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INSIGHTSIAS SIMPLYFYING IAS EXAM PREPARATION
INSTA Tests
CSAT (60-76)
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BENGALURU | DELHI | HYDERABAD
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN UPSC Prelims 2020
Copyright © by Insights IAS All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior permission of Insights IAS.
KEY & EXPLANATIONS
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Blood Relationship; Puzzles & Seating Arrangement; English Comprehension
1. Pointing towards a man in a photograph, Arun, who does not have any sibling, said “The
man’s father is my father’s son”. How is the man related to Arun?
(a) Son
(b) Uncle
(c) Nephew
(d) Cousin
Solution: A
Since Arun does not have any brother or sister, it means Arun’s father’s son is Arun himself.
Therefore, the man in the photograph is Arun’s son.
2. Pointing to a man in a photograph a woman says, “He is the father of my only daughter-in-
law’s father-in-law”. How is the man related to the woman?
(a) Father
(b) Brother
(c) Husband
(d) Father- in -law
Solution: D
Woman’s daughter-in-law’s father-in-law implies woman’s husband.
Again, the father of the woman’s husband implies woman’s father-in-law.
Hence, the man is woman’s father-in-law
3. Pointing to a woman in a photograph, a man says – “She is the only daughter of the mother-
in-law of my only son.” How is the woman related to the man?
(a) Wife
(b) Daughter
(c) Daughter-in-law
(d) Mother
Solution: C
It is better to go from reverse side to solve this kind of problem.
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Therefore, it can be translated as she is that man’s only son’s mother-in law’s only daughter.
Thus, she is wife of man’s only son or daughter-in law of that man.
Therefore, “Only daughter of the mother-in-law of one’s son” implies one’s daughter-in-law.
4. Pointing towards a person in the photograph, Anupama said ‘He is only son of father of my
sister’s brother’. How is that person related to Anupama?
(a) Brother
(b) Brother –in- law
(c) Father – in- law
(d) Father
Solution: A
If we write it in reverse order, person is Anupama’s Sister’s brother’s father’s only son.
Therefore, brother’s father’s only son has to be brother himself.
Thus, person is Anumapa’s brother.
Directions for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be
based on the passage only.
Passage - 1
Governments need to be generous in supporting international humanitarian agencies,
whether with food or funds. Stepping-up supply of food to countries worst-hit by the hunger crisis
is necessary. While this will help ease the symptoms of the crisis, it will not address its underlying
causes. The latter is necessary to address the problem of food insecurity in the world.
Humanitarian food aid is important but simultaneously, we need to put in place medium and long-
term strategies to address conflict and climate shocks.
5. Which of the following is the most logical, critical and rational inference that can be
drawn from the above passage?
(a) Cycle of hunger can be broken only by improving food production and distribution
(b) The presence of hunger remains a global shame
(c) Climate change, extreme weather events and global conflicts remain the primary
cause of hunger
(d) Humanitarian aid is a necessary but not a sufficient condition for addressing global
hunger
Answer. A
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The passage states that humanitarian aid is important but other steps are also required
for ending hunger. D appears correct but A is the more logical and critical choice because the
passage harps on the importance of medium and long term steps required for
addressing hunger which is captured by A. Hence A is the correct answer.
Direction for the following 4 (four) items: Consider the given information and answer four items
that follow:
Six friends are sitting in a circle and are facing the center of the circle. Deepa is between Prakash
and Pankaj. Priti is between Mukesh and Lalit. Prakash and Mukesh are opposite to each other.
Prakash is at the right of Deepa.
6. Who is at the immediate left of Prakash?
(a) Deepa
(b) Lalit
(c) Prakash
(d) Pankaj
Solution: A
Arrangement:
Hence, Deepa is at the second left of Prakash.
7. Who is sitting exactly opposite to Deepa ?
(a) Priti
(b) Prakash
(c) Pankaj
(d) Mukesh
Solution: A
Priti is sitting exactly opposite of Deepa
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8. Who are immediate neighbours of Pankaj ?
(a) Deepa and Prakash
(b) Deepa and Mukesh
(c) Mukesh and Priti
(d) Lalit and Prakash
Solution: B
Deepa and Mukesh are immediate neighbours of Pankaj.
9. Who is sitting immediate right to Lalit?
(a) Priti
(b) Prakash
(c) Deepa
(d) Mukesh
Solution: A
Priti is sitting immediate right to Lalit.
Directions for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be
based on the passage only.
Passage – 2
There are three standard counter-responses to the claim that technology can be dangerous
in itself. One, the fault is not in technology but in the humans who use such technology: guns don’t
kill, only people do. Two, technology is as useful as it can be harmful. Three, technology will always
be under our control and so we can literally pull the plug when we want. All these views can be
effectively challenged, particularly in the case of artificial intelligence (AI).
10. Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from
the above passage?
(a) Artificial intelligence is bad for humanity
(b) AI is good for humanity as it has intelligence
(c) AI needs to be developed with caution
(d) The usual arguments that can be brought in defence of technology do not apply in case
of AI
Answer. D.
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The passage talks about three arguments which can be brought in the defence technology which is
not true for AI. This is what option D is about.
11. At the cricket game, Ram was sitting in seat 153. Sham was sitting to the right of Ram in
seat 154. In the seat to the left of Ram was Krishna. Ishwar was sitting to the left of Krishna.
Which seat is Ishwar sitting in?
(a) 151
(b) 154
(c) 155
(d) 156
Solution: A
Seat numbers are numbered from left to right which is evident from the given data.
Thus, Seat number of Ram = 153.
Seat number of Sham = 154
Seat number of Krishna = 152
Seat number of Ishwar = 151
Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the given information and answer the three
items that follow:
Eight people – Swati, Prachi, Richa, Kavya, Sheena, Charu, Malika and Naira are sitting in a
straight line facing North. They have different ages – 10, 13, 15, 18, 25, 26, 31 and 40 but not
necessarily in the same order. There are 2 persons sitting between Swati and the one whose age is
18 years. Neither of them is sitting at an extreme end. The difference between the ages of Kavya
and Malika is 3 years. Richa is sitting second to right of one having age 18 years. Prachi is sitting
third to left of one having age 31 years. There are three girls sitting between Kavya and whose age
is 18 years old. Prachi and Malika are immediate neighbors. Richa is not 31 years old. There are
at least 4 persons sitting to the right of Kavya. Naira and the one having age 18 years are
immediate neighbors. The one who is 31 years old is not sitting at second position from any end.
Sheena is 3 years older than Swati. Charu is one year older than Richa.
12. Who is 13 years old?
(a) Kavya
(b) Prachi
(c) Malika
(d) Cannot be determined
Solution: D
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Eight people – Swati, Prachi, Richa, Kavya, Sheena, Charu, Malika and Naira are sitting in a
straight line facing North.
They have different ages – 10, 13, 15, 18, 25, 26, 31 and 40 but not necessarily in the same order.
There are 2 persons sitting between Swati and the one whose age is 18 years.Neither of them is
sitting at an extreme end. Therefore, Swati is not sitting at extreme end and her age is not 18
years.
The difference between the ages of Kavya and Malika is 3 years.
Thus, possible ages Kavya and Malika are (10, 13) or (13, 10) . Because it is given that age of
Sheena is 18 years. Thus, possible ages Kavya and Malika (15, 18) or (18, 15) are not possible
Richa is sitting second to right of one having age 18 years.
Prachi is sitting third to left of one having age 31 years. Thus, Prachi’s age is not 31 years.
There are three girls sitting between Kavya and Sheena whose age is 18 years old. Therefore, age
of Sheena is 18 years.
Thus, Richa is sitting second to right of Sheena.
Prachi and Malika are immediate neighbors. Richa is not 31 years old.
There are at least 4 persons sitting to the right of Kavya.
Naira and the one having age 18 years are immediate neighbors. Thus, Naira and Sheena are
immediate neighbors.
The one who is 31 years old is not sitting at second position from any end.
Sheena is 3 years older than Swati.Thus, age of Swati is 15 years.
Charu is one year older than Richa. Thus, age of Charu is 26 and age of Richa is 25.
Since, it is given that age of Prachi is not 31 years, Prachi’s age is 40 years and Naira’s age is 31
years.
Arrangement from left to right in north direction is
Kavya-Swati-Prachi-Malika-Sheena-Naira-Richa-Charu
Hence, option (d) is correct.
13. How many persons are sitting to the left of Sheena?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Four
Solution: D
There are four persons sitting to the left of Sheena (Kavya, Swati, Prachi and Malika)
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14. What is the difference in ages of Prachi and Richa?
(a) 7 years
(b) 27 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 15 years
Solution: D
Age of Prachi = 40 years
Age of Richa = 25 years
Therefore, difference = 15 years.
Directions for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be
based on the passage only.
Passage – 3
The notion that people are motivated to work in the public service as a result of altruism,
a desire to serve, or a wish to have an impact on society is a long-standing one. It is closely
associated with the idea of public service ethos, which is rooted in an understanding that the public
service is different from the private sector, both because of the tasks it performs and the behaviours
it expects of its employees.
15. Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from
the above passage?
(a) Pay is not the motivating factor for public servants
(b) Public service is a position of trust
(c) Altruism is the motivating factor for public service
(d) Public and private sector jobs are vastly different
Answer. C.
The focus of the passage is on bringing out the view that there is an idea that public servants
have an inherent sense of altruism, which is what inspires them to serve the public and
display conduct worthy of public service ethos. The focus is not on explaining that public
and private sector jobs differ. Hence C
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Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the given information and answer the three
items that follow:
Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle and are facing the centre of the circle. D is
between A and B. C is between F and E. A andF are opposite to each other. A is at the immediate
right of D.
16. Who is at the second left of E?
(a) D
(b) F
(c) B
(d) A
Solution: A
Arrangement:
17. Who is sitting exactly opposite to B?
(a) C
(b) A
(c) F
(d) E
Solution: D
18. Who is sitting immediate right to C?
(a) B
(b) F
(c) E
(d) A
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Solution: B
Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Consider the given information and answer the one item
that follow:
There are eight members in a family in three generation i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and M. Among
them there are only two married couples and only four males. R is married to P. Q is the only child
of S. U is married and she has a mother-in-law. S is paternal grandmother of T. P is father of T’s
mother and V. M is not a female member of a family. T is brother of M.
19. How is R related to M?
(a) Paternal Grandmother
(b) Paternal Grandfather
(c) Maternal Grandmother
(d) Maternal Grandfather
Solution: C
Relations:
R is the maternal grandmother of M.
Directions for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be
based on the passage only.
Passage – 4
Shutting down internet access is a supply-side attempt to curb panic, rumours and hate
speech. But it surely has negative economic costs, in terms of a shutdown of legitimate e-commerce.
It hurts businesses and services that depend on digital connectivity. India had the dubious
distinction of being the world’s leader in internet shutdowns last year, according to Software
Freedom Law Center. India has more users of WhatsApp than the US, and is also among
Facebook’s top three markets globally by subscriber count.
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20. Which of the following option(s) is/are valid argument(s) against enforcing a social media
ban?
1. Transparency gets impacted by such bans
2. India ranks poorly in social media freedom indices
There are economic ramifications to social media ban
(a) I, II
(b) II, III
(c) I, III
(d) III
Answer: D.
Reading of the passage indicates that I is incorrect and III is correct. The question is talking in
general about the arguments against social media ban and not restricting itself
specifically to India. Hence II is incorrect.
Mensuration; Data interpretation & Graphs; English Comprehension
Direction for the following 4 (four) items: Consider the given information and answer the four
items that follow:
The following graph shows the percentage growth in population of six cities from 1990 to 2000 and
2000 to 2010.
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21. If the population of City F in year 1990 was 12 lakh, what will be its population in year 2010?
(a) 31.65 lakh
(b) 32.55 lakh
(c) 33.4 lakh
(d) 34.64 lakh
Solution: B
It is given that population of City F in year 1990 was 12 lakh.
It has increased by 75 % from 1990 to 2000 for city F.
Thus population of city F in 2000 = 1.75 * 12 = 21 lakh.
Population of city F has further increased by 55 % from 2000 to 2010.
Therefore, population of City F in year 2010 was 1.55 * 21 = 32.55 lakh.
22. The population of City D in year 2000 was what per cent of its population in year 2010?
(a) 57.8%
(b) 60%
(c) 62.5%
(d) 96%
Solution: C
Let the population in year 2000 be ‘x’.
Therefore, its population in year 2010 = (160/100) * x = 8x/5.
Thus, the population of city D in 2000 is ((x)/(8x/5)) * 100 % of its population in year 2010.
= 62.5 %
23. In year 1990 the population of City A and City B are equal and the population of City A in
year2010 is 37.7 lakh. What is the population of City B in year 2010?
(a) 38.4 lakh
(b) 42 lakh
(c) 43.5 lakh
(d) 44 lakh
Solution: B
It is given that, the population of City A in year2010 is 37.7 lakh.
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Therefore, the population of City A in year in 1990
(37.7) * (100/145) * (100/130) = 20 lakh
Therefore, the population of City B in year2010 is 20 lakh.
The population of city B in 2010 = 20 * (140/100)*(150/100) = 42 lakh.
24. If the population of City C in year 2010 and that of City D in year 2000 are equal and they
are27.2 lakh each. The population of City C in year 1990 is what percentage of population of
City D in the same year?
(a) 50%
(b) 75%
(c) 80%
(d) 120%
Solution: A
It is given that, population of City C in year 2010 = population of City D in year 2000 = 27.2 lakh.
Therefore, population of City C in year 1990 = (100/170) * (100/160) * 27.2
= 10 lakh
The population of City D in year 1990 = (100/136) * 27.2 lakh = 20 lakh.
The population of City C in year 1990 is 50% of population of City D in the same year.
Directions for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be
based on the passage only.
Passage – 5
Disagreeing with each other is a fundamental human trait. There is not a single individual
who does not disagree with something or the other all the time. Philosophers argue that a baby
meaningfully attains its sense of the self — its recognition of ‘I’ and the concept of ‘mine’ — when
it first begins to say ‘no’. At a primordial level, we become individuals only through this act of
stating our disagreement. There is no family without dissent between parents and the children, or
between the siblings. A family which learns to deal with dissent rather than authoritatively
dismissing it is a more harmonious family.
25. Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from
the passage?
(a) Dissent is necessary not only for democracy — it is necessary for the survival of human
race
(b) Dissent is the most fundamental of all human traits
(c) Growing up in an authoritative family leads to stifling of free speech and results in
lack of character building
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(d) Freedom of speech is the most cherished of all freedoms
Answer. A.
Statement B and D are wrong because it is not directly linked to the central idea of the passage.
Statement A and C do talk about the central idea of the passage. The example about family is
given to highlight that dissent is important even in families, so it’s importance for
society is emphasized. Hence statement C is not the most critical inference. Statement A
captures the inference in the most logical and critical manner.
Direction for the following 4 (four) items: Consider the given information and answer the four
items that follow:
In the following charts, the first pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of total
students studying in different schools and the second pie-chart shows the percentage distribution
of total girl students studying in these schools. Total number of students in all the schools together
is 30000 and the ratio of boys to girls is 3:2.
Chart 1
Chart 2
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26. What is the difference between the total number of boys and the total number of girls
studying in School D?
(a) 2020
(b) 2040
(c) 2066
(d) 2680
Solution: B
Total students = 30000 * 0.18 = 5400
Girls among them = 12000 * 0.14 = 1680
Therefore, number of boys = 5400 – 1680 = 3720
Thus, difference = 3720 – 1680 = 2040.
27. The number of girls studying in School C is what percentage of the number of boys studying
in School E?
(a) 60%
(b) 70%
(c) 75%
(d) 90%
Solution: D
Total students in school C = 30000 * 0.23 = 6900
Total girl students in school C = 12000 * 0.18 = 2160
Total students in school E = 30000 * 0.16 = 4800.
Total girls students in school E = 12000 * 0.20 = 2400.
Therefore, total boys students in school E = 4800 – 2400 = 2400.
Thus required percent = (2160/2400) * 100 = 90%
28. What is the average of the number of boys studying in school A, B and C?
(a) 2150
(b) 2200
(c) 2350
(d) 2400
Solution: D
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Boys in school A = (30000 * 0.10) – (12000 * 0.15) = 1200
Boys in school B = (30000 * 0.09) – (12000 * 0.12) = 1260
Boys in school C = (30000 * 0.23) – (12000 * 0.18) = 4740.
Therefore, average = (1200+1260+4740)/3 = 2400.
29. The number of girls in School F is what percentage more than the number of girls in School
A?
(a) 25%
(b) 30%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%
Solution: C
The number of girls in School F = 12000 * 0.21 = 2520
The number of girls in School A = 12000 * .15 = 1800
Thus, required percent = ((2520 – 1800)/1800) * 100 = 40 %
Directions for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be
based on the passage only.
Passage – 6
India accounts for nearly a fifth of the world’s child deaths. In terms of numbers, it is the
highest in the world – nearly 16 lakhs every year. Of these, more than half die in the first month
of life. Officials believe that the reason for this is the absence of steps to propagate basic health
practices relating to breast feeding and immunisation. Also the large reproductive population of
2.6 crore remains bereft of care during the critical phases of pregnancy and post-delivery. Added
to this is the prevalence of child marriages, anaemia among young women and lack of focus on
adolescent sanitation, all of which impact child death rates.
30. Which is the critical inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) A lot of Indians are illiterate and hence do not recognize the value of basic health
practices
(b) India has a very huge population and the government alone cannot manage public
health services
(c) Universalization and integration of maternal health and child health services can
effectively address the problem
(d) The nutrition of women in child bearing age does not affect child mortality rate
Answer: C
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The passage talks about the lack of healthcare services which consequently leads to large
number of child deaths. Hence C is correct.
Direction for the following 1 (ONE) item: Consider the given information and answer One item
that follow:
The pie chart drawn below shows the spending of a country on various sports during a particular
year.
31. If the total amount spent on sports during the year was Rs. 1,20,00,000 how much was spent
on basketball?
(a) 15, 00,000
(b) 10, 00,000
(c) 1,00,000
(d) 1,50,000
Solution: A
Total spending = Rs1, 20, 00, 000
Spending on basketball = 12.5 % of 1, 20, 00, 000
Therefore, spending on basketball = (1/8) * (1, 20, 00, 000) = Rs 15,00,000
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: Read the information carefully and answer the
following questions:–
The following information is about the production of cars by 3 different companies from
Monday to Friday in a specific week-
The total production by 3 companies on Monday was 540 out of which one- third cars were produced
by Tata.
The number of cars produced by Renault on Monday is less than the cars produced by Tata on
Monday by the same extent as the number of cars produced by Maruti on Monday is more than the
cars produced by Tata on
Monday. The difference between cars produced by Renault and Maruti on Monday is 40.
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150 cars are produced by Tata on Tuesday, which is 100 less than the cars produced by the same
company on Wednesday. A total of 910 cars were produced by Tata from Monday to Friday.
The ratio between cars produced by Tata on Thursday to cars produced by the same company on
Friday is 5 : 6.
220 cars were produced by Renault on Tuesday, which is 80 less than the cars produced by Maruti
on Wednesday. A total of 570 cars were produced on Tuesday, which is 76% of the total cars
produced on Wednesday.
The number of cars produced by Maruti on Thursday is two-third more than cars produced by Tata
on the same day. Total 580 cars were produced on Thursday. The number of cars produced by
Maruti on Friday is same as that on Monday. 140 cars were produced by Renault on Friday.
32. Find the ratio between total cars produced on Monday to that on Wednesday?
(a) 18 : 29
(b) 18 : 25
(c) 18 : 31
(d) 3 : 5
Solution: B
By the deducing the information given above, we can get the following table
Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday
Toyota 180 150 250 150 180
Renault 160 220 200 180 140
Maruti 200 200 300 250 200
Total 540 570 750 580 520
The ratio between total cars produced on Monday to that on Wednesday = 540/750 = 18 : 25
33. Find the total number of cars produced by Renault from Monday to Friday.
(a) 900
(b) 980
(c) 950
(d) 960
Solution: A
The total number of cars produced by Renault from Monday to Friday = 160+220+200+180+140
= 900
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34. Find the average number of cars produced per day by Maruti from Monday to Friday.
(approximate)
(a) 230
(b) 220
(c) 270
(d) 240
Solution: A
The average number of cars produced per day by Maruti from Monday to Friday
= (200+200+300+250+200)/5
= 1150/5
= 230
Directions for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be
based on the passage only.
Passage – 7
The miseries of the world cannot be cured by physical help only. Until man’s nature
changes, his physical needs will always arise, and miseries will always be felt, and no amount of
physical help will remove them completely. The only solution of the problem is to make mankind
pure. Ignorance is the mother of evil and of all the misery we see. Let men have light, let them be
pure and spiritually strong and educated; then alone will misery cease in the world. We may
convert every house in the country into a charitable asylum, we may fill the land with hospitals,
but human misery will continue until man’s character changes.
35. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. The author gives primary importance to physical and material help in eradicating
human misery
2. Charitable homes, hospitals, etc. can remove human misery to a great extent
Which of the assumption is/are valid?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 1,2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. D.
Statement I and II are wrong as the passage gives primary importance to spiritual growth
in man in eradicating human misery.
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Direction for the following 4 (four) items: Consider the given information and answer the four
items that follow:
Eight boxes made of different materials- Aluminum, Iron, Gold, Plastic, Platinum, Silver, Steel,
and Wood. They also weigh different weights – 50,100,150,200,250,300,350 and 400gm not
necessarily in the same order. Two boxes are placed between the boxes weighing 200gm and 400gm.
The number of boxes below Steel box is more than the number of boxes above Steel box. There is
only one box between Steel box and Gold box. There are three boxes between Iron Box and
Aluminum box. The difference between weights of Plastic Box and the Platinum box is 350gm.
There are two boxes between Aluminum box and box which weighs 150gm. The Platinum box is
placed below Plastic box. There are three boxes between Wooden Box and Box which weighs 300gm.
The difference between weights of Silver and the Wooden box is 250gm. Box weighing 350gm is
below Gold box. The 100gm box is placed above 50gms. The heaviest box is either at the top of all
boxes or at the bottom of all boxes. The steel box is placed just above the box weighing 200gms.
Iron box is just above the Gold box. Number of boxes between boxes weighing 350gm and 50gm is
more than two.
36. Which of the following box is placed at the bottom of all?
(a) Silver
(b)Platinum
(c) Plastic
(d) Wood
Solution: B
From the information given above, we can deduce the following facts:
Eight boxes made of different materials- Aluminum, Iron, Gold, Plastic, Platinum, Silver, Steel,
and Wood.
They also weigh different weights – 50,100,150,200,250,300,350 and 400gm not necessarily in the
same order.
Two boxes are placed between the boxes weighing 200gm and 400gm.
The number of boxes below Steel box is more than the number of boxes above Steel box. Therefore,
steel box has to be placed between top and 4th from the top. (i.e 1, 2, 3 or 4 th place from top to
bottom direction)
There is only one box between Steel box and Gold box. (hence, respective possible positions of Steel
box and Gold box from the top to bottom are (1, 3) or (2, 4) or (3, 1 or 5) or (4, 2 or 6)
There are three boxes between Iron Box and Aluminum box. Hence, possible respective positions
of Iron Box and Aluminum box from the top to bottom are (1, 5) or (5,1) or (2, 6) or (6, 2) or (3, 7) or
(7,3) or (4, 8) or (8,4)
The difference between weights of Platinum box and the Plastic Box is 350gm. The only possible
way is either of one box must be 400gms and other is 50gms. Thus one is heaviest and other is
lightest.
There are two boxes between Aluminum box and box which weighs 150gm. Thus, Aluminum box
do not weigh 150 gm or 400gms or 50 gms.
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The Platinum box is placed below Plastic box.
There are three boxes between Wooden Box and Box which weighs 300gm. Hence, Wooden box do
not weigh 300gms or 400gms or 50 gms.
The difference between weights of Silver and the Wooden box is 250gm. Hence, weights of wooden
and silver box has to be either (350 gms and 100 gms) or (100 gms and 350 gms)
Now looking back at previous data we can say that Aluminum weigh either 200 gms or 250gms or
300 gms.
Box weighing 350gm is below Gold box. Hence, gold box do not weigh 350gm and also it cannot
weigh 400gms, 50gms, 100gms.
The 100gm box is placed above 50gms.
The heaviest box is either at the top of all boxes or at the bottom of all boxes.
From the above it is clear that heaviest box is at the bottom. And also since, the Platinum box is
placed below Plastic box, it clear that platinum is heaviest and placed at the bottom. Also, plastic
box is lightest.
The steel box is placed just above the box weighing 200gms.
Iron box is just above the Gold box.
Number of boxes between boxes weighing 350gm and 50gm is more than two.
From the above given data we can draw a following table:
Box Weight (in gms)
Aluminum 250
Wood 100
Plastic 50
Steel 150
Iron 200
Gold 300
Silver 350
Platinum 400
37. What is the weight of Silver box?
(a) 100gm
(b) 150gm
(c) 200gm
(d) 350gm
Solution: D
(From Table)
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38. Which of the following box is on top of all boxes?
(a) Aluminum
(b)Iron
(c) Plastic
(d) Silver
Solution: A
(from Table)
39. Which of the following combination is false?
(a) Aluminium-250gm
(b) Gold-300gm
(c) Silver-350gm
(d) Platinum-50gm
Solution: D
Directions for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be
based on the passage only.
Passage – 8
Preventing the exploitation of animals is not the only reason for becoming vegan, but for
many it remains the key factor in their decision to go vegan and stay vegan. Having emotional
attachments with animals may form part of that reason, while many believe that all sentient
creatures have a right to life and freedom. Specifics aside, avoiding animal products is one of the
most obvious ways you can take a stand against animal cruelty and animal exploitation
everywhere.
40. Which one of the following statement best sums up the key message of the passage?
(a) The only reason why people become vegan is to prevent animal cruelty
(b) Animal rights is ignored while human rights is talked about incessantly
(c) Adopting veganism is a logical means to achieve the end of prevention of animal
cruelty
(d) Cruelty on and exploitation of animals takes place everywhere
Answer. C.
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Option a is wrong as it is says that veganism is the only way to prevent animal cruelty. The
statement in option b is correct but is away from the central theme of the passage. Statement D is
extrapolatory. The summary is best described through statement c
Analytical (verbal reasoning); English Comprehension
Direction for the following 4 (four) items: Consider the given information and answer four items
that follow:
An uncertain number of persons sit in a linear row. All of them face north. Four persons sit between
P and Q. R sits fourth to the right of Q. M sits third to the right of P. O sits fifth to the right of G.
O sits the immediate left of S who sits third from one of the extreme ends of the row. Q sits sixth
to the right of T who is not an immediate neighbor of P. As many persons sit between R and G as
many between G and M. T sits second to the left of J who sits third from the extreme end. S sits
fourth to the right of M.
41. Who among the following person sits sixth to the right of Q?
(a) R
(b) T
(c) G
(d) M
Solution: C
Arrangement
G sits sixth to the right of Q.
42. If N sits immediate right of M then how many persons sits between N and S?
(a) Seven
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Three
Solution: B
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If N sits immediate right of M then two persons sits between N and S
43. Who among the following person sits seventh to the left of S?
(a) P
(b) M
(c) G
(d) T
Solution: A
P sits seventh to the left of S.
44. How many persons sit between O and S?
(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) None
(d) One
Solution: C
No one sit between O and S.
Directions for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be
based on the passage only.
Passage – 9
Education, without a doubt, has an important functional, instrumental and utilitarian
dimension. This is revealed when one asks questions such as ‘what is the purpose of education?’.
The answers, too often, are ‘to acquire qualifications for employment/ upward mobility’,
‘wider/higher (in terms of income) opportunities’, and ‘to meet the needs for trained human power
in diverse fields for national development’. But in its deepest sense education is not
instrumentalist. That is to say, it is not to be justified outside of itself because it leads to the
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acquisition of formal skills or of certain desired psychological – social attributes. It must be
respected in itself. Education is thus not a commodity to be acquired or possessed and then used,
but a process of inestimable importance to individuals and society, although it can and does have
enormous use value. Education then, is a process of expansion and conversion, not in the sense of
converting or turning students into doctors or engineers, but the widening and turning out of the
mind—the creation, sustenance and development of self-critical awareness and independence of
thought. It is an inner process of moral-intellectual development.
45. According to the passage, education must be respected in itself because
(a) it helps to acquire qualifications for employment
(b) it helps in upward mobility and acquiring social status
(c) it is an inner process of moral and intellectual development
(d) All the (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context
Answer. A.
The passage clearly suggests that education is not instrumentalist in its deepest sense. But the
opening sentence calls it to be functional, instrumental and utilitarian. Thus the instrumentalist
view of education is the functional and utilitarian dimension in its purposes.
Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the given information and answer the three
items that follow:
A family consists of six members P, Q, R, X, Y and Z.
Q is the son of R but R is not the mother of Q.
P and R are married couple.
Y is the brother of R.
X is the daughter of P.
Z is the brother of P.
46. Who is the brother–in-law of R?
(a) P
(b) Z
(c) Y
(d) X
Solution: B
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As per the given information, we can derive following information:
A family consists of six members P, Q, R, X, Y and Z.
Q (male) is the son of R but R is not the mother of Q.
Therefore, R (male) must be father of Q.
P and R are married couple.
Therefore, P (female) is mother of Q.
Y (male) is the brother of R.
Therefore, Y is uncle of Q.
X (female) is the daughter of P.
Therefore, P is mother X (daughter) and Q (Son).
Z (male) is the brother of P.
Therefore, Z is uncle of X and Q; and Z is brother-in-law of R.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
47. How many female members are there in the family?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Solution: B
As already solved in previous question, it is clear that there are two female members (P and X) in
the family and remaining four (Q, R, Y and Z) are male members of the family.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
48. Which of these is a pair of brothers?
(a) P and X
(b) P and Z
(c) Q and X
(d) R and Y
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Solution: D
As per the given information, it is clear that R and Y are brothers.
49. Nurse Usha has worked more night shifts in a row than Nurse Asha, who has worked five.
Nurse Minty has worked fifteen night shifts in a row, more than Nurses Usha and Asha
combined. Nurse Monica has worked eight night shifts in a row, less than Nurse Usha. How
many night shifts in a row has Nurse Usha worked?
(a) eight
(b) nine
(c) ten
(d) eleven
Solution: B
From the given data,
Asha has worked five night shifts in a row.
Minty has worked fifteen night shifts in a row.
Since, Minty has worked more night shifts in a row than Usha and Asha (5) combined. Thus, night
shifts in a row has Nurse Usha worked should be less than or equal to nine.
Monica has worked eight night shifts in a row. Since it is given that she has worked less night outs
than Usha, Usha must have worked nine night shifts in a row.
Directions for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be
based on the passage only.
Passage – 10
If a person suddenly encounters any terrible danger, the change of nature one undergoes
is equally great. Sometimes fear numbs our senses. Like animals, one stands still, powerless to
move a step in fright or to lift a hand in defense of our lives, and sometimes one is seized with
panic, and again, act more like the inferior animals than rational beings. On the other hand,
frequently in cases of sudden extreme peril, which cannot be escaped by flight, and must be
instantly faced, even the most timid men at once as if by miracle, become possessed of the necessary
courage, sharp quick apprehension and swift decision. This is a miracle very common in nature.
Man and the inferior animals alike, when confronted with almost certain death ‘ gather resolution
from despair’ but there can really be no trace of so debilitating a feeling in the person fighting, or
prepared to fight for dear life. At such times the mind is clearer than it has ever been; the nerves
are steel, there is nothing felt but a wonderful strength and daring. Looking back at certain
perilous moments in my own life, I remember them with a kind of joy, not that there was any joyful
excitement then, but because they broadened my horizon, lifted me for a time above myself.
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50. The author feels happy in the recollection of dangers faced and overcome because
(a) They brought him a new experience.
(b) They added a new perspective and lifted him above himself for a time.
(c) These experiences boosted his confidence.
(d) He felt elated as he was alive.
Solution: B
Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Study the following information to answer the question
given below:
If A + X means A is father of X
A – X means A is mother of X
A ∗ X means A is son of X
A / X means A is daughter of X
Then answer the following question based on the data above.
51. How is P related to R in P+Q-R.?
(a) Grandfather
(b) Grandmother
(c) Father
(d) Mother
Solution: A
P is grandfather of R.
52. Which of the following states A is grandmother of C?
(a) A - B + C
(b) A + B + C
(c) A / B - C
(d) A ∗ B - C
Solution: A
A – B + C means A is grandmother of C.
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Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Study the following information to answer the question
given below:
53. What is the distinction in direct enlists and promotee Assistants?
(a) 210
(b) 280
(c) 180
(d) None of the above
Solution:- A
Total number of assistant= 15% of 7000 = (15/100*7000) =1050.
Number of direct recruits= 40% of 1050= (40/100*1050) =420
Number of promotee associates = (1050-420) =630.
Required difference = (630-420) =210
Hence, option (a) is correct.
54. The promotee representative Clerk- I is roughly what percent of that of that of direct enlist
clerk – I?
(a) 10%
(b) 9%
(c) 10.8%
(d) 10.5%
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Solution: – C
Number of clerk I =19% of 7000= (7000*19/100) =1330.
Number of direct selects =90% of 1330= (90/100*1330) =1197.
Number of promotes= (1330-1197) =133
∴ required % = (133/1197*100) %= 13300/1197%=10.8%
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Directions for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be
based on the passage only.
Passage – 11
The poor especially in market economies, need the strength that collectives offer for
creating more economic, social and political space for themselves, for enhancing their socio-
economic well-being and voice, and as a protection against free market individualism. It has been
argued that a group approach to farming, especially in the form of bottom up agricultural
production collectives, offers substantial scope for poverty alleviation and empowering the poor as
well as enhancing agricultural productivity. To realize this potential, however, the groups would
need to be voluntary in nature, small in size, participative in decision making and equitable in
work sharing and benefit distribution. There are many notable examples of such collectives to be
found in varied contexts, such as in the transition economies. All of them bear witness to the
possibility of successful cooperation under given conditions. And although the gender impact of the
family cooperatives in the transition economies are uncertain, the Indian examples of women-only
groups farming offer considerable potential for benefiting women.
55. Based on your reading of the passage, which of the following assumption(s) have been made
in the passage?
I. It is imperative for transition economies to have agricultural collectives
II. Agricultural productivity can be increased by group approach to farming
Select the correct code from below:
a) I
b) II
c) I & II
d) Neither I nor II
Answer. B.
Statement I is wrong as there is compulsion on the transition economies to go in for group
farming. The focus of the passage is all about the benefits of group approach to farming.
Hence II is correct.
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Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the given information and answer the three
items that follow:
Pie chart shows the percent of money spent by family on various item during 1999. Study the graph
and answer these questions.
56. If the total amount spent during the year 1999 including on savings was Rs. 120000, what
was the amount spent on Education?
(a) 12000
(b) 16000
(c) 13200
(d) 14,400
Solution: D
Total amount spent = Rs 120000
Amount spent on Education = 12 %
= (12/100) * 120000
= 12 * 1200
= Rs 14400
57. What is the ratio of the total amount of money spent on housing to that spent on clothing?
(a) 3: 1
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 5: 3
(d) 5: 2
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Solution: B
Amount of money spent on housing = 15 % of total spent money
Amount of money spent on clothing = 10 % of total spent money
Therefore, required ration = 15/10 or 3: 2
58. If the total amount spent was Rs. 1,50,000, how much money was spent on clothing and
transport together in Rupees?
(a) 25000
(b) 37500
(c) 22500
(d) 15000
Solution: C
Total amount spent = Rs 1,50,000
Money spent on clothing = 10 % of total spent money
Money spent on transport = 5 % of total spent money
The money spent on clothing and transport together is 15 %
= (15/100) * 1,50,000
=15 * 1500
=Rs 22500
59. How many rectangles are present in the given figure?
(a) 15
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 24
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Solution: A
The rectangles that we get from the given figure are,
AEOH, EBFO, OFCG, HOGD, AEGD, EBCG, ABFH, HFCD, ABCD, EIJF, HEFG, LHGK, IJGH,
EFKL and IJKL.
Thus, we get 15 rectangles in the above given figure.
Directions for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be
based on the passage only.
Passage – 12
The logical way forward for tax administration in India is to make GST reasonably
progressive, and yet, easy to comply with. Income tax could be less progressive. India should aim
for high levels of tax exemption ( ₹10 lakh basic exemption in the next two years), and a shift
towards a flat tax or dual rate regime (10% and 20%) over five years. This can be phased to coincide
with GST beginning to deliver higher revenues, so that there is no loss.
60. Which of the following is the most logical and crucial inference that can be drawn from
the passage?
(a) India’s indirect tax structure needs to be made more progressive
(b) Direct and Indirect tax policies need to move in tandem
(c) Indirect tax revenue is not as important as direct tax revenue
(d) None of the above
Answer. B.
The passage explains that the loss in revenue on account of reforms in direct tax can be
compensated through GST revenues which means that policy decision need to move in tandem so
that overall revenue is not impacted. Hence B.
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Direction for the following 4 (four) items: Consider the given information and answer the four
items that follow:
Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Candidates who appeared and passed in the test from four schools in six different years
61. What was the total number of failed candidates from school C in the year 2008 and the
number of candidates who appeared in the exam from school D in the year 2006?
(a) 335
(b) 331
(c) 322
(d) 332
Solution: B
Total failed in school C in 2008 = 354 – 258= 96
Total appeared in school D in 2006 = 235.
Therefore, total = 235 + 96 = 331
Hence, option (b) is correct.
62. In which year was the difference between the number of candidates who appeared and
passed in the exam from school B is the second lowest?
(a) 2004
(b) 2005
(c) 2006
(d) 2007
Solution: B
The difference between the number of candidates who appeared and passed in the exam from
school B is lowest in 2004 with the difference of 91.
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The second lowest difference is year 2005 with the difference of 110.
63. What was the respective ratio between the number of candidates who appeared from school
C in the year 2006 and the number of candidates who passed in the exam from school D in
the year 2009?
(a) 11 : 4
(b) 11 : 5
(c) 5 : 11
(d) 9 : 11
Solution: A
The number of candidates who appeared from school C in the year 2006= 693.
The number of candidates who passed in the exam from school D in the year2009 = 252.
Therefore, the required ratio = 693/252 = 11/4
64. Number of candidates who passed in the exam from school B in the year 2005 was
approximately what per cent of number of candidates who appeared from school A in the
year 2008?
(a) 80
(b) 70
(c) 90
(d) 85
Solution: A
Number of candidates who passed from school B in the year 2005 = 435.
Number of candidates who appeared from school A in the year 2008 = 546.
Therefore, the required percent= (435/546) * 100 = 79. 6% or approximately 80%.
Directions for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be
based on the passage only
Passage – 13
If political leadership fails to emerge, there is likelihood of military taking over power in
developing countries. Radical student groups or labour may try to raise revolution but they are not
likely to compete with the military. Military intervention, rule, and withdrawal from politics is
closely related to a society’s level of political development.
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65. In the context of political development, the assumption in the above passage is that
(a) political leadership is not an effective instrument.
(b) military fills in political vacuum.
(c) military intervention is inevitable for development.
(d) None of the above
Answer. C.
A close reading of the passage suggests that the passage talks about the military filling in political
vacuum in developing societies. Hence B is correct.
66. If a person cycled at 10 km/hr to the office from his house, he reaches 6 minutes late. He
reached 6 minutes early when he increased his speed by 2 km/hr. What is the distance
between his house and office?
(a) 10 km
(b) 11km
(c) 8 km
(d) 12km
Solution: D
Let the distance between house and office be ‘x’ km.
=>Therefore, time taken by the person to reach office if he travels at the speed of 10 km/hr = (x/10)
hours
=>Time taken by the person to reach office if he travels at the speed of
12 km/hr = (x/12) hours
Thus, time difference = (x/10) - (x/12) = (6x-5x)/ 60 or x/60 — (Eq 1)
Let the actual time the person is supposed to take to reach office be ‘t’ hours.
=>Time taken by the person to reach office if he travels at the speed of
10 km/hr = t+6 min or t+(6/60) hour = ((60t+6)/60) hours
=>Time taken by the person to reach office if he travels at the speed of
12 km/hr = t-6 min or t-(6/60) = ((60t-6)/60) hours.
Thus, time difference= (60t+6-60t+6)/60 = 12/60 hours … (Eq 2)
Equating the equation 1 and equation 2 we get x/60= 12/60
=>x=12km
Therefore, distance between the house of the person and his house is 12kms.
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67. How many words of 4 letters with or without meaning be made from the letters of the word
‘NUMBER’, when repetition of letters is not allowed?
(a) 480
(b) 360
(c) 240
(d) 360
Solution: D
To form the word we use arrangement.
The word NUMBER has 6 alphabets.
Therefore, to form 4 letter word from the word NUMBER is 6P4= 6! / 2!
=>6*5*4*3* 2!/2!
=>360
68. A started a business with a capital of 10,000 rupees and four months later B joined him with
a capital of Rs 5000. How much A gets more than B in the profit, if the total profit at the end
of the year is Rs 2000.
(a) Rs 1500
(b) Rs 1000
(c) Rs 500
(d) Rs 666.67
Solution: B
The ratio of the profits will be according to their investment X duration
Ratio of profits of A to B = 10000*12/5000*8
=>Ratio = 3:1
Total profit = 2000
Hence, profit of A = 1500
Profit of B = 500
Therefore, profit of A is Rs. 1000 more than profit of B.
69. In a row of 16 boys, when Parvez was shifted by two places towards left, he became 7th from
the left end. What was his earlier position from the right end of the row?
(a) 7th
(b) 8th
(c) 9th
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(d) 10th
Solution: B
Total number of boys in a row = 16.
As we know, when Parvez was shifted by two places towards left, he became 7th from the left end.
So, his original position from the left end = 9th
Position from the right end = 16 – 9 + 1= 8th
Directions for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be
based on the passage only.
Passage – 14
Ecosystems provide people with a variety of goods and services; food, clean water, clean
air, flood control, soil stabilization, pollination, climate regulation, spiritual fulfilment and
aesthetic enjoyment, to name just a few. Most of these benefits either are irreplaceable or the
technology necessary to replace them is prohibitively expensive. For example, potable fresh water
can be provided by desalinating sea-water, but only at great cost. The rapidly expanding human
population has greatly modified the Earth’s ecosystems to meet their increased requirements of
some of the goods and services, particularly food, fresh water, timber, fibre and fuel.
These modifications have contributed substantially to human wellbeing and economic
development. The benefits have not been equally distributed. Some people have actually been
harmed by these changes. Moreover, short-term increases in some ecosystem goods and services
have come at the cost of the long-term degradation of others. For example, efforts to increase the
production of food and fibre have decreased the ability of some ecosystems to provide clean water,
regulate flooding and support biodiversity.
70. The passage mentions that “some people have actually been harmed by these changes”. What
does it imply?
I. The rapid expansion of population has adversely affected some people
II. Sufficient efforts have not been made to increase the production of food and fibre
III. In the short term some people may be harmed, but in the long term everyone will
benefit from modifications in the Earth’s ecosystems.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I, III
(d) None of the above
Answer. A.
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Statement II is not correct as the efforts are being taken as mentioned in the passage. Statement
III is also not correct as the short term gain have resulted into long term degradation of other.
Hence A is the correct answer.
71. A bag contains 4 red, 4 green and 4 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random without
replacement. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn is green?
(a) 7/18
(b) 14/33
(c) 7/36
(d) 2/3
Solution: B
Total non-green balls = 8; hence chance of getting one in first draw = 8/12
After first successful draw, non-green balls = 7, also total balls is now 11
Hence, probability of getting non green = 7/11
Final probability = 8/12 × 7/11 = 14/33
72. One third of Ramesh’s marks in Arithmetic is equal to half his marks in English. If he gets
a total of 150 marks in both the subjects, how many marks has he got in English?
(a) 60
(b) 120
(c) 30
(d) 50
Solution: A
Let the marks obtained in Arithmetic and English be x and y respectively.
According to the given condition,
1/3 *x = y/2
==> 2x – 3y = 0 ….(i)
==> x + y = 150….(ii)
From (i) and (ii) we get,
y= 60.
Thus, the number of marks obtained in English = 60
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73. Aman’s age is a two digit natural number. If the two digits of the age of Mr. Aman are
reversed then the new age so obtained is the age of his wife. 1/11 of the sum of their ages is
equal to the difference between their ages. If Aman is elder to his wife, then find the
difference their ages ?
(a) 21 years
(b) 13 years
(c) 11 years
(d) 9 years
Solution: D
Let the age of Mr Aman be (10x + y) years.
and his wife’s age = (10y + x ) years
Then, (10x + y + 10y + x) / 11 = 10x + y -10y-x
(11x + 11 y)/11 = 9x-9y
⇒ x + y = 9x – 9y
⇒ 8x = 10y
⇒ x/y = 5/4
Thus, x = 5 and y =4 (because any other multiple of 5 will make x of two digits).
Thus, Difference of their age = 54-45
= 9 years.
74. Find the missing number in the series shown by ‘?’,
10, 12.5, 17.5, ‘?’, 47.5
(a) 15
(b) 27.5
(c) 22.5
(d) 25
Solution: B
The pattern is,
10 * 2 – 7.5 = 12.5
12.5 * 2 – 7.5 = 17.5
17.5 * 2 – 7.5 = 27.5
27.5 * 2 – 7.5 = 47.5
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Or you can observe difference is doubling in each case i.e 2.5 , 5, 10 and 20.
Thus adding 10 to 17.5 will make the missing term as 27.5
Directions for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be
based on the passage only.
Passage – 15
Corporate governance is based on principles such as conducting the business with all
integrity and fairness, being transparent with regard to all transactions, making all the necessary
disclosures and decisions, complying with all the laws of the land, accountability and responsibility
towards the stakeholders and commitment to conducting business in an ethical manner. Another
point which is highlighted on corporate governance is the need for those in control to be able to
distinguish between what are personal and corporate funds while managing a company.
Fundamentally, there is a level of confidence that is associated with a company that is known to
have good corporate governance. The presence of an active group of independent directors on the
board contributes a great deal towards ensuring confidence in the market. Corporate governance
is known to be one of the criteria that foreign institutional investors are increasingly depending on
when deciding on which companies to invest in. It is also known to have a positive influence on the
share price of the company. Having a clean image on the corporate governance front could also
make it easier for companies to source capital at more reasonable costs. Unfortunately, corporate
governance often becomes the centre of discussion only after the exposure of a large scam.
75. According to the passage, which of the following should be the practice/practices in good
corporate governance?
I. Companies should always comply with labour and tax laws of the land
II. Every company in the country should have a government representative as one of
the independent directors on the board to ensure transparency
III. The manager of a company should never invest his personal funds in the company
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) I
(b) II, III
(c) I, III
(d) I, II, III
Answer. A
Statement 1 is correct as it can be inferred from the information given in the passage that
companies shall comply with all the laws of land. Statement II and III are not mentioned in the
passage. Hence A.
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Direction for the following 2 (two) items: Consider the given information and answer the two
items that follow:
Six plays – A, B, C, D, E and F are staged on six days of the week starting from Monday to Saturday.
Play C is staged on Tuesday. Plays A, F and B are staged one after other in the same order. Play
D is not staged on Monday or Wednesday.
76. Which play is staged immediately next day to B ?
(a) E
(b) D
(c) C
(d) F
Solution: B
Day Play
Monday E
Tuesday C
Wednesday A
Thursday F
Friday B
Saturday D
77. Which play is staged on Thursday?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) F
(d) D
Solution: C
78. In a 1000 m race, the ratio of the speeds of two contestants A and B is in the ratio of 3 : 4. A
has a start of 280 m. By what distance will ‘A’ wins the race?
(a) 40 m
(b) 60 m
(c) They complete the race together
(d) 10 m
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Solution: A
To reach the winning post A will have to cover a distance of (1000 m–280 m), i.e., 720 m
Ratio of the speed of A and B is 3: 4.
By the time A covers 720 m (i.e 240 * 3), B covers 960 m (i.e 240 *4)
Therefore, A betas B by 40 m if A has start of 280 m.
79. A boy has four trousers and eight shirts. In how many different ways can he select a trouser
and a shirt?
(a) 36
(b) 32
(c) 24
(d) 120
Solution: B
The boy can select one trouser in 4 ways.
The boy can select one shirt in 8 ways.
The number of ways in which he can select one trouser and one shirt is 4 * 8 = 32 ways.
Directions for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to this item should be
based on the passage only.
Passage – 16
No Right is absolute, exclusive or inviolable. The Right of personal property, similarly, has
to be perceived in the larger context of its assumed legitimacy. The Right of personal property
should unite the principle of liberty with that of equality, and both with the principle of
cooperation.
80. In the light of the argument in the above passage, which one of the following statements IS
the most convincing explanation?
(a) The Right of personal property is a Natural Right duly supported by statutes and
scriptures.
(b) Personal property is a theft and an instrument of exploitation. The Right of personal
property is therefore violative of economic justice.
(c) The Right of personal property is violative of distributive justice and negates the
principle of cooperation.
(d) The comprehensive idea of economic justice demands that the Right of each person to
acquisition of property has to be reconciled with that of others.
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Answer: D.
Based on a reading of the last line of the passage, it is clear that right of personal property
should reconcile with similar right of others as well, which is captured by option D.
Extra Practice Questions
1) If two dice are thrown together, what is the probability of getting a multiple of 3 on one die
and multiple of 4 on the other dice?
(a) 2/3
(b) 1/3
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/2
Solution: A
The probability of getting a multiple of 3 on one die and multiple of 4 on the other dice (Multiple
of three on first dice AND multiple of 4 on the second dice) OR (multiple of 4 on the first dice AND
Multiple of three in second dice)
= (2/6 * 1/6) + (1/6 * 2/6) = 2/6 + 2/6 = 4/6 = 2/3
2) In one minute 2/11 of a tank is filled. How much time will it take to fill the remaining part
of the tank?
(a) 11 min
(b) 4. 5 min
(c) 10 min
(d) 6 min
Solution: B
Part filled in 1 min. = 2/11.
Remaining part = (1- 2/11)= 9/11
Let the required time be x min.
Therefore, 2/11: 9/11:: 1: x ⇒ 2x/11 = (9/11*1) ⇒ x= 4.5.
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3) Ratio between two numbers is 4:3 and their sum is 91, then find the smaller number ?
(a) 52
(b) 39
(c) 65
(d) 26
Solution: B
Given, the ratio of two numbers = 4 : 3
Let the two numbers be 4x and 3x
Given, their sum = 91
=> 4x + 3x = 91
=> x = 13
Smaller number = 3x = 39
4) By walking at 3/4th of his usual speed, a man reaches office 20 minutes later than usual.
What is his usual time?
(a) 72 min
(b) 60 min
(c) 54 min
(d) 48 min
Solution: B
Let his usual speed = S kmph
Let his usual time = t hours
Let the distance to the office = D km
We know that, D = S * t — (1)
New speed is ¾ of usual speed or ¾ S kmph
His new time = t + 20 min or t + (1/3) hour
Distance to the office remains same = D kms
Therefore, D = ¾ S * (3t + 1)/3
Or D = S * (3t + 1)/4 —- (2)
By equating (1) and (2), we get
S * t = (3St +S)/4 Or 4 St = 3St + S Or S * t = S Or t =1 hour or 60 min
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Directions for the following (one) item:
Read the following passage and answer the question that follow. Your answer to this question
should be based on the passage only.
Passage
There has been a significant trend worldwide towards regionalism in government,
resulting in a widespread transfer of powers downwards towards regions and communities since
1990s. This process, which involves the creation of new political entities and bodies at a sub-
national level and an increase in their content and powers, is known as devolution. Devolution has
been characterized as being made up of three factors—political legitimacy, decentralization of
authority and decentralization of resources. Political legitimacy here means a mass demand from
below for the decentralization process, which is able to create a political force for it to take place.
In many cases, decentralization is initiated by the upper tier of government without sufficient
political mobilization for it at the grassroots level, and in such cases the decentralization process
often does not fulfil its objectives.
5) Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can
be made from the above passage?
(a) Emergence of powerful mass leaders is essential to create sub-national political
entities and thus ensure successful devolution and decentralization.
(b) The upper tier of government should impose devolution and decentralization on the
regional communities by law or otherwise.
(c) Devolution, to be successful, requires a democracy in which there is free expression of
the will of the people at lower level and their active participation at the grassroots
level.
(d) For devolution to take place, a strong feeling of regionalism in the masses is essential.
Solution: C
The passage states that the devolution of power gains legitimacy when there is a demand for it
from lower level. It is important to have free expression of the will of the people as the passage
states that people at the lower level should be able to create a political force for it which would
require active participation at the grassroot level. Hence C.
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