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CBSE Sample Paper-03 (Unsolved) SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT –II

SCIENCE (Theory) Class – X

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:

a) All questions are compulsory.

b) The question paper comprises of two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.

c) Questions 1 to 3 in section A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word

or in one sentence.

d) Questions 4 to 6 in section A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30

words each.

e) Questions 7 to 18 in section A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about

50 words each.

f) Questions 19 to 24 in section A are five marks questions. These are to be answered in about

70 words each.

g) Questions 25 to 27 in section B are 2 marks questions and Questions 28 to 36 are multiple

choice questions based on practical skills. Each question of multiple choice questions is a one

mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to

you.

Section A

1. How are the molecules of aldehydes and ketones structurally different?

2. Find the deviation produced by reflection at a plane mirror when the angle between the

incident and reflected rays is 80 .°

3. What is meant by aerosol?

4. Calcium is an element with atomic number 20.

(a) Is it a metal or non-metal?

(b) Is it more reactive than Mg or less?

(c) What will be the formula of its Chloride?

(d) What will be its valency?

5. Why are asexually reproducing organisms capable of showing the hereditary features more?

6. Whatever may be the position of an object, the image appears to be erect. Give the nature of

mirror with reason.

7. Compare and contrast the arrangement of elements in Mendeleev’s Periodic Table and Modern

Periodic Table.

8. (a) How do you calculate the valency of an element from its electronic configuration?

(b) What is the valency of magnesium with atomic number 12 and chlorine with atomic number 17?

(c) What is the difference in number of shells in magnesium and sulphur?



9. Give a labelled diagram of a pistil showing in it the path of male gametophyte from the stigma to

the embryo sac.

10. What is reproduction? How do the following organisms reproduce by asexual methods:

(a) Potato (b) Hydra (c) Malarial parasite (d) Planaria

11. What is a sex chromosome? Name the two types of sex chromosomes. Mention the sex

chromosomes present in males and females.

12. Explain the importance of variations.

13. This story is often told about the world-famous pianist, Jane who is also known for his passion for

personal grooming. He used to use a specially designed mirror for shaving. He was once asked by a

fellow musician if he could be ready, at very short notice, to take over and play a difficult piece of

music at a concert because the pianist who was supposed to play had suddenly fallen ill.

“I am always ready. I have practiced eight hours every day for forty years to be ready,” replied Jane.

The pianist said, “I wish I had been born with such determination.” Jane replied, “We all are born

with it. I just use mine.”

Read the above passage and answer the following questions:

(a) What kind of mirror is used by Jane for shaving?

(b) Draw the ray diagram to show the formation of image by this mirror to focus the bright image

os sun at paper sheet.

(c) What values are shown by Jane?

[Value Based Question]

14. Establish the relation between object distance, image distance and radius of curvature for a

convex mirror.

15. Find the position of an object which when placed in front of concave mirror of focal length 20

cm produces a virtual image, which is twice the size of object.

16. How can we make a white light to emerge out as white light from an arrangement of prisms?

17. Explain how carbon di-oxide and ozone layer of the atmosphere are important to life?

18. What changes can you make in your habits to become more environment friendly?

19. Write the electronic configuration of atoms of:

(a) Potassium (K) (b) Lithium (Li) (c) Fluorine (F) (d) Chlorine (Cl)

Use these electronic configuration to explain why Potassium is more reactive than Lithium and

Fluorine more reactive than Chlorine?

Or

Explain the terms:

(a) Atomic radius (b) Ionization energy (c) Electron effinity

Mention the units in which they are measured. How do they generally vary (i) in a group, (ii) in

a period?



20. (a) Draw electron diagram of (i) N2, (ii) O2, (iii) CaCl2, (iv) Na2O

(b) Write IUPAC name of (i) CH3COCH3, (ii) CH3CH2CH2CHO.

(c) How will you test the presence of carboxylic acid?

(d) Complete the following action:

CH3CH2OH + Na →

Or

An organic compound ‘A’ is widely used as a preservative in pickles and has a molecular

formula C2H4O2. This compound reacts with ethanol to form a sweet smelling compound ‘B’.

(a) Identify the compound ‘A’.

(b) Write the chemical equation for its reaction with ethanol to form compound ‘B’.

(c) How can we get compound ‘A’ back from ‘B’?

(d) Name the process and write corresponding chemical equation.

(e) Which gas is produced when compound ‘A’ reacts with washing soda? Write the chemical

reaction.

21. Pea plants with round and green seeds are crossed with wrinkled and yellow seed bearing pea

plants. On the basis of Mendelian experiment, what do you conclude from this experiment?

Or

Explain that it is a matter of chance whether a couple will give birth to a boy or a girl.

22. (a) Vegetative propagation has several advantages. What are they?

(b) Mention in detail how sexual reproduction is necessary for evolution.

Or

(a) Draw a labelled diagram of a pistil showing double fertilization.

(b) Which part of Bryophyllum can be used for vegetative propagation? Mention two

advantages of vegetative propagation.

23. (a) It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object, using a concave mirror of focal length 20

cm.

(i) At what should be the range of distance of the object from the mirror?

(ii) Will the image be bigger or smaller than the object?

(iii) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.

(b) One half of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm covered with a black paper.

(i) Will the lens produce a complete image of the object?

(ii) Show the formation of image of an object placed at 2F1 of such covered lens with the

help of a ray diagram.

(iii) How will the intensity of image formed by half-covered lens compare with non-covered

lens?

Or



(a) A convex lens of focal length 20 cm can produce a magnified virtual as well as real image. Is

this a correct statement? If yes, where shall be the object be placed in each case for

obtaining these images?

(b) Light enters from air to glass having refractive index 1.50. What is the speed of light in

glass? [The speed of light in vacuum is 3 x 108 ms-1]

24. (a) “A ray of light incident on a rectangular glass slab immersed in any medium emerges

parallel to itself.” Draw labelled ray diagram to justify the statement.

(b) Mention the types of mirrors used as (i) rear view mirrors, (ii) shaving mirrors. List two

reasons to justify your answer in each case.

Or

(a) An object of height 6 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave lens of

focal length 5 cm. Use lens formula of determine the position, size and nature of the image

if the distance of the object from the lens is 10 cm.

(b) State the difference in colours of the sun observed during sunrise/sunset and noon. Give

explanation for each.

Section B

25. Acetic acid was added to a solid X kept in a test tube. A colourless, odourless gas Y was evolved.

The gas was passed through lime water, which turned milky.

(a) What was concluded?

(b) Give chemical equation involved.

26. (a) What does Amoeba eat?

(b) What is the shape of Amoeba?

27. If the angle of incident is 45� on a medium of refractive index 2, then find angle of refraction.

28. 2 mL of ethanoic acid was taken in each of the three test tubes A, B and C and 2 mL, 4 mL and 8

mL water was added to them respectively. A clear solution is obtained in:

(a) test tube A only (b) test tubes A and B only

(c) test tubes B and C only (d) all the test tubes

29. 2 mL of acetic acid was added in drops to 5 mL of water and it was noticed that:

(a) the acid formed a separate layer on the top of water.

(b) water formed a separate layer on the top of acid.

(c) a clear and homogeneous solution was formed.

(d) a pink and clear solution was formed.

30. Which of the following produces seeds without fruit:

(a) Cycas (b) Rice (c) Fern (d) Grapes



31. Budding involves growth of new organism:

(a) Outside the parent body.

(b) On the parent body.

(c) Inside the parent body.

(d) Both (a) and (b)

32. A pair of contrasting characters is called:

(a) phenotype (b) genotype (c) allele (d) gene

33. Genetic information is carries out by long chain of molecules made up of:

(a) enzymes (b) DNA (c) amino acids (d) proteins

34. When the two opposite surfaces of the slab are not parallel, the emergent angle e and incident

i are related as:

(a) e i= (b) e i>

(c) e i< (d) Depends on the medium index

35. As light IM is incident on the surface PQ as shown, the emergent ray has to be:

(a) NA (b) NB (c) NC (d) ND

36. Select the wrong statement:

I. Forests do not provide variety of products.

II. Forests have greater plant diversity.

III. Forests do not conserve soil.

IV. Forests conserve water.

The correct option(s) in/are:

(a) Only IV (b) I and IV (c) I and III (d) II and III




SCIENCE (Theory) Class – X






or in one sentence.


words each.


50 words each.


70 words each.




you.

Section A

1. Give an example of reaction catalysed by an enzyme.

2. Which spherical mirror does always produce a virtual, erect and diminished image of an

object?

3. Name two main abiotic factors, which affect human environment.

4. How does the electronic configuration of an atom relate to its position in the modern periodic

table?

5. “Genes and chromosomes have similar behaviour” Justify.

6. When two lenses of focal length +10 cm and 5− cm are placed in contact, then find the net

power.

7. In a group reactivity of metals increases while those of non-metals decreases. Explain.

8. Ethanol is used on a large scale at commercial level. This is a very useful chemical. It is commonly

called alcohol and is the active ingredient of alcoholic drink. But consumption of alcohol also causes

drunkenness and this practice is socially condemned.

Read the above text and answer the following questions:

(a) As a responsible student of class, what steps would you take to discourage the use of alcohol?

(b) What values did learners have learnt from the above text?




9. Fertilization is possible if ovulation has taken place during middle of the menstrual cycle. Give

reason.

10. What is the importance of DNA copying in reproduction?

11. Describe surgical method of birth control.

12. Draw a schematic diagram to explain the independent inheritance of two separate traits, shape

and colour of seeds.

13. An object is kept in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. The image formed is three

times the size of object. Calculate two possible distances of the object from the mirror.

14. Draw a ray diagram to show the image of an object placed between f and 2 f of a thin convex

lens. Deduce the relation between the object and image distance and focal length.

15. Where should an object be placed from a converging lens of focal length 20 cm, so as to obtain

a real image of magnification 2 ?

16. Explain the role played by:

(a) iris (b) pupil (c) cornea (d) retina

17. How do harmful chemicals enter food chain?

18. “Economic growth and ecological conservation should go hand in hand.” Explain why?

19. (a) Name element of group 2 belonging to 3rd and 4th period.

(b) Name the element having highest ionization energy in periodic table.

(c) Draw electron dot structure of:

(i) H2O (ii) CH4 (iii) NH3 (iv) BF3

(d) Differentiate between ores and minerals.

Or

(a) Write the name and symbol of group 17 element belonging to second period.

(b) Write electronic configuration of K(19). To which group of periodic table does it belong?

(c) What are substitution reactions? Give one example.

(d) What happens when acetic acid reacts with sodium bicarbonate? Give chemical reaction

involved.

(e) Why does carbon form covalent bonds?

20. (a) Write the name and molecular formula of an organic compound having its name suffixed

with –ol and having two carbon atoms in the molecule. With the help of a balanced

chemical equation indicate what happens when it is heated with excess of conc. H2SO4?

(b) What is substitution reaction? Give an example.

Or

(a) With the help of an equation, state what happens when Ethanoic acid reacts with a base?

(b) Why are coal and petroleum called fossil fuels?

(c) What type of fuels (i) burn without a flame and (ii) burn with a flame?

(d) Why is conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid on oxidation reaction?



21. Describe three ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in population.

Or

Give salient features of Darwin’s theory of natural selection.

22. How the blood groups are inherited in humans?

Or

(a) Give three important features of fossils with the help in study of evolution.

(b) How does taxonomy support the evolution?

23. Draw ray diagram to show the formation of a three times magnified (i) real image, (ii) virtual

image of an object kept in front of a converging lens. Mark the position of object F, 2F, O and

position of image clearly in the diagram.

An object of size 5 cm is kept at a distance of 25 cm from the optical centre of converging lens

of focal length 10 cm. Calculate the distance of the image from the lens and size of the image.

Or

(a) How can you distinguish between a plane mirror, a convex mirror and a concave mirror,

just by looking at the image formed by them.

(b) The lens prescribed by the doctor has a power equal to +2.0 D. What does it mean?

(c) What would be the approximate focal length of a spherical lens preferred to use while

reading small letters found in a dictionary?

24. (a) The human eye focuses object at different distance by adjusting the focal length of the eye

lens. Name this phenomenon.

(b) Draw the human eye diagram and label the following parts:

(i) iris, (ii) pupil, (iii) ciliary muscles.

(c) What are the role played by them in the working of eye?

(d) In which part of the eye electrical signal are generated and why?

Or

What is refraction? Write the basic laws of refraction. What happens to the frequency, velocity

and wavelength as light moves from one medium to another? Based on the bending in

refraction, how can you identify the nature of the medium?

Section B

25. (a) Acetic acid, when dissolved in water, it disassociates into ions reversely. Why?

(b) Give the reaction involved.



26. (a) Which is not a vegetative propagation in the following answer?

(b) Give the reason for your answer.

27. When light from free space bends towards normal, on hitting a surface, then what should be its

refractive index ( )µ ? Is it 1, 1µ µ> < or 1

?2

µ = Justify your answer.

28. 5 mL of dilute acetic acid was added to 5 mL of water and the mixture was shaken for one minute.

It was observed that:

(a) the turbidity appeared in the test tube.

(b) the acid formed a separate layer at the bottom.

(c) water formed a separate layer at the bottom.

(d) a clear solution was formed.

29. 2 mL of acetic acid was added to equal volume of water and the mixture was shaken well for one

minute and allowed to settle. The correct representation of the observation made would be as

given in test tube:

(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV

30. In binary fission:

(a) The identity of parent body is maintained after reproduction.

(b) The parent body is lost after reproduction.

(c) The parent body enlarges.

(d) None of these.



31. The method of multiplication in the species without seeds:

(a) Binary fission (b) Budding

(c) Vegetative propagation (d) Multiple fission

32. Which one out of the following sets of diagrams correctly depicts reproduction in Amoeba and

yeast:

(d)

33. “Like begets like an important and universal phenomenon of life” is due to

(a) eugenics (b) morphology (c) genetics (d) physiology



34. Three students measured the focal length of a convex lens using parallel rays from a distant

object.

All of them measured the distance between the lens and the inverted image on the screen.

Student A saw a sharp image on the screen and labelled the distance as 1f .

Student B saw a slightly larger blurred image on the screen and labelled the distance as 2f .

Student C saw a slightly smaller blurred image on the screen and labelled the distance as 3f .

The relation between the three measurements would most likely:

(a) 1 2 3f f f= = (b) 1 2f f< and 3f (c) 3 1 2f f f< < (d) 1 2f f< and 1 3f f=

35. A student sitting on the last bench, can read the letters written on the black board but is not

able to read the letters written in his text book. Which is the following statement regarding the

above condition is correct:

(a) The near point of his eyes has receded away.

(b) The near point of his eyes has come closer to him.

(c) The far point of his eyes has come closer to him.

(d) The fat point of his eye has receded away.

36. ‘Chipko Andolan’ was launched for the protection of:

(a) grasslands (b) forests (c) livestock (d) wetlands


CBSE Sample Paper-03

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT –II

SCIENCE (Theory)

Class – X






or in one sentence.


words each.


50 words each.


70 words each.




you.

Section A

1. Figure below shows an incident ray and normal on a plane mirror MN. Draw the reflected ray

and find the angle between the incident ray and reflected ray.

2. Name any two biodegradable pollutants.

3. Define soaps?

4. Why is water necessary for living organisms?

5. With respect to air, the refractive index of ice is 1.31 and that of rock salt is 1.54. Calculate the

refractive index of rock salt with respect to ice.

6. Why is K more reactive than Li?

7. A convex mirror used on a bus has a focal length of 200 cm. If a scooter is located at 100 cm.

from this mirror find the position, nature and magnification of the image formed in the mirror.

8. (i) State Snell’s law of reflection of light.

(ii) A transparent medium A floats on another transparent medium B. When a ray of light

travels obliquely from A into B, the reflected ray bends away from the normal. Which of the

two media A and B if optically denser and why?

9. What is the need for sign convention? Write them.


10. What are optical fibres? Give three applications of these fibres.

11. Suggest three ways to maintain a balance between environment and development to survive.

12. DDT that was sprayed in minute amount on food plants was detected in high concentration in

man? How did it happen? Explain.

13. Give three drawbacks (limitations) of Mendeleev’s Periodic Table.

14. Sheeba studies in grade 9 and is a secretary of school’s club. As per practice in the school, all

members of science club assemble in Physics lab in last two periods on every Friday.

Sheeba also extends help to her mother in kitchen. One day she observed that the apparent

random wavering or flickering of objects seen through a turbulent stream of hot air rising

above the fire in the kitchen. She discussed about this with her friends and decided to raise the

question in school’s science club meeting.

Read the given passage and answer the following questions:

(a) Explain the reason behind the observation.

(b) Name the similar phenomenon on a larger scale. Also, draw the ray diagram.

(c) What values are shown by Sheeba?

15. How does natural vegetative propagation occur?

16. What are the male and female gonads in human beings? State any two functions of each of

them.

17. Name any three organs homologous to human hand. Why are they considered homologous?

18. State three laws of Mendel.

19. Describe the anatomy of human male reproductive system.

Or

What is meant by tissue culture? How this technique is performed? In which area this

technique is finding its application?

20. Explain double bond and triple bond with help of two examples in each case.

Or

Explain the following terms:

(a) Emulsifying (b) Substitution reaction (c) Polymerization

(d) Saponification (e) Methylated spitit

21. Tabulate the process of reproduction into its various types, giving one example of each type.

Or

Define grafting. Suggest any two advantages and disadvantages of grafting.

22. Explain the cleansing action of soaps and detergents.

Or

Write in short, how carbon compounds are named according to IUPAC nomenclature?

23. (i) State the lens’s formula and its magnification.

(ii) Using the lens formula, locate the position of an image formed due to an object at infinity

by a convex lens of focal length .f

Or

(i) How will you find the net focal length of a combination of lenses whose focal length are 15

cm and 5− cm respectively?


(ii) Define power. Find the power of the combination and express whether it is converging or

diverging combination.

24. Draw a labelled diagram of human eye and explain the image formation.

Or

What is cause for (i) Myopia and (ii) Hypermetropia

Show the defective eye and explain how it is corrected?

Section B

25. (i) When acetic acid reacts with ethyl alcohol, we add conc. H2SO4. It acts as __________ and the

process is called __________.

(ii) Write the chemical equation for the same.

26. (i) A student observed a slide of yeast under a microscope and saw collection of cells in

different parts of the slide marked A, B, C and D as shown below:

(ii) Justify your answer.

27. (a) Given below are few steps (not in proper sequence) followed in the determination of focal

length of a given convex lens by obtaining a sharp image of a distant object:

(i) Measure the distance between the lens and screen.

(ii) Adjust the position of the lens to form a sharp image.

(iii) Select a suitable distant object.

(iv) Hold the lens between the object and the screen with its faces parallel to the screen.

Write the correct sequences of steps for determination of focal length.

(a) Justify your answer.

28. A student is asked to add a tea spoon full of solid sodium bicarbonate to a test tube containing

approximately 3 mL of acetic acid. He observed that the solid sodium bicarbonate:

(a) floats on the surface of acetic acid.

(b) remains suspended in the acetic acid.

(c) settles down in the test tube.

(d) reacts with acetic acid and a clear solution is obtained.

29. Sodium bicarbonate solution is added to dilute ethanoic acid. It is observed that:

(a) a gas evolves.

(b) a solid settles at the bottom.

(c) the mixture becomes warm.

(d) The colour of the mixture becomes light yellow.

30. Regeneration observed in:

(a) Starfish (b) Earthworm (c) Hydra (d) All of these

31. In which of the following reproduction parental identity is lost

(a) Budding (b) Binary fission (c) Multiple fission (d) All of above


32. The sex of the human child depends on the sex chromosome present in the:

(a) Egg (b) Sperm (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these

33. Who proposed the law of heredity:

(a) Darwin (b) Mendel (c) Morgan (d) Dalton

34. The convex lens having surface of same radii is called as:

(a) Equi-convex lens (b) Equi-planar lens

(c) Plano-convex lens (d) Water lens

35. If parallel beams, non-parallel to principal axis fall on the convex lens, they converge at a point:

(a) On principal axis (b) Away from principal axis

(c) Centre of curvature (d) Called focus on the axis

36. Rajiv put the 10 g raisins in 100 mL distilled water which is at 10o C below the room

temperature while Ajay put the same amount of raisins in 100 mL distilled water at 10o C

above the room temperature. After an hour, percentage of water absorbed by the raisins will

be:

(a) Same in both cases.

(b) More in Rajiv’s beaker.

(c) More in Ajay’s beaker.

(d) Exactly twice as much as in Ajay as in Rajiv’ beaker.




MATHEMATICS Class – X




b) The question paper consists of 31 questions divided into four sections – A, B, C and D.

c) Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each which are multiple choice questions, Section B

contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and

Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.

d) Use of calculator is not permitted.

Section A

1. In an AP, if 4, 3, 10,nd n a= = = then a is:

(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2

2. If the angle of elevation of a tower from a distance of 100 m from its foot is 60 ,� then the height

of the tower is:

(a) 100 3 m (b) 100

3 m (c) 50 3 m (d)

50

3 m

3. A game consists of tossing a one-rupee coin 3 times and noting its outcome each time. Hanif

wins if all the tosses give the same result, i.e., three head or three tails and loses otherwise. The

probability that Hanif will lose the game is:

(a) 3

8 (b)

1

2 (c) 1

4 (d) 3

4

4. The distance between A (1, 3) and B ( ),7a is 5. The possible values of a are:

(a) ( )4, 2− (b) ( )2, 4 (c) ( )3, 2 (d) ( )2,5

Section B

5. For what value of ,k does ( ) ( )212 2 12 2 0k x k x− + − + = have equal roots?

6. In an AP, 1, 20na a= = and 441nS = , then find .n

7. Let s denotes the semi-perimeter of a triangle ABC in which BC = ,a CA = ,b AB = .c If a circle

touches the side BC, CA, AB at D,E,F respectively, then prove that BD = .s b−

8. Find the diameter of a circle whose area is equal to the sum of the circumferences of the two

circles of diameter 30 and 24 cm.



9. The radius of a solid sphere is 3 cm. It is melted to form solid balls of radii 1 cm. How many

solid balls will be obtained?

10. The radii of the ends of a frustum of a cone 40 cm height are 20 cm and 11 cm. Find its slant

height.

Section C

11. Solve for :x 1

3, 0x xx

− = ≠

12. Find the sum of all two digit numbers greater than 50 which when divided by 7 leave a

remainder of 4.

13. Find ∠ CAD in the following figure:

14. From a window 15 meters high above the ground in a street, the angles of elevation and

depression of the top and foot of another house on the opposite side of the street are 30� and

45� respectively. Show that the height of the opposite house is 23.66 meters. ( )Take 3 1.732=

15. A box contains 90 discs, which are numbered from 1 to 90. If one disc is drawn at random from

the box, then find the probability that it bears:

(i) a two-digit number

(ii) a perfect square

(iii) a number divisible by 5.

16. Find the coordinates of the point equidistant from three given points A (5, 3), B ( )5, 5− and C

( )1, 5 .−

17. Find the value of p for which the points ( ) ( )5,1 , 1, p− and ( )4, 2− are collinear.

18. A sheet of paper is in the form of a rectangle ABCD in which AB = 40 cm and AD = 28 cm. A

semicircular portion with BC as diameter is cut off. Find the area of the remaining paper.



19. A horse is placed for grazing inside a rectangular field 70 m by 52 m and is tethered to one

corner by a rope 21 m long. On how much area can it graze?

20. Water flows at the rate of 10 m per minute through a pipe having its diameter as 5 mm. How

much time will it take to fill a conical vessel whose diameter of base if 40 cm and depth 24 cm?

Section D

21. Solve for :x ( )2 2 2 2 2 0p x p q x q+ − − =

22. A motorboat whose speed in still water us 5 km/h, takes 1 hour more to go 12 km upstream

than to return downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the stream.

23. If m times the thm term of an AP is equal to n times the thn term, show that ( )thm n+ term of

the AP is zero.

24. From a point P, two tangents PA and PB are drawn to a circle C ( )O, r . If OP = 2 ,r then show

that ∆ APB is equilateral.

25. Prove that the tangents drawn at the end of a diameter of a circle are parallel.

26. Construct a triangle similar to a given triangle XYZ with its sides equal to 3

4th of the

corresponding sides of ∆ XYZ. Write the steps of construction also.

27. On a horizontal plane there is a vertical tower with a flagpole on the top of the tower. At a

point 9 meters away from the foot of the tower. The angle of elevation of the top and bottom of

the flagpole are 60� and 30� respectively. Find the height of the tower and flagpole mounted on

it.

28. In a single throw of two dice, find the probability of getting:

(i) a total of 7 (ii) a total of 11

(iii) doublets (iv) six as a product.



29. Find the coordinates of the circum centre of the triangle whose vertices are ( ) ( )8,6 , 8, 2− and

( )2, 2 .− Also, find the circum radius.

30. Ramlal wants to dig a well. He is confused whether he should dig the well in the form of cuboid

of dimensiona (1 m x 1 m x 7m) or in the form of cylinder of diameter 1 m and height 7 m. The

rate to dig the well is Rs.50 per m3. Finally he decides to dig the cylindrical well.


(i) Find the cost to dig both wells.

(ii) By Ramlal’s decision, which value if depicted here?


31. A solid is composed of a cylinder with hemispherical ends. If the whole length of the solid is

104 cm and the radius of each hemispherical end is 7 cm, find the cost of polishing its surface

at the rate of Rs.10 per m2.



SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT –II MATHEMATICS

Class – X









Section A

1. Cards each marked with one of the numbers 6, 7, 8, …., 15 are placed in a box and mixed

thoroughly. One card is drawn at random from the box. The probability of getting a card with a

number less than 10 is:

(a) 1

5 (b)

3

5 (c)

2

5 (d)

4

5

2. The value of x for which the distance between the points A ( )2, 3− and B ( ),5x is 10 units is:

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

3. The sum of first five multiples of 4 is:

(a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 50 (d) 6

4. The angle of depression and the angle of elevation from an object on the ground to an object in

the air are related as:

(a) greater than (b) less than (c) equal (d) all of them

Section B

5. Find the radius of the circle whose circumference is equal to the sum of circumferences of the

two circles of diameter 30 cm and 24 cm.

6. A solid cylinder of diameter 12 cm and height 15 cm is melted and recast into toys with the

shape of a right circular cone mounted on a hemisphere of radius 3 cm. If the height of the toy

is 12 cm, find the number of toys so formed.

7. Water flows through a circular pipe, whose internal diameter is 2 cm, at the rate of 0.7 m per

second into a cylindrical tank, the radius of whose base is 40 cm. By how much will the level of

water in the cylindrical tank use in half an hour?

8. For what value of ,k are the roots of the equation 23 2 27 0x kx+ + = are real and equal?

9. Two AP’s have the same common difference. The first two terms of one of these is 3− and not

of the other is 7.− Find the difference between their 4th terms.


10. The tangent at a point C of a circle and a diameter AB when extended intersect at P. If ∠ PCA =

100 ,° then find ∠ CBA.

Section C

11. If A ( )5, 1 ,− B ( )3, 2− − and C ( )1,8− are the vertices of triangle ABC, find the length of median

through A and the coordinates of centroid.

12. If the point ( ),x y is equidistant from the points ( ),a b b a+ − and ( ), ,a b a b− + then prove that

.bx ay=

13. A chord AB of a circle of radius 14 cm makes a right angle at the centre (O) of the circle. Find

the area of the minor segment.22

Use =7

π

14. The minute hand of a clock is 21 cm long. Find the area described by the minute hand on the

face of the clock between 6 a.m. and 6.05 a.m. 22

Use =7

π

15. Find the number of coins 1.5 cm in diameter and 0.2 cm thick, to be melted to form a right

circular cylinder of height 10 cm and diameter 4.5 cm.

16. Solve the quadratic equation by using quadratic formula: 2 3 12 0

2 2x x− + =

17. Find the middle term of the AP ( )10,7,4,......., 62 .−

18. ABCD is a quadrilateral such that ∠ D = 90 .� A circle C (O, r ) touches the sides AB, BC, CD and

DA at P, Q, R and S respectively. If BC = 38 cm, CD = 25 cm and BP = 27 cm, then find .r

19. A vertical tower stands on a horizontal plane and is surmounted by a vertical flagstaff of height

5 m. From a point on the plane the angles of elevation of the bottomand top of the flagstaff of

height 5 m. From a point on the plane the angles of elevation of the bottom and top of the

flagstaff are respectively 30� and 60 .� Find the height of the tower.

20. Find the probability that a number selected at random from the numbers 1, 2, 3, ……., 35 is:

(i) a prime number.

(ii) multiple of 7.

(iii) multiple of 3 or 5.


Section D

21. Draw any quadrilateral ABCD. Construct another quadrilateral AB’C’D’ similar to the

quadrilateral ABCD with each side equal to 4

5th of the corresponding side of quadrilateral

ABCD. Write the steps of construction also.

22. A tree breaks due to the storm and the broken part bends so that the top of the tree touches

the ground making an angle of 30� with the ground. The distance from the foot of the tree to

the point where the top touches the ground is 10 meters. Find the height of the tree.

23. A box contains 19 balls bearing numbers 1, 2, 3, …….., 19. A ball is drawn at random from the

box. Find the probability that the number on the ball is:

(i) aprime number (ii) divisible by 3 or 5

(iii) neither divisible by 5 nor by 10 (iv) an even number

24. If P and Q are two points whose coordinates are ( )2 , 2at at and 2

2,

a a

t t

−

respectively and S is

the point ( ),0 ,a then show that 1 1

SP SQ+ is independent of .t

25. A cylindrical vessel with internal diameter 10 cm and height 10.5 cm is full of water. A solid

cone of base diameter 7 cm and height 6 cm is completely immersed in water. Find the volume

of:

(i) water displaced out of the cylindrical vessel.

(ii) water left in the cylindrical vessel. 22

Use = 7

π

26. From a solid cylinder whose height is 8 cm and radius 6 cm, a conical cavity of height 8 cm and

of base radius 6 cm, is hollowed out. Find the volume of the remaining solid correct to two

places of decimals. Also find the total surface area of the remaining solid. ( )Use = 3.1416π

27. Solve for :x 1 1 11

; 4,74 7 30

xx x

− = ≠ −+ −

28. Two years ago, a man’s age was three times the square of his son’s age. Three years hence, his

age will be four times his son’s age. Find their present ages.

29. Ram and Shyam have been given to find out the number of two digit numbers in between 6 and

102 which are divisible by 6. Ram calculated it by using AP while Shyam calculated it directly.


(i) How many two digits number are there in between 6 and 102 which are divisible by 6??

(ii) What value is depicted by Ram?

30. The radius of the incircle of a triangle is 4 cm and the segments into which one side is divided

by the point of contact are 6 cm and 8 cm. Determine the other two sides of the triangle.

31. With the vertices of a triangle ABC as centre, three circles are described, each touching the

other two externally. If the sides of the triangle are 9 cm, 7 cm and 6 cm, then find the radii of

the circle.



Sample Paper-04

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT –II MATHEMATICS

Class – X









Section A

1. A bag contains 3 red balls and 5 black balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag. What is

the probability that the ball drawn is red?

2. OAB∆ is a rectangle whose three vertices are A (0, 3), O (0, 0) and B (5, 0). Find the length of

its diagonal.

3. In an AP, if d = -4, n = 7, 4na = then find a.

4. In given figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral. If ZBAC 50= ° and ZDBC 60= ° then find ZBCD.

Section B

5. Find the area of the shaded region in figure, if ABCD is a square of side 14 cm and APD and BPC

are semicircles.

6. A solid metallic sphere of radius 12 cm is melted and recast into a number of small cones, each

of radius 4 cm and height 3 cm. Find the number of cones so formed.



7. Water is flowing at the rate of 15 km per hour through a pipe of diameter 14 cm into a

rectangular tank which is 50 m long and 44 m wide. Find the time in which the level of water in

the tank will rise by 21 m.

8. Show that 3x = − is a solution of the equation 2 6 9 0.x x+ + =

9. How many terms are there in A.P? 1

18,15 ,13,......, 472

−

10. In figure, BOA is a diameter of the circle and the tangent at a point P meets BA extended at T. If

∠ PBO = 35 ,° then find ∠ PTA.

Section C

11. If ( ) ( )3,2 , ,A B a b− and ( )1,4C − are the vertices of a isosceles triangle, show that 1,a b+ = if AB

= BC.

12. Find the value of P if the point ( )0,2A is equidistant from ( )3, p and ( ),3 .p

13. A copper wire when bent in the form of a square encloses an area of 121 cm2. If the same wire

is bent into the form of a circle, then find the area of the circle. 22

Use =7

π

14. The circumference of a circular plot is 220 m. A 15 m wide concrete track runs around outside

the plot. Find the area of the track. 22

Use =7

π

15. A hemispherical bowl of internal radius 9 cm is full of liquid. The liquid is to be filled into

cylindrical shaped small bottles each of diameter 3 cm and height 4 cm. How many bottles are

needed to empty the bowl?

16. Solve the quadratic equation by quadratic formula: 2111 1 0

2x x− + =

17. Find the sum of AP in ( ) ( ) ( )5 8 11 ........ 230− + − + − + + −

18. In figure, ABC is a right angled triangle with AB = 6 cm and AC = 8 cm. A circle with centre O

has been inscribed inside the triangle. Calculate the value of ,r the radius of the inscribed

circle.

19. An aeroplane when flying at a height of 3125 m form the ground passes vertically below

another aeroplane at an instant when the angle of elevation of the two planes from the same



point on the ground are 30 ° and 60 ° respectively. Find the distance between the two

aeroplanes at that instant.

20. A bag contains 6 red balls and some blue balls. If the probability of drawing a blue ball from the

bag is twice that of a red, find the number of blue balls in the bag.

Section D

21. Construct a ∆ ABC in which BC = 6.5 cm, AB = 4.5 cm and ∠ ACB = 60 .o Construct another

triangle similar to ∆ ABC such that each side of new triangle is 4

5 of the corresponding sides of

∆ ABC.

22. At the foot of a mountain the elevation of its summit is 45° . After ascending 1000 m towards

the mountain up a slope of 30° inclination, the elevation is found to be 60° . Find the height of

the mountain.

23. From a pack of 52 playing cards, jacks, queens, kings and aces of red colour are removed. From

the remaining a card is drawn at random. Find the probability that the card drawn is

(i) a black queen,

(ii) a red card,

(iii) a black jack,

(iv) a honorable card

24. If the point A (2, - 4) is equidistant from P (3, 8) and Q (- 10, y), find the values of y. Also find

distance PQ.

25. A solid is in the form of a right circular cylinder with hemispherical ends. The total height of

the solid is 28 cm. Find the total surface area of the solid. 22

Use = 7

π

26. A bucket is in the form of a frustum of a cone with capacity 12305.8 cm3 of water. The radii of

the top and bottom circular ends are 20 cm and 12 cm respectively. Find the total height of the

bucket and the area of the metal sheet used in its making. ( )Use = 3.14π

27. Two circles touch internally. The sum of their areas is 116π cm2 and the distance between

their centres is 6 cm. Find the radii of the circles.

28. A trader bought a number of articles for Rs.900. Five articles were found damaged. He sold

each of the remaining articles at Rs.80 in the whole transaction. Find the number of articles he

bought.



29. Ram asks the labour to dig a well up to a depth of 10 m. Labour charges `150 for first meter and

`50 for each subsequent meters. As labour was uneducated, he claims `550 for the whole work.


(i) What should be the actual amount to be paid to the labour?

(ii) What value of Ram is depicted in the question, if he pays `600 to the labour?

30. Two tangents TP and TQ are drawn to a circle with centre O from an external point T. Prove

that ∠ PTQ = 2 ∠ OPQ.

31. Prove that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point

of contact.

Using the above result, find the length of PQ, if a tangent PQ at a point P of a circle of radius 5

cm meets a line through the centre O at a point Q so that OQ = 12 cm.




SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT –II

English Communicative

Class – X



(i) The Question paper is divided into three sections:

Section A — Reading 20 marks

Section B — Writing and Grammar 25 marks

Section C — Literature 25 marks

(ii) All questions are compulsory.

(iii) You may attempt any section at a time.

(iv) All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.

SECTION A

(Reading 20 marks)

1. Read the passage given below: 8

(a) The hopping kangaroo is a familiar sight in every snapshot relating to Australia.

Members of the kangaroo family can be as small as a rat or as big as a man. Kangaroos

are found mainly in Australia, Tasmania and New Guinea. Kangaroos, which are big-

footed marsupials that evolved in Australia, use their short front legs like arms. The

man-sized kangaroos of Australia are capable of speeding up to 88 km/hr for short

distances, their means of locomotion being their powerful hind legs, which carry them

over the ground in jumps of 9 m or more at a time.

(b) Weighing around 70 kg, they have an average lifespan of around six to eight years and a

maximum lifetime of 20 years. When bothered by predators, kangaroos often head for

the water, standing submerged to the chest, and attempting to drown the attacker by

holding him under water. Another defensive technique is to get their back to a tree and

kick at their adversary with their clawed hind feet, sometimes with sufficient force to kill

a man. Normally shy animals, they alert other kangaroos to danger by beating on the

ground with their hind feet. This loud alarm signal carries over a long distance.

(c) The tail is important for kangaroos. It holds them in balance and supports them when

they sit or fight against other kangaroos. The kangaroo uses its short legs as arms. With

them it scratches itself, cleans its fur and holds branches when it eats leaves. Kangaroos

are marsupials and the females carry newborns in a pouch in front of their abdomens.

The babies are born small and climb up into the safety of the pouch. There, for the next

225 days or so, they eat, sleep and grow. Once they reach full development, they leave

the pouch. A young kangaroo that leaves the pouch is called a ‘joey’. To keep from getting

too hot, the kangaroos take naps in the afternoon and do most of their grazing at night.



But the best stay-cool secret of these creatures is the spit bath! Kangaroos drool and lick

saliva all over their faces and bodies to cool down.

1.1 On the basis of your reading of the above passage, complete the following sentences with

appropriate words/phrases:

(a) When followed by predators, kangaroos submerge ___________ and ____________.

(b) The powerful hind legs help kangaroos to _______________.

(c) Kangaroos are mainly found in Australia and are __________.

(d) They use their front legs to __________________.

(e) Kangaroos warn others of danger by _______________.

(f) The secret of kangaroos to stay cool is _____________________.

(g) They use their tails to _____________________.

(h) Before becoming ‘joeys’, the young ones stay in the __________ and ____________.

2. Read the passage given below: 12

(a) It is rare to find someone with good technical and communication skills. You can get far

ahead of your colleagues if you combine the two early in your career. People will judge,

evaluate, promote or block you based on your communication skills. Since habits form

by repeating both good and bad forms of communication, learn to observe great

communicators and adopt their styles and traits — in written and verbal forms. The art

of listening and learning from each and every interaction, is another secret recipe.

Develop the subconscious habit of listening to yourself as you speak and know when to

pause.

(b) Learning what not to say is probably more important than learning what to say. As your

career develops, you will realize that the wise speak less. Speak when you have value to

add, else refrain. Poorly constructed emails with grammatical errors are acceptable

between friends, but they should be seriously avoided while communicating formally

with your seniors. Avoid any communication in an emotional state when you might say

things you will regret later. One unnecessary word uttered at the wrong time or place

can ruin a relationship, career or even your life. Such is the power of words. If such a

thing happens, you should immediately apologise, else it may haunt you for life.

(c) Another problem to overcome is speaking too fast. Since our minds are working faster

than our speech, we are inclined to speak fast. This does not necessarily mean that the

person hearing it will get it any faster. On the contrary, it is always the reverse. So slow

down, and think before you speak. ‘‘When I get ready to speak to people,’’ Abraham

Lincoln said, ‘‘I spend two-thirds of the time thinking what they want to hear and one-

third thinking what I want to say.’’ Adding humour and wit is also essential. But realize

that not all jokes are funny and observe certain boundaries. Never say anything that

could offend. Remember you are not a comedian who must offend as many people as you

can to be witty.

2.1 Answer the following questions briefly: 8

(a) Why is it necessary to have good communication skills?



(b) How can communication skills be developed?

(c) What, according to the writer, should be avoided while communicating?

(d) Why should you be careful when you tend to be humorous?

2.2 Choose the most appropriate meanings of the given words from the options provided: 4

(a) evaluate (para 1)

(i) estimate

(ii) assume

(iii) punish

(iv) evolve

(b) trait (para 1)

(i) treaty

(ii) trail

(iii) quality

(iv) liberty

(c) utter (para 2)

(i) flatter

(ii) speak

(iii) rot

(iv) unique

(d) haunt (para 2)

(i) hunt

(ii) chant

(iii) trouble

(iv) avoid

SECTION B

(Writing and Grammar 25 marks)

3. You had been to a tourist spot and were disappointed at the way the place was being

maintained. Write a letter in 100 – 120 words to the editor of a newspaper on how places of

tourist interest should be made tourist friendly. You are Maya/Mohan, 48 Court Road,

Trichur. 5

OR

Man has gained control over nature and animals. This has led to ecological imbalance. Write

an article in 100 – 120 words on how this imbalance has affected the life of man. You are

Maya/Mohan.

4. Write a short story in 150 – 200 words on the basis of the hints provided: 10

Summer holidays had begun. Mohit was excited. His father had made arrangements for a

trip to..................



OR

The trek was tiring. Karan and his friends climbed on till noon. On reaching the camp they

realised that ..................

5. Fill in the paragraph given below by choosing the most appropriate options from the ones

that follow. Write the answers in the answer sheet against the correct blank numbers. 3

Marita read the newspaper sitting (a) __________ the library. She read about a woman (b)

___________ had climbed Mt. Everest. Marita said, ‘‘May be, one day I (c) ___________ climb it

too.’’

(a) (i) the (ii) in (iii) along (iv) on

(b) (i) which (ii) whose (iii) who (iv) she

(c) (i) is (ii) was (iii) are (iv) shall

6. The following passage has not been edited. There is one error in each line against which a

blank has been given. Write the incorrect word and the correction in your answer sheet

against the correct blank number as given in the example. Remember to underline the word

that you have supplied.

4

Error Correction

If there is a perfect mountain valley of the world, e.g. of in

it is certainly the magnificence valley of Kashmir. (a) ________ ________

It is surrounded by a snow-capped, lofty (b) ________ ________

mountains which make it a land for springs (c) ________ ________

and beautiful lakes. For the past hundred (d) ________ ________

of years the beauty of Kashmir have held the (e) ________ ________

visitors spellbound. Srinagar, the chief cities (f) ________ ________

of the valley or the summer capital of (g) ________ ________

Jammu and Kashmir lying on the banks of the (h) ________ ________

river Jhelum.

7. Read the dialogue given below and complete the paragraph that follows. Write the answers

in your answer sheet against the correct blank numbers. 3

Nathen : I could not call my English tutor.

Mother : Have you cancelled today’s class ?

Nathen : His phone is dead and there is no other way to contact him.

Nathen told his mother that (a) ___________. Mother asked him whether (b) ___________. Nathen

replied that (c) ___________ way to contact him.

SECTION C

(Literature 25 marks)

8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: 3

He holds him with his glittering eye–



The Wedding-Guest stood still,

And listens like a three years’ child:

The Mariner hath his will.

(a) Why did the mariner hold back the wedding guest?

(b) Why was the wedding guest unable to move?

(c) What does the word, ‘glittering’ mean?

OR

‘‘On the roof, Sebastian looked round, and glanced at his watch nervously. ‘It should be here

by now.’

(a) Which game was Michael playing?

(b) Why was Sebastian nervous?

(c) What does the word, ‘nervously’ mean?

9. Answer any four of the following questions in 30 – 40 words each: 8

(a) On what conditions was Antony allowed to speak on Caesar’s funeral?

(b) What contradictory thoughts did the poet have on seeing the snake?

(c) What advice had Mr Pakrashi given to Patol Babu?

(d) How had Sebastian entered the games Michael later on bought?

(e) How did ‘The Writer’s Inspiration Bureau’ function?

10. Answer the following in 80 – 100 words: 4

Describe how Shelley brings out the futility of power and riches in the poem, ‘Ozymandias.

OR

The poem, ‘Snake’ reminds us of the fact that animals too have a right to life which we have

no right to deny them. Describe how man should coexist with nature and its creatures for

ecological balance.

11. Answer the following in 150 – 200 words: 10

How did the residents of the annexe react to the good news of the invasion by the Allies.

OR

Describe Albert Dussel as he appears in Anne Frank’s diary.

OR

What does Helen say about her association with Alexander Graham Bell?

OR

Describe Merton S. Keith as he appears in Helen Keller’s, ‘The Story of My Life’.

Class X

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT II

ENGLISH

Code No. 101

(COMMUNICATIVE)

Set B

MM: 70 Time 3 hrs.

The Question paper is divided into three sections:

Section A: Reading 20 Marks

Section B: Writing & Grammar 25 Marks

Section C: Literature 25 Marks

General Instructions

1. All questions are compulsory.

2. You may attempt any section at a time.

3. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.

Section A

Reading – 20 marks

Q1. Read the following passage carefully:

Walter Elias "Walt" Disney was born on December 5, 1901, in Hermosa,

Illinois. He lived most of his childhood in Marceline, Missouri, where he

began drawing, painting and selling pictures to neighbours and family

friends. Disney attended McKinley High School in Chicago, where he took

drawing and photography classes and was a contributing cartoonist for the school paper. At night, he took courses at the Chicago Art Institute.

When Disney was 16, he dropped out of school to join the army but was

rejected for being underage. Instead, he joined the Red Cross and was sent

to France for a year to drive an ambulance. When Disney returned from

France in 1919, he moved back to Kansas City to pursue a career as a

newspaper artist. His brother Roy got him a job at the Pesmen-Rubin Art

Studio, where he met cartoonist Ubbe Eert Iwwerks, better known as Ub

Iwerks. From there, Disney worked at the Kansas City Film Ad Company,

where he made commercials based on cutout animation. Around this time,

Disney began experimenting with a camera, doing hand-drawn cel

animation, and decided to open his own animation business. From the ad company, he recruited Fred Harman as his first employee.

Walt and Harman made a deal with a local Kansas City theater to screen

their cartoons, which they called Laugh-O-Grams. The cartoons were

hugely popular, and Disney was able to acquire his own studio, upon which

he bestowed the same name. Laugh-O-Gram hired a number of employees,

including Harman's brother Hugh and Iwerks. They did a series of seven-

minute fairy tales that combined both live action and animation, which they

called Alice in Cartoonland. By 1923, however, the studio had become burdened with debt, and Disney was forced to declare bankruptcy.

Disney and his brother, Roy, soon pooled their money and moved to

Hollywood. Iwerks also relocated to California, and there the three began

the Disney Brothers' Studio. Their first deal was with New York distributor

Margaret Winkler, to distribute their Alice cartoons. They also invented a

character called Oswald the Lucky Rabbit, and contracted the shorts at

$1,500 each.

1.1 Answer the following questions briefly:

(a) What did Walt Disney learn in his childhood?

(b) Why was Walt not selected in the army?

(c) How did Walt’s brother help him in Kansas?

(d) What did Walt learn at Kansas City Film Ad Company?

(e) Name the first employee of Ad Company.

(f) What deal was made with the Kansas City theatre?

(g)Write briefly about Alice in the Cartoonland.

(h)What was the deal made with Margaret Winkler?

8

Q2 Read the following passage carefully:

1. Maybe you’re bored of bananas, apples and grapes and need a

fresh produce pick? A nutrient-rich serving of kiwifruit may be just

what you need. A serving of kiwifruit (2 kiwis) has twice the

vitamin C of an orange, as much potassium as a banana and the

fiber of a bowl of whole grain cereal–all for less than 100 calories!

2. The fuzzy fruit is sky-high in both soluble and insoluble fiber, both

of which are essential for promoting heart health, regulating

digestion, and lowering cholesterol levels—that’s a winning

trifecta. Kiwi fruit has also been considered a “nutritional all-star,”

as Rutgers University researchers found that kiwifruit has the best

nutrient density of 21 commonly consumed fruits.

3. Along with vitamin C, kiwi fruit are rich in many bioactive

compounds that have antioxidant capacity to help to protect against

free radicals, harmful by-products produced in the body. If you

want clean energy, think of kiwifruit because they’re rich in

magnesium, a nutrient essential to convert food into energy.

4. A kiwi fruit also doubles as a peeper-keeper by supplying your eyes

with protective lutein, a carotenoid that’s concentrated in eye

tissues and helps protect against harmful free radicals. Kiwifruit is

also packed with blood pressure-lowering potassium. In fact, a 100-

gram serving of kiwifruit—that’s about one large kiwi—provides

15% of the Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) of potassium.

5. Kiwi fruit has been growing in New Zealand for over 100 years.

Once the fruit gained in popularity, other countries started to grow

them including Italy, France, Chile, Japan, South Korea and Spain.

At first, kiwis were referred to as ‘Yang Tao’ or ‘Chinese

Gooseberry,’ but the name was ultimately changed to kiwifruit so

that everyone would know where the fruit came from.

6. A ripe kiwi fruit will be plump and smooth-skinned, and free of

wrinkles, bruise, and punctures. If you find that your kiwi is a little

too firm after buying it, simply let it ripen at room temperature for

three to five days. The firmer the fruit, the more tart it will taste. To

speed up the ripening process, you can also place kiwis in a paper

bag with an apple or banana. If you want to store the fruit longer,

you should keep in a plastic bag in the refrigerator.

2.1Answer the following questions briefly:

(a) What does a serving of kiwi offer?

(b) Why has kiwi been considered a “nutritional all-star”?

(c)How is kiwi fruit helpful for the eyes?

(d) How can you make a kiwi fruit ripen?

2.2 Do as directed:

(a) The word ‘compound’ means:

(i)calcium

(ii)mixture

(iii)texture

(iv)vitamin

(b) The word ‘concentrated’ means’:

(i) strong

(ii) liquid

(iii) large

(iv) replace

(c) The word ‘ bruises’ means:

(i) roughness

(ii) desolation

(iii) popularity

(iv) discoloured

(d) The word ‘tart’ means:

(i) sweet

(ii) salty

(iii) bitter

(iv) nutty

2 X 4 = 8

1 X4 = 4

Section B

Writing & Grammar – 25 Marks

Q3. Tourism being one of the biggest and fastest growing industries globally,

affects the economic, socio-cultural, environmental and educational

resources of nations. Improving tourism industry in India would thus lead

to national development in many spheres. As Ankit/ Ankita, write a letter to

the Editor of The Times of India expressing your views on the same. You

may like to take ideas from the unit- Travel and Tourism besides your own

ideas. (about 100 -120 words )

OR

Disposal of electronic goods , commonly termed as e-waste, in landfills lead

to toxic substances such as lead, mercury etc. contaminating the land , air

and water. Its high time that countries take. A stock of the situation and

protect the environment. Write an article discussing the same. Also, suggest

some solutions. You are Neha / Nitin from XYZ School. You may use

5

ideas from the unit- Environment besides your own ideas ( 100- 120 words )

Q4. Write a short story on the basis of the hints provided in about 150- 200

words:

Enjoyed going for long walks– visit to Dehradun—huge forest - taking

shortcut through the woods, a tree toppled pinning me underneath.

Then……

Begin the story with:

I have always enjoyed taking long walks among the forests………..

OR

loved reading about life on other planets----One day --walking in the

school. Suddenly heard a noise-----strange man, no creature –an alien

saying something---- then more came---abducted me…….


I loved reading about life on other planets………

10

Q5. Complete the following passage by filling in one or two words each:

Most of us fail in our efforts (a) __________self improvement because our

schemes are too ambitious and we never have time (b) ________ carry

them out. We also make the fundamental error of announcing our resolution

to everybody so that we look even more foolish when we slipback (c)

__________ our bad old ways. Aware of these pitfalls, this year I attempted

(d) _________ keep my resolution to myself. I limited myself to two

modest ambitions, to do physical exercise every morning and to read more

(e) ________ the evening. An overnight party on New year’s eve provided

me with a good excuse (f) _________ not carrying out either of these new

resolutions on the first day of the year, but on the second, I applied myself

assiduously to the task.

3

Q 6. In the passage given below, one word has been omitted in each line.

Write the missing word along with the word that comes before and the

word that comes after it in your answer sheet. Ensure that the word

that forms your answer is underlined.

The first one has been done as an example for you:

Before Missing After

Most people travel as part of their e.g. as a part

daily routine because it enjoyable. (a) _______ _______ _______

There are lots places to explore in (b) _______ _______ _______

the world. Travelling worth every (c) _______ _______ _______

penny you spend memories last forever (d) _______ _______ _______

When travelling, one the opportunity (e) _______ _______ _______

to meet different people from different (f) _______ _______ _______

places. One the most important social (g) _______ _______ _______

skills that we learn is how interact and (h) _______ _______ _______

communicate with different people.

4

Q 7. Rearrange the following words / phrases to form meaningful sentences:

1. is its / remarkable feature / preciousness / the most / of time

2. opportunities /of golden / every moment / thousands / brings

with it

3. slip away / not allow / we must / time to / such precious

3

Section – C

Literature – 25 Marks

Q8. Read the extract and answer the following questions briefly:

And these does she apply for warnings, and portents,

And evils imminent; and on her knee

Hath begg’d that I will stay at home to-day.

(a) Which word in the above passage means ‘forthcoming’?

(b) Who speaks these lines and to whom?

(c) Why should the speaker stay at home?

OR

And wrinkled lip, and sneer of cold command,

Tell that its sculptor well those passions read

Which yet survive, stamped on these lifeless things,

The hand that mocked them, and the heart that fed;

(a )What do wrinkled lip and sneer of cold command tell?

(b) whose hand mocked them ?

(c) How do these passions still survive?

3

Q 9. Answer any four of the following questions in about 30-40 words:

(a) Who was Gogon Pakrashi? What did he preach Patol Babu?

(b) What prophecy does Antony make by the side of Caesar’s body?

(c) What did Jenkins want Hallock to do ?

(d) Why do you think Patol Babu went away without taking any

payment for his role?

(e) What message is conveyed through the poem Ozymandias ?

8

Q 10. Answer any one of the following questions in about 80-100 words.

The voices of education inside the poet D.H.Lawrence tell him that

it was the fear for the snake that made him refrain from killing

him. However, the poet feels that though he was quite afraid of the

snake, he did actually feel honoured that a snake had come to seek

his hospitality from the deep recesses of the earth. The poet uses

repetition to emphasize the fact that the snake may not be as

harmful as humans believe. How does the poet demonstrate respect

for other creatures also? (about 80-100 words)

OR

“You’d never guess in the world. It’s the duckiest, darlingest’ Ouija board

and so cheap! I got

it at a bargain sale. Why, what’s the matter, John?”

After reading these lines you feel that people are crazy for novel and

unusual things. Express your opinion in about 80-100 words on the

intrinsic value of fads (fashion) in life.

4

Q11(A) Give a brief character sketch of Mr. Otto Frank.

OR

How does Anne Frank mature and develop through the course of her diary?

10

OR

Q11(B) Miss Sullivan played a very important part in Helen’s life. Discuss with

reference to the novel.

OR

Getting admission into college wasn’t easy for Helen. Moreover, she

encountered a lot of problems while studying there. Bring out her problems.

Class X

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT II

ENGLISH

Code No. 101

(COMMUNICATIVE)

Set B

MM: 70 Time 3 hrs.

The Question paper is divided into three sections:

Section A: Reading 20 Marks

Section B: Writing & Grammar 25 Marks

Section C: Literature 25 Marks

General Instructions

1. All questions are compulsory.

2. You may attempt any section at a time.

3. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.

Section A

Reading – 20 marks

Q1. Read the following passage carefully:

Walter Elias "Walt" Disney was born on December 5, 1901, in Hermosa,

Illinois. He lived most of his childhood in Marceline, Missouri, where he

began drawing, painting and selling pictures to neighbours and family

friends. Disney attended McKinley High School in Chicago, where he took

drawing and photography classes and was a contributing cartoonist for the school paper. At night, he took courses at the Chicago Art Institute.

When Disney was 16, he dropped out of school to join the army but was

rejected for being underage. Instead, he joined the Red Cross and was sent

to France for a year to drive an ambulance. When Disney returned from

France in 1919, he moved back to Kansas City to pursue a career as a

newspaper artist. His brother Roy got him a job at the Pesmen-Rubin Art

Studio, where he met cartoonist Ubbe Eert Iwwerks, better known as Ub

Iwerks. From there, Disney worked at the Kansas City Film Ad Company,

where he made commercials based on cutout animation. Around this time,

Disney began experimenting with a camera, doing hand-drawn cel

animation, and decided to open his own animation business. From the ad company, he recruited Fred Harman as his first employee.

Walt and Harman made a deal with a local Kansas City theater to screen

their cartoons, which they called Laugh-O-Grams. The cartoons were

hugely popular, and Disney was able to acquire his own studio, upon which

he bestowed the same name. Laugh-O-Gram hired a number of employees,

including Harman's brother Hugh and Iwerks. They did a series of seven-

minute fairy tales that combined both live action and animation, which they

called Alice in Cartoonland. By 1923, however, the studio had become burdened with debt, and Disney was forced to declare bankruptcy.

Disney and his brother, Roy, soon pooled their money and moved to

Hollywood. Iwerks also relocated to California, and there the three began

the Disney Brothers' Studio. Their first deal was with New York distributor

Margaret Winkler, to distribute their Alice cartoons. They also invented a

character called Oswald the Lucky Rabbit, and contracted the shorts at

$1,500 each.

1.1 Answer the following questions briefly:

(a) What did Walt Disney learn in his childhood?

(b) Why was Walt not selected in the army?

(c) How did Walt’s brother help him in Kansas?

(d) What did Walt learn at Kansas City Film Ad Company?

(e) Name the first employee of Ad Company.

(f) What deal was made with the Kansas City theatre?

(g)Write briefly about Alice in the Cartoonland.

(h)What was the deal made with Margaret Winkler?

8

Q2 Read the following passage carefully:

1. Maybe you’re bored of bananas, apples and grapes and need a

fresh produce pick? A nutrient-rich serving of kiwifruit may be just

what you need. A serving of kiwifruit (2 kiwis) has twice the

vitamin C of an orange, as much potassium as a banana and the

fiber of a bowl of whole grain cereal–all for less than 100 calories!

2. The fuzzy fruit is sky-high in both soluble and insoluble fiber, both

of which are essential for promoting heart health, regulating

digestion, and lowering cholesterol levels—that’s a winning

trifecta. Kiwi fruit has also been considered a “nutritional all-star,”

as Rutgers University researchers found that kiwifruit has the best

nutrient density of 21 commonly consumed fruits.

3. Along with vitamin C, kiwi fruit are rich in many bioactive

compounds that have antioxidant capacity to help to protect against

free radicals, harmful by-products produced in the body. If you

want clean energy, think of kiwifruit because they’re rich in

magnesium, a nutrient essential to convert food into energy.

4. A kiwi fruit also doubles as a peeper-keeper by supplying your eyes

with protective lutein, a carotenoid that’s concentrated in eye

tissues and helps protect against harmful free radicals. Kiwifruit is

also packed with blood pressure-lowering potassium. In fact, a 100-

gram serving of kiwifruit—that’s about one large kiwi—provides

15% of the Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) of potassium.

5. Kiwi fruit has been growing in New Zealand for over 100 years.

Once the fruit gained in popularity, other countries started to grow

them including Italy, France, Chile, Japan, South Korea and Spain.

At first, kiwis were referred to as ‘Yang Tao’ or ‘Chinese

Gooseberry,’ but the name was ultimately changed to kiwifruit so

that everyone would know where the fruit came from.

6. A ripe kiwi fruit will be plump and smooth-skinned, and free of

wrinkles, bruise, and punctures. If you find that your kiwi is a little

too firm after buying it, simply let it ripen at room temperature for

three to five days. The firmer the fruit, the more tart it will taste. To

speed up the ripening process, you can also place kiwis in a paper

bag with an apple or banana. If you want to store the fruit longer,

you should keep in a plastic bag in the refrigerator.

2.1Answer the following questions briefly:

(a) What does a serving of kiwi offer?

(b) Why has kiwi been considered a “nutritional all-star”?

(c)How is kiwi fruit helpful for the eyes?

(d) How can you make a kiwi fruit ripen?

2.2 Do as directed:

(a) The word ‘compound’ means:

(i)calcium

(ii)mixture

(iii)texture

(iv)vitamin

(b) The word ‘concentrated’ means’:

(i) strong

(ii) liquid

(iii) large

(iv) replace

(c) The word ‘ bruises’ means:

(i) roughness

(ii) desolation

(iii) popularity

(iv) discoloured

(d) The word ‘tart’ means:

(i) sweet

(ii) salty

(iii) bitter

(iv) nutty

2 X 4 = 8

1 X4 = 4

Section B

Writing & Grammar – 25 Marks

Q3. Tourism being one of the biggest and fastest growing industries globally,

affects the economic, socio-cultural, environmental and educational

resources of nations. Improving tourism industry in India would thus lead

to national development in many spheres. As Ankit/ Ankita, write a letter to

the Editor of The Times of India expressing your views on the same. You

may like to take ideas from the unit- Travel and Tourism besides your own

ideas. (about 100 -120 words )

OR

Disposal of electronic goods , commonly termed as e-waste, in landfills lead

to toxic substances such as lead, mercury etc. contaminating the land , air

and water. Its high time that countries take. A stock of the situation and

protect the environment. Write an article discussing the same. Also, suggest

some solutions. You are Neha / Nitin from XYZ School. You may use

5

ideas from the unit- Environment besides your own ideas ( 100- 120 words )

Q4. Write a short story on the basis of the hints provided in about 150- 200

words:

Enjoyed going for long walks– visit to Dehradun—huge forest - taking

shortcut through the woods, a tree toppled pinning me underneath.

Then……


I have always enjoyed taking long walks among the forests………..

OR

loved reading about life on other planets----One day --walking in the

school. Suddenly heard a noise-----strange man, no creature –an alien

saying something---- then more came---abducted me…….


I loved reading about life on other planets………

10

Q5. Complete the following passage by filling in one or two words each:

Most of us fail in our efforts (a) __________self improvement because our

schemes are too ambitious and we never have time (b) ________ carry

them out. We also make the fundamental error of announcing our resolution

to everybody so that we look even more foolish when we slipback (c)

__________ our bad old ways. Aware of these pitfalls, this year I attempted

(d) _________ keep my resolution to myself. I limited myself to two

modest ambitions, to do physical exercise every morning and to read more

(e) ________ the evening. An overnight party on New year’s eve provided

me with a good excuse (f) _________ not carrying out either of these new

resolutions on the first day of the year, but on the second, I applied myself

assiduously to the task.

3

Q 6. In the passage given below, one word has been omitted in each line.

Write the missing word along with the word that comes before and the

word that comes after it in your answer sheet. Ensure that the word

that forms your answer is underlined.

The first one has been done as an example for you:

Before Missing After

Most people travel as part of their e.g. as a part

daily routine because it enjoyable. (a) _______ _______ _______

There are lots places to explore in (b) _______ _______ _______

the world. Travelling worth every (c) _______ _______ _______

penny you spend memories last forever (d) _______ _______ _______

When travelling, one the opportunity (e) _______ _______ _______

to meet different people from different (f) _______ _______ _______

places. One the most important social (g) _______ _______ _______

skills that we learn is how interact and (h) _______ _______ _______

communicate with different people.

4

Q 7. Rearrange the following words / phrases to form meaningful sentences:

1. is its / remarkable feature / preciousness / the most / of time

2. opportunities /of golden / every moment / thousands / brings

with it

3. slip away / not allow / we must / time to / such precious

3

Section – C

Literature – 25 Marks

Q8. Read the extract and answer the following questions briefly:

And these does she apply for warnings, and portents,

And evils imminent; and on her knee

Hath begg’d that I will stay at home to-day.

(a) Which word in the above passage means ‘forthcoming’?

(b) Who speaks these lines and to whom?

(c) Why should the speaker stay at home?

OR

And wrinkled lip, and sneer of cold command,

Tell that its sculptor well those passions read

Which yet survive, stamped on these lifeless things,

The hand that mocked them, and the heart that fed;

(a )What do wrinkled lip and sneer of cold command tell?

(b) whose hand mocked them ?

(c) How do these passions still survive?

3

Q 9. Answer any four of the following questions in about 30-40 words:

(a) Who was Gogon Pakrashi? What did he preach Patol Babu?

(b) What prophecy does Antony make by the side of Caesar’s body?

(c) What did Jenkins want Hallock to do ?

(d) Why do you think Patol Babu went away without taking any

payment for his role?

(e) What message is conveyed through the poem Ozymandias ?

8

Q 10. Answer any one of the following questions in about 80-100 words.

The voices of education inside the poet D.H.Lawrence tell him that

it was the fear for the snake that made him refrain from killing

him. However, the poet feels that though he was quite afraid of the

snake, he did actually feel honoured that a snake had come to seek

his hospitality from the deep recesses of the earth. The poet uses

repetition to emphasize the fact that the snake may not be as

harmful as humans believe. How does the poet demonstrate respect

for other creatures also? (about 80-100 words)

OR

“You’d never guess in the world. It’s the duckiest, darlingest’ Ouija board

and so cheap! I got

it at a bargain sale. Why, what’s the matter, John?”

After reading these lines you feel that people are crazy for novel and

unusual things. Express your opinion in about 80-100 words on the

intrinsic value of fads (fashion) in life.

4

Q11(A) Give a brief character sketch of Mr. Otto Frank.

OR

How does Anne Frank mature and develop through the course of her diary?

10

OR

Q11(B) Miss Sullivan played a very important part in Helen’s life. Discuss with

reference to the novel.

OR

Getting admission into college wasn’t easy for Helen. Moreover, she

encountered a lot of problems while studying there. Bring out her problems.


Social-science

Set-2

Time: 3 hrs M.M: 90


(i) The question paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.

(ii) Marks are indicated against each question.

(iii) Questions from serial number 1 to 8 are very short Ans questions. Each question carries 1

mark.

(iv) Questions from serial number 9 to 20 are 3 mark questions. Ans of these questions should

not exceed 80 words each.

(v) Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 5 mark questions. Ans of these questions should

not exceed 100 words each.

(vi) Question number 29 to 30 are map questions of 3 marks each from History and Geography

both. After completion attach the map inside your Ans-book.

Q1 What was the main aim of Treaty of Vienna 1815?

Or

What was the main aim to establish Tonkin Free School in Vietnam by French?

Q2 How did the Bailadila Iron ore field get its name?

Q3 Differentiate between 'Sectional interest groups' and 'Public interest groups'.

Q4 Why is one party political system not considered a good democratic system?

Q5 State the main aim of Backward and Minority Communities Employees Federation.

Q6 Due to which reason the latest models of different items are available within our reach?

Q7 If you are not interested to buy a brush with tooth-paste but shopkeeper denied to sell

tooth-paste only. In this case which consumer right is being violated by the seller?

Q8 Which logo will you like to see on the electric heater to be sure of its quality?

Q9 "Culture had played an important role in the development of nationalism in Europe during

eighteenth and nineteenth centuries." Support the statement with example.

Or

"French tried to solve educational problems in Vietnam in different ways." Support the

statement with examples.

Q10 Why did the different social groups join the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain.

Q11 Simon Commission was greeted with slogan 'Go back Simon' at arrival in India.

Support this reaction of Indians with arguments.

Q12 Classify industries on the basis of their main role. How are they different from each other?

Q13 "There is a pressing need to use renewable energy resources." Justify the statement with

suitable arguments.

Q14 "India is an important iron and steel producing country in the world. Yet we are not able to

perform to our full potential." Suggest and explain any three measures to get full potential.

Q15 What is a political party? State any two points of the ideology of BhartiyaJanta Party.

Q16 Who led the protest against water privatization in Bolivia? Describe the ways of protest

adopted by that organization.

Q17 "Democratic governments in practice are known as accountable." Support the statement

with arguments.

Q18 How have our markets been transformed? Explain with examples.


Q19 How does foreign trade integrate the markets of different countries? Explain with

examples.

Q20 How is the concept of Self Help Groups important for poor people? Give your view point.

Q21 "Nationalism no longer retained its idealistic liberal democratic sentiment by the last

quarter of the nineteenth century in Europe." Analyse the statement with examples.

Or

"Women were represented as warriors as well as workers in Vietnam in the 1960s."

Analyse the statement with examples.

Q22 How had Non-Cooperation Movement spread to countryside? Explain.

Q23 Why is air travel more popular in the North-Eastern states of India? Explain.

Q24 "Minerals are indispensible part of our lives." Support the statement with examples.

Q25 Examine any two institutinal amendments made by different institutions to reform political

parties and their leaders.

Q26 "Democracies are not appearing to be very successful in reducing economic inequalities."

Analyse the statement.

Q27 Describe any five factors that promote the Multinational Corporations (MNCs) to setup

their production units in a particular place.

Q28 Describe the major problems created by the globalization for a large number of small

producers and workers.

Q29 Three features (A), (B) and (C) are marked on the given political outline map of India.

Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct

names on the lines marked in the map:

(A) The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.

(B) The place where the 'No Tax Campaign' was started.

(C) The place where peasants organized a Satyagraha.

Q30 On the given political outline map of India locate and label the following with appropriate

symbols:


(A) Nuclear Power Plant - Kalpakkam

(B) Iron and Steel Plant - Rourkela

(C) Major Sea Port - Kandla

Documents

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