Student Study Guide - Pearson Educationwps.pearsoned.co.uk/.../objects/2768/2834453/ssg/stude… · Web viewStudent Study Guide. to accompany Peter Haggett. GEOGRAPHY: A GLOBAL

Student Study Guideto accompany Peter Haggett

GEOGRAPHY: A GLOBAL SYNTHESIS

Pearson Education

Contents

To the Student

Chapter 1 On the BeachChapter 2 The Earth as a Lonely PlanetChapter 3 The Ever-changing ClimateChapter 4 The BiosphereChapter 5 Human Origins and DispersalsChapter 6 Population DynamicsChapter 7 CultureChapter 8 An Urbanizing WorldChapter 9 Pressures on the EcosystemChapter 10 Resources and ConservationChapter 11 Our Role in Changing the Face of the EarthChapter 12 The Web of RegionsChapter 13 Flows and NetworksChapter 14 Nodes and HierarchiesChapter 15 SurfacesChapter 16 Spatial DiffusionChapter 17 Territorial TensionsChapter 18 Economic InequalitiesChapter 19 GlobalizationChapter 20 The Global Burden of DiseaseChapter 21 Maps and MappingChapter 22 Environmental Remote SensingChapter 23 Geographic Information SystemsChapter 24 On Going Further in Geography

Appendix Progress Check Answers

To the Student

This Study Guide is designed to assist you in understanding the material presented in Geography: A Global Synthesis. Specifically, the goals of this Study Guide are threefold:

1) to encourage detailed examination of portions of the textual material2) to help relate material which you learn to the environment with which you are

most familiar; and,3) to assist in the ‘synthesis’ which is noted in the title of the text

Each chapter in this Study Guide corresponds to a chapter in the text, and is divided into three distinct sections. First, preceding the actual study material for each chapter, is a list of ‘objectives’ whose purpose is to help you better understand exactly what it is that you are supposed to learn from that chapter. These objectives are necessarily stated in rather broad terms but should nevertheless allow you to better focus your study efforts and organise your ‘findings’. Secondly, following the statement of chapter objectives, is a set of questions and exercises which can be completed only in close interaction with the text. These questions and exercises vary in mode, ranging from true-false statements which have to be evaluated to more extensive simulation exercises. As you will notice, many of the questions have no ‘universally’ correct answers. Rather, the answer reflects some situation or example drawn from your experience with the knowledge of your own local environment. The third portion of each chapter is a ‘progress check’, a multiple choice self-administered quiz which covers the material dealt with in the chapter. The answers to these progress checks are found in an Appendix to this Study Guide, thus allowing you to assess your own level of understanding of the material in each chapter. Our suggestions for an efficient and effective approach to learning using the text and Study Guide are as follows: First, review the objectives for a chapter, for they state what you are expected to learn from that chapter. The objectives also function as a general introduction to the material you will be studying. Secondly, after reviewing the objectives, read the chapter. In your reading, try to pay particular attention to the figures, i.e., the maps, diagrams and graphs, because they are an integral part of a geography text. The third step is to complete the chapter unit in this Study Guide by completing the questions and exercises. Try not to copy sentences directly out of the text for use as answers. Once you have completed the Study Guide you might want to once again review the objectives to determine whether or not you have reached them. If there are some objectives you cannot ‘answer’ then you can concentrate further review and study of both the text and Study Guide in those sections. It is hoped that your course of study through Geography: A Global Synthesis will be made both easier and more rewarding by use of this Study Guide, and you will find both of these challenging, exciting and relevant to your own experience.

CHAPTER 1 / OBJECTIVES

After studying the material in this chapter you should:

1. be able to describe the three major questions of concern to geographers2. be aware of the different kinds of maps geographers use3. know what a region is4. understand the relationship between varying time periods and geographic

observations5. be able to define spatial diffusion6. be familiar with the concept of spatial covariation7. be able to define two types of feedback8. be familiar with the range of geographic orders of magnitude9. be able to distinguish between and provide examples of the three major types of

models10. be able to define linear scale11. be aware of both the traditional and the contemporary paradigms of geography12. note three types of essential information which geographers may provide

CHAPTER 1 / STUDY QUESTIONS

1. In assessing some portion of the earth’s surface, the geographer has specific concerns which are related to the questions he/she asks and, in turn, attempts to answer. State what these three specific concerns are.

2. Define the term ‘spatial’

3. Why might ‘relative location’ be more interesting and informative than ‘absolute location’ to geographers?

4. Choropleth maps depict accurately the surface of ‘terrain’ of a spatial distribution. TRUE or FALSE?

5. What is meant by inter-personal space?

6. List the kinds of people you would allow within your:

0.5M Zone 1.5M Zone 4M Zone

7. Spatial diffusion can be thought of as movement through……………… and over…………………

8. For geographers the term ‘environment’ can be defined as :

9. Depict with arrows the directional aspects of people-environment relations:

PEOPLE ENVIRONMENT

10. Environmental feedback in which one area is affected by the actions of some distant area is called…………………………, while that which affects the same area but takes 10-20 years to manifest itself is called…………………………………

11. The upper size limit for areas of geographic study, i.e., the first order of geographic magnitude, is based on …………………………………..

12. The geographic order of magnitude of your home town/city is………………

13. Does the geographer use the notion of geographic orders of magnitude to reduce or enlarge his/her study area?

14. In attempting to simulate aspects of reality, geographers utilize…………………

15. Which of the following is a representative fraction?

a) 1:100000 d) 1/100000b) 1 cm = 100000 cm e) 1 in. = 1.6 mi.a) 1 cm = 1 km

16. Which model type is the most abstract, i.e., the furthest from reality?

17. ………………………….provide intuitive or inductive rules about the kinds of phenomena that geographers think they should study and the methods to be used in their studies.

18. Briefly explain the difference between the traditional paradigm of geography and the contemporary one.

19. The phrase, ‘the best use of a particular site; the best location for a particular function,’ describes in part the concept of………………………………….

20. Do you agree with the statement that the viewpoint of the geographer is important to the solution of all problems? Explain.

CHAPTER 1 / PROGRESS CHECK

1. For a geographer the photographic analysis of a portion of any landscape would begin with the question:

(a) what is the photo scale? (b) where are events occurring in space? (c) what has caused the beach to take its present form? (d) how can the events be sorted into a spatial classification?

2. By drawing lines between all points having the same quality or value the geographer constructs:

(a) an isarithmic map (b) a choropleth map (c) a map of cell values(d) a linear map

3. The study of spatial diffusion requires information about the location of individuals plus the very important:

(a) place factor (b) time factor (c) spatial factor (d) selectivity factor

4. If we study population density and environmental quality in an area in order to discover a possible association, we may use a concept called:

(a) spatial covariation (b) spatial variation (c) spatial autocorrelation(d) spatial environ

5. A good example of the second order of geographic magnitude is:

(a) the United States (b) the conterminous United States (c) New York(d) San Francisco

6. An aerial photograph is:

(a) an iconic model (b) an analog model (c) a symbolic model (d) a real world model

7. Prior to 1960 the main paradigm of the geographer was:

(a) mathematical models (b) world regional geography (c) the study of nation states (d) physical geography (e) cartography

8. The dominant question in contemporary geography revolves around:

(a) locational description (b) best location or use (c) locational use or description(d) environmental paradigms



1. be able to describe the difference between the biotic and abiotic environments

2. be aware of the importance of systems

3. be able to describe the components of the lithosphere

4. be able to explain plate tectonic theory

5. be able to explain instabilities in the lithosphere

6. be able to describe the atmosphere and its components

7. be able to explain the importance of the troposhere

8. know the main factors affecting the world’s climate

9. be able to explain the factors affecting world climate

10. be able to explain the importance of the hydrosphere

11. be able to explain the hydrological cycle

12. be able to explain the erosion cycle

13. understand Davis’s contribution to geographical theory

14. be aware of the human impact of planetary change


1. What is the difference between the biotic and abiotic environments? In which do we live?

2. Describe the main components of the abiotic environment

3. What is a system? Why is it an important tool for geographers?

4. What are the main differences between oceanic and continental crust?

5. Who was Alfred Wegener and what was his theory? Why was it important?

6. Explain plate tectonic theory.

7. What is an earthquake? Where are the main earthquake zones?

8. What can you say about the relationship between earthquakes and volcanoes and plate tectonics theory?

9. What is the atmosphere and what are the main gases?

10. What are the three components of the atmosphere?

11. Explain the importance of the troposhere for human life?

12. What is meant by ‘global energy balance’?

13. What are the factors which affect climate?

14. For each factor briefly explain how it influences climate.

15. What is the Hadley-Ferrel model?

16. Describe the world’s water balance.

17. Explain the difference between stores and transfers of water. Give examples of each.

18. Draw a rough sketch showing the earth’s main stores of water, and the direction of transfers in the hydrologic cycle.

19. Explain the impact running water has on the earth’s surface.

20. Explain the erosion cycle

21. What is the Davisian cycle?

22. Outline any advantages or disadvantages of planetary change to human life.

23. What is a super volcano? Name an example. Why might there be concern over this feature?


1. The lithosphere is the:

(a) earth’s crust (b) gas cover surrounding the earth (c) water element of the earth (d) material below the earth’s crust

2. Oceanic crust consists of:

(a) sial (b) silica (c) sima (d) gaia

3. There are …………….main types of plate boundary

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

4. There are …………….main plates or sections of the earth’s crust

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6

5. The scale used to measure the strength of an earthquake is the……….scale

(a) Mercalli (b) Davis (c) Richter (d) Beaufort

6. The relationship between earthquakes, volcanoes and plate tectonics is that:

(a) their location is entirely random (b) volcanoes and earthquakes occur together (c) volcanoes, earthquakes and plate boundaries have a very close relationship (d) plate boundaries are related to earthquakes but not volcanoes

7. The most important part of the atmosphere for human life is:

(a) stratosphere (b) lithosphere (c) tropopause (d) troposphere

8. In climate terms temperature ………………with distance from the equator.

(a) decreases (b) increases (c) remains constant (d) increases and decreases

9. The Hadley-Ferrel model names the three main wind belts as:

(a) polar easterlies, westerlies, south easterlies (b) polar easterlies, westerlies, trades(c) polar westerlies, trades, easterlies(d) polar easterlies, ICTZ, subtropical highs

10. The cycle which explains circulation of water is the:

(a) geomorphic cycle (b) erosion cycle (c) Davisian cycle (d) hydrological cycle



1. be able to explain the effect of the earth’s daily rotation on climate

2. be able to explain the earth’s circulation of the sun on climate

3. be able to explain why there are seasonal water deficits

4. be familiar with the variety of sources which geographers use in attempting to understand past environmental conditions

5. be able to explain the major environmental changes in the Pleistocene epoch

6. be able to explain the environmental changes of the Recent epoch

7. understand and appreciate the importance of irregular geographic phenomena

8. be able to cite examples of irregular geographic phenomena and explain reasons for their occurrence

9. be able to explain the El Nino phenomenon, causes and impact

10. be able to explain the hazardous nature of extreme geophysical events

11. know how to evaluate a climatic event as a hazard

12. be able to construct a hazard profile

13. be able to explain why the impact on humans has grown considerably from climatic hazards


1. Describe effects of the earth’s rotation on climate

2. Briefly explain why clouds formed over land during the day tend to disappear at night

3. What impact does the earth’s orbit around the sun, together with the earth’s tilt, have on climate?

4. What is solar radiation?

5. Circle the letter of those items that are important in producing the earth’s seasons:

(a) rotation (b) 23.5% tilt (c) revolution (d) night-time radiation(e) cycles of cloud formation

6. Why, in the northern hemisphere, do the highest temperatures for areas tend to be recorded in July or August – after the summer solstice?

7. What are the basic cloud categories? Briefly explain their differences.

8. What causes shifts in the atmospheric circulatory system?

9. Why is information on moisture deficit useful?

10. Compare Figures 3.5(a), 3.5(b) and 3.5(c) in the text. Why is soil moisture being recharged in December and January?

11. Examine Figure 3.5 in the text. During which month is soil moisture being used most rapidly?

12. List two direct and two indirect sources of information pertaining to past environmental conditions

13. If you were to attempt to place an exact date on plant remains you estimated to be about 1400 years old, one method which could be used would be………………

14. The order of environmental changes can be discovered through evidence provided by ……………….., but reasonably exact dating requires the use of………………

15. What was the impact of the earth’s cooling 2m years ago?

16. What are the two main changes of the Recent epoch?

17. If ocean levels are rising then why are areas such as northern Canada or Norway not decreasing in land area size?

18. Briefly explain what environmental variations have occurred in the Great Plains

19. Is smoothing out data of any use? Explain.

20. Would you be willing to invest money and become a farmer on the Great Plains on the basis of predictions of climatologists using smoothed out running means? Explain your answer.

21. What is a marginal area?

22. Indicate in a rough sketch that you understand the general wind patterns associated with the Indian monsoon

23. Why is the timing and character of the monsoon a constant worry for the people of South Asia?

24. What climatic pattern is associated with El Nino?

25. Is our present climatic pattern normal?

26. What point is illustrated by the examples of the Mycenae and Mill Creek people?

27. Explain the dangers of settling on a flood plain.

28. List the ways in which we can evaluate a climatic environment as a hazard

29. What is a hazard profile?

30. What do you understand by ‘return period’?

31. Explain why the human impact of climatic hazards has grown so markedly.


1. On December 21 and 22 the sun is vertically overhead at:

(a) latitude 23.5 degrees N (b) latitude 23.5 degrees S (c) latitude 66.5 degrees N (d) latitude 66.5 degrees S

2. Evapotranspiration means the evaporation of water from

(a) ground and sea (b) vegetation and sea (c) ground and vegetation(d) vegetation and animals

3. Interpreting past environments by using pollen analysis is an example of the use of

(a) direct evidence (b) indirect evidence (c) macroscopic evidence(d) all of the above

4. Denrochronology is the study of

(a) tree rings (b) tree species (c) climate change (d) drainage patterns

5. The Pleistocene epoch is the last

(a) 200 years (b) 2000 years (c) 200,000 years (d) 2m years

6. Ocean levels are

(a) static (b) falling (c) rising (d) none of these

7. Rossby waves are

(a) waves coming directly onto the beach(b) wind blow from high to low pressure areas(c) wave cycles set up in westerly air flow(d) air currents set up by El Nino change

8. In areas so affected, concern over monsoon activity is related both to its character (amount etc) and its

(a) timing (b) climax (c) repetition (d) reversals

9. An example of a cause of sudden and extreme environmental change at the local level would be

(a) the monsoon (b) vegetative climax (c) a hurricane (d) post glacial cooling(e) none of the above

10. Which of these is the largest single cause of loss of life?

(a) flooding (b) earthquakes (c) volcanoes (d) typhoons and hurricanes



1. be able to describe the processes within a small scale ecosystem

2. be able to explain the energy cycle

3. be able to explain the nutrient cycle

4. be able to explain photosynthesis

5. understand the concept of the food chain

6. be familiar with the units used in studying ecosystems

7. be familiar with the idea of plant productivity

8. be able to define biome

9. know the main land biome types and zones

10. be familiar with the characteristics of each biome type and zone

11. be aware of the limitations of using biome types and zones to classify the biosphere

12. be aware of contrasts within zones

13. be able to define tropical rainforest

14. be able to explain the importance of rainforests

15. be aware of the limiting environment factors for human existence

16. be aware of the requirements for human existence

17. know the difference between negative and positive feedback

18. have a viewpoint on humans attempting to control ecosystems


1. Define the term ecosystem

2. In what way is the cycling of chemicals in the ecosystem (such as carbon) related to the concept of food chains?

3. Two critical elements of all ecosystems are?

4. What is meant by old forests being said to have reached a climax situation?

5. What is a basic producer? Give an example.

6. What are three types of consumers?

7. What are decomposers? Give examples

8. Explain how photosynthesis works

9. Note in Box 4A that free atmospheric carbon is slowly increasing. Why is this?

10. Classify the items in the left column as one of the three actors in the carbon cycle (right column):

Man a) ProducerPhytoplankton b) ConsumerCows c) DecomposerProtozoaFungiMaggotsSmall fishBacteriaDogs

11. Explain the term food chain

12. What is the food conversion ratio? Give an example

13. According the Figure 4.7 in the text, which trophic level are you a representative of?

T1 T2 T3 T4 T5

14. What are the two main units used to study ecosystems?

15. What is the relationship between climate and vegetation productivity based on Figure 4.10?

16. Why might Paterson’s index of plant productivity not match what is actually in a locality or region?

17. What are biomes?

18. Draw up a table to show the main biome types and zones with an example of a location for each

19. Explain some limitations of using biome types and zones to classify the biosphere

20. Explain some of the contrasts within zones. Use examples

21. Describe where tropical rainforest is found

22. What are the three broad groups of the tropical forest?

23. Make a sketch of Figure 4.15(b). Add these labels at the appropriate locations:

emergent trees main canopy shrub layer

ground vegetation much sunlight little sunlight

24. Why are tropical rainforests important?

25. What explanations are given for the great diversity of the rainforests?

26. Explain TH1. What is its purpose?

27. Is the comfort zone idea really that useful?

28. What is negative feedback? Give an example

29. What is positive feedback? Give an example

30. Can humans control the ecosystem?


1. Which of the following is not a critical element in all ecosystems:

a) impacts of feedback on population sizeb) cycling of chemicals through biological populations c) conversion of heat into light energyd) linking biological populations into food chains

2. In the carbon cycle, carbon is released to the atmosphere through the process of:

a) decompositionb) consumptionc) relegationd) photosynthesis

3. The final level in the food chain is represented by:

a) the trophic levelb) the decomposersc) herbivores d) omnivorese) none of the above

4. Which of the following is a characteristic of watersheds:

a) they are hierarchicalb) they can be unambiguously defined & mappedc) they are independent of scaled) all of the above e) none of the above

5. There is a general relationship between plant growth and:

a) heat and moistureb) moisture and lightc) light and heatd) none of these

6. The world’s major environmental zones are:

a) single feature regionsb) multiple feature regionsc) homogenous throughoutd) based only on climate

7. Boundaries between zones are:

a) not always clearly marked by an abrupt discontinuityb) always clearly marked by an abrupt discontinuityc) developed on the basis of sharp changes in the kinds of phenomena being

studiedd) always sharply definede) never sharply defined

8. There are how many types of biome:

a) 1b) 9c) 3d) 5

9. Wallace is famous for his work on:

a) plant productivityb) establishing national parksc) global warming d) diversity of species

10. In the rainforest emergents are:

a) lowest vegetation level b) middle vegetation levelc) tallest vegetation level d) below ground level



1. be familiar with the evolutionary view of the origins of the human population

2. be aware of the approximate spatial patterns and sequences of human migration from the Old World

3. generally understand the ramifications of the relationship between island size and location and the spatial diffusion of flora and fauna for human variety, and possibly cultural variability

4. be critically aware of the various arguments concerning the origin of agricultural hearth areas, particularly that put forth by the geographer Sauer

5. understand the spatial organizational implications of the accumulation of food surpluses in early human settlements

6. be aware of the developmental sequences believed followed by man leading to urbanization

7. be able to map the locations of the main urban areas or hearths

8. know about the spread of urbanization through Europe

9. be familiar with and able to give examples of the three major phases of European overseas development

10. be able to describe briefly the effects of 500 years of European overseas settlement

11. note the general sequence of migration waves to the United States, including the origin areas of the respective groups as well as their destination areas within the United States

12. know about Chinese migration within SE Asia


1. The hearth of the species homo sapiens is now generally believed to be………….

2. Briefly describe the probable migration pattern of early groups of the Mongloid race

3. The areas peripheral to the migration routes of early human groups were………….., ………………….., and , …………………………

4. There is a(n) …………………..relationship between size of island and extinction rate for old species

5. Is it hard to imagine/believe that the population of the entire world was once only about five million?

6. The four distinct technical stages of human societies, as viewed by geographers, are………………………………..

7. The main hearths of tropical vegetation planters, according to Sauer, were….

8. The main hearths of seed planters, according to Sauer, were……………

9. Read once more the five criteria Sauer chose as being necessary for the location of the first agricultural communities. Are there any similarities between such an area and a slash-and-burn landscape?

10. Examine figure 5.7 in the text. Why do you think the Americas were not included in the areas of nomadic pastoralism?

11. The two major impacts on the spatial organization of society resulting from the generation of food surpluses were…………………

12. Which of the developmental sequences do you think is most probable, the linear model or the Jacob’s model? Why?

13. List the four main river valleys where urban development appears to have begun

14. Is there any association by area between the apparent spatial distribution of early cities and the spatial distribution of contemporary archaeological activity?

15. How does the distribution of early urban core areas compare with the general distribution of urbanization in the world today?

16. Explain the hydraulic hypothesis and the more recent modifications to it

17. In early medieval Europe, the sites for urban settlements were often chosen for their defensive position. TRUE or FALSE?

18. The only major urban hearth area not to come under European influence in the period following the Middle Ages was ………………………

19. List and describe one settlement form which was an important component of the European transoceanic settlement

20. The phase of European settlement that followed transoceanic settlement was ………………………

21. The areas in which the gold and other mineral rushes had the greatest long term impact were those areas with…………………………

22. The withdrawal of Portugal from parts of Africa is part of the third phase of European…………………………….

23. Give two examples of major changes in the spatial order of the world resulting from the overall impact of European overseas expansion

24. Examine table 5.3 in the text. How many of these crop plants probably orginated in Australia? How would you explain this number?

25. Examine 5.3 again. How many of these crop plants are found in your local area?

26. List the major source area(s) of migrants to the United States for the following time periods:

1700-17751820-18701870-19201920-present

27. How many different countries or regions are listed as supplying migrants to America?

28. In your opinion does urbanisation mean cultural differences persist or disappear? Is there any difference between age groups?

29. What is the Chinese diaspora?

30. Why did the Chinese migrate?

31. List some countries or areas where there are high concentrations of Chinese not shown on the map in Box 5.c.


1. Human migration from the old world followed corridors of land contact. Some of these corridors were the result of:

(a) lowered sea levels (b) minimal glaciation (c) racial differentiation(d) none of the above

2. Carl Sauer’s argument for separate hearths of domestication in both old and new worlds is based on

(a) firm evidence (b) locational conjecture (c) a scientific survey(d) none of the above

3. Areas in the world which appear to have been sites of early urban development have in common similar physical locations. These locations are:

(a) highlands (b) coastal plains (c) river valleys (d) humid tropical climates

4. In studying questions of regional origin, geographers have found that in the case of urban growth and dispersal the area best documented up to the present time is:

(a) China (b) Egypt (c) Europe (d) North America

5. Which of the following kind of transoceanic rim settlement depended most heavily upon a relatively large influx of European population?

(a) plantations (b) farm-family settlements (c) coastal trading stations(d) all of the above (e) none of the above

6. European overseas activity at the present time is in a condition of:

(a) further expansion (b) consolidation or withdrawal (c) further continental penetration (d) none of the above

7. From 1920 to the present, an increasingly important source area of immigrants to the United States has been:

(a) Eastern and Southern Europe (b) Latin America (c) Africa (d) Scandinavia

8. For the geographer, interest is not so much in the identification of sequent waves of immigration but rather:

(a) that these waves have a distinct locational dimension(b) is in the waves per se(c) is in establishing why Scandinavians come to the USA(d) none of the above



1. be familiar with the components of population change

2. be aware of the definitions of crude birth, death and growth rates

3. know what is meant by exponential population growth

4. be able to understand and interpret survivorship curves and population pyramids

5. be familiar with Maltus’ arguments concerning population growth

6. be able to describe logistic population growth

7. know what is meant by the carrying capacity of an area

8. be familiar with the role famines play in checking population growth

9. be able to define three types of environmental change

10. be critically aware of the earth’s potential food producing capacity

11. consider the implications of theoretical patterns of competition between two populations living in the same area

12. know the characteristics associated with the respective phases of the demographic transition

13. be aware of the limitations associated with population projections

14. be familiar with mechanisms and implications of zero population growth (ZPG)


1. If an island with an average population growth of 1000 people had 47 births and 29 deaths in a year’s time, its crude growth rate would be……………………

2. Why are crude birth rates, crude death rates, and crude growth rates, ‘crude’?

3. In your view which of the components of population change have been most important recently to your home town/city? Why?

4. A broad based, concave sided, narrow peaked population pyramid would indicate that age and sex distribution of a country is in the …………..phase of the …………….

5. In three sentences or less, summarize Malthus’ basic ideas regarding population growth

6. What sort of variables did Malthus not take into consideration in his arguments about population growth? Give examples

7. How do the exponential and logistic curves of population growth vary? In which ways are they similar?

8. Define carrying capacity

9. What particular variables are important in specifying the carrying capacity of your home area?

10. Match the incident on the left with the type of environmental change of the carrying capacity on the right:

Volcanic eruptions in Iceland a) non-recurrentFlooding along the Mississippi b) periodic regularWinters in Montana c) periodic irregularMonsoons in IndiaThe 1930’s ‘dust bowl’ in the USALava flows in HawaiiFrost in the Florida citrus areaRapid decline of the groundwater level in ArizonaSummer in Iowa

11. Simple models of carrying capacity have limited use because of a lack of accurate…………………………….

12. Large scale seasonal, periodic and permanent movements represent one feasible strategy for dealing with a world-wide famine. TRUE of FALSE?

13. Comparison of estimates of current world food production with those of potential organic matter production suggests that only about………………of the potential production is achieved. Explanations for this gap include:

14. Even if enough food could be produced for the world’s population, do you think this would result in no-one going hungry? Make brief notes of your reasons

15. Cultivated land constitutes only 2% of the earth’s total area but is capable of producing 75% of the world’s potential output of edible matter. If it did what problems might this lead to? Make brief notes of your ideas.

16. Competition between human groups often leads to conflict over resources. Relatively simple models point out clearly that: (Circle the letter of the correct phrase)

a) the heart of the problem lies in our level of resourcesb) the heart of the problem lies in our ability to share and distribute resources

17. The pace of the present world population expansion, when placed in an historical context, is…………………………..

17. Match the descriptions on the left with the appropriate stage of the demographic transition which is listed on the right:

Low death rate; declining birth rate a) high stationaryb) early expanding

Low & stable death rate; low but c) late expandingvariable birth rate d) low stationary

High and stable birth rate; highbut variable death rate

High birth rate; declining death rate

18. Study the countries listed in Table 6.5. Explain the spatial distribution of the countries listed and then give brief reasons for the patterns you have identified

19. Which of the projections for the world’s population for the year 2000 (Figure 6.17) do you think is most likely to be correct? Why?

20. The population age-sex structure of an area has definite implications for that area’s ability to reach zero population growth (ZPG). TRUE of FALSE?


1. The two elements which are responsible for population decrease are:

a) births and emigrationb) births and immigrationc) deaths and immigrationd) deaths and emigration

2. The fact that unconstrained population growth follows an exponential form means that doubling time is:

a) shortenedb) lengthenedc) stabilizedd) arithmetic

3. The survivorship curve for the United States is probably:

a) concaveb) convexc) straight diagonald) right angle

4. The part of his equation that Malthus never made completely clear concerns:

a) the basis for geometric growth of populationb) the basis for the arithmetic growth of agriculturec) curtailment of population increases by birth controld) biotic potential

5. One possible outcome of a situation in which a rapidly growing population is fast reaching its carrying capacity is:

a) for the rate of growth to decline as the carrying capacity is approachedb) for the population to conduct an accurate census to determine actual

population sizec) for the carrying capacity to vary cyclically well below the population leveld) for the exponential growth curve to be heightened

6. Countries in Africa have major famines due to environmental problems such as:

a) insufficient land for farmingb) droughtc) warfared) ozone depletion

7. A failure of monsoon-type precipitation in an area would be an environmental change of a type called:

a) nonrecurrentb) periodic regularc) periodic but irregulard) nonperiodic but regular

8. It is expected that the world’s oceans’ contribution to food producing will, in the next couple of generations, be:

a) enormousb) marginalc) what will save humanityd) primary source

9. Slobodkin’s model of competition between two populations living in the same area and having different rates of growth and saturation levels shows the following outcome (s):

a) both populations survive at their relevant saturation levelsb) either both population coexist but in numbers below their saturation levels, or

only one population survives at its relevant saturationc) both populations coexist but in numbers above their saturation levelsd) one population exists in numbers below its saturation level

10. The low-stationary phase of the demographic transition is associated with:

a) US, Canada, Australia, Western Europeb) most of Latin America, Africa, South Asiac) countries with an uncertain and low-level of food productiond) isolated and primitive groups


After studying this chapter you should:

1. be able to explain why aspects of culture are used in the study of geography

2. be familiar with ways of studying culture

3. be able to define culture

4. be able to explain how and why language is used in geographical study

5. be able to explain how belief is used in geographical study

6. be able to explain the effect of belief on the spread of disease

7. be able to explain the impact of gender on geographical study

8. be able to explain the relationship between culture and landscape

9. be able to explain Meinigs model and its use to geographers


1. Explain the meaning of race

2. What is generic adaptability?

3. Is culture modified from one generation to the next? Explain

4. How do mentifacts, sociofacts and artifacts differ from one another?

5. Is your text a mentifact, sociofact or artifact?

6. List two global languages other than English and Mandarin

7. Briefly describe the geographical location of the core areas for the following main religions of the world: Islam, Judaism, Christianity, Hindu & Buddhism

8. List as many of the world’s main belief systems as you can. Now try to give each a special site or place.

9. Explain how belief has had an impact on agricultural development

10. Is religion, as it affects peoples beliefs towards the use of agricultural resources, a mentifact, sociofact or artifact?

11. Is our ability to accept and adjust to modern ideas affected by our belief? Explain

12. Give an example in which religion has acted as a dominant force in shaping the cultural landscape of an area

13. Study Figure 7.13. What reasons could you give to explain the differences between the USA and sub-Saharan Africa?

14. What is a ‘pays’?

15. What is a culture region?

16. Explain Meinig’s core, domain, sphere and outliers

17. Explain how Meinig’s model can be useful to geographers

18. List three phenomena which could be used as a basis for a map of world cultural regions


1. Groups have the ability to adapt biologically and:

a) geneticallyb) technicallyc) easilyd) racially

2. Culture transfer as a process is always:

a) incompleteb) completec) by parentsd) by institutions

3. Cultural aspects of material technology which satisfy the basic needs of food, shelter, and transport are called by Huxley:

a) mentifactsb) artifactsc) sociofactsd) all of the above e) none of the above

4. Spatial variations in culture are dealt with by geographers on:

a) a single scaleb) many different scalesc) only a few critical scales d) a biological scale

5. Of the world’s remaining 3000 languages some are limited to a 25m`/60km` area. TRUE or FALSE?

6. The fact that the word ‘mother’ is recognisable in many different language groups is of interest to cultural geographers because:

a) it can help determine the family language tree of Greekb) it can provide insights into the origins and dispersals of cultural elementsc) it can provide insights into the mechanisms of genetic drift d) English is rapidly becoming the world’s major second language

7. Each culture group sees in the natural environment different possibilities based primarily on:

a) climate and soilsb) landformsc) current technology & cultural background d) the size of the resource mix

8. The degree to which a group accepts or rejects innovations is partly linked to:

a) its degree of cultural driftb) its religious belief and practicesc) its spatial exchange processesd) the degree of plurality or duality involved

9. Of the world’s income women earn:

a) 3%b) 80%c) 67%d) 10%

10. According to Meinig the key zone of greatest Mormon population density, religious strength, and history of occupance is the:

a) core areab) domain c) sphered) outlier



1. be able to explain urbanisation

2. know the differences between urbanisation trends in developed and less developed countries

3. know the reasons for urbanisation

4. be able to briefly explain the urban history of the USA

5. be able to explain push and pull factors

6. be able to explain agglomeration economics

7. be able to explain urban multiples

8. know the sectors of an economy

9. understand the sector shift model

10. be able to explain implosion and explosion in the urbanisation process

11. be aware how various temporal rhythms affect the spatial organization of society

12. be familiar with problems of urban areas

13. know what is meant by inward and outward migration and what the impact has been

14. understand the terms centripetal and centrifugal forces


1. Two important differences between the urbanisation curves of developed and developing countries are………

2. Explain these terms:

a) megacities b) urbanisation c) rural-urban migration d) population density

3. The fastest growing cities are in less developed countries. TRUE of FALSE?

4. What are push factors?

5. What are the main push factors causing people to leave rural areas for the cities?

6. The clustering of economic and social functions so that savings result from having to serve only a spatially compact market area is known as agglomeration economies. TRUE or FALSE?

7. State one positive and one negative aspect of agglomeration economies.

8. What is the urban base ratio?

9. If a city of 100,000 population had 20,000 people employed in the production of airplanes and 10,000 people employed in government, banking and health industries, its urban base ratio would be approximately…………

10. What is meant by the domino effect?

11. What is meant by a multiplier?

12. Briefly describe the economic functions related to the respective sectors listed below:

a) primary b) secondary c) tertiary d) quaternary

13. Define the phrase urban implosion

14. What is a contactability scale?

15. Why do the headquarters of companies tend to be located close to one another?

16. What is meant by urban explosion?

17. How do the graphs of time rhythms in Figure 8.13 in the text correlate with your own activity schedule?

18. The primary manner in which time rhythms affect the spatial organisation of society is through the need for man to have a………………………..base.

19. Recent technological improvements in land transport systems have ………………… the need for compact cities.

20. What is meant by urban sprawl?

21. What is a megalopolis?

22. What is inward migration?

23. Describe the functions of a squatter settlement

24. How is a ghetto similar to or different to a squatter settlement?

25. What is the tipping mechanism?

26. What has been the impact on urban areas as a result of outward migration?

27. What is meant by centripetal forces?

28. What is meant by centrifugal forces? What impact do these have on an urban area?


1. The S-shaped urbanisation curve traced out by the developed nations:

a) is being closely followed by the developing nationsb) differs in two important aspects from the S-curve of urbanisation for the

developing nations c) is a perfect model for developing nations of the world to followd) is not being followed by the developing nations

2. In general, cities tend to increase in size because there are savings to be had from:

a) banks b) mobile allocators c) diminishing service sector d) agglomeration

3. Urban problems such as congestion, rising transport costs, and public health dangers contribute to forces that halt concentration and to scatter population. These force are:

a) centripetal b) centrifugal c) CBD’s d) based on density gradients

4. Resource extraction sites located in central, highly accessible zones are likely to:

a) fail to attract new industry to employ surplus labourb) trigger prolonged urban industrial growthc) have only a short and modest impact on the surrounding aread) have the same effect on urban industrial growth as those set in remote peripheral

locations

5. The proportion of tertiary employment generally:

a) increases with city size b) decreases with city size c) remains constant regardless of city size d) is inversely related to city size

6. There is a spatial implosion which affects cities due to reduction of in travel time. This implosion is felt most by:

a) small cities b) small towns c) large cities d) isolated farms

7. Megalopolis means:

a) town b) city c) huge urban area d) conurbation

8. Favelas, rampongs, bidonvilles, ranchos are all examples of:

a) squatter settlements b) ghettos c) conurbations d) megalopolis

9. The tipping mechanism is where:

a) waste is disposed of b) neighbourhoods change c) shopping facilities move out of the centre d) benefits are gained from increased size

10. Centrifugal forces are:

a) positive aspects of city life b) people into a city c) negative aspects of city life d) the balance of inward and outward migration



1. understand a number of ways in which man has been an agent of environmental change

2. be aware of the negative aspects of human impact on the environment

3. be able to list main categories of environmental change resulting from human activities

4. be able to distinguish between direct and indirect environmental impacts made by humans

5. understand the general relationship between population density and environmental impact

6. be aware of the role fire has played in altering environments

7. understand the impact of increased population density on cycles of shifting cultivation

8. understand Boserup’s model of agricultural intensification

9. understand the term ‘hollow frontier’

10. be able to state the effect that large cities have on their microclimates

11. know the conditions under which a heat island develops

12. understand how the process of by which pollution can be trapped in the lower layers of the atmosphere

13. know the difference between a high level and a low level inversion

14. be able to explain the impacts of an urban area on water usage

15. be aware of the problems and implications of pollution

16. be aware of the three main groups of pollutant-related elements

17. know the four main factors in terms of which pollution problems can be evaluated


1. Refresh your memory regarding ecosystems:

a) Ecosystems connect the ……………………..and its……………………..b) Define food chainsc) Food supply plus feedback mechanism controls the ………………………of

biological ………………..

2. Most of the changes humans have made in ecological systems have been ……………

3. List the three main categories of change that result from human intervention in ecological systems. Give an example of each type of change.

4. Using feedback terminology how would you describe the five types of indirect impacts listed in the text?

5. The indirect impacts mentioned above have an effect on the quality of human life. Give an example of how each one might affect this quality

6. List one direct impact and one indirect impact on your local environment

7. Shifting cultivation, swidden and slash-and-burn are all terms for the same type of cultivation – TRUE or FALSE

8. Briefly describe the shifting cultivation process

9. What is transhumance? Give an example

10. What are the two general effects of low density human occupation on biotic communities?

11. Human impact in areas of low population density has been ………………at the global scale but……………………………at the local scale

12. Describe briefly Boserup’s ideas

13. What is an episodic cycle? Give an example

14. Explain the term ‘hollow frontier’

15. How do cities affect the microclimate of the area?

16. What is an urban heat island? Under what conditions does it develop?

17. A high degree of urbanization always causes an increase in precipitation. TRUE or FALSE?

18. In what way does the building where your geography lecture is held affect the microclimate?

19. List three primary negative effects that atmospheric pollution has

20. Which of the three effects that you listed above do you think is most serious? Why?

21. Is smog a) lagged feedback b) staggered feedback c) both lagged and staggered feedback d) neither lagged or staggered feedback?

22. The greatest problem related to urbanization and water is…………………………

23. The accumulation of harmful chemicals in food chains is labelled ……………………. and is a form of …………………..feedback

24. What do you think is the most serious pollution problem currently facing humankind? Explain.


1. The human position and role within the ecosystem has been reinforced by two critical factors. One of these is:

a) that humans are the sole herbivoresb) the dramatic increase in human populationc) human intervention of feedback switchesd) irrigation

2. Human modification of the environment affects

a) animal and plant populationsb) animal populations and the inorganic environmentc) none of thesed) all of these

3. The parts of the earth’s surface that have experienced the greatest amount of environmental change are those

a) in the polar regionsb) with critical local variationsc) insidious areasd) with the greatest population density

4. One of the most important environment-modifying strategies of man in tropical grasslands and forest has been

a) sedentary agricultureb) firec) irrigationd) well drilling

5. The shortened cycle in shifting cultivation is a result of

a) decreasing population densityb) increasing population densityc) increasing soil fertilityd) altered recovery rates

6. The basis of Boserup’s five stage progression of cultivation is

a) type of cropb) length of fallowc) populationd) implements used

7. Heat generation within a city which results in its becoming a heat island is indirectly the result of

a) fuel combustionb) motor vehiclesc) heat storage in the inert fabricd) high wind speedse) smog

8. One problem associated with thermal pollution of streams is

a) the effect on the metabolic rates of decay organismsb) the increased amount of oxygen availablec) rusting intake pipesd) multidimensional deceleration

9. Mercury poisoning in humans can be either through direct ingestion of relatively large amounts or the result of

a) biological concentrationb) ecological decompositionc) atmospheric exacerbationd) circulatory intensification

10. Our knowledge of pollution and its various impacts on specific environments is

a) comprehensiveb) minimalc) substantial and increasingd) propaganda



1. be aware of the variety of and importance of the world’s natural resources

2. be able to explain the difference between stocks, resources and reserves

3. be able to distinguish between renewable and nonrenewable resources

4. know the main factors which help determine the size of a particular reserve

5. be aware of the issues related to the world’s limited supply of stocks, resources and reserves

6. be able to critically compare the medium and long term forecasts for the earth’s non-renewable resources

7. be aware of alternative energy source and the importance of the alternative energy debate

8. be able to explain the green revolution

9. be familiar with the concept of sustained yield

10. be familiar with the concept of multiple use

11. be able to explain the concept of sustained yield recreational resources

12. be able to define resource conservation

13. be able to explain the importance of resource conservation


1. In order for a stock to become a resource there must be the intervening variable of ……………………………………..

2. ‘Stock estimates tend to change when technological and socioeconomic conditions change’. Is this statement correct? Explain.

3. Explain the difference between renewable and non-renewable resources

4. A flow resource is a renewable resource. TRUE or FALSE?

5. List four separate resources that you have directly used today and classify them as either renewable or nonrenewable

6. The four primary factors responsible for determining the size of a particular reserve are…………………………… , ……………………………. , ……………………… , and …………………………….

7. Which of the four factors noted in the previous question do you think is the most important in determining size?

8. The recent increase in the price of petroleum has probably had the effect of ……………………… the size of this reserve

9. What are the two main answers to the question as to how long the earth’s nonrenewable resources will last?

10. Over the short run the outlook for nonrenewable resources is optimistic and is based on ……………………….. , while over the long run the outlook is somewhat pessimistic and is based on ………………………..

11. Explain briefly why there has been little variation over the past century in prices for all resource products

12. Study Table 10.2. Describe the main trends shown

13. Study BOX 10B. Draw up a table to show the possible advantages and disadvantages of the La Rance scheme

14. Now draw up a table to show the advantages and disadvantages of alternative energy in general

15. The green revolution can be defined as:

16. Do you think the green revolution will cause an increase, a decrease or be unrelated to population growth?

17. Draw up a table to show the advantages and disadvantages of the green revolution

18. Explain sustained yield. Give an example

19. Use an example to explain the term multiple use

20. What is meant by sustained yield recreational resources? Use an example to aid your explanation

21. What problems might develop from multiple use recreational resource areas?

22. Define resource conservation

23. Do you think resource conservation is important? Explain your answer.

24. What is the difference between microscale and macroscale conservation?

25. List six conservation groups or organisations and briefly explain how each is involved in conservation


1. A physical factor which becomes useful to man through cultural evaluation can be termed a:

a) stockb) resourcec) reserved) total stock

2. Geothermal energy is a natural resource of the:

a) renewable typeb) non-renewable typec) stock typed) finite type

3. For flow resources, reserves are expressed as a :

a) finite totalb) capacity in a particular time periodc) capacity for all timed) definite amount

4. How long will reserves of the earth’s non-renewable resource last? An answer to this question based on the point of view of economics would be focused on:

a) a period of about 30 yearsb) a period of several centuriesc) A.D. 2800d) no specific time period

5. One of the first things to happen when there is a rapid increase in the price of a resource is:

a) conventional commodity fluctuationsb) a greater economy in the way that resource is usedc) a geometric increase in crustal abundance d) geophysical concentration

6. At present the only renewable energy source capable of producing electric power on the scale needed is:

a) geothermal energyb) atomic fissionc) hydroelectric power

d) solar energy

7. The development of the IR-8 variety of rice which produced such high yields was part of:

a) the conservation movementb) the trend toward zero populationc) a physical energy cycled) the green revolution

8. Today management of forests by modern methods involves the use of two ecological principles; sustained yield and:

a) fertilizationb) multiple usec) conservationd) pesticidal sufficiency

9. The concept of sustained yield can be applied to:

a) forestryb) recreationc) shifting cultivationd) all of the above

10. the optimal timing of the use of natural resources is one definition of:

a) conservationb) multiple usec) sustained yieldd) substitution



1. understand the ways in which human action has been an agent of environmental change

2. be aware of past changes to the environment

3. be aware of the various methods and types of data used for reconstructing past land uses of an area

4. be able to define and explain geological norms

5. understand the need for establishing geologic norms

6. be familiar with land use shifts at the global, subcontinental and local levels

7. be able to explain the relationship between the different levels of land use shift

8. know the general patterns of land use change in the USA

9. know the basic arguments for conservation

10. know the importance of the 1922 Stockholm conference

11. be able to explain the importance of tropical rainforests and wetlands

12. know the importance of the Ramsar Convention

13. know the main schools of geographical environmentalism

14. know the current views on the human-environment issue

15. be aware of the way people rationalise living in a high risk area


1. In this chapter what are the two basic questions to be answered?

2. What is meant by ‘the environment is increasingly a human artifact’?

3. Based on evidence from the Domesday Survey by Darby and his associates, the portion of the area in Figure 11.4 which was most heavily forested in 1085 was the ………………………….. portion

4. Study table 11.1 in the text. How many different ways are listed for reconstructing past land use?

5. If we were interested in reconstructing the type of land use found in your home area 30,000 years ago, one method you might use would be……………………………

6. The cycles of gullying in semi-arid areas of south western USA are called arroyo cycles. TRUE or FALSE?

7. Using material in this chapter as a model, describe in order the morphological changes in a drainage basin when all of the timber size trees have been cut.

8. Geologic norms are defined as…….

9. Why are geologic norms important?

10. At the global level the major shift in land use categories has been from ………………. to…………………………………….

11. What are the 3 types of environmental change given for the USA?

12. What is meant by ‘the extreme (and compensating) poles of environmental intervention’?

13. At present in the United States, most significant changes in land use are those that take place within the category of …………………………., as for example……………………

14. Briefly describe one incident of changing land use at the local level using an example from your home area.

15. How can species adapted to edge conditions of forests benefit from a reduction in total forested area?

16. Briefly explain the main groups of argument for conservation

17. What was decided at the 1922 Stockholm conference and why was it important?

18. Why are wetlands important? What problems are they experiencing?

19. Why was the Ramsar convention important?

20. Briefly outline the main schools of geographical environmentalism and their main ideas

21. What are your views on environmental determinism?

22. What are the current arguments on the human-environment issue?

23. In what ways do people rationalize living in high risk or hazardous areas?


1. In terms of the types of impacts discussed earlier, the fire controlled grasslands and scrub forest of the Paraiba Valley of Brazil is the result of the:

a) direct impact of man b) indirect impact of man c) problems of shifting cultivation d) necessity for environmental change

2. Examination of place names is one means of inferring:

a) written accounts b) past land use patterns c) periods of population increase d) patterns of aggregation

3. The purpose of geological norms is to:

a) measure the rate of aggradation b) allow us to incorporate rates of natural change in assessing man’s impact c) allow precise measurement of natural change in rock movement d) increase awareness of the value of mining

4. At which of the following levels is it most difficult to piece together the evidence to obtain the patterns of land use change:

a) global level b) subcontinental level c) local level d) none of the above

5. Fencing, plus the separation of forest into isolated blocks leads to changes in species composition, but also to:

a) thinner forest cover b) denser forest cover c) fewer mature trees d) more widespread burning

6. In his book , The Earth as Modified by Human Action, George P.Marsh drew attention to:

a) the planting of a young tree b) work in biology and civil engineering c) the importance of the human role in shaping ‘natural America’

d) the modification of humans through their role in shaping the earth

7. The protection of wetlands is a result of the:

a) Rio Conference 1992 b) Stockholm Conference 1922 c) Kyoto Conference 1992 d) Ramsar convention 1971

8. Arroyo cycles are:

a) regular climatic change patterns b) environmental change under natural conditions c) cycles of gullying d) regular conferences on conservation

9. Environmental determinism means:

a) reciprocal reactions between humans and the environmentb) the environment plays a part in determining human actionsc) humans control the environmentd) the environment determines what people can do

10. In order to reconstruct land use in prehistoric times we could use:i – radio-carbon dating ii – Domesday survey iii – censuses iv – pollen analysis

a) i & ivb) i & iiic) iv & iid) ii & iii


After studying this chapter you should

1. understand what is meant by region

2. be aware how regions can be defined

3. know the three basic types of region

4. know what are uniform and modal regions

5. be able to explain the usefulness of regions

6. be able to explain what is meant by the region as a covering set

7. be able to explain what is meant by the region as a sample

8. be able to explain what is meant by the region as an analogue

9. be able to explain what is meant by the region as a modulator

10. know what is a ‘bell wethers’ region

11. be aware of regions created by the mind

12. be able to explain gentrification

13. be aware of literature in defining regions

14. be able to explain geopiety

15. know the criteria for region building

16. be aware of regional ecosystems

17. be able to explain the advantages of treating regions like ecosytems


1. Explain the different ways regions may be defined. Give an example of each.

2. On what major factor does Zelinsky base his cultural regions of the USA?

3. The Lourentian shield region is a cultural region. TRUE or FALSE?

4. New England is a physical region. TRUE or FALSE?

5. Describe the three basic types of region

6. What are uniform and nodal regions?

7. What are the main reasons for using regions?

8. Explain region as a covering set. Give an example.

9. Explain the region as a sample. Give an example.

10. What was at the heart of J.S.Mill’s learning process?

11. Explain the region as an analogue. Give an example.

12. Explain the region as a modulator. Give an example.

13. What is a ‘bell-wethers’ region?

14. What is a mental map?

15. What are Lynch’s five types of spatial phenomenon?

16. What is gentrification? Why does it occur?

17. Explain the impact of literature on defining regions. Give examples.

18. What are the criteria for region building?

19. What are the most successful types of regional ecosystem units?

20. What are the advantages of treating regions like ecosystems?


1. The Intermontane Province of the USA is a:

a) cultural regionb) literary regionc) physical region d) geopiety

2. Zelinsky had ……………….. major cultural regions in the USA

a) 5b) 3c) 4d) 2

3. Compage describes:

a) regions with single featuresb) regions with multi features c) homogenous regionsd) regions in their totality

4. The Pittsburgh region is an example of a:

a) mental region b) compage c) nodal region d) region as an ecosystem

5. Using the cathedral city of Canterbury, Kent and its surrounds as a case study for religious areas is using the region as a:

a) sample b) covering set c) modulator d) analogue

6. The term to describe judging changes by the early changes in selected regions is:

a) Lynch elements b) nodal c) bell wethers d) analogue

7. The Lynch elements are:

(i) paths (ii) districts (iii) edges (iv) uniforms (v) landmarks (vi) nodes

a) i, ii, iv, v, vi b) ii, iii, iv, v, vi c) i, ii, iii, iv, vi d) i, ii, iii, v, vi

8. An example of literature and regions interacting is in the work of:

a) Kevin Lynch b) Thomas Hardy c) Oskar Spate d) Richard Hartshorne

9. Hermat is an example of:

a) Lynch elements b) geopiety c) ecosystems d) nodality

10. In treating regions as ecosystems it brings together all possible elements into one framework. This is known as:

a) uniform b) structured c) modular d) monistic


After reading the material in this chapter you should:

1. be able to define a nodal region

2. be aware of the elements of a nodal region

3. be aware of the variety of flows

4. be able to explain distance decay

5. be able to explain the relationship between cost and distance

6. understand the application of gravity models to geography

7. be able to calculate flow values

8. be familiar with the Ullman model

9. be aware of the probabilistic models and their use

10. be aware of the theoretical transport network models

11. be able to explain graph theory and its application to studying flows and networks

12. be able to cite examples and explain the impact of new and disrupted transport links


1. What is a nodal region?

2. What are the six essential elements in a nodal region?

3. What are the arguments for adopting the city as the basic spatial unit?

4. Explain what is meant by flows between cities.

5. Explain distance decay.

6. What is meant by spatial interaction?

7. The shorter the distance the more interactions, the greater the distance the less interactions. TRUE or FALSE?

8. Is there a relationship between cost and distance? What?

9. Is there a relationship between source, uniform delivered and basing-point pricing?

10. Explain how the gravity model functions in geography

11. Refer to page 403, figure 13.7. Take any pair of cities (with the exception of 1 and 4) and explain how the flow value has been calculated.

12. If you were using the gravity model to study the expected flow of commuters from one point of an urban area to another, the distance variable might be best measured in terms of ……………………………………..

13. Explain the Ullman model

14. Define the following:

Regional complementary; intervening opportunity; transferability

15. Spatial interaction will always take place between an area of demand and an area with surplus i.e. in which there is regional complementarity. TRUE or FALSE?

16. An example of an intervening opportunity between where you live and your college or university might be……………………………..

17. Explain why we now use more complicated spatial interaction models

18. List two characteristics of the Kohl and the Christaller theoretical transport networks

19. How can transport networks be linked to river systems?

20. A method of analyzing transport networks which involves reducing a network to a set of links and nodes is called………………………………

21. Explain the difference between a network built for users and one that is of least cost to the builder

22. A map concerned only with links and not distance or direction is called a …………….. map (the London underground map is a good example)

23. What are nodes and links?

24. Explain average path length

25. One way of assessing the probable impact of building a particular length of road between two points in a network without actually building the new road would be to ……………………………………….

26. What impact did the building of the (i) Suez (ii) Panama canals have?

27. What was the impact of the Tasman Bridge accident in 1975?


1. In recent times the most rapid changes in spatial interaction have focused on:

a) transport nodes b) communication flows c) intra-city commodity flowsd) higher aircraft speeds

2. The fact that more tourists from Japan visit Hawaii than New Mexico partially reflects:

a) the idea of distance decay b) the friction of distance c) intervening opportunities d) all of the above

3. The gravity model of spatial interaction can be used to predict flows using the two primary variables of nodal attractiveness and:

a) link accessibility b) direction c) distance d) mass e) none of the above

4. There are …………… essential elements in a nodal region

a) 6 b) 4 c) 5 d) 3

5. What is the expected flow with city A population 10, city B population 4, and the distance between them 8:

a) 0.2 b) 20 c) 5 d) 3.2

6. The use of graph theory in geography focuses about first reducing a network (a system of routes) to a basic topological level consisting primarily of:

a) distance decay curves b) different sized nodes c) links and nodesd) Euler’s seven bridges e) none of the above

7. In reducing a road map to a graph:

a) settlements would be links between nodesb) settlements would be links and road segment nodesc) roads would be nodesd) settlements would be nodes and road segments links

8. The model of spatial interaction based on regional complementarity, intervening opportunity and spatial transferability was proposed by:

a) Isard b) Ullman c) Wilson d) Christaller

9. Theoretical transport networks were proposed by:

a) Kohl, Wilson, Ullmanb) Christaller, Isard, Beckmannc) Kohl, Christaller, Beckmannd) Wilson, Beckmann, Euler

10. A topological map is one which concentrates on:

a) links between places b) distances between placesc) directions between places d) gravitational pull between places



1. be critically aware of the problems associated with defining the term city

2. be aware of some solutions offered in the city definition dilemma

3. understand the use of the nearest neighbour index

4. understand the rank-size rule

5. understand Christaller’s central place theory

6. understand Losch’s contribution to the theoretical work on the spatial distribution of urban areas

7. be aware of how central place theory can be applied in the context of periodic markets

8. understand the Vance Mercantile model of settlement analysis

9. understand catastrophe models in settlement analysis


1. What is the difference between overbounded and underbounded cities?

2. What problems arise from having overbounded and underbounded city areas?

3. What are the three criteria used to determine metropolitan areas in the United States?

4. Give your definition of an urban area.

5. What is the purpose of the nearest neighbour index?

6. Explain the rank-size rule

7. In a set of cities arrayed in a perfect rank-size rule relationship, the size of the fifth largest city should be 1/ ……..th the size of the largest city.

8. What is the difference between Russian and Australian urban areas?

9. What is a primate city?

10. What reasons are there for an urban area to become a primate city?

11. Berry found that those countries with the rank-size distribution of cities were those which …………………………………………..……………. , while the countries with primate patterns of city size were those which …………..………………………………………………………….

12. What is the difference between complementary regions and the range of a good or service? Do they necessarily have to coincide?

13. Examine figure 14.7 in the text. Why do you think the quantity of consumption of a central good should decrease with increased distance from a central place?

14. Explain the terms market size threshold and range of a central good

15. Hexagons are better theoretical shapes for central place theory than circles because …………………………………………………………………….

16. List the five simplified assumptions behind Christaller’s model

17. Explain the K4 and K7 hierarchies. Include a diagram to aid your explanation

18. Losch’s contribution to central place theory was ………………………………

19. Explain Losch’s city-rich and city-poor landscape

20. Explain how Losch’s model is closer to reality than Christaller’s approach

21. What are periodic markets?

22. The periodic provision of central goods implies a relatively high but discontinuous level of demand. TRUE or FALSE?

23. What problems are there with the Christaller model?

24. Explain Vance’s mercantile model


1. A city in which housing, industry etc do not extend to its legal limits is termed:

a) matched and bounded b) underbounded c) overbounded d) a central place

2. A pattern of settlements with a nearest neighbour index of 0.5 would be:

a) scattered b) random c) clustered d) uniform

3. In Berry’s study of city-size distributions it was found that, in general, the largest countries with the longer histories of urbanization conformed to:

a) binary distributions b) regular rank-size distributions c) central place distributions d) primate distributions

4. A complementary region is:

a) inversely related to its threshold b) the area served by a central placec) theoretically square d) measured by the number of telephones

5. The minimum population necessary to support a hospital in a town is:

a) a threshold b) 22,500 people c) complementary to the regiond) the range of a central service

6. In the central place model it is assumed that as distance from a central place increases:

a) demand for a central good increasesb) demand for a central service increasesc) demand for a central good reversesd) demand for a central service decreases

7. The regular isometric lattice of hexagons which characterises Christaller’s central place model is a result of:

a) attempting to pack as many circular demand cones as possible onto an isotropic plain

b) requiring all parts of the isotropic plain to be served with central goods and services

c) requiring central goods or services to be purchased from the nearest central place

d) all of the above

8. The provision of central goods and services by a periodic market system implies:

a) a high but discontinuous level of demand b) a low and discontinuous level of demand c) a low and continuous level of demand d) a high and continuous level of demand

9. The mercantile model of settlement structure was proposed by:

a) Berry b) Losch c) Vance d) Smailes

10. Catastrophe models help to explain why local central places:

a) were affected more in boom conditions than slump conditionsb) were not affected so much either in times of boom or slump conditionsc) were affected more in slump conditions than boom conditionsd) were not affected at all in either economic condition



1. be aware of the significance of land values

2. understand bid-price curves and how they can be used

3. be aware of factors used to analyse land use within an urban area

4. be able to explain density gradients

5. be able to explain von Thunen’s model and its significance

6. be able to explain how the idealized patterns of the original Thunen model can be modified by altering some of the assumptions

7. understand the impact of distance on actual locational patterns of agriculture in rural areas

8. know the difference between resource-oriented and market-oriented industries

9. be able to explain Weber’s model and its significance

10. be familiar with terms used in the study of industrial location

11. know the difference between transport cost curves and space cost curves

12. be able to give a Weberian analysis of the development of the iron and steel industry


1. What do land values say about a particular location within an urban area?

2. What is the CBD and what are its characteristics?

3. What two values do bid price curves use?

4. What five factors were taken into account in analysing Chicago’s land use?

5. What is an urban density gradient?

6. Study diagrams 15.9a & b. What are the differences between western and non-western cities?

7. Explain briefly the objective of Thunen’s model

8. Are there any similarities between the assumptions listed in this chapter for agricultural location patterns and those listed earlier regarding the locations of central places?

9. Why do you think that wood products comprise the second zone in Thunen’s idealized scheme of land use zones (figure 15.10a in the text)?

10. What do urban and rural land values have in common?

11. How does distance from an urban centre affect agricultural and industrial populations/land use?

12. Bogue and others found differences in population density related to …………………… , ……………………………….. , and……………………

13. The proportion of arable land increases rapidly after about 4km from the Sicilian village of Canicatti (Figure 15.14) because……………………………………….

14. Why have von Thunen’s ‘rings’ or zones moved outwards at the international level?

15. Classify the following products as tending to be either R, resource oriented, or M, market oriented:

…… soft drink manufacturer …… flour milling…… paper pulp mill …… furniture manufacturer…… pineapple cannery …… car plant

16. The conditions which favour the resource site as the least cost location for manufacturing in the linear case are ……………………………………………

17. An oil refinery located along the New Hampshire coastline would be an example of a ………………….. refinery, while a similar refinery in Caracas, Venezuela would be an example of a ………………………. refinery

18. Define the terms isotim and isodapane

19. One limitation to the widespread use of isodapanes is that they consider only ………………………………

20. What other costs are involved in deciding the best location?

21. Space cost curves differ from isodapanes in that they……………………………

22. Space cost curves extend the notion of least cost location from a point to that of an area. TRUE or FALSE?

23. The spatial margins of profit refer to locations where profits ……………………………………………………………………………….

24. There is virtually no relationship between geographic distance and freight charges, due mainly to modern transport technology. TRUE or FALSE?


1. In Thunen’s model we find that land-use boundaries occur at the intersections of:

a) main arteries b) roads of equal standard c) bid price curves d) the isolated state

2. By introducing an improved transport system into his model, Thunen was able to:

a) bring his model a bit closer to realityb) note the impact on the land use patternsc) more closely approximate actual agricultural land use patterns around villages

or towns located on a streamd) all of the abovee) none of the above

3. The study of land values in a city, workloads on a farm, land use competition in Thunen’s isolated state, or the world core and the third world are all part of a common theme of:

a) nodal organization b) single land-use c) urban densities d) multiple bid-price curves

4. According to Bogue’s findings, population density is dependent upon direction from a metropolis as well as:

a) rural densities b) the CBD c) the bid rent curves of Thunen d) distance

5. Studies of the agricultural activities of rural communities by geographers have dealt with responses to distance. This research indicates that:

a) the only response is sharp land use zoningb) the only important factor is terrain type and soils c) there are a variety of responses to distanced) that only diverse crop combinations and degrees of care are important

6. Industries that produce goods that are either large, light and bulky or which gain weight in the manufacturing process are generally:

a) resource oriented b) market oriented c) northwest oriented d) peripheral locators

7. Having a refinery on the island of Oahu near Honolulu is a great advantage to the State of Hawaii as it:

a) reduces labour b) saves the environment c) reduces single source risks d) reduces competition

8. Isodapanes indicate only:

a) labour and power costs b) transport costs c) location independent costs d) subsidy or taxes by government

9. If we were interested in delimiting the spatial margins of profitability for a form of production, the most useful tool would be:

a) space cost curves b) isodapanes c) isotims d) none of the above

10. Total transport costs are made up of two components. These are:

a) blanket rates and terminal costs b) terminal costs and uniform delivery rates c) hauling cost and terminal costs d) freight rates and passenger fares



1. be able to distinguish between expansion diffusion and relocation diffusion

2. know the two ways in which expansion diffusion can occur

3. be able to explain the characteristics of Hogerstrand’s innovation wave

4. be aware of the four major stages through which innovation diffusion passes

5. be familiar with the concept and general form of contact fields

6. be familiar with the idea of mean information field

7. be aware of Hagerstrand’s basic model and the reasons for it

8. be familiar with modifications which can be made to the simple simulation diffusion model

9. be able to distinguish between the various types of barriers to the spatial diffusion of an innovation

10. be able to cite examples of the applications of diffusion models to empirical research in geography


1. Briefly explain the difference between expansion diffusion and relocation diffusion

2. Match the type of diffusion on the right to the appropriate example on the left:

migration of Scandinavian farmers to Minnesota a) relocationdiffusion of farm subsidies in central Sweden b) contagioussimulation of the Pacific Polynesian voyages c) hierarchicdiffusion of immigration in the Colorado Piedmontdiffusion of birth control methodsimmigration of Russian Jews to Israelthe spread of infectious hepatitisthe spread of large enclosed shopping mallsprehistoric settlement of North America by people crossing the Bering Strait from Asia

3. The difference between the condensing stage and saturation stage of the diffusion profile is …………………………………………………….

4. The weakening of a innovation wave is both ………………………. dependent and …………………………. dependent

5. Why are trend surface maps used?

6. What is, in geographical terms, a contact field?

7. What is a mean information field (MIF)?

8. What was the purpose of Hagerstrand’s basic model?

9. What are some of the problems with Hagerstrand’s assumptions?

10. Briefly describe the modifications to the Haerstrand model and why each modification is made

11. Examine Figure 16.11(b) in the text. Place an X in that part of England or Wales where you think that the innovation of tuberculin-tested milk production began

12. Match the barrier types listed on the right with the respective definition on the left:

one which does not absorb the a) superabsorbing message, but which allows another b) absorbingmessage to be transmitted c) reflecting

d) direct reflectingabsorbs the message and destroys e) permeablethe transmitter

one which can pass through, thoughwith some difficulty

rather than absorbing the message,this barrier deflects it to the availablecell nearest the sender

one which absorbs the message without affecting the senders

13. Bowden’s study of the diffusion of irrigation in Colorado involved a projection of the future pattern, which could help serve as a basis for the planning of a sound irrigation policy. TRUE or FALSE?

14. Briefly explain how computer simulation was used in plotting population diffusion in the Pacific

15. What is the significance of an endemicity threshold?

16. Describe the four spatial control strategies for disease and how each is effective

17. Which of these control strategies has been applied with BSE?


1. The diffusion of a new strain of hybrid maize or rice from one agricultural region to another is a good example of:

a) expansion diffusion b) relocation diffusion c) contagious diffusion d) cascade diffusion

2. The main operational model for studying the process of diffusion was formulated by:

a) Bowden b) Yuill c) Hagerstand d) Cliff

3. In the diffusion process the strongest regional contrasts occur during the:

a) primary stage b) diffusion stage c) condensing stage d) saturation stage

4. A good number of things may cause innovation waves to weaken gradually. A good example of a space dependent weakening agent is:

a) dropping of acceptance rates b) non-competing waves c) hospitable territory d) barriers

5. The probability of a sender in a contact field contacting any other person declines with distance in a form termed:

a) providential b) incidental c) arithmetic d) exponential

6. Barriers that slow down diffusion are:

a) reflecting b) high-resistance buffers c) direct reflecting barriers

d) low resistant corridors

7. A political barrier often has the same effect on communication and diffusion processes as does:

a) time b) distance c) a low-resistance corridor d) none of the above

8. If Bowden’s work on irrigation wells in Eastern Colorado was accurate enough in its simulation of well patterns, some of his model rules might be adopted for real world use. A good rule might be:

a) only 20 million acre feet could be drawn from the ground each yearb) only 10 million acre feet could be drawn from the ground each yearc) no more than 16 wells could be drilled per townshipd) only 1644 could be drilled per township

9. A computer simulation model of the trans-Pacific drift process showed that long-standing anthropological divides in the Pacific are a result, in some cases, of:

a) distance b) wind and ocean current patterns c) survival capabilities d) ship construction

10. Quarantine is an example of which control strategy:

a) local elimination b) offensive containment c) global eradication d) defensive isolation



1. know how the term territory is used by geographers

2. be familiar with arguments related to the spatial notion of territory

3. understand Dirichlet polygons and their contribution to territories

4. understand how the gravity model can be used to determine boundaries

5. be able to explain state as a territorial unit

6. be able to explain Hartshorne’s model of the state

7. be able to explain types of boundaries

8. be able to differentiate geometric and non-geometric boundary lines

9. be aware of pressure points within a state

10. be aware of the issues relating to gerrymandering

11. be aware of the causes of creating boundaries at local and regional levels

12. know the meaning of coalition and be able to cite examples of coalitions of states

13. be familiar with Mackinder’s model

14. be familiar with some of the problems associated with partitioning the world’s oceans

15. be familiar with ways in which boundaries act as filters


1. Define the term territory as a geographer would use it

2. The study of animal behaviour in natural environment surroundings is known as ……………………………………………………..

3. State two reasonable explanations of for the existence of territoriality in animals

4. A Dirichlet polygon has the property that the area within its boundary is closer to the centre about which the polygon is constructed than any other centre. TRUE or FALSE?

5. The point that is exactly half-way between two other points is called the ……………………………. point

6. Examine Figure 17.4 ( c ) in the text. If the production costs for point 1 were doubled, would the boundary (B) around point 2 expand or contract?

7. City M1 is 24km from city M2. The size of M1 is 40, and of M2, 10. Estimate the boundary line between the market areas of the two centres.

8. Examine Figure 17.5 in the text. One example of a country whose boundary encloses a relatively homogenous population group would be ………………….. while and example of a country whose boundary cuts across population groups would be ……………………………………………………

9. List three advantages of the state as a territorial unit

10. List three disadvantages of the state as a territorial unit

11. Explain how centripetal and centrifugal forces affect a state’s existence

12. Give examples of where centripetal and centrifugal forces have affected states

13. Explain the differences between subsequent antecedents and superimposed boundaries. Give an example of each type of boundary

14. Explain the differences between geometric and non-geometric boundaries

15. The term gerrymandering refers to …………………………………………

16. Three criteria for deciding upon a fair spatial arrangement of voting district boundaries are ……………………………………………………………

17. Of the three criteria listed which one is explicitly spatial?

18. What is the difference between a single-tier and a multiple-tier system?

19. What does coalition mean?

20. Give examples of coalitions and also state the purpose of each coalition

21. What is an enforced coalition? Give examples

22. What are the three zones in terms of territorial rights for oceans?

23. What is meant by cannon shot distances in offshore areas?

24. The coastal baseline is the divide between a country’s ………………… and its ………………………………………………

25. Why should maritime states claim large outer contiguous zones and continental shelf seabed areas?

26. Why is it so difficult to define coastlines?

27. Should landlocked countries be given partial ownership and/or control over portions of the world’s oceans? Briefly defend your answer.

28. According to Richardson the potential for conflict between a country and its neighbours is directly related to …………………………………………….

29. Do you think there is any validity in Richardson’s ideas?


1. Two reasons appear to be reasonable explanations as to why territoriality occurs in animal populations; one of these is:

a) to help regulate population density b) to establish median line boundaries c) the geometric need for Dirichlet polygons d) the necessity for a political heartland

2. Dirichlet polygons define the boundary between any individual or human group and its neighbour or neighbours as being at:

a) a series of centres b) a series of links c) a halfway point between them d) none of the above

3. We can make an analogy between the concepts of territoriality and survival of the fittest in the animal world and:

a) market area and economic competition among business firms b) median boundaries and heartlands c) Dirichlet polygons and Christaller’s hexagons d) intersections of hyperbolas and primogeniture

4. Which forces are likely to cause most problems for a state:

a) centripetal b) demarcation c) social d) centrifugal

5. In solving the gerrymander problem we find that all criteria are approximate except for the one dealing with:

a) equality b) contiguity c) homogeneity d) allocations

6. It is interesting to note that the British solution to the problem of reform of administrative areas was based on a central theme in the text, the:

a) mean information field b) city-region c) nation-state d) median-line territory

7. When groups subsequently occupying a region or area must adjust to the existing demarcation line we know that line as:

a) antecedent b) subsequent c) occident d) none of the above

8. The most common features used for drawing international and interstate boundaries in the United States are:

a) natural features b) non-geometric features c) latitude and longitude d) mountain barriers

9. The method of dividing sea areas by having each state extend its sovereignty at an equal rate until it meets the lake, sea or ocean territory of its adjacent and opposite state is an adaptation of the:

a) demarcation principle b) polygon principle c) median-line principle d) adjacency principle

10. Regarding political control of the world, Mackinder felt that the most critical area of strategic significance was:

a) East Europe b) West Europe c) Soviet central Asia d) Eurasia



1. be familiar with the general spatial pattern of economic development in the world today

2. be familiar with the term GNP

3. understand how GNP per capita is used to group and compare countries

4. be familiar with other indicators used to compare countries

5. have some appreciation for the problem of devising indices of economic development

6. be familiar with the interaction between factors which determine development

7. know Samuelson’s four fundamental factors of development

8. understand the differences in demographic characteristics between developed and developing countries

9. be familiar with population pyramids

10. understand Myrdal’s model for regional development

11. be familiar with an be able to evaluate the Rostow-Taaffe spatial growth model

12. be familiar with connectivity and understand the beta index

13. understand Friedmann’s core-periphery model

14. understand Kondratieff waves

15. know the meaning of social welfare indicators

16. know how to use and evaluate social welfare indicators to measure and compare development

17. understand how differing interpretations of social justice lead to varying patterns of welfare levels

18. be able to state the five main strategies used by governments in regional development

19. be able to explain and evaluate each strategy

20. know the issues involved in defining areas of need

21. understand the term growth pole

22. be familiar with the government policies of intervention and withdrawal


1. What is the full name for the World Bank?

2. What is gross national product (GNP)?

3. How is GNP per capita used to group and compare countries?

4. What other measures or indicators can be used to compare countries?

5. If you were to compile a multiple index to measure standard of living, some of the variables you might consider would be …………………………………………….

6. Berry’s composite index of 43 variables resulted in a two-fold scheme, as shown in Figure 18.5. The two axes represent …………………………………………..

7. Refer to Figure 18.5. In terms of location most LEDCs are found …………………………………………

8. Briefly explain Samuelson’s four factors of development

9. The reason why tropical countries are almost all classified as LDCs is directly traceable to environment and culture. TRUE or FALSE?

10. Briefly describe how population structure differs between developed and developing countries

11. What is a population pyramid?

12. Study Figure 18.7. Why is Sweden’s population pyramid not a pyramid like Mexico or Japan’s population structure?

13. Explain Myrdal’s spread effects and backwash effects

14. What is Myrdal’s conclusion about regional development?

15. Explain zero economic growth. What are your views on this idea?

16. Explain briefly the Rostow-Taaffe spatial growth model

17. How well does New Zealand fit the pattern of the four stage model of spatial development?

18. Explain Friedmann’s core and periphery

19. Would Thunen, if he were alive, agree with Friedmann’s model? Briefly explain.

20. What are Kondratieff waves? How do they try to explain different levels of development?

21. What is a Lorenz curve? Why is it used?

22. What is a social welfare indicator? Give an example

23. Examine Figure 18.15 in the text. Which Canadian province is the healthiest in a socioeconomic context?

24. Social welfare indicators can be used to measure either the static condition of an area or the relative changing conditions of an area over time. TRUE or FALSE?

25. Three criteria related to the idea of a just spatial distribution of an area’s benefits are………………………………………………………………………………..

26. Which of the three criteria listed above do you think is most important? Why?

27. The author states that a country’s spatial economy is …………………… and …………………………………….

28. The basic argument centres not about the need for some system of spatial redistribution because of spatial change but rather who …………………………………………………………………………….

29. What are the three strategies used in regional development?

30. Explain how each assists regional development

31. List two advantages and two disadvantages of using a single index to delimit areas of need

32. Describe how areas of need can be defined

33. A major drawback to the use of a fully differentiated scheme of regional assistance is that ……………………………………………………………

34. A growth pole can be defined as …………………………………..

35. Outline the advantages and disadvantages of growth poles.

36. Strategic withdrawal is when………………………………………….

37. Briefly explain how the government used policies of intervention and withdrawal in the North East of England in the 1970s.


1. There are a number of practical difficulties in using countries as the basic units of geographic study. For example they are:

a) principal accounting units b) increasingly becoming economic units c) extremely different in size and population d) clearly defined by boundaries

2. Criticisms can be levelled against a world map depicting levels of development at the national scale by using a multiple index. One such criticism is that:

a) it is not possible to combine 43 different indices into a composite indexb) Yugoslavia appears to be a very poor country using this methodc) Differences within each country are highlightedd) It portrays only a static rather than a dynamic pattern

3. Which of the following statements best describes demographic aspects of MEDCs:

a) birth and death rates stabilised at a low level b) a rising death rate and high, stable birth rate c) declining death rates and a high birth rate d) birth and death rate stabilised at a high level

4. The Bahamas would fit into the resource frontier region of Friedmann’s version of global space economy on the basis of:

a) its declining rural economy b) its development corridor c) recreational potential d) low rate of innovations

5. Based on theoretical analyses utilising models of regional growth:

a) regional convergence results from the interregional growth processb) regional divergence results from the interregional growth processc) either regional convergence or regional divergence may result from the

interregional growth processd) none of the above

6. Two characteristics of spatial concern regarding social indicators are that concern should ideally be with changes over time and space and:

a) unemployment rates tend to be highest at the interstate level

b) social indicators must focus only on convergencec) rankings of indicators are usually consistentd) no two social indicators necessarily correspond spatially

7. Geographers concerned with a just spatial distribution, justly arrived at, are concerned with spatial aspects of:

a) domestic goals b) social justice c) merit d) physical compatibility

8. A road building program in Appalachia is an example of:

a) investment in the public sector b) investment in the private sector c) inducement in the public sector d) inducement in the private sector

9. For an effective regional development policy there must be clear boundaries between problem and non-problem areas. These boundaries should:

a) clearly reflect the character of the inequality b) be based on unemployment levels c) be just below the regional threshold d) be redrawn every five years

10. The deliberate selection of one or more nodes as foci for regional development input is generally known as:

a) strategic withdrawal b) political suicide c) nodal need areas d) growth pole policy



1. be able to explain the concept of globalisation

2. be familiar with the issues and arguments of globalisation

3. be familiar with the impact of changing transport technology on globalisation

4. understand that globalisation is the product of changes in different factors

5. be able to define a global corporation

6. understand the impact of a global corporation on the economy of a country

7. understand how the state acts as a corporation

8. be aware of the world’s population redistribution

9. understand the impact and consequences of these changes

10. understand the city as a financial centre

11. be aware of the growth of global environmental issues

12. know the main environmental issues of concern


1. What is meant by globalisation?

2. Why is it thought globalisation is occurring?

3. Briefly explain the counter arguments

4. What is localisation?

5. How have changes in transport technology helped globalisation?

6. What part has tourism played in globalisation?

7. What part has the development of electronics played in globalisation?

8. Explain the meaning of ‘typically the large business corporation is both multiplant and multiproduct and so has been a highly diverse structure in both product and space’.

9. What criteria are used to judge a company a global corporation?

10. Explain Tornquist’s levels of organisation in the spatial structure of a corporation

11. Explain the likely distribution of levels within a global corporation

12. What is the impact of the state as a corporation?

13. Briefly explain the four points relating to the increase in world population

14. Study Table 19.2. Which region will experience the greatest percentage increase in urbanisation?

15. What is the main trend in the redistribution of the world’s population and where do they live?

16. What has led to high rates of urbanisation in many of the poorer regions?

17. What are the main environmental issues of concern?

18. Explain some of the causes of sea level change

19. What will be the consequences of sea level change?

20. Explain some of the causes for loss of biodiversity

21. What is meant by the term ‘water stress?

22. Where is water stress already a major problem?

23. Explain the global impact of El Nino.


1. Vertical linkages are between:

a) localities and regions b) nation and nation c) environment and human population d) core and periphery

2. Improved transport technology has:

a) helped the globalisation process b) has had a neutral impact on globalisation c) has not helped globalisation d) to develop more before an impact is felt

3. Which of these has not been a factor in globalisation?

a) tourism b) electronics c) multinational companies d) water stress

4. Kondratieff waves occur every:

a) 5 years b) 50 years c) 55 years d) 25 years

5. Of the world’s 12 largest corporations 6 are in:

a) USA b) South Korea c) Japan d) Taiwan

6. Multinational corporations or global corporations can be measured by:

a) sales b) workforce c) assets d) all of these

7. As a company becomes larger its corporate structure will become:

a) less diversified b) more diversified c) more controlled d) more localised

8. By 2015 the region which will have the greater increase in the percentage of people living in urban areas since 1950 will be:

a) Africa b) Asia c) Latin America d) industrial countries

9. Which environmental issue had most support in a recent UNEP survey for the GEO2000 report:

a) sea level rise b) freshwater scarcity c) loss of biodiversity d) climate change

10. Which region has the highest number of critically endangered species?

a) Asia/Pacific b) North America c) Latin America d) Western Europe



1. be aware of the significance of location in the risk of disease

2. be able to define disease

3. know the main causes of death worldwide

4. know ways of measuring the disease burden

5. know the history of malaria

6. be familiar with diseases that have been eradicated and how this has been done

7. be familiar with other WHO eradication programmes

8. be familiar with the elements of an immunization programme

9. be able to cite successful and non-successful disease eradication programmes and their causes

10. be aware of diseases only recently recognised and why more diseases are now being recognised

11. be familiar with the history and distribution of AIDS

12. be familiar with how changing environmental conditions affect diseases

13. understand the term epidemiological transition

14. know how disease has been affected by spatial contraction

15. know how land use changes affect disease

16. understand the implications of global warming on disease

17. be aware of possible future disease scenarios and their implications

18. know the geographer’s challenge to disease control


1. What is disease?

2. What are the main causes of death worldwide?

3. Are all deaths equal? What work is being done on this issue?

4. How is the disease burden measured?

5. Explain the difference between mortality and morbidity

6. Two of the greatest killer diseases are …………………. & ………………….

7. Describe the cause of malaria, its main location and what is done to combat it

8. What do the letters WHO stand for? What is the function of this organisation?

9. Which is the only disease to be eradicated?

10. How was the eradication programme implemented?

11. What does endemic mean?

12. What other eradication programmes have been implemented?

13. What is an immunization programme?

14. What problems are involved in eradicating diseases?

15. What does epidemic mean?

16. Why are more diseases being recognized now?

17. How does economic development affect disease distribution?

18. What is meant by the term epidemiological transition?

19. Explain how increased urbanisation affects disease

20. What is meant by spatial contraction and how does this affect disease transmission?

21. Explain how changing land use affects disease

22. What effect could global warming have on disease distribution and transmission?

23. What are likely to be main disease threats for developed countries in the future?

24. What do you feel is the most important challenge for geographers in the 21st century?

25. What is the main health related problem for the poor developing countries?


1. What are the main causes of death in the developing world:

a) diseases of the circulatory systemb) diseases of the respiratory systemc) infections and parasitic diseasesd) other and unknown causes

2. Morbidity means:

a) death b) illness c) disease d) epidemic

3. In the mid-1980s in the USA HIV had a higher fatality rate but lower number of cases than :

a) influenza b) rhinovirus c) pneumococcal d) rotavirus

4. A disease which is particular to one area or group of people is:

a) epidemic b) pandemic c) endemic d) measles

5. Which of these diseases has been eliminated:

a) poliomyelitis b) malaria c) measles d) smallpox

6. Which of these diseases does Europe have the lowest immunization rate:

a) hepatitis B b) tetanus c) diphtheria d) poliomyelitis

7. River blindness (onchocerciosis) is mainly prevalent in:

a) Europe b) North America c) Asia d) Africa

8. Malnutrition is a major contributor to under 5 year old deaths in developing countries. This statement is:

a) false b) true c) out of date now d) only a hypothesis

9. Improved technology in air travel facilitates:

a) mortality rates b) ring-control strategies c) disease transmission d) disease contraction

10. The main unfinished business for WHO in trying to reduce the disease burden is to reduce:

a) wars b) poverty c) cancers d) migration


By the end of this chapter you should:

1. be familiar with the historical development of maps and mapmakers

2. be familiar with Cook’s contribution to cartography

3. understand the system of latitude and longitude

4. be aware how latitude and longitude are calculated

5. be aware of the impact of modern technology on navigation

6. be familiar with methods of locating places on maps

7. be familiar with the arguments concerning place names

8. be able to explain map projection

9. know the problems in creating map projections

10. know the main types of map projection

11. be able to explain mapping as a cycle

12. understand the issues involved in encoding maps

13. know the four levels of measurement in encoding maps

14. be familiar with processes and issues in decoding maps

15. be aware of the new ideas and developments in modern mapping


1. What does the earliest known map show?

2. What was the emphasis of the maps of the Middle Ages?

3. What was Cook’s contribution to cartography?

4. How are parallels and meridians different?

5. What is the significance of latitude and longitude?

6. Why was navigation problematic until the mid-18th century?

7. In what way has modern technology made navigation much easier?

8. Explain nominal specification

9. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using nominal specification to locate places?

10. What is the Cantesian coordinate system?

11. The Cantesian coordiante system when used with an ordnance survey map is commonly called ………………………………………………………….

12. What is a map projection?

13. What is the main problem in creating a map projection?

14. Explain mapping as a cycle

15. What is involved in encoding a map?

16. What are the four levels of measurement in encoding a map?

17. What purpose does filtering serve in decoding maps?

18. What are the three main areas in decoding maps?

19. Explain multidimensional mapping

20. What is meant by non-linear mapping?

21. How important do you think maps are in geographical study?


1. The first recognisable world map dates from around:

a) 2000 BC b) 200 BC c) 500 BC d) 1250 AD

2. The emphasis of the 13th century Mappa Mundi is:

a) economic b) tectonic c) ecological d) religion

3. Cook mainly explained and mapped sea and land areas around the:

a) Atlantic Ocean b) Pacific Ocean c) Indian Ocean d) Southern Ocean

4. A graticule is:

a) a network of parallels and meridians on a mapb) a science that deals with the slope and size of the earthc) the distance north or south of the equator measured in degreesd) imaginary half circles ending at the North and South Poles

5. Accurate navigation took such a long time to develop because of problems in accurately measuring:

a) latitude b) ellipsoids c) longitude d) graticules

6. Nominal specification refers to map location by:

a) latitude b) map references c) longitude d) place names

7. Of which map projection is a mercator map an example?

a) cylindrical b) conventional c) zenithal d) conical

8. Of which scale is attitude an example:

a) ordinal b) nominal c) ratio d) internal

9. The mapping cycle comprises:

a) encoding – information – decodingb) information – encoding - decodingc) decoding – encoding – informationd) information – decoding – encoding

10. An isochrone is a line of equal:

a) height b) pressure c) time d) cost



1. understand the contribution of remote sensing to geographical enquiry

2. be aware of the different types of aerial photograph

3. understand stereoscopic pairs

4. be aware of the terms used in remote sensing

5. know the different types of sensors

6. know the different satellite monitoring systems

7. know areas of research for satellite remote sensing

8. be aware of the benefits of early warning systems

9. understand the purpose and types of sampling


1. What are the two types of aerial photograph?

2. What are the problems with oblique photographs?

3. What is the meaning of photogrammetry?

4. What are stereoscopic pairs?

5. Why have there been rapid improvements in remote sensing?

6. What are the two main types of sensor?

7. What is a false colour photograph? What is the purpose of such a photograph?

8. What are photographic sensors?

9. What are electronic sensors?

10. What are the advantages of radar sensors?

11. Name the different satellite monitoring systems.

12. What do you understand by ‘signature’?

13. At what height do the satellites mainly orbit? How long are their cycles?

14. Briefly explain how satellite remote sensing could be used in each of the areas you cited in question 13.

15. Explain how satellite remote sensing can be used beneficially as an early warning system.

16. What does the term ground truth mean?

17. Why is it not necessary to collect data on every aspect from every place in order to understand the earth?

18. Briefly explain the different types of sampling.


1. The first photographs of the earth from space were taken in:

a) 1958 b) 1863c) 1963d) 1858

2. An oblique aerial photograph of the earth is one taken:

a) looking straight down b) at ground level c) at an angle d) by electronic sensing

3. The word to describe each environmental object having its own unique pattern of wavebands is:

a) stereoscope b) signature c) imagery d) photogrammetry

4. A sideways-looking radar is an example of a:

a) passive sensor b) photographic sensor c) electronic sensor d) thermal scanner

5. Photographs which change or enhance the true colour of an object are called:

a) false colour b) panchromatic c) true colour d) arthochromatic

6. SPOT and NOVA are examples of:

a) photogammetry b) satellites c) thermal scanners d) radar bands

7. How far above the earth do most earth sensing satellites orbit:

a) below 400 miles b) 600-800 miles c) 300-500 miles d) 400-600 miles

8. Nephline analysis is the identification of:

a) cloud types b) streamlines c) heat landscapes d) synoptic images

9. LANDSAT would provide valuable early warning information to which global organisation:

a) SPOT b) IBRD c) FAO d) UNESCO

10. Which of these is not a type of sampling:

a) wested b) systematic c) ephemeral d) stratified



1. be familiar with a range of GIS terminology

2. be able to describe the components of a GIS system

3. be able to explain the main components of the computer hardware

4. know some of the major software packages

5. be able to explain the main problems concerning geographic data

6. be able to explain the importance of people in a GIS system

7. be able to explain the difference between the raster and vector approaches in showing geographic data

8. be able to explain the advantages and disadvantages of each method

9. be able to explain GIS problem solving functions

10. know the main aspects of the domain of GIS

11. be able to describe the five levels of the hierarchy of GIS applications

12. be able to evaluate the development of GIS


1. How has the supply of data changed as a result of new technology?

2. What is the difference between analogue and digital systems?

3. What are the main components of a GIS system?

4. Which do you think is the most important? Why?

5. Briefly describe the problems related to geographic data

6. Which do you think might be the most difficult to solve? Why?

7. What are the three basic forms of geographic data?

8. What is the difference between a menu and an icon driven system?

9. Using the information between pg 718-724, generate your own labelled diagram to show as many of the components listed and the linkage(s) between them

10. What are the two main methods for showing geographic data?

11. What is the main difference in processing the data used by these two methods?

12. Explain how the quadtree technique overcomes data storage problems

13. What is rubber sheeting?

14. What are arithmetic and logical overlays?

15. What sort of errors occur when editing digitized data?

16. Why use Thiessen polygons?

17. What is meant by intervisibility on a surface?

18. What are spatial inventories? Give an example

19. What is the second level of maturity? Give an example of the use of this level.

20. Describe some of the advanced display functions and comment on their usefulness

21. How useful do you think is advanced modelling? Think of your own example to use in your answer

22. Briefly outline the historical development of GIS

23. What is the future for GIS? What benefits and problems might arise?


1. Scanners, printers, digitizers, CD-Roms are all:

a) softwareb) datac) hardwared) computers

2. In its most basic form geographical data comes in how many forms:

a) 2 – ROM & RAMb) 3 – points, lines & polygonsc) 4 – hardware, software, data & people d) 2 – menu & icon

3. An icon driven system is one where options are:

a) accessed by symbols on the screenb) chosen from a listc) encoded and accessed by a separate programmed) accessed by downloading internet data first

4. The two main ways of representing geographic databases are by:

a) RAM & ROMb) icon & menuc) windows and wordd) raster and vector

5. When no feature is referenced to an earth position but only relative to one another then changing the position of data into the desired locational framework is called:

a) rubber sheetingb) arithmetic overlaysc) logical overlaysd) Thiessen polygons

6. Thiessen polygons are used to combine which types of information:

a) vector & rasterb) icon & menuc) point, line, aread) arithmetic & logical.



1. be aware of geographers and their contributions to the study of the subject

2. be aware of geographical organisations and their contribution to the subject

3. be aware of the changing modus operandi for geographers and their research and geographical organisations

4. be aware of the variety of definitions of geography

5. know and be able to distinguish between the methods of structuring geography

6. be aware of career opportunities within geography

7. have awareness of future prospects within geography

8. be familiar with the meaning of paradigm shift

9. understand the approaches of positivism and phenomenology


1. What were some of the reasons for early geographic study?

2. What was the main characteristic of geographers and geographic research in the pre-1850 phase?

3. Which country contributed most to geographic research in the 1850-1939 period?

4. What was the main feature of geographic research in the post 1800 phase?

5. Give examples of how this was done

6. Which of the definitions given on page 763 do you favour? Is there a definition from another source you prefer?

7. List the three elements common to most definitions of geography

8. Explain spatial analysis, ecological analysis and regional complex analysis

9. What is the advantage of the study of geography through the analysis given in 7, rather than through the orthodox divisions?

10. What is meant by field sustaining?

11. Match the following subjects in the field of geography with their supporting fields:

Biology a) geomorphologyGeology b) climatologySociology c) biogeographyEconomics d) urban geographyPlanning e) regional complexesMeteorology f) cartographyEngineering g) natural resources

12. Explain positivism and phenomenology

13. What is meant by a paradigm shift?

14. Explain catastrophe theory


1. Geographic studies sporadically distributed in time and space are characteristic of:

a) 1850-1939 phase b) pre 1850 phase c) post 1939 phase d) post 2000 phase

2. The Matthew effect is:

a) to each according to his meansb) to him that hath more shall be givenc) ask and thou shall be givend) you can’t make a silk purse out of a sow’s ear

3. The RGS is:

a) an American organisation b) a German organisation c) a British organisation d) a Canadian organisation

4. Ron Johnston is a geographer:

a) from the UK specialising in cartographyb) from the USA specialising in location theoryc) from Germany specialising in regional geographyd) from the UK specialising in political geography

5. The number of geographic periodicals doubles every:

a) 15 years b) 20 years c) 30 years d) 35 years

6. International geographic cooperation in research is handled through the:

a) IGU b) SSAG c) RGS d) IAG

7. Natural resource geography lies within:

a) the integrated approach b) the orthodox approach c) spatial analysis d) systematic analysis

8. In order to support your study of ecology which do you think would be the most appropriate supporting subject:

a) meteorology b) mathematics c) economics d) biology

9. Which school is described by this definition? ‘An existential philosophical school which admits that introspective or intuitive attempts to gain geographic knowledge are valid’:

a) positivism b) probabilism c) phenomenology d) methodology

10. Catastrophe theory seeks to explain changes. These changes are:

a) catastrophic b) gradual c) sudden d) paradigm shifts

ANSWERS TO PROGRESS CHECK SECTIONS

CHAPTER 1

1B 2A 3B 4A 5B 6A 7B 8B

CHAPTER 2

1A 2C 3B 4D 5C 6C 7D 8A 9B 10D

CHAPTER 3

1B 2C 3B 4A 5D 6C 7C 8A 9C 10A

CHAPTER 4

1C 2A 3B 4D 5A 6B 7A 8C 9D 10C

CHAPTER 5

1A 2B 3C 4C 5B 6B 7B 8A

CHAPTER 6

1D 2A 3B 4B 5A 6C 7C 8B 9B 10A

CHAPTER 7

1B 2A 3B 4B 5A 6B 7C 8B 9D 10A

CHAPTER 8

1B 2D 3B 4B 5A 6C 7C 8A 9B 10C

CHAPTER 9

1B 2D 3D 4B 5B 6B 7C 8A 9A 10C

CHAPTER 10

1B 2A 3B 4A 5B 6C 7D 8B 9D 10A

CHAPTER 11

1B 2B 3B 4A 5B 6C 7D 8C 9D 10A

CHAPTER 12

1C 2A 3D 4C 5A 6C 7D 8B 9B 10D

CHAPTER 13

1B 2D 3C 4A 5C 6C 7D 8B 9C 10A

CHAPTER 14

1C 2C 3B 4B 5A 6D 7D 8A 9C 10B

CHAPTER 15

1C 2D 3A 4D 5C 6B 7C 8B 9A 10C

CHAPTER 16

1A 2C 3A 4D 5D 6B 7B 8C 9B 10D

CHAPTER 17

1A 2C 3A 4D 5B 6B 7A 8C 9C 10C

CHAPTER 18

1C 2D 3A 4C 5C 6D 7B 8A 9A 10D

CHAPTER 19

1C 2A 3D 4B 5C 6D 7B 8A 9D 10C

CHAPTER 20

1C 2B 3A 4C 5D 6A 7D 8B 9C 10B

CHAPTER 21

1C 2D 3B 4A 5C 6D 7A 8D 9B 10C

CHAPTER 22

1A 2C 3B 4C 5A 6B 7D 8A 9C 10C

CHAPTER 23

1C 2B 3A 4D 5A 6A

CHAPTER 24

1B 2B 3C 4D 5C 6A 7A 8D 9C 10C

Documents

Student Study Guide - Pearson Educationwps.pearsoned.co.uk/.../objects/2768/2834453/ssg/stude… · Web viewStudent Study Guide. to accompany Peter Haggett. GEOGRAPHY: A GLOBAL