Study Guide Chap 51-56MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Research has shown that nocturnal animals navigate using 1)A) the North Star.B) gravity.C) landmarks.D) the moon.E) olfactory cues.

2) Which of the following shows the adaptive significance of cognitive mapping to animals thatemploy this type of learning?

2)

A) It increases the ability to visually recognize landmarks.B) Animals can locate essential locations in their environment, such as nests, hazards, and

feeding areas.C) Animals can determine their position relative to landmarks by a triangulation process.D) Cognitive maps reduce the amount of detail required to remember the location of an object in

the animal's environment.E) Animals can outmaneuver predators by planning and memorizing getaway routes.

3) What probably explains why coastal and inland garter snakes react differently to banana slug prey? 3)A) Inland banana slugs are distasteful, so inland snakes learn to avoid them. Coastal banana

slugs are palatable to garter snakes.B) Ancestors of coastal snakes that could eat the abundant banana slugs had increased fitness.

No such selection occurred inland, where banana slugs were absent.C) Garter snakes learn to eat what their mother eats. Coastal snake mothers happened to prefer

slugs.D) Banana slugs are camouflaged, and inland snakes, which have poorer vision than coastal

snakes, are less able to see them.E) Garter snakes learn about prey from other garter snakes. Inland garter snakes have fewer

types of prey because they are less social.

4) Pair-bonding in a population of prairie voles can be prevented by 4)A) administering a drug that inhibits the brain receptor for vasopressin in the CNS of males.B) allowing the population size to reach critically low levels.C) dying the coat color from brown to blond in either male or female prairie voles.D) administering a drug that turns on ADH receptor sites in male voles.E) the ensuing confusion caused by introducing meadow voles.

5) Parental protective behavior in turkeys is triggered by the cheeping sound of young chicks. Whatterm best applies to this behavior?

5)

A) classical conditioningB) sign stimulusC) operant conditioningD) cognitionE) imprinting

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6) Although many chimpanzees live in environments containing oil palm nuts, members of only afew populations use stones to crack open the nuts. The likely explanation is that

6)

A) members of different populations have different nutritional requirements.B) members of different populations differ in learning ability.C) the behavioral difference is caused by genetic differences between populations.D) members of different populations differ in manual dexterity.E) the cultural tradition of using stones to crack nuts has arisen in only some populations.

7) The central concept of sociobiology is that 7)A) human behavior is rigidly predetermined.B) the social behavior of humans is homologous to the social behavior of other social animals.C) human behavior consists mainly of fixed action patterns.D) most aspects of our social behavior have an evolutionary basis.E) the behavior of an individual cannot be modified.

8) Which of the following is not required for a behavioral trait to evolve by natural selection? 8)A) The behavior varies among individuals.B) An individual's reproductive success depends in part on how the behavior is performed.C) Some component of the behavior is genetically inherited.D) In each individual, the form of the behavior is determined entirely by genes.E) An individual's genotype influences its behavioral phenotype.

9) Imagine that you are designing an experiment aimed at determining whether the initiation ofmigratory behavior is largely under genetic control. Of the following options, the best way toproceed is to

9)

A) bring animals into the laboratory and determine the conditions under which they becomerestless and attempt to migrate.

B) perform within-population matings with birds from different populations that have differentmigratory habits. Do this in the laboratory and see if offspring display parental migratorybehavior.

C) perform within-population matings with birds from different populations that have differentmigratory habits. Rear the offspring in the absence of their parents and observe the migratorybehavior of offspring.

D) observe genetically distinct populations in the field and see if they have different migratoryhabits.

E) All of the options are equally productive ways to approach the question.

10) White-crowned sparrows can only learn the "crystallized" song for their species by 10)A) listening to the song of its own species during a critical period so that it will imprint to its

own species song and not the songs of other songbird species.B) listening to adult sparrow songs during a sensitive period as a fledgling, followed by a

practice period until the juvenile matches its melody to its memorized fledgling song.C) practicing as a fledgling until the innate species-specific song becomes perfected.D) observing and practicing after receiving social confirmation from other adults at a critical

period during their first episode of courtship behavior.E) performing the crystallized song as adults when they become sexually mature, as the song is

programmed into the innate behavior for the species.

11) What type of signal is brief and can work among obstructions at night? 11)A) auditory B) magnetic C) visual D) olfactory E) tactile

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12) Some dogs love attention, and Frodo the beagle learns that if he barks, he gets attention. Which ofthe following might you use to describe this behavior?

12)

A) The dog has been classically conditioned.B) The dog's behavior is a result of operant conditioning.C) The dog is displaying an instinctive fixed action pattern.D) The dog is trying to protect its territory.E) The dog is performing a social behavior.

13) Which of the following statements about evolution of behavior is correct? 13)A) If a behavior is less than optimal, it will eventually become optimal through natural selection.B) Innate behaviors can never be altered by natural selection.C) An animal may show behavior that minimizes reproductive fitness.D) Natural selection will favor behavior that enhances survival and reproduction.E) All of the statements are correct.

14) Feeding behavior with a high energy intake-to-expenditure ratio is called 14)A) herbivory.B) optimal foraging.C) search scavenging.D) autotrophy.E) heterotrophy.

15) What is the fitness benefit of polygamy in birds that rear precocious young? 15)A) Females will copulate with many males to ensure that all of their eggs are fertilized.B) Females don't have to decide on one mate, and can copulate with as many males as she deems

worthy to share her genes with in reproduction.C) Females don't have to spend time rearing young and can mate and rear additional broods

during a breeding season.D) Both males and females spend little time with courtship and brood-rearing, and don't tax

their own physiology so they can breed again in subsequent breeding seasons.E) Fit males don't have to help feed and rear young and can spend this time seeking and mating

with many females.

16) Animal communication involves what type of sensory information? 16)A) visualB) visual, auditory, olfactory, and tactileC) tactileD) auditoryE) olfactory

17) Species introduced by humans to new geographic locations 17)A) are always considered pests by ecologists.B) always spread because they encounter none of their natural predators.C) can outcompete and displace native species for biotic and abiotic resources.D) are usually successful in colonizing the area.E) increase the diversity and therefore the stability of the ecosystem.

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18) Which of the following statements best describes the effect of climate on biome distribution? 18)A) Temperate forests and grasslands are different biomes because they receive a different quality

and quantity of sunlight, even though they have essentially the same annual temperature andprecipitation.

B) Average annual temperature and precipitation are sufficient to predict which biome will befound in an area.

C) Correlation of climate with biome distribution is sufficient to determine the cause of biomepatterns.

D) Seasonal fluctuation of temperature is not a limiting factor in biome distribution if areas havethe same annual temperature and precipitation means.

E) Not only is the average climate important in determining biome distribution but so is thepattern of climatic variation.

19) In the development of terrestrial biomes, which factor is most dependent on all the others? 19)A) prevailing rainfallB) the species of colonizing animalsC) soil structureD) prevailing temperatureE) mineral nutrient availability

20) Which of the following statements best describes the interaction between fire and ecosystems? 20)A) Chaparral communities have evolved to the extent that they rarely burn.B) The likelihood of a wildfire occurring in a given ecosystem is highly predictable over the

short term.C) Fire is unnatural in ecosystems and should be prevented.D) Many kinds of plants and plant communities have adapted to frequent fires.E) The suppression of forest fires by man has prevented certain communities, such as

grasslands, from reaching their climax stage.

The following questions refer to Figure 53.3, which depicts the age structure of three populations.

Figure 53.3

21) Which population(s) is (are) in the process of decreasing? 21)A) I B) II C) III D) I and II E) II and III

22) A population's carrying capacity 22)A) may change as environmental conditions change.B) can be accurately calculated using the logistic growth model.C) increases as the per capita growth rate (r) decreases.D) can never be exceeded.E) generally remains constant over time.

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23) During the spring, you are studying the mice that live in a field near your home. The populationdensity is high, but you realize that you rarely observe any reproductive female mice. This mostlikely indicates

23)

A) that female mice die before reproducing.B) that there is selective predation on female mice.C) that this habitat is a good place for mice to reproduce.D) that you are observing immigrant mice.E) that the breeding season is over.

24) Imagine that you are managing a large game ranch. You know from historical accounts that aspecies of deer used to live there, but they have been extirpated. You decide to reintroduce them.After doing some research to determine what might be an appropriately sized foundingpopulation, you do so. You then watch the population increase for several generations, and graphthe number of individuals (vertical axis) against the number of generations (horizontal axis). Thegraph will likely appear as

24)

A) a diagonal line, getting higher with each generation.B) an upside-down "U."C) an "S," increasing with each generation.D) an "S" that ends with a vertical line.E) a "J," increasing with each generation.

Use the survivorship curves in Figure 53.1 to answer the following questions.

Figure 53.1

25) Which curve best describes survivorship in elephants? 25)A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

26) Which of the following examples would most accurately measure the density of the populationbeing studied?

26)

A) counting the number of zebras from airplane census observations.B) counting the number of prairie dog burrows per hectareC) counting the number of coyote droppings per hectareD) multiplying the number of moss plants counted in 10 quadrats of 1m2 each by 100 to

determine the density per kilometer2.E) counting the number of times a 1 kilometer transect is intersected by tracks of red squirrels

after a snowfall

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27) Which of the following was the most significant limiting factor in human population growth in the20th century?

27)

A) non-HIV diseaseB) famineC) HIVD) genocideE) clean water

28) Carrying capacity is 28)A) the term used to describe the stress a population undergoes due to limited resources.B) seldom reached by marine producers and consumers because of the vast resources of the

ocean.C) determined by density and dispersion data.D) fixed for most species over most of their range most of the time.E) the maximum population size that a particular environment can support.

29) Which of the following statements about the evolution of life histories is correct? 29)A) The reproductive efforts of r-selected populations are directed at producing just a few

offspring with good competitive abilities.B) K-selected populations are most often found in environments where density-independent

factors are important regulators of population size.C) Stable environments with limited resources favor r-selected populations.D) Most populations have both r- and K-selected characteristics that vary under different

environmental conditions.E) K-selected populations rarely approach carrying capacity.

30) Which of the following is an example of Müllerian mimicry? 30)A) two species of moths with wing spots that look like owl's eyesB) two species of unpalatable butterfly that have the same color patternC) two species of rattlesnakes that both rattle their tailsD) a day-flying hawkmoth that looks like a waspE) a chameleon that changes its color to look like a dead leaf

31) Food chains are sometimes short because 31)A) most producers are inedible.B) only a single species of herbivore feeds on each plant species.C) most of the energy in a trophic level is lost as it passes to the next higher level.D) local extinction of a species causes extinction of the other species in its food chain.E) predator species tend to be less diverse and less abundant than prey species.

32) There are more species in tropical areas than in places more distant from the equator. This isprobably a result of

32)

A) more frequent ecological disturbances.B) fewer predators.C) fewer agents of disease.D) fewer predators, more intense annual solar radiation, more frequent ecological disturbances,

and fewer agents of disease.E) more intense annual solar radiation.

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33) Evidence shows that some grasses benefit from being grazed. Which of the following terms wouldbest describe this plant-herbivore interaction?

33)

A) competitionB) mutualismC) commensalismD) parasitismE) predation

34) Which of the following would be most significant in understanding the structure of an ecologicalcommunity?

34)

A) determining how many species are present overall, which particular species are present, thekinds of interactions that occur among organisms of different species, and the relativeabundance of species

B) determining which particular species are presentC) determining how many species are present overallD) determining the relative abundance of speciesE) determining the kinds of interactions that occur among organisms of different species

35) Zoonotic disease 35)A) is caused by pathogens that are transferred from other animals to humans by direct contact or

by means of a vector.B) is too specific to study at the community level, and studies of zoonotic pathogens are

relegated to organismal biology.C) can only be spread from animals to humans through direct contact.D) can only be transferred from animals to humans by means of an intermediate host.E) is caused by suborganismal pathogens such as viruses, viroids, and prions only.

36) Which of the following statements is consistent with the principle of competitive exclusion? 36)A) Bird species generally do not compete for nesting sites.B) The random distribution of one competing species will have a positive impact on the

population growth of the other competing species.C) Natural selection tends to increase competition between related species.D) Two species with the same fundamental niche will exclude other competing species.E) Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well

adapted of two competing species.

The symbols +, -, and o are to be used to show the results of interactions between individuals and groups of individuals inthe examples that follow. The symbol + denotes a positive interaction, - denotes a negative interaction, and o denotes whereindividuals are not affected by interacting. The first symbol refers to the first organism mentioned.

37) What interactions exist between mycorrhizae and evergreen tree roots? 37)A) +/+ B) -/- C) +/- D) o/o E) +/o

38) What interactions exist between a bee and a flower? 38)A) +/+ B) -/- C) +/o D) +/- E) o/o

39) What interactions exist between the cattle egret and grazing cattle? 39)A) +/- B) -/- C) o/o D) +/o E) +/+

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40) In a particular case of secondary succession, three species of wild grass all invaded a field. By thesecond season, a single species dominated the field. A possible factor in this secondary successionwas

40)

A) inhibition.B) facilitation.C) equilibrium.D) parasitism.E) immigration.

41) Which statement best describes the evolutionary significance of mutualism? 41)A) Interaction increases the survival and reproductive rates of mutualistic species.B) Mutualistic interaction lessens competition in communities where it is present.C) Individuals partaking in a mutualistic relationship are more resistant to parasites.D) Mutualistic relationships allow organisms to synthesize and use energy more efficiently.E) Mutualism offers more biodiversity to a community.

42) According to the nonequilibrium model, 42)A) interspecific interactions induce changes in community composition over time.B) communities are assemblages of closely linked species that are irreparably changed by

disturbance.C) community structure remains stable in the absence of interspecific competition.D) communities will remain in a climax state if there are no human disturbances.E) communities are constantly changing after being influenced by disturbances.

43) A cow's herbivorous diet indicates that it is a(n) 43)A) secondary consumer.B) producer.C) decomposer.D) autotroph.E) primary consumer.

44) Which of these ecosystems accounts for the largest amount of Earth's net primary productivity? 44)A) savannaB) salt marshC) tundraD) tropical rain forestE) open ocean

45) Which of the following lists of organisms is ranked in correct order from lowest to highest percentin production efficiency?

45)

A) insects, fish, mammalsB) mammals, insects, fishC) fish, insects, mammalsD) mammals, fish, insectsE) insects, mammals, fish

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46) Which of the following has the greatest effect on the rate of chemical cycling in anecosystem?

46)

A) the ecosystem's rate of primary productionB) the production efficiency of the ecosystem's consumersC) the location of the nutrient reservoirs in the ecosystemD) the trophic efficiency of the ecosystemE) the rate of decomposition in the ecosystem

47) Which statement best describes what ultimately happens to the chemical energy that is notconverted to new biomass in the process of energy transfer between trophic levels in an ecosystem?

47)

A) Heat produced by cellular respiration is used by heterotrophs to thermoregulate.B) It is eliminated as feces or is dissipated into space as heat in accordance with the second law

of thermodynamics.C) It is used by organisms to maintain their life processes through the reactions of cellular

respiration.D) It is recycled by decomposers to a form that is once again usable by primary producers.E) It is undigested and winds up in the feces and is not passed on to higher trophic levels.

48) Which of the following locations is the reservoir for nitrogen in the nitrogen cycle? 48)A) soilB) sedimentary bedrockC) atmosphereD) fossilized plant and animal remains (coal, oil, and natural gas)E) plant and animal biomass

49) Which of these ecosystems has the highest net primary productivity per square meter? 49)A) open oceanB) savannaC) boreal forestD) temperate forestE) tropical rain forest

50) Which trophic level is most vulnerable to extinction? 50)A) secondary consumer levelB) producer levelC) decomposer levelD) primary consumer levelE) tertiary consumer level

51) Consider the food chain grass grasshopper mouse snake hawk. How much of thechemical energy fixed by photosynthesis of the grass (100%) is available to the hawk?

51)

A) 0.1% B) 1% C) 10% D) 0.01% E) 60%

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52) On the diagram of the nitrogen cycle, which number represents nitrifying bacteria? 52)A) 5 B) 6 C) 7

53) What is the first step in ecosystem restoration? 53)A) to restore the physical structureB) to identify the limiting factors of the producersC) to restore native species that have been extirpated due to disturbanceD) to remove toxic pollutantsE) to remove competitive invasive species

54) Approximately 1% of the solar radiation that strikes a plant is converted into the chemical bondenergy of sugars. Why is this amount so low?

54)

A) Most solar energy strikes water and land surfaces.B) Only 1% of the wavelengths of visible light are absorbed by photosynthetic pigments.C) Only the green wavelengths are absorbed by plants for photosynthesis.D) Approximately 99% of the solar radiation is reflected.E) Approximately 99% of the solar radiation is converted to heat energy.

55) How is net ecosystem production (NEP) typically estimated in ecosystems? 55)A) the annual total of incoming solar radiation per unit of areaB) the amount of heat energy released by the ecosystemC) the rate of decomposition by detrivoresD) the ratio of producers to consumersE) the net flux of CO2 or O2 in or out of an ecosystem

56) Managing southwestern forests specifically for the red-cockaded woodpecker 56)A) involved the creation of fragmented forest habitat.B) was wholeheartedly supported by the timber extraction industry.C) caused other species of songbird to decline.D) involved strict fire suppression measures.E) contributed to greater abundance and diversity of other forest bird species.

57) The most serious consequence of a decrease in global biodiversity would be the 57)A) increase in global warming and thinning of the ozone layer.B) potential loss of ecosystem services on which people depend.C) increase in the abundance and diversity of edge-adapted species.D) loss of species for "bioprospecting."E) loss of source of genetic diversity to preserve endangered species.

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58) What is a critical load? 58)A) the level of a given toxin in an ecosystem that is lethal to 50% of the species presentB) the maximum abundance level of a particular species, beyond which additional numbers will

degrade a habitatC) the amount of added nutrient that can be absorbed by plants without damaging ecosystem

integrityD) the number of predators an ecosystem can support that effectively culls prey populations to

healthy levelsE) the amount of nutrient augmentation necessary to bring a depleted habitat back to its former

level

59) Which of the following is a consequence of biological magnification? 59)A) Only a small portion of the energy captured by producers is transferred to consumers.B) The amount of biomass in the producer level of an ecosystem decreases if the producer

turnover time increases.C) Populations of top-level predators are generally smaller than populations of primary

consumers.D) The biomass of producers in an ecosystem is generally higher than the biomass of primary

consumers.E) Toxic chemicals in the environment pose greater risk to top-level predators than to primary

consumers.

60) Which of the following is consistent with forest fragmentation research? 60)A) Species diversity is always lower in fragmented forests when compared to forest interiors in

the same region.B) Edge communities consistently have low species diversity.C) New-edge species that migrate in do not seem to compete with forest species and often

increase biodiversity in fragmented forests.D) Forest-interior species show declines in small patch communities.E) Productivity is the same in both fragmented forests and forest interiors.

61) Which of the following examples poses the greatest potential threat to biodiversity? 61)A) releasing sterilized rainbow trout to boost the sport fishing of a river system that contains

native brook troutB) replanting, after a clear cut, a monoculture of Douglas fir trees on land that consisted of

old-growth Douglas fir, western cedar, and western hemlockC) allowing previously used farmland to go fallow and begin to fill in with weeds and then

shrubs and saplingsD) trapping and relocating large predators, such as mountain lions, that pose a threat as they

move into areas of relatively dense human populationsE) importing an Asian insect into the United States to control a weed that competes with staple

crops

62) According to the U.S. Endangered Species Act (ESA), the difference between an endangered speciesand a threatened one is that

62)

A) a threatened species is closer to extinction.B) threatened species are endangered species outside the U.S. borders.C) an endangered species is closer to extinction.D) only endangered species are vertebrates.E) endangered species are mainly tropical.

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63) One characteristic that distinguishes a population in an extinction vortex from most otherpopulations is that

63)

A) it is not well adapted to edge conditions.B) it is a rare, top-level predator.C) its habitat is fragmented.D) its effective population size is much lower than its total population size.E) its genetic diversity is very low.

64) Relatively small geographic areas with high concentrations of endemic species and a large numberof endangered and threatened species are known as

64)

A) endemic metapopulations.B) critical communities.C) endemic sinks.D) biodiversity hot spots.E) bottlenecks.

65) Which of the following ecological locations has the greatest species diversity? 65)A) grasslandsB) deciduous forestsC) tundraD) islandsE) tropics

66) The greatest cause of the biodiversity crisis, the one which includes all of the others, is 66)A) habitat destruction.B) human overpopulation.C) pollution.D) global warming.E) introduced species.

67) According to the small-population approach, what would be the best strategy for saving apopulation that is in an extinction vortex?

67)

A) determining and remedying the cause of its declineB) establishing a nature reserve to protect its habitatC) determining the minimum viable population size by taking into account the effective

population sizeD) introducing individuals from other populations to increase genetic variationE) reducing the population size of its predators and competitors

68) What is the single greatest threat to biodiversity? 68)A) introduced species that compete with native speciesB) disruption of trophic relationships as more and more prey species become extinctC) pollution of Earth's air, water, and soilD) habitat alteration, fragmentation, and destructionE) overharvesting of commercially important species

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Answer KeyTestname: STUDY GUIDE 51-56

1) A2) D3) B4) A5) B6) E7) D8) D9) C

10) B11) A12) B13) D14) B15) E16) B17) C18) E19) B20) D21) B22) A23) D24) E25) A26) A27) E28) E29) D30) B31) C32) E33) B34) A35) A36) E37) A38) A39) D40) A41) A42) E43) E44) E45) D46) E47) B48) C49) E50) E

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Answer KeyTestname: STUDY GUIDE 51-56

51) D52) B53) A54) B55) E56) E57) B58) C59) E60) D61) E62) C63) E64) D65) E66) B67) D68) D

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