

C C7,

S9

243. Differential diagnosis of pulp necrosis is made with:

A. simple pulp gangrene;

B. chronic open pulpitis;

C. chronic closed pulpitis;

D. dental fracture ;

E. chronic apical periodontitis.

ABCE 1/106

244. Pulp necrosis:

A. is treated as a chronic closed pulpitis;

B. devital extirpation is the first choice;

C. respects the mecano-chemical treatment, completed with an

appropriate root fillings;

D. is treated as a pulp gangrene.

E. does not require antiseptic treatment step, being an aseptic

mortification;

CD 1/106

245. Devitalization with arsenic preparations can produce:

A. coagulation necrosis;

B. liquefaction necrosis;

ADE 1/106 -

109

39

C. the opening of the pulp chamber produces a profuse bleeding;

D. pulp necrosis looks dry;

E. pulp necrosis looks yellow-brown or black-purple.

246. Positive diagnosis of simple pulp gangrene is based on the following:

A. positive bacteriological examination;

B. the presence of deep cavities with open pulp chamber and total

insensitivity at probing;

C. bad smell (is not characteristic);

D. bad smell (is characteristic only for gangrene);

E. bacteriological examination is negative .

ABC 1/106 -

109

247. The differential diagnosis of simple pulp gangrene is made with:

A. acute pulpitis;

B. chronic pulpitis;

C. pulp necrosis;

D. tooth decay;

E. complicated gangrene.

BCE 1/106 -

109

248. Evolution and complications of pulp gangrene can be:

A. apical periodontitis;

B. pulp necrosis;

C. coronal fracture;

D. gingival disease;

E. crown-root fracture.

ACE 1/106 -

109

Theme 38.

Acute and chronic apical periodontitis References:

1. Elements of Endodontic Pathology and Therapy. Liana Aminov, Maria Vataman. ”Gr.T.Popa”

Publisher,UMF Iasi 2014.

2. Endodontic courses. (C, slide)

249. *Acute apical periodontitis - hyperemic stage:

A. is the initial phase of pulp inflammation

B. is the initial phase of inflammation of the periodontal ligament

C. is the initial phase of inflammation of the apical alveolar bone

D. is the initial phase of inflammation of the interradicular septum

E. is the initial phase of inflammation of the interdental septum

C 1/119

250. *The second phase in the evolution of periodontal inflammation in acute apical

hyperemic periodontitis:

A. is called the ,,silent time’’

B. is the alteration of primary tissue phase

C. is characterized by vascular and clinical manifestations

D. is the passive type of hyperemia

E. lasts between several hours and several days

C 1/117

251. The pain in chronic apical periodontitis may include the following aspects:

A. is absent

B. neuralgia

C. the feeling of slight egression

BCD C7,

S 110

40

D. ache with tiredness after mastication

E. pulsatile

252. The simple connective granuloma:

A. is a chronic apical osteitis

B. is a chronic apical periodontitis

C. it is called Palazzi 's internal granuloma

D. it has 4 zones

E. diagnosis is based mostly on the radiological exam

ABDE 1/129

253. The symptoms of apical hyperemic periodontitis:

A. are different depending on the etiological factors

B. positive lateral percussion

C. negative axial percussion

D. the dominant pain is located at the causal tooth

E. positive axial percussion

ADE 1/117

254. The swelling of acute serous apical periodontitis involves:

A. upper lip zone by the upper incisors teeth

B. upper eyelid region by canines

C. chin region by lower incisors

D. genian region by lower molars

ACD 1/119

255. The differential diagnosis of hyperemic acute apical periodontitis is made

with:

A. acute partial serous pulpitis

B. acute total serous pulpitis

C. acute partial purulent pulpitis

D. acute total purulent pulpitis

E. chronic apical fibrous periodontitis

BD 1/117

256. The radiographies are eloquent in:

A. acute hyperemic apical periodontitis

B. acute total serous apical periodontitis

C. the early stages of acute purulent apical periodontitis

D. chronic apical periodontitis

E. final stage of acute apical purulent periodontitis

ADE 1/128

Theme 39.

Treatment of pulp necrosis and gangrene References:

1. Elements of Endodontic Pathology and Therapy. Liana Aminov, Maria Vataman. ”Gr.T.Popa”

Publisher,UMF Iasi 2014.

2. Endodontic courses. (C, slide)

257. *Among different methods used in preparing root canals are included:

A. the manual method

B. sonic

C. ultrasonic

D. laser

E. all of the above

E 1/183

258. *In the composition of Walkhoff solution are included: C 1/ 195

41

A. phenol 30%, camphor 60%, alcohol 10%

B. monoclorphenol and alcohol 10%

C. p-monoclorphenol, camphor and menthol

D. p-monoclorphenol and tricrezol

E. p-monoclorphenol, alcohol and ether 10%

259. The presence of obstacles like mineralizations inside the canal may determine

to associate the mechanical treatment with the use of:

A. EDTA solution 17%

B. 50-60% sulfuric acid solution

C. 30% chlorhidric acid solution

D. 1% chlorhexidine solution

E. EDTA gel, 17%

AE 1/194

260. Among general factors that may cause intracanalar bleeding during endodontic

treatment can be mentioned:

A. pregnancy

B. hemophilia

C. bleeding disorders

D. hepatic diseases with altered blood clotting mechanisms

E. congestive physiological states: menstruation

BCDE 1/ 157

261. The content of the Walkhoff-iodoform paste presents:

A. iodoform

B. chlor phenol

C. thymol

D. zinc oxide

E. formalin

ABCD 1/ 157

262. The following statements are true about quaternary ammonium compounds:

A. they are cationic detergents

B. they reduce the surface tension of the solution

C. they are less active in acidic environment

D. they are more active in acid environment

E. all the above is correct

ABC C12 ,

S27

263. Permeability of root canals can be achieved with the following instruments:

A. fine and very fine Kerr files

B. Miller files

C. fine and very fine tirre-nerf files

D. fine Gates- Glidden drills for enlarging the canal entrance

E. fine Hedstroem files

AD 1/ 173

264. Mechanical treatment in pulp gangrene includes the following:

A. providing of access to the pulp chamber

B. permeability and removal of gangrenous content

C. removing dentin from the infected canal walls

D. establishing the root canal length (working length)

E. definitive root canal filling in the same session

ABCD 1/ 173

Theme 40.

Root canal filling techniques

42

265. *Root canal filling in the same session, is achieved when:

A. we have a dry canal

B. chronic pulpitis

C. acute periodontitis

D. when operating field during treatment was invaded by saliva

E. when we cannot stop the bleeding

A 1/ 174

266. *The warm gutta percha injection technique must respect several conditions,

except:

A. proper root canal cleaning

B. respecting the rules for root canals preparation

C. using a sealing cement to achieve a good apical closure

D. correct placement of the cannula tip

E. excessive widening of the root canal

E 1/ 216

267. The warm gutta percha injection technique must respect several conditions:

A. proper root canal cleaning

B. respecting the rules for root canals preparation

C. needs a sealing cement to achieve a good apical closure

D. needs a correct placement of the cannula tip

E. excessive widening of the root canal

ABCD 1/ 195

268. The apical obturation using the condensation of dentin chips is indicated in:

A. large canals

B. curved canals

C. wide apical foramen

D. apical delta

E. perforations in the coronal third of the canal

AC C14 ,

S53

269. The election of Lentulo file is done after following criteria,:

A. the volume of the canal

B. topographyof the tooth

C. the physical integrity of the Lentulo file

D. the degree of canals curvature

E. the number of canals

ABCD 1/ 206

270. The benefits of gutta percha thermoplastic condensation (Mc Spadden) are:

A. is faster

B. possible compactor fracture

C. obturating all canal space

D. facilitate overfilling in the absence of a proper apical stop

E. no possibility of thermal lesions of periodontal support

AC 1/ 213

271. The disadvantages of using silver cones in root obturation are:

A. untight sealing of the canal

B. does not ensure a perfect sealing in the apical area

C. intense cone radioopacity gives a false impression of filling seal

D. questionable oligodynamic action

E. greater flexibility than gutta-percha cones.

ABCD C14 ,

S54

272. The addition of disinfectant in root filling pastes is not beneficial because:

A. increases the risk of canal overfillings

B. significantly increases marginal microleakage

C. irritate the apical tissue

D. are not inactivated by the periapical fluids

E. cause discoloration of teeth

BC C 13,

S24

43

Theme 41.

Treatment of acute and chronic apical periodontitis

273. *In acute suppurative apical periodontitis, the antibiotics are prescribed in the

following circumstances:

A. in the endosseous phase, when drainage is unsatisfactory for

various reasons

B. in the subperiosteal phase

C. in the submucous phase

D. when we can not make a correct endodontic treatment

E. in the endosseous phase, when drainage is unsatisfactory and the

general condition of the patient is altered

E 1/ 124

274. *The internal granuloma of Palazzi is also known as:

A. „pink spots”

B. chronic open granulomatous pulpitis

C. simple conjunctive granuloma

D. chronic proper closed pulpitis

E. cystic granuloma

A 1/ 124

275. If abundant serous secretion comes from canal in chronic apical periodontitis,

it’s indicated:

A. endodontic drainage

B. leaving the tooth open

C. creating a medicamentous artificial fistula

D. provisional filling paste based on calcium hydroxide

E. chemical cauterization with trichloroacetic acid

ABCD C17 ,

S17

276. The therapeutic attitude towards apical acute arsenical periodontitis, the mild

form, includes:

A. treatment with calcium hydroxide

B. abundant irrigations

C. application in canal of thin braids with dimercaptopropanol

solution

D. introduction in canal of antibiotics paste

E. expectation of pathological phenomena remission

CD C17 ,

S7

277. Iatrogenic causes of the persistence of the canal secretion in chronic apical

periodontitis are:

A. cotton pushed beyond the apex

B. chemical irritation inside canal

C. improper use of the isolation system

D. position of the tooth on the dental arch

E. patient’s age

AC C17 ,

S9

278. To prevent progression of apical serous periodontitis to purulent forms, is

recommended a medication treatment:

A. antibiotics

B. anticoagulants

C. antispasmodics

D. antidepressants

E. analgesics

AB C17 ,

S11

44

279. Treatment plan in chronic fistulising apical periodontitis includes the

following steps:

A. pulpectomy

B. abundant irrigation through tooth -fistula tract

C. obturation in the same session

D. canal medication

E. retrograde tooth obturation

BD C17 ,

S18

280. Treatment of acute apical periodontitis may be dictated by:

A. patient’s profession

B. patient’s general health status

C. number of teeth

D. anatomic and clinical form of inflammation

E. the number of the roots

BD 1/ 122

Theme 42.

The Morphology of the marginal periodontium

281. Gingiva:

A. Its role is to provide the connective attachment

B. Begins at the muco-gingival line

C. Begins at the gingiva line

D. Covers the alveolar processes around the cervical of the tooth parts

E. Covers the alveolar processes around the coronal tooth

BD

5

282. The specialized junctional epithelium of free marginal gingiva:

A. It forms gingival epithelial attachment at the tooth surface

B. Has a width of about 1 mm at coronal-apical direction

C. Represents the connection between gum and root surface

D. It did not shall be renewed along the entire life

E. Surrounds each tooth at cervical level

AE 10

283. Gingival sulcus (sulcus):

A. The average depth of the sulcus is 1,8 mm (1-3 mm)

B. Clinical depth of gingival sulcus is bigger than its histological

depth

C. Represents the space created when the marginal gingiva is removed

from the tooth surface

D. Begins from the base of the marginal gingiva to the most coronal

level of the junction epithelium

E. The clinical depth of the gingival sulcus does not correspond to the

histological depth

ACE 11

284. Gingival innervation is provided by:

A. The collateral branches of the maxillary and mandibular branch of

the trigeminal nerve

B. The inferior alveolar nerve, for the vestibular gingiva of lower

anterior teeth

C. The maxillary alveolar nerve for the entire superior gingiva

D. The posterior palatine nerve for the entire palatine gingiva

E. The buccal nerve for the vestibular gingiva of lower molars and

ACE 12

45

premolars

285. The periodontal ligament (desmodontium):

A. The average width of desmodontal space at a functional tooth adult

is 0.18 mm

B. The narrower area is at the apex

C. Basically it is a lax connective tissue

D. Has the widest portion in the rotation area (hypomochlion)

E. The dental-alveolar total space varies depending on the dental arch

morphology

AC 13

286. The collagen fibers are arranged in several groups:

A. Circular fibers

B. Apical fibers

C. Oblique fibers

D. Vertical fibers

E. Horizontal fibers

BCE 13-14

287. What is the function of the periodontal ligament:

A. Mechanical function

B. Nutritional function

C. Vegetative function

D. Sensorial Function

E. Chemical Function

ABD 14

288. The alveolar bone has following functions:

A. It is an intra-alveolar lever arm

B. It takes over the mechanical stress and transforms it into dispersed

traction forces

C. It fixes the periodontal ligament fibers

D. It provides support for the whole dental crown

E. It is an intra-alveolar lever arm of 1/3 from the tooth length

ABC 16

Theme 43.

The etiopathogeny of chronic marginal periodontitis

289. Plaque has the following characteristics:

A. It has a homogeneous composition

B. It is a deposit with a certain ordering

C. Its composition does not change

D. It is formed of matrix material

E. It represents a mineral deposit from saliva

BD

19

290. Calculus acts on periodontium:

A. By the mechanical action

B. By the chemical action

C. By the action of microorganisms

D. By the physico-chemical action

E. By the biological action

AC 23

291. The consistency of food:

A. Can play the role on the rate formation of plaque

B. Soft and sticky foods produce less plaque

AE 23

46

C. Favors the production of lactic acid

D. Acts on lithic bacteria

E. Soft and sticky foods act as favorable environment to the plaque

retention

292. The absence of teeth can lead to:

A. Root resorption of adjacent teeth

B. Dental inclusions

C. Dental migrations

D. Tippings

E. Extrusions

CDE 24

293. Malocclusion:

A. Is mostly due to incomplete labial occlusion

B. Can suppress the attached gingiva

C. May aggravate parafunctions

D. Create liminal forces on periodontal tissue

E. Can cause harmful occlusal forces

CE 24

294. The clinical symptoms of severe deficiencies in proteins, calories, iron, zinc,

vitamins A, B, C are manifested by:

A. Occlusal disorders

B. Color and topography alterations of oral mucosa

C. Color and topography alterations of lingual mucosa

D. Specific lesions

E. Cervical caries lesions

BCD 26

295. Certain medications that cause tissue modifications that are accentuated by the

presence of plaque are:

A. Chemotherapeutic agents

B. Nifedipine

C. Cephalosporins of third generation

D. Cyclosporin A

E. Diphenylhydantoin

BDE 26

296. Reactive phenomena of the periodontium are:

A. Vascular modifications

B. Inflammatory edema

C. Leukocyte margination

D. Changes in tissue

E. Cells of the inflammatory exudate

ABCE 28

Theme 44.

Diagnosis of gingival-periodontal disease

297. Aspects of establishing the diagnosis are:

A. The degree of gingival bleeding

B. Type of disease

C. Status of gingival inflammation

D. Dental malocclusion

E. The importance of attachment loss

BE

75

298. The criteria for evaluation of periodontal disease activity are: ACD 76

47

A. Biological

B. Biochemicals

C. Clinical

D. Microbiological

E. Genetic

299. The necessary conditions for the loss of attachment are:

A. Effective host defense systems

B. A favorable environment for virulent bacteria

C. Poor host defense systems

D. The presence of protective bacteria

E. The presence of virulent bacteria

BCE 77

300. Pathogenicity of bacteria consists of:

A. Antigenic action

B. Lack of production of exo and endotoxins

C. Chemical action

D. Enzymes produced

E. Bacterian degradation products

ADE 77

301. Plaque microorganisms produce tissue alterations through mechanisms such

as:

A. Bacterial antigens

B. Inhibition of antibody production

C. Bacterial degradation products

D. Production of enzymes

E. Production of toxins

ACDE 77

302. Pathogenic bacterias are:

A. Anaerobic gram negative

B. Spirochetes

C. Coccobacillus

D. Parasites

E. Mycoplasma

ABD 78

303. The main characteristics of bacteria virulence are:

A. The cocoide form

B. The filamentous aspect

C. The secretion of hydrogen peroxide

D. The lack of mobility

E. The presence of mobility

ABD 79

304. The sulcus and periodontal pocket contains:

A. Osteoclasts

B. Vascular elements

C. Ions

D. Osteocytes

E. Gingival fluid

BCE 81

Theme 45.

Classification of marginal periodontium diseases

305. *The most common type of gingival disease is: D 90

48

A. A juvenile periodontitis

B. An inflammatory disease associated with systemic factors

C. A rapidly progressive periodontitis

D. A simple inflammatory disease, induced by dental plaque

E. A necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

306. *Acute gingivitis:

A. Disappears spontaneously and appears again

B. Is less severe

C. Is painful, debuts abruptly and has a short duration

D. Is the most frequent type

E. Is common in elder people

C 91

307. Hyperplasic gingivitis, as a secondary effect to some drugs can be induced by:

A. vitamin C

B. calcium channel blockers

C. cyclosporine

D. hidantoine

E. anticoagulants

BCD 95

308. A patient with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, the patient complains of:

A. headache

B. increase of pain on contact with cold foods

C. affected general status

D. fever

E. halitosis

CDE 101

309. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis has the following local factors:

A. unsatisfactory oral hygiene

B. smoking

C. age

D. seasons

E. spirochettes, fusiform bacteria

ABE 100

310. From a clinical point of view, gingivitis manifestations are:

A. real periodontal pockets

B. color modification

C. volume modification

D. gingival pruritus

E. form modification

BCDE 125

311. Conditioned gingival overgrowths are represented by:

A. rapidly progressive periodontitis

B. pregnancy epulis

C. puberty gingivitis

D. necrotizing-ulcerative periodontitis

E. pregnancy gingivitis

BCE 97

312. Chronic gingivitis (simple, uncomplicated) has the following objective clinical

signs:

A. the gingiva is red in color

B. viscous hypersalivation

C. frequent false pockets

D. bleeding on probing

E. gingival pruritus

ACD 92

49

Theme 46.

Clinical forms – symptoms in marginal periodontitis Cap: Semnele clinice ale gingivitelor, pag 102-104

Cap : Semne clinice ale parodontitelor marginale, pag 105-136

313. *Hystopathologically, color modification of the gingiva means:

A. edema

B. circulatory stasis

C. atrophy

D. ulcerations

E. inflammation

B 108

314. *Which of the following statement does not characterize marginal

periodontitis?

A. tissue inflammation is present

B. during its evolution, periodontal pockets can appear

C. the inflammatory process is located in accordance to the apex of the

root

D. bone resorbtion also appears

E. dental mobility may also appear

C 106

315. Prepubescent periodontitis can be asociated with:

A. Down syndrome

B. Papillon-Lefevre syndrome

C. Kaposi sarcoma

D. HPV viral infections

E. Plummer-Vinson syndrome

AB 125

316. Juvenile periodontitis is:

A. a rare disease which affects 0.06-0,22% of children between 14 and

25 years old

B. a necrotizing-ulcerative periodontitis

C. an aggressive periodontitis

D. a periodontal atrophy

E. a form of hyperplasic gingivitis, as a secondary effect to some

drugs

AC 126

317. The main signs of juvenile periodontitis are not:

A. pathological dental mobility

B. false periodontal pockets

C. gingival overgrowth

D. low gingival inflammation

E. diminished bone support

BC 126

318. Periodontal manifestations in AIDS are asociated with:

A. HIV gingivitis

B. allergic gingivitis

C. oral candidosis

D. Kaposi sarcoma

E. HIV periodontitis

ACDE 102

319. The objective signs in adult periodontitis are:

A. mastication deficiency

BCD 130

50

B. gingival inflammation

C. mobility

D. periodontal pockets

E. pain

320. Radiographic signs of occlusal trauma are:

A. mild pain

B. enlargement of periodontal space

C. prolonged pains

D. violent passing pain (few seconds)

E. thickening of lamina dura

BE 136

Theme 47.

Evolution, prognostic and complications of periodontal diseases

321. The objective symptoms in acute periodontal abscess are:

A. the covering mucosa is shiny stippled and purple in color

B. painful gingiva

C. oval or round tumefaction of the gingiva

D. pain in vertical percussion of the respective tooth

E. spontaneous pain of medium intensity

BC 138

322. The following statements about acute periodontal abscess are not true:

A. it is not a chronic marginal periodontitis complication

B. it is localized only buccal

C. it is accompanied by radiological modifications of the bone

D. it is produced by virulent germ exacerbation within the periodontal

pockets when natural way drainage is low or blocked

E. is localized only palatal or lingual

ABE 138-

139

323. Radicular hypersensitivity is represented by:

A. gingival bleeding

B. pain at contact with chemical agents

C. false periodontal pocket

D. pain at contact with physical agents

E. pain at contact with thermal agents

BDE 142

324. The favorable prognostic of the periodontal disease is given by:

A. adequate remaining bone support

B. 3rd degree interradicular lesions

C. there is no bone loss

D. adequate patient cooperation

E. high dental mobility

AD 148

325. *Charon claims that a high risk patient is the one who:

A. suffers from a systemic disease

B. smokes very much

C. in the absence of treatment and diagnosis, will have disabling

edentulousness before being 50 years old

D. has a necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

E. has a bacterial chronic gingivitis

C 148

326. The cuneiform lesions: ABCD 141

51

A. appear in the cervical portion of the crown

B. are more frequent in the vestibular 1/3 of the tooth

C. is a lack of substance

D. have a triangular shape with the base towards the longitudinal axis

of the tooth and the tip towards the exterior

E. appear in the middle third of dental surfaces

327. In the chronic periodontal abscess:

A. the general status of the patient is surely altered

B. there are not many symptoms

C. it has an evolution towards an acute state

D. the fistula orifice can be hard to detect

E. a fistula appears, that opens on the gingival mucosa

BCDE 139

328. A role in the formation of cuneiform lesions is played by:

A. the occlusion trauma

B. the acid chemical erosion

C. the wearing down of cement and dentin through excessive brushing

D. the nervous system - bulimia

E. none of the above

ABCD 141

Theme 48.

The gingivitis treatment

329. *The initial periodontal therapy has the goal:

A. to create an oral cavity lacking as much as possible plaque and

calculus

B. to re-establish occlusal equilibrium

C. orthodontic treatment

D. to accomplish odontal restorations

E. to initiate periodontal reactivation therapy

A 213

330. *The means through which the patient accomplishes hygiene are:

A. gingival debridement

B. mechanical treatment of accesible root surfaces

C. supragingival scaling

D. plaque removal through tooth brushing

E. subgingival scaling

D 214

331. The means of autocontrol of the bacterial plaque are:

A. dental brushes

B. professional brushing

C. interdental hygiene means

D. special oral hygiene means

E. supragingival scaling

ACD 214

332. Bacterial plaque autocontrol at home is done:

A. in the beginning, at 2-3 days

B. once a week

C. every other week

D. until dental brushing is corrected

E. it is not mendatory

ABD 214

52

333. Soft dental brushes:

A. are more flexible

B. are indicated in all brushing techniques

C. are less traumatizing

D. are indicated in gingival sulcus brushing

E. are indicated for interdental areas, with low accesibility

ABD 215

334. The BASS brushing technique has the following characteristics:

A. it is a secvential technique

B. it is recommended only for patients with periodontal diseases

C. it establishes the cleaning of the distal face of the last molar

D. it uses vibratory motions

E. it is recommended only to patients with periodontal recessions

ACD 216

335. The modified BASS technique is not recommended:

A. in all clinical situations

B. when no other technique can be used

C. for children

D. when interdental papillas are retracted

E. for the elderly

ABCE 216

336. The CHARTERS technique has the following indications:

A. cleaning of interproximal spaces in case of gingival papilla

recession

B. gingival massage

C. it does not have special indications

D. cleaning gingival areas that are healing post gingivectomy

E. it is not indicated for children

ABD 217

Theme 49.

The marginal periodontitis treatment ( pag 222-264, 229-235, 258-260,292-294 )

337. *The attack angle in the use of Gracey curettes is:

A. 20 degrees

B. an angle with values between 45-90 degrees

C. there is no particular angle

D. the angle in which the best adaptation of the curette is achieved

E. 10 degrees

B 224

338. *The immobilization of mobile teeth in the periodontal disease:

A. is a prophylactic measure

B. is a therapeutic means of functional equilibration within the

complex periodontopathic treatment

C. belongs to the curative-corrective prosthetic stage

D. is done exclusively in young patients

E. is counterindicated for patients with diabetes

B 229

339. Tetracycline has the following advantage in the periodontal disease treatment:

A. has a high concentration in serum and crevicular fluid

B. it inhibits bone resorbtion

C. it can be administered in lupus

ABE 239

53

D. it can be administered in cases of renal diseases

E. has an anti-inflammatory effect

340. The counter indications of administering tetracycline are:

A. pregnancy

B. children under 12 years

C. renal affections

D. schizophrenia

E. lupus

ABCE 240

341. Metronidazole is indicated in:

A. NUG

B. infections with more than 50% contents of spirochetes

C. can be administered to patient who also take lithium

D. infections with trichomonas present

E. patients with anticoagulant therapy

ABD 241

342. Major indications of temporary dental immobilization are:

A. stabilizing teeth before and after periodontal surgery

B. prevention of pathological migration

C. when mobility is not reduced after occlusal equilibration

D. evaluation of the prognostic

E. to restore the aesthetic function

ABCD 231

343. The general principles of immobilizations are:

A. the multidirectional inclusion of teeth

B. the inclusion of the lowest number of teeth possible

C. applying the system as close to the rotation axis of the tooth as

possible

D. superficial periodontium protection

E. the inclusion of the highest number of teeth possible

ADE 232

344. Temporary immobilizations are used:

A. to prevent the pathological tooth migration

B. to facilitate the scaling

C. in teeth with odontal crown lesions

D. to facilitate the periodontal curettage

E. in teeth with gingival hyper growth

ABD 232

Theme 50.

Main therapeutical directions and treatment schemes in gingivitis and

periodontitis (pg. 306-320)

345. The treatment for necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is:

A. amendment of acute inflammation

B. amendment of the generalized toxic symptoms

C. amendment of the chronic inflammation

D. correction of the general status

E. biostimulation periodontal methods

ABD 306

346. Clinical manifestations of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis can be associated

with:

A. flu states

BCDE 307

54

B. menstrual cycle

C. some foods

D. psychological stress

E. tiredness

347. A patient with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is treated like a non-ambulatory

patient if he / she:

A. has symptoms of general status alteration

B. presents a localized adenopathy

C. presents fever

D. suffers from asthenia

E. does not present systemic complications

ACD 307

348. In the first session, in the case of a patient with necrotizing ulcerative

gingivitis it is recommended:

A. the treatment is limited to the acute inflammation areas

B. the necrotic pseudo membranes are eliminated with a cotton pad

imbibed in peroxide

C. systemic antibiotics

D. the treatment will involve the entire oral cavity

E. oral rinses 2 times a day

ABC 307

349. In the first stage of treating a patient with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, oral

rinses have the following characteristics:

A. are repeated every 2 hours

B. are done as many times a day as possible

C. consist of a mix of equal parts warm water and peroxide 3%

D. can use chlorhexidine 0,12%

E. are repeated every 4 hours

ACD 307

350. *For a patient with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis:

A. systemic antibiotherapy is indicated

B. systemic antibiotics administration is not mandatory

C. can resort to local antibiotherapy

D. systemic antibiotherapy is indicated only as complementary to local

antibiotherapy

E. antibiotherapy is indicated only for patients treated ambulatory

A 307

351. For the necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis patient treated in ambulatory it is

recommended:

A. to isolate the inflammation area and then it is dried

B. to administer injectable anesthesia after which the false membranes

are removed

C. before removing the pseudo membranes, to apply a topic anesthesia

D. to use wiping motions for areas as large as possible using the same

cotton pad

E. to wash the area with warm water and then remove the superficial

calculus

ACE 308

352. In the first treatment stage of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis:

A. subgingival scaling is contraindicated

B. supra and sub gingival scaling are indicated

C. periodontal curettage in closed field is indicated

D. periodontal curettage is contraindicated

E. ultrasonic scaling is preferred

ADE 308

55

Theme 51. Dental occlusion

Surse bibliografice:

1. Gnatologie clinica - Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela Ifteni, ed. Apollonia, 2001

2. Examenul clinic in gnatologie- Gabriela Ifteni, Alina Apostu, Oana Tanculescu, ed. Gr. T.

Popa, UMF Iasi, 2014

353. *When we appreciate the mouth opening amplitude we must add the

dimension of:

A. Covering degree of maxilla incisors by mandible incisors

B. Covering degree of mandible incisors by maxilla incisors

C. Freeway space

D. VDRP

E. VDCR

B 2, 22

354. *Occlusion vertical dimension is measured between:

A. Trch si SN

B. Oph si SN

C. N si SN

D. SN and Gn

E. SN and Go

D 2, 52

355. *Deglutition is not realised :

A. In MI

B. CR

C. When condyles are centered in glenoid fossa

D. Throught balanced muscle contraction

E. B si D

A 1, 274

356. *Terminal occlusion represents:

A. The movement of interincisive maxilla point from RP to MI

B. The movement of interincisive mandible point from RP to CR

C. The movement of interincisive maxilla point from RP to CR

D. The movement of interincisive mandible point from RP to CR

E. Pure mandible rotation movement from no dental contact to first

dental contacts.

E 1, 214

357. We cannot name as bone components of TMJ:

A. Mandible condyle

B. Temporal condyle

C. Coronoid process

D. Disc

E. Glenoid cavity

CD 1, 42-

54

358. Posterior insertion of lateral pterygoid muscle is not placed at the level of:

A. Mandible condyle neck

B. Joint disc

C. Zygomatic arch

D. Coronoid process

E. Schaphoid fossa

CDE 1, 64

359. There are descending muscles:

A. Temporal

B. Lateral Pterigoid

C. Anterior belly of digastric

D. Maseter

CE 1, 55

56

E. Milohyoid

360. Maximum value of free way space is:

A. Less then 2mm

B. 2-4mm

C. Over 4mm

D. 4 mm

E. 3 mm

D 1, 159

Theme 52.

Temporomandibular disorder-TMD

References:

3. Gnatologie clinica - Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela Ifteni, ed. Apollonia, 2001

361. *Extra-postural malrelation through anterior translation means muscle tone:

A. Increased on elevators

B. Decreased on elevators

C. Increased on lower muscles

D. Decreased on lower muscles

E. Increased on propulsors

E 333

362. *Extra-postural malrelation through posterior translation means muscle tone:

A. Increased on elevators

B. Decreased on elevators

C. Increased on lower muscles

D. Decreased on lower muscles

E. Increased on propulsors

E 333

363. TMD periodontal clinical signs are

A. Pain

B. Inflammation

C. Redness

D. Local heat

E. Retraction

ABE 318-

319

364. Mandible deviation in opening is TMD signs for:

A. TMJ

B. Muscle

C. Teeth

D. Periodontum

E. Bones

AB 314,

317

365. Stillman fissure represents:

A. Part of dental crowns

B. Periodontal retraction

C. A specific kind of caries

D. A TMD periodontal sign

E. A TMD odontal sign

BD 319

366. Clinical dental signs of TMD are:

A. Dental pain

B. Periodontal pain

C. The lack of contact point

AD 320

57

D. Dental fracture

E. The articular pain

367. There are static occlusion signs of TMD:

A. Symmetric sagittal curves

B. Asymmetric sagittal curves

C. Symmetric transversal curve

D. Asymmetric transversal curve

E. Increased over-jet

BD 323

368. Extra-postural malrelations with the increased inferior face level dimension is

a consequence of muscle tone modification:

A. Increased on elevators

B. Decreased on elevators

C. Increased on depressors

D. Decreased on depressors

E. Increased on propulsors

BC 330

Theme 53

Clinical and paraclinical examinations in coronary odontal lesions and partially

reduced edentoulism

Bibliographic references

2. Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale intercalate – Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna,

Gabriela Ifteni, ed. Apollonia, 2001

369. *During the face clinical examination are not included:

A. the exam of mimic

B. the medical history

C. the aspect of the pre-tragian regions

D. the aspect of the temporal regions

E. examination of the lips mucous

B 122-

123

370. *Facial symmetry should be analyzed:

A. in the posture relationship

B. in the centered relationship

C. vertically with respect to the vertical axis of the face

D. transversely with respect to the coincidence of the inter-incisive lines

E. transversely to the vertical axis of the face

E 123

371. The Condylocomp LR 3 method allows:

A. relative accuracy of limit and functional movements recording

B. very faithful recording, but without the possibility of handling errors

correction

C. establishing the location of the hinge axis

D. drawing the Posselt scheme

E. recording inter-incisor point trajectories

CD 189

372. The gnatho-foto-static exam can be used:

A. to assess dental occlusion

B. in order to analyze the cranio-mandibular relations ABCE

189-

190

58

C. to evaluate the size of mandibular deviation

D. for the analysis of mandibular dynamic dysfunctions

E. to provide details to the gingival zenith (to the dental laboratory)

373. By dynamic palpation of the articular joint (ATM) we can detect:

A. symmetry, synergy and amplitude of the mandibular condyles

excursions

B. joint sounds

C. amplitude of mouth opening

D. chin excursions from the front and from profile

E. sensitivity of the pre-tragian regions

ABE 128

374. The static examination of the mouth orifice may reveal:

A. an increased amplitude of mouth opening due to capsular-ligament

laxity

B. lips texture modifications

C. Cupidon's bow symmetry or asymmetry

D. a reduced amplitude of mouth opening

E. the diminishing of the lip red mucosa due the upper lip depression in

case of EPR Kennedy cl. I

BC 130

375. We consider the dentoalveolar arch interrupted if:

A. the interproximal contact point is absent through a diastema

B. EPR Kennedy class I, without any changes, is present

C. third or fourth degree of abrasions is present

D. the interproximal contact point is absent through edentation

E. the arch is restored by intercalated prosthesis

AD 133

376. Vitality tests are appreciated for:

A. warmth, by heating the tooth with a special instrument

B. sour

C. cold, by using Kelen or ice sticks

D. sweet

E. electricity, by electrical excitation of the pulp neural elements

ACE 134-

135

Theme 54.

Treatment principles in unidental restorations by using dental bridges

Bibliographical sources:

3. Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale intercalate – Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela

Ifteni, Ed. Apollonia, 2001 (A Clinical Therapy of Partial Intercalated Edentation)

4. Terapia protetic conjuncta unitara - Gabriela Ifteni, Vasile Burlui, Ed. Gama, 2002( The

Conjunct Unitary Prosthetic Therapy)

377. *The prophylactic concept in fixed prosthetic therapy:

A. Is based on the preventive nature of the work performed in the

nonspecific treatment

B. Is implemented on the basis of epidemiological studies

C. It refers only to the biological principle

D. Is applied selectively in the treatment, i.e. only in the case of pro-

prosthetic therapy

B 3, 203

59

E. Is only materialized in sanitary education measures

378. *Knowing the risk groups of patients is reflected in:

A. Pre-prosthetic delayed treatment in patients with severe periodontal

disease

B. General preventive measures

C. Aseptic and antisepsis measures

D. Application of nonspecific prophylaxis and gnatho-protective

specific prophylaxis

E. Applying individualized treatment principles

D 3, 204

379. Avoiding the crossed contamination the stomatological cabinet aims at:

A. Observing the basic rules of asepsis and antisepsis

B. Maintenance of the sterilisers

C. Use of cold sterilisation when warm sterilisation is possible

D. Re-use of a disposable material, even sterilised

E. Use of a protection mask

ABE 3, 210

380. General prophylaxis:

A. It has a systemic feature specific to the proteic treatment

B. It grants a special importance to the process of avoiding the crossed

contamination

C. It has a non-specific systemic feature

D. d) It has to be considered in the integrated context of the

stomatognathic system

E. None of the above answers is correct

BCD 2, 209

381. The chlorinated compounds are used for pre-sterilisation of the instruments

because they present the following advantages:

A. They have a persistent smell

B. In increased concentrations they present a sporicidal activity

C. They have an large spectrum

D. They do not produce corrosion of metals

E. They have a slow and latent action in time

BE 2, 211

382. The pre-eruptive prophylaxis aims at:

A. Preventing some serious diseases (congenital syphilis, rubella)

B. A correct nutrition of the mother

C. The prophylaxis of the endocrine diseases

D. The prophylaxis of the circadian rhythm troubles

E. Il is also named local primary prophylaxis

ABC 2, 213

383. Local secondary prophylaxis refers to:

A. Conjunct prosthetic therapy

B. It takes into account the treatment and the prevention of consequent

complications of the carious disease

C. It takes into account the treatment and the prevention of consequent

complications of the parodontal disease

D. It emphasises the necessity of maintaining the rigorous oral hygiene

E. It addresses to the dental caries free teeth

BCD 2, 213

384. The EPR curative principle refers to:

A. The patient’s awareness through health education programs

B. Morphological recovery

C. The assuring of an optimal static and dynamic stability of the fixed

functional device

D. Functional recovery

BD 2, 215

60

E. Aesthetical recovery depending on the social position of the patient

Theme 55.

Intracoronal and extracoronal unidental restorations

Bibliographical sources:

2. Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale intercalate – Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela

Ifteni, Ed. Apollonia, 2001 (A Clinical Therapy of Partial Intercalated Edentation)

3. Terapia protetică conjuncta unitara - Gabriela Ifteni, Vasile Burlui, Ed. Gama, 2002

(The Conjunct Unitary Prosthetic Therapy)

385. *Clinical preparation for radicular restoration begins with:

A. vestibular side and incision edge preparation

B. preparation of the oral area in form of a dihedral angle

C. oral side – supra-cingulate surface preparation

D. root preparation

E. preparation of the oral side-lateral cingulate surface

B 3, 156

386. *Preparation for partial crown 4/5 consists of:

A. occlusal, vestibular and the vestibular half of the proximal sides

reduction

B. occlusal side, oral side and oral 2/3 of the proximal sides

C. oral side, oral cusp, internal slope of the vestibular cuspid and the

2/3 oral area of the proximal sides

D. only the proximal and the occlusal sides

E. only the oral and the proximal sides

C 3, 161-

163

387. The indications for the inlays are:

A. in abnormal colorations on the limited parts of teeth

B. for small amplitude bridges

C. for patients under 18 years old

D. to immobilise the teeth with periodontopathies

E. in extended decays

ABD 3, 138

388. In order to stabilise the partial restoration (inlay) we can use supplementary

retention like:

A. steps or thresholds

B. axial or horizontal ditches

C. dentine wells and radicular pin

D. wings

E. inlay box

ABDE 3,142

389. The carious process opening for achieving a inlay cavity is performed with:

A. chisels for enamel cu and hatchets for dentine

B. spherical mills

C. thinning mills

D. wheel mills

E. chamfer mills

AB 3, 143

390. The retention form achievement for inlay cavity is made through :

A. reciprocity ( parallel walls, 2 by 2)

B. lateral walls convergent to the occlusal plane

C. the angles between the wall and the side walls pulp that are not well

AD 3, 145

61

defined

D. optimal ratio between the length and the depth

E. smooth lateral walls

391. The cavity edges bevelling for inlay I class:

A. is done at 35-45º for the external angles of the enamel

B. is also made for ceramic or composite inlay

C. is done at 15-25º for external angles of the enamel

D. The bevelling is not indicated for the ceramic or composite inlay

E. The bevelling is not made when the cavity edges are placed on the

first part of the cusp slope near the occlusal groove.

ADE 3, 145

392. For the partial crown 7/8 we prepare:

A. all tooth sides

B. the occlusal side, vestibular side and ½ of the vestibular mesial side

C. in addition, comparing to 4/5 crown, the distal half of the vestibular

surface

D. a ditch parallel to the insertion axis, placed on the middle of the

vestibular surface

E. a chamfer groove to protect the mesial half of the unprepared

vestibular surface

CDE 3, 167

Theme 56.

Structural elements of dental bridges

Bibliographic references:

2. Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale intercalate – Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela

Ifteni, Ed. Apollonia, 2001 (A Clinical Therapy of Partial Intercalated Edentation)

393. *To respect the tissue economy for the abutment teeth is indicated to use like

retainers:

A. partial veneer crowns instead of inlays, if the abutment teeth are

healthy

B. partial veneer crowns instead of inlays, if the abutment teeth are

affected by extensive carious processes

C. all ceramic crowns because these require a smaller reduction

comparing to the metal-ceramic crowns

D. all metal crowns because these require a smaller reduction

comparing to partial veneer crowns

E. regarding tooth preparations, full veneer crowns are the most

economical comparing to other covering crowns.

A 2, 305

394. *Partial veneer crowns with additional retention:

A. have the advantage of not risking to damage the pulp

B. do not require a revaluation of pulp vitality before final

cementation

C. radiological examination is necessary before preparations

D. refer to the extrinsic and pulpal retention

E. are totally contraindicated in modern therapy.

C 2, 306

395. Perforated plate pontic:

A. is used when the metal structure is made of Cr-Co alloys

BD 2, 339

62

B. allows the obtaining of a totally physiognomic metal-ceramic

prosthesis

C. has the structure of a flexible metallic strip

D. is indicated for the economy of frame precious material

E. especially indicated for metal-acrylic and metal-composite bridges

396. In descending order, the most biological retainers are

A. adhesive bridges, all metal crowns, all ceramic crowns

B. partial veneer crowns, inlays, all metal crowns

C. partial veneer crowns, adhesive bridges, metal-acrylic crowns

D. all metal, metal ceramic, all ceramic crowns

E. all ceramic, metal-acrylic, Richmond crowns.

ABD 2, 305

397. Biological conditions of retainers consist of:

A. unique insertion axis

B. minimal sacrifice of amelo-dentinal substance

C. pulp prophylaxis

D. possibility of sterilising the metallic frame of the retainers

E. periodontal prophylaxis.

BCE 2, 305-

307

398. Subgingival positioning of the retainers cervical borders is conditioned by:

A. special aesthetic demand

B. biomechanical conditions which require reduced occlusal forces

C. decay with a subgingival extension

D. Very high tooth crown

E. Pre-existent prosthetic restorations with subgingival placed edges.

ACE 2, 308

399. Morphological restoration for retainers suppose:

A. respecting the form and the dimension of lateral sides in order to

restore the contact points

B. morphological restoration should be done according to morphology

of the teeth replaced

C. respecting of the habitual occlusion parameters, even if the

mandibular-cranial relations are eccentric

D. morphological shaping must remake the form, the volume and the

position for dental arch harmony restoring

E. Building up some emphasized convexities of the lateral sides in

view of parodontal protection.

ABD 2, 309

400. The retention for the prosthetic crowns can be:

A. partial intrinsic

B. partial extrinsic

C. corono-radicular

D. occlusal

E. total extrinsic

BCE 2, 311

Theme 57.

Stages of therapy through dental bridges – the dental molding print

401. *The dental molding print for fixed prostheses treatment requires:

A. A couple of proper density silicone-based materials

B 465

63

B. Materials with suitable fidelity

C. To use the two-step impression technique

D. A correct preliminary model

E. To get the occlusal relationships by using the biting technique

402. *The process of imprinting for the long-term bridges requires:

A. Sanitation of the prosthetic field

B. A balanced prosthetic field

C. The best moment for imprinting is achieved through pre- and pro-

prosthetics interventions,

D. Using the provisional prosthesis for a period of 2 weeks, in order to

get the marginal periodontium compliance

E. Precise and non-bleeding techniques and hiqh-quality imprinting

materials

C 464

403. The total/global impression is used due to the following advantages:

A. Is the only method which can accurately reproduce the tooth-

prosthetic joint.

B. It can be used no matter the edentulous class

C. It gives occlusal stability in maximal intercuspal position for the

future prosthesis

D. It offers the necessary details for a functional and aesthetic

restoration

E. It allows the making of composite prosthesis on the same working

model

CDE 467

404. Single/Unitary guidance impression indications include:

A. Clinically difficult cases

B. Making very precise prostheses

C. Making prostheses from very expensive materials

D. The impossibility of taking a total impression without

single/unitary guidance

E. Using materials wiyh high fluidity

ABC 473

405. Choose the incorrect answer:

A. The unitary models are obtained by sectioning the working model

B. Making the global impression in 3 steps represents the unitary

model of the dental arch, because all the necessary elements for

making a prosthesis are reproduced.

C. Metalic ring impression is a step in obtaining the unitary model

D. The most used materials for making the global impression with

unitary guidance are thio-rubber and thermo-plastic masses

E. The final impression in unitary guidance tehnique is made with

silicone-based materials

ABD 468-

471

406. Using the standard trays for the impressions of the entire dental arch are

mandatory:

A. No matter the number of prepared teeth

B. In three steps global imprinting methods

C. When there are more than two successively teeth prepared

D. In order to obtain a model which respects the relations with the

other teeth, especially with the antagonist ones

E. In order to offer to the technician additional information regarding

homonym teeth

CE 472

407. Thomson described an impression method which uses no unitary guidance: DE 474

64

A. The main feature of the technique regards the physical and

chemical properties of the thio-rubbers

B. The technique uses special devices to keep the optimal

temperature for setting time

C. Displacement of the gingival sulcus requires an astringent or

hemostatic substance

D. Trays impressions are equipped with cold water irrigation canals

E. It uses reversible hydro-colloid impression materials

408. Displacement of the gingival sulcus is necessary:

A. No matter the topography of the gingival threshold, because the

materials should be able to show the entire limit of the preparation

B. Every time when the bony threshold has to be located

C. In order to obtain, on a working model, the entire tooth

preparation limit

D. In order to not harm the biological space with the imprinting

materials

E. To obtain the depth of the gingival sulcus

CE 475

Theme 58.

Fixed prosthodontics stages: Registration of mandibular-cranial relationships

(MCR) References:

2. Examenul clinic în gnatologie - Gabriela Ifteni, Alina Apostu, Oana Tanculescu, Ed. Gr. T.

Popa, UMF Iasi, 2014 3. Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale intercalate – Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela Ifteni, Ed.

Apollonia, 2001

409. *Relative to Frankfurt plan, the inclination of the articular slope can be of:

A. 0-5°,

B. 15-25°

C. 30-40°

D. 40-55°

E. 60°.

D 3, 172

410. * The recording of the craniomandibular relationship can be done as such:

A. In the same time with the impression

B. Only as a separate stage

C. With occlusal simulator

D. By using T-Scan

E. By using Coe Pak Automix (polyether silicone type)

A

3, 504

411. The occlusion key:

A. Is the oldest method of simulating ATM movements

B. Cannot be used in the absence of a transfer face-bow

C. Can simulate only the opening and closing movements

D. It's also called articulator

E. Is indicated for fixed restorations of large amplitude

AC 3, 184

412. In terms of indications, the face-bows can be:

A. For hinge axis determining ABD 3, 185

65

B. For transfer

C. To simulate mandibular kinematics

D. For investigation of mandibular kinematics

E. To determine the suborbital point

413. Among the fully adjustable articulators are:

A. Granger articulator

B. Hanau articulators

C. Protar articulators

D. Dentatus articulators

E. Denar D3 and D3-A-B articulators

AC 3, 184-

185

414. In a normal occlusion the dental contact points must meet certain conditions,

including:

A. The existence of 0-2 mm over-jet

B. Be multiple and uniformly distributed

C. 1/3 frontal overbite

D. Be stable

E. Be precisely located

BDE 3, 146-

147

415. When using the SAM 2PX articulator, fitting the maxillary model will be:

A. Parallel to the pupillary eye line

B. In the maximum intercept position

C. Parallels to the Frankfurt plan

D. Perpendicular to the sagittal plane

E. In the centric position

ACD 3, 513

416. The verification and evaluation of movements and test positions performed

with dental contacts are made:

A. from maximum intercuspation position to the centric relation

B. in right and left laterality

C. in maximum opening and closing movements of the mouth

D. in protrusive and retrusive movement

E. through the Dawson method

ABD 3, 149

Theme 59.

Clinical and paraclinical examinations in partial and total edentulism:

partial edentulism

417. Computer tomography (CT) highlights :

A. the structure of the bone;

B. the volume changes of the bone;

C. the static and dynamic evaluation of meniscus position;

D. the correlation with articular disorders;

E. All the answers are incorrect

ABCD PAG

133

418. The investigations using NMR reveal:

A. The structure of the bone;

B. The volume changes of the bone;

C. the soft tissues;

D. the muscular structures;

E. The discoligamentary and cartilaginous structures.

CDE PAG

133

66

419. Tonometry offers information regarding:

A. muscular tonus;

B. evaluating the inequalities of muscular tensions in the phases of

rest;

C. evaluating the inequalities of muscular tensions in the functional

phases;

D. the presence of neuro-muscular imbalances;

E. All the answers are incorrect

ABCD PAG

135

420. In the case of bone deformations, examination will record:

A. localization;

B. limits;

C. size, aspect of the surface;

D. consistency;

E. relation with soft tissues.

ABCD

E

PAG

92

421. The dynamic inspection, at the opening and closing if the mouth, assesses:

A. The condylar path;

B. The movement path of the menton;

C. The amplitude of mouth opening;

D. The labial commissure;

E. The Facial indexes

ABC PAG

94

422. The occlusal parameters are:

A. morphology of occlusal areas;

B. supporting and guiding cusps ;

C. sagittal and transversal occlusion curve ;

D. front curving;

E. occlusal plane.

ABCD

E

PAG

114

423. *True statements about physiological general personal precedents:

A. During pregnancy, hormonal disturbances appear which affect the

gingival vessels and lead to the "pregnancy gingivitis".

B. Puberty and menopause are characterized by hormonal

modifications that can lead to a general and local dishomeostasia.

C. Birth control pills modify "the endocrine constellation" having the

well-known consequences.

D. Andropause leads to the psycho-somatic changes which bring the

disfunctional manifestations.

E. All the answers are right.

E C.7/P.9

4-95

424. *All are true but one:

A. The cardio-vascular problems impose precautions regarding

anaesthesia.

B. The cardio-vascular problems do not impose precautions regarding

duration of the treatment sessions.

C. Special precautions are required by the ischemic cardiac disease.

D. The hypertensive patients require similar anaesthesia precautions.

E. The diseases with infectious risk need a special attention, especially

if during one of the stages transiently germs will be produced.

B C7/p95

67

THEME 59.

Clinical and laboratory examinations in edentulous and partially edentation

total: COMPLETE EDENTATION (p. 32 -83)

425. *General personal history:

A. will be correlated with age, gender, physiological status, etc.

B. is used in investigating mandibulo-cranial relationships;

C. assesses the condition of the muscles;

D. is used to investigate the occlusion;

E. will be correlated with nervous system disorders

A p. 32

426. *The paraclinical examination of mandibular-cranial relationships is done with

the help of:

A. photoelectric simulators;

B. occlusion keys;

C. computerized occlusal analysis;

D. electomyograph;

E. no correct answer.

B p. 74

427. The dental heredocolateral history is used for detection of:

A. metabolic disorders;

B. heart disease;

C. neurological disorders;

D. dento-maxillary anomalies;

E. multiple caries.

DE p.33

428. The cervico-facial exam is performed:

A. by superficial and deep palpation;

B. by inspection of front and profile;

C. only answers A and B are correct;

D. through auscultation;

E. all answers are correct.

ABD p.34

429. *The profile inspection follows:

A. lips posture;

B. the proportion of the face floors;

C. facial symmetry and facial type;

D. muscle development;

E. all answers are correct.

A p.36

430. Palpation:

A. accompanies and completes the inspection;

B. It is superficial and profound;

C. Is for the joints noises;

D. seeks the developement of the Gongiac angle;

E. answers A and D are correct.

AB p.36

431. Living and working conditions are recording:

A. type of food

B. stereotype of mastication;

C. the existence of possible professional tics;

D. ganglion shape;

E. TMJ modifications.

ABC p.34

432. Eisenring bag:

A. shall be examined by shallow palpation; BD p.43

68

B. is examined by inspection by removal of the soft tissues with the

mirror;

C. is an area with physiognomy role;

D. width appraisal is made by swinging the mandible against the side

examined;

E. is examined by pulling the lip outwards for maximum visibility.

Theme 60.

Partial removable prosthesis. Structure of removable prosthesis

433. Types of palatin acrylic main connectors:

A. Dento-mucosal plate.

B. Distal cut plate.

C. Decolletated.

D. Window-shaped.

E. Yvory.

ABCD Cap

2,261

434. The Acrylic resin saddles:

A. are the secondary elements of the removable partial dentures;

B. transfer mastication forces towards the soft and hard tissues support

and tooth support ;

C. Transfer the stress forces to the major connector;

D. Their number is in accordance with the number of potential

prosthetic spaces;

E. Are made of methyl polymetacrylate of 3 mm thickness;

BCD PAG.

164

435. *Chayes shows:

A. the occlusal stress force must fall in the middle of the saddle;

B. the surface of a saddle must be at least twice the cervical surface of

the replaced teeth.;

C. the attenuation of the stress on the soft and hard support tissues by

reducing the occlusal surface of the artificial teeth with 10% for

each tooth that it replaces;

D. the number of saddles to be executed must be equal to the number

of edentulous breaches;

E. All are incorrect answers

B PAG.1

67

436. Alveolar acrylic simple clasps:

A. are extensions of the saddles ;

B. are extensions of the main connector;

C. are using the buccal or oral retentive areas on the alveolar ridge;

D. transfer mastication forces towards the soft and hard tissues

support;

E. Transfer the stress forces to the major connector;

AC PAG.1

71

437. The Dento-alveolar acrylic simple clasps:

A. Have the shape of a interrupted circle;

B. leaning on the tooth;

C. leaning partially on the tooth, partially on the alveolar process;

D. Can be acrylic or mixed, metallic-acrylic;

E. Correct answers B,C,D.

ACD PAG.1

72

69

438. Flexible acrylate Valplast:

A. It belongs to the Nylon family;

B. Valplast removable partial dentures are the most flexible of the

acrylic removable partial dentures ;

C. it can be processed in very thick and flexible form;

D. Valplast removable partial dentures are the first choice in treating

patients with a large torus or with palatal clefts.

E. Correct answers C,D.

ABD PAG.1

76

439. *The Saddles:

A. Transmit the soliciting forces toward the main connector.

B. They can’t oppose to the moving forces.

C. Don’t have an anti-movable function.

D. The saddles can be metallic.

E. All answers are correct.

A cap 2,

252

440. *The next affirmations are correct but one:

A. The acrylic saddles are made of polymethacrylate methyl of 2 mm

thickness.

B. The vestibular versant shapes itself and stretches till the reflection

zone of the mobile mucosis.

C. This oral versant can miss from the saddle when the edentulous

ridge from this area is outlined.

D. At the tuberosity level the acrylic saddle will cover this biostatic

area.

E. The acrylic saddle will cover the piriform tuberculus.

C cap

2,253

Theme 61.

Structural elements of partially skeletized prosthesis

441. *The Retentiometer has the following dimensions ;

A. 0,50 mm; 0,75 mm; 1 mm;

B. 0.25 mm; 0.50 mm; 0.75 mm.

C. 0,50 mm; 1 mm; 1,5 mm;

D. 0,30 mm; 0,45 mm; 0,75 mm;

E. 0.25 mm; 0.50 mm; 1 mm

B Pag.19

9

442. The Retentiometer allows:

A. Drawing the prosthetic equator;

B. Establishing the most acceptable insertion axis and uninsertion of

the denture;

C. measuring the dental retentivities ;

D. establishment of the position place of the terminal part, flexible, of

the retentive arm of the clasp

E. All the answers are correct

CD Pag.19

9

443. *The stabilitation represents::

A. function through which the clasp opposes to horizontal movements;

B. function through which the clasp hampers the involuntary

separation of the denture from the prosthetic field;

C. function of the clasp through which the effect of the flexible part of

A Pag.20

3

70

the retentive arm is neutralized ;

D. function of the clasp through which, after being correctly applied

on the abutment tooth, does not have to exert active forces.

E. function through which the clasp opposes to vertical movements in

mucosal direction, ensuring the periodontal support;

444. Back action clasp:

A. Applied especially on molars ;

B. Applied especially on premolars and canines ;

C. Has a very good elasticity ;

D. the occlusal rest doesn’t have a minor connector ;

E. All the answers are correct.

BCD Pag.21

4

445. *Roach System uses for retention:

A. the proximal areas of the lateral sides of the teeth;

B. the vestibular and oral parts of the teeth;

C. the occlusal face of the teeth;

D. telescoping crowns;

E. the bars

A Pag.21

4

Theme 62.

Biodynamics of skeletized prosthesis in oral cavity

446. *Static stability diagram is useful to:

A. Determine the resistance force.

B. Determine the pressure force.

C. Mark the stability arches.

D. Calculate the polynomial law.

E. Orientate the RP vector.

C

447. *The dynamic diagram is useful in :

A. Marking the stability arches.

B. Orientate the RP vector.

C. Marking the maximum stability point of the palate.

D. Marking the gravity point of the palate.

E. Establish the teeth that will support the maintenance and stability

elements.

B

448. *The maxilla gravity centre is on the sagittal axis:

A. Found at the junction of posterior 2/5 with anterior 3/5.

B. Found at the junction of anterior 2/5 with posterior 3/5.

C. On the middle of the axis.

D. Found at the junction of anterior 2/3 with posterior 1/3.

E. Found at the junction of anterior 1/3 with posterior 2/3.

A

449. *The direct traction forces :

A. Are horizontal forces.

B. Make the prosthesis to balance.

C. Are vertical forces that dislocate the prosthesis.

D. Are oblique forces on the artificial teeth.

E. Make the prosthesis stable in function of the oral system.

C

450. *The indirect traction forces: A

71

A. Are named also balance forces

B. Are horizontal forces.

C. Are generated by sticky foods.

D. Are generated by the cheek and tongue muscles .

E. Are generated by the prosthesis weight.

451. *The prosthesis dislocation means:

A. Lateral movement of the prosthesis.

B. Prosthesis movement because of the cheeks muscles.

C. Prosthesis movement because of the sticky foods.

D. Movement of lifting, clogging, pressure making.

E. Functional moving.

D

452. *The medial movements of the prosthesis appears :

A. Inverse occlusal sagittal curve .

B. Accentuated occlusal sagittal curve.

C. Incorrect bite.

D. Sticky foods.

E. Because of the weight of the prosthesis.

C

453. *Biomechanical features in class I Kennedy edentation are:

A. The lack of correspondence of the periodontal supporting polygon

with the muco-osseous supporting one.

B. The correspondence of the periodontal supporting polygon with the

muco-osseous supporting one.

C. The static diagram will indicate the existence of the asymmetrical

edentations.

D. The dynamic diagram will show a posterior placement of the R.P.

vector.

E. The dynamic diagram will show a anterior placement of the R.P.

vector.

A

Theme 63.

Stages of therapy using partially removable prosthesis: dental impression

454. Which of the following statements show features of the muco-static functional

impression:

A. it uses short-rimmed individual impression trays

B. it uses high fluidity impression materials

C. it records the tonicity of musculature from the periphery of the

prosthetic field

D. the margins of the impressions are thin and tall

E. impressions which evidence suction are obtained.

ABD

455. Which are the types of standard impression trays used in the removable

denture therapy

A. Metallic impression tray with retention device

B. Impression tray with water spraying device

C. Compression impression tray

D. Impression tray made of plastic material

E. None of the previous.

ABD

72

456. *S. S. Witte metallic standard trays PRESENTS:

A. sets of three sizes for the maxilla and three for the mandible.

B. sets of three sizes for the maxilla and four for the mandible.

C. presents a handbag made of a series of trays in six sizes for the

maxilla and seven for the mandible ;

D. tray with water irrigation device

E. two trays, one for each maxilla, adjustably connected between

them.

A PAG.3

22

457. The Movements made during the Preliminary impression are:

A. Non-functional movements performed by the doctor’

B. Non-automatic functional movements;

C. Automatic functional movements;

D. Non-functional movements performed by the patient

E. Correct answers C, D

ABC PAG.3

22

458. The mucostatic functional impressions are recorded using:

A. Standard trays;

B. individual trays with short margins;

C. using impression material of great fluidity (mucoseal);

D. The margins of the impression are thin and tall;

E. are recorded with individual trays functionalised on the basis of

functionalisation of mobile peripheral structures by tests

BCD PAG.3

27

459. *The muco-dynamic functional impressions are recorded with:

A. Standard trays;

B. individual trays with short margins;

C. using impression material of great fluidity (mucoseal);

D. The margins of the impression are thin and tall;

E. are recorded with individual trays functionalised on the basis of

functionalisation of mobile peripheral structures by tests

E PAG.3

27

460. Final impression with dentally carved port impression:

A. It is an impression technique in two times;

B. a functional tray carved at the level of teeth freeing their vestibular

and oral face;

C. a functional tray carved at the level of teeth freeing occlusal face;

D. a functional tray is equipped with pressure buttons at the level of

the edentulous crest.

E. a functional tray is equipped with pressure buttons at the level of

the teeth.

ABD PAG.3

34

Theme 64.

Clinical stages of partial edentation through removable means - Mandibulo-

cranial relations record in treatment of partial edentation.

461. In the therapy using partial removable dentures, the method of determining the

centric relation by stimulating the molar occlusion reflex is characterized by

the following particularities:

A. It aims at reawakening the old periodontal-muscular reflexes of

centric positioning

AB

73

B. The practitioner touches with the fingers the occlusion rims in front

of the molars

C. It is made through bilateral compressions on the temporal muscle

D. The practitioner touches with the fingers the occlusion rims in front

of the central incisive

E. The practitioner touches with the fingers the occlusion rims in front

of the canines

462. The objective conditions of determining the mandibular-cranial relationships

postulated by LEJOYEUX are:

A. Prior to any attempt to determine and record a centric relation, the

patient should be placed in ideal conditions of physiological and

psychological balance

B. The determination of DVO constitutes the indispensable previous

element for the determination of the centric relation

C. The stabilization of the occlusion moulds base on the model is a

necessary and sufficient condition so that in the process of

determination of the centric relation the tissues of the support

surface are in the same condition as at the moment of impression

taking.

D. The centric relation is determined prior to the DVO

E. The pressure should correspond to that exerted during the

impression process.

ABCE

463. In the therapy using partial removable dentures, the causes of incorrect

recording of mandibular-cranial relationships are:

A. forcing the mouth to close

B. realization of occlusion rims out of soft wax

C. the super-extension of the occlusion mould base

D. the construction of the occlusion mould out of acrylate

E. the contact of mandibular anterior teeth with the maxillary

occlusion mould

ABCE

464. In the therapy using partial removable dentures, in the stage of recording

mandibular-cranial relationships one should consider the predetermination of

certain parameters of centric occlusion, such as:

A. The level and orientation of the occlusion plane

B. The inter-arch relationships

C. The realization of the oral corridor

D. Occlusive clearance

E. The realization of masticating units

ABD

465. *In the frontal area the occlusal plane has the following orientation:

A. Is parallel to the bipupil line’

B. Is parallel with the Camper plane;

C. Is parallel with the Frankfurt plane;

D. Is parallel with the intercomisural line;

E. Is parallel with the basilar mandibular plane

A PAG.3

44

466. *In the lateral areas the occlusal plane has the following orientation::

A. the orientation is made in relation to the Camper plane;

B. Is parallel to the bipupil line’

C. Is parallel with the Frankfurt plane;

D. Is parallel with the basilar mandibular plane;

E. Is parallel with the intercomisural line

A PAG.3

44

74

467. *Condylar manoeuvre aims at obtaining the correct position of the centric

relation by :

A. compression of the bilateral masseter

B. slight pressure exerted during the opening - closing movement of

small amplitude

C. obtaining of symmetrical muscular contractions and it is made by

compression on the posterior bundle of the temporal with parallel

palpation of the mandibular condyles.

D. traction towards posterior exerted by the subhyoidian muscles, to

determine a position of the mandible as close as possible to the

centric relation.

E. All answers are good

B PAG.3

45

468. The difference between the vertical dimension in posture and that in centric

relation is:

A. 5-6 mm;

B. 1-2 mm

C. representing the space of physiological inocclusion.

D. approximately 2-4 mm

E. 3 mm

CD PAG.3

45

THEME 65.

Stages of Complete DenturesTherapy: Impression (p. 465-544)

469. *Functional impression technique ALL-ORAL:

A. is described by Lejoyeux;

B. Is a combined impression method;

C. Is an impression method that requires sr Ivotray trays;

D. during functional impression, metallic trays are used;

E. does not require recording devices for intermax relationships.

B p. 519

470. *The IVOCLAR Biofunctional Prosthetic System:

A. Is an impression method with an ergonomic, complex articulator;

B. Has individual trays with elongated occlusion rims;

C. Has individual trays of light-curing acrylic resin;

D. amprenta finală este cu gura deschisă;

E. nici o variantă corectă.

A p. 519

471. Choosing the standard tray:

A. Is made obligatory with the rapporteur;

B. Is done through repeated attempts;

C. Responses A and B are incorrect;

D. Involves the choice of a slightly oversized tray;

E. Involves the choice of an oversized tray.

CD p. 474-

475

472. *For impression with thermoplastic material:

A. Trays with a lesser profile can be used;

B. Larger trays can be used;

C. Material that deforms after it hardens;

D. Answers A and C are correct;

E. No answer is correct.

A p. 476

75

473. Anatomical landmarks in the maxillary bearing area are:

A. Lingual frenulum;

B. Medial palatine suture;

C. Buccal frenulum;

D. Palatine fovea;

E. No answer is correct.

BCD p. 481

474. Anatomical landmarks in the mandibular bearing area are:

A. Vestibular frontal zone;

B. Oblique internal line;

C. The sublingual fold;

D. genioglossus muscle;

E. Mylohyoid muscle.

CE p. 481-

482

475. The armentarium for preliminary impression are:

A. Shellac base trays ;

B. Fluid silicone;

C. Water at 240 C;

D. spatula;

E. wax.

CDE p.482

476. Preliminary maxillary impression technique is :

A. mixing alginate with water at 210 C ;

B. Applying alginate in the center of the palate if it is deep;

C. Choosing a tray that provides 3 mm of space to the tissues;

D. Applying initially the tray in the frontal side;

E. Loading the tray in 1 min max.

BE p.486

THEME 66.

Stages of therapy dentures: determining intermaxillary relations (p.550-564)

477. Molar occlusion reflex stimulation:

A. It is a simple method for determining the relationship of posture;

B. Produces the re-awakening of the old periodontal muscle reflexes

of postural positioning;

C. Is a simple method of determining the centric relationship;

D. Aims to induce the posture relationship;

E. Produces the re-awakening of the old periodontal muscle reflexes

of centric positioning.

CE p. 559

478. *Straight profile:

A. represents the normal prototype and therefore the Camper and

Occlusion plans will be divergent to the distal;

B. It occurs in patients with Class III Angle and therefore Camper and

the occlusion plans are distally divergent;

C. It occurs in patients with II Class Angle and therefore Camper and

the occlusion plans will be converging toward distal;

D. represents the normal prototype and therefore the Camper and

Occlusion plans will be parallel;

E. no correct answer.

D p. 552

479. Extraoral ccheck up of occlusion rims: ABC p. 550

76

A. is done in the absence of the patient;

B. verifies compliance with the indications given by the rims and the

laboratory sheet;

C. answers A and B are correct;

D. Is a simple method that uses pre-extraction landmarks;

E. All answers are correct.

480. *Determining the orientation of the occlusion plan:

A. In the lateral areas is done by referring to the Fox plan;

B. In the frontal area is made in relation to the Camper plane;

C. In the lateral areas is done by referring to the Frankfurt plan;

D. Is done using the Fox plate;

E. All answers are correct.

D p. 550-

552

481. Anthropometric methods, without pre-extraction landmarks, for determining

vertical dimension of the lower floor are:

A. Sears profile;

B. Wright method;

C. Boianov method;

D. Landa method;

E. Swenson method.

CD p. 554-

555

482. Among the lower-floor vertical dimension determination functional methods

are also:

A. Frankfurt plane method ( Landa method);

B. Silvermann method;

C. Robinson method;

D. Willis method;

E. all answers are correct.

BC p. 556

483. Among the simple methods of determining centric relation are also included:

A. Green temporal maneuver

B. Willis method ;

C. Silvermann method;

D. Wild method;

E. Gysi masseter maneuver.

AE p. 558-

559

484. Patterson method:

A. Ensures the stimulation of vestigial postural positional reflexes;

B. Uses wax dentures specially prepared;

C. Is a simple method of determining centric relation.;

D. The patient performs closing and opening movements of the mouth

E. Uses occlusion rims specially prepared.

CE p.559

TEMA 67.

STAGES OF COMPLETE DENTURE THERAPY: WAX DENTURE TRY IN

(p. 568 -582)

485. Retentive zone:

A. Can not create prosthetic problems;

B. Can change the insertion of the denture;

C. When they have mucosal substrates, raises problems with insertion

BD p. 582

77

of the denture

D. The edges of the denture that exceed the retentions will be made of

resilient material

E. No correct answer

486. *Data sent to the laboratory through the lab sheet refers to all except:

A. Location of the foliage areas;

B. The thickness of the foliage areas;

C. The material with which the functional impression was recorded;

D. The material from which the base of the denture will be made;

E. Thickening of the denture base in certain areas.

C p. 582

487. *The control of artificial arches aims to:

A. The lateral teeth have increased cuspidation;

B. The median line must correspond to the direction of the palatine

rugae;

C. The vestibular curvature must be concave;

D. lateral teeth are mounted including tuberosities and tubercles

E. lower lateral teeth to satisfy the rule of Pound.

E p. 569

488. Controlling the occlusion and master casts involves.

A. The incisal line is drawn on the cast;

B. The American lines are drawn on the cast;

C. the sagittal curvature of the edentuous mandibular ridge is drawn

on the cast;

D. The screw is locked

E. The occlusor has a gentle play in the hinge for easy

maneuverability.

CD p. 568-

569

489. *The control of the wax upper denture follows all below with the exception of:

A. during functional movements of the lips and cheeks the wad

denture base is not dislodged;

B. Its base must fully include the posterior palatal closure area;

C. The wax denture must have maximum retention;

D. The wax denture must not have tilting tendencies;

E. All answers are correct.

C p. 570

490. Mandibula wax denture:

A. Its maintenance is easy to verify;

B. The posterior position of the tongue can make a significant

contribution to maintaining the wax denture

C. Flanges are controlled by inspection and palpation;

D. Its stability is checked by alternative pressures at the lower

premolars

E. All answers are correct.

CD p. 570-

571

491. The aesthetic control of the wax dentures implies:

A. Verifying the restoration of the vertical posture dimension;

B. The assessment of naso-labial and labial ditches that need to be

duller than before dentures;

C. That the upper lip be more prominent than the lower one by fitting

with the frontal super-occlusion (most of the cases);

D. That the complete dentures are inserted into the oral cavity

regardless of whether the practitioner is fully satisfied with them;

E. All answers are correct.

BC p. 572-

573

492. In restoring the dento-facial aesthetics for a complete edentulous patient: AD p. 573

78

A. The shape of the central incisors must reflect the contour of the

patient's face;

B. Masculinity is characterized by the round, smooth teeth;

C. The difference between the facial width and that of the dental arch

produces the natural impression;

D. Incision edges can simulate natural abrasion with age;

E. No correct answer.

TEMA 68.

Dentures try in appointment and adapting

(583-593)

493. In the immediate adaptation stage:

A. wearing dentures should least less than 24 hours;

B. There is no full mouth feeling;

C. Painful spots may appear in the mouth;

D. Daily, gums should be cleaned and massage with a soft brush;

E. Dentures should be cleaned with a brush and toothpaste.

CD p. 591

494. In phonetic control with the dentures in the mouth:

A. correct any premature contacts

B. occlusion paper is used on both sides at the same timese

C. is verified the existence of the neutral corridor by pronouncing the

word mississippi

D. answers A and B are false

E. we check if the S phonem sounds like a buzz.

DE p. 591-

592

495. To adjust complete dentures:

A. Requires polishing if it is interested in the internal face of the

dentures

B. It is advisable to rigorously remove the aniline traces with alcohol

from the mucosa

C. It is recommended to mark the lesion itself

D. It is recommended to mark the perilesional area

E. It is advisable to rigorously remove the aniline traces with distilled

water from the mucosa.

BD p.583

496. In the upper jaw the areas of decubitus occur in particular:

A. In the area of the internal oblique line

B. Vestibular, in tuberosities area

C. Palatal in tuberosity area

D. At upper labial frenulum level

E. At the level of the retentive ednetulous ridge.

BDE p. 583

497. The lack of maintenance of the denture can be caused by:

A. Occlusal vertical dimension too big

B. Foreign body under the denture

C. weak peripherical closure

D. occlusal vertical dimension too small

E. Perforated base.

CE p. 584

498. Lack of denture stability can be caused: BCD p. 585

79

A. too long flanges

B. too short flanges

C. occlusal vertical dimension too big

D. occlusal vertical dimension too small

E. no correct answer.

499. Xerostomia treatment is done with :

A. Sialogogue medication;

B. Choleretic medication type of sulfane;

C. adrenalin;

D. pilocarpine

E. Artificial saliva.

ADE p. 588

500. Mandibular areas where sores injuries occur mainly are:

A. in palatal rugae area;

B. at the level of pyriform tubercle covered by resilient mucosa;

C. at the level of pyriform tubercle covered by movable mucosa;

D. at external oblique line area

E. at internal oblique line area.

BC p. 583

TEMA 69.

DENTURES LESIONS (593-601)

501. In the etiology of dentures stomatitis, the following local factors can be

incriminated:

A. increased temperature under the denture base

B. diabetes

C. pauses in denture wearing

D. microporosityof the acrylate

E. ageing.

AD p.593

502. *The treatment of epithelio-conjunctive hyperplasia consists of:

A. Removal of aggressor material

B. Correct occlusal balancing

C. Polishing denture flanges

D. Surgical removal and restoration of the denture

E. No correct answer.

D p.598

503. Oral candidias:

A. is a freqvent disease

B. its appearance is not related to the presence of pre-existing local or

general factors

C. Is favored by local chronic irritation of improperly adapted dentures

D. Is favoured with ageing

E. no correct answer.

CD p.599

504. *Chronic atrophic candidiasis:

A. It has predilection for jugal mucosa;

B. It has predilection for palatal mucosa;

C. It has predilection for lips mucosa;

D. It has predilection for mouth floor mucosa;

B p.601

80

E. It has predilection for tongue mucosa.

505. *Marginal late reactions:

A. Occurs in new denture wearers;

B. clinically manifested by ulceration with or without swelling;

C. Can not be covered by false membranes;

D. Objective symptoms are pain and burning sensation;

E. Does not require differential diagnosis with malignant lesions.

B p.596

506. Treatment of chronic atrophic candidiasis:

A. Is surgical;

B. Requires dentures hygiene;

C. Requires dentures removal during night time;

D. Consists in rinsing with hydrogen peroxide;

E. It consists in restoring the denture.

CE p.601

507. In situ erosions:

A. are the consequence of an impression mistake;

B. clinically they look like limited congestive areas with or without

ulceration;

C. are ulcerated areas;

D. give pain ranging from discomfort to severe pain;

E. do not cause pain.

ABD p.595

508. *In situ erosions may occur more frequently:

A. at the level of the internal oblique line, especially in its posterior

area;

B. at the level of the internal oblique line, especially in its anterior

area;

C. at the level of the external oblique line

D. on the lateral face of the tongue;

E. at the level of incisive papilla.

A p.595

TEMA 70.

Dentures reoptimization (693-703)

509. *In the case of completing the base when the distal teeth are lost:

A. will change the old denture with prosthetic field report;

B. the repair will be executed without any hassle in order to avoid

execution errors;

C. Acrylate monomer will not be used on acrylic teeth;

D. During the repair, acrylic monomer is applied over the acrylic teeth

E. No correct answer.

C p.702-

703

510. In case of repair of a simple fracture of the denture with two fragments :

A. the two fragments will be isolated with water carefully put back

toghether

B. two fragments are glued with provisional bonding Repin

C. The fragments can be solidarized by dropping the wax along the

fracture line

D. The area where the repair was carried out is not processed or

CE p.699

81

polished

E. Inside the dentures, fluid silicone for the impression will be poured.

511. *The indications of lining are all except:

A. Advanced atrophy of the denture bearing area

B. improving support to a small denture

C. In clinical and laboratory deficiencies

D. In the event of a deterioration of the master cast

E. Prophylaxis of tissues sensitive to masticatory pressures.

B p.693

512. *The contraindications of the lining are:

A. Migrations of antagonistic teeth to the edentuous spaces

B. Extrusion of teeth near in the edentulous space

C. New dentures

D. Denutres with multiple repairing

E. All answers are correct.

D p.693

513. The objectives of the lining are:

A. Increasing succion

B. stopping horizontal movements

C. obtaining a balanced support for the remaining teeth and bone-

mucous support

D. answers B and C are correct

E. Muco-bone prophylaxis.

BCD p.693-

694

514. Direct lining:

A. Is done in the laboratory and the private practice;

B. Is done directly on the mucosa without a cast

C. It does not have the risk of irritation to the oral mucosa;

D. Requires hygiene of the prosthetic field;

E. It is a quick method.

CE p.694

515. Indirect lining:

A. Is done in the laboratory;

B. It does not have the risk of irritation to the oral mucosa;

C. It is a quick method.

D. Has low consumption of materials;

E. no correct answer.

AB p.695

516. Closed mouth lining:

A. In the laboratory phase the boxing is replaced by a lining press;

B. The material used is slowly progressive viscosity;

C. The material used in the clinical phase is thermoplastic;

D. have the risk of irritation to the oral mucosa;

E. no correct answer.

AC p.694