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Q: Which gradient is treated as steep gradient for roller bearing
or bogie wagon?
A: 1:400
Q: From where signal overlap distance is reckoned in case of
single line?
A: From outermost trailing point.
Q: What is the distance of passenger warning board from first
stop signal of a station or gate stop signal?
A: 960meters.
Q: Block overlap distance or signal overlap distance- which can
be substituted?
A: Signal overlap distance.
Q: What should be the minimum gradient in ghat section?
A: 1:200 and gradient is continuous
Q: From where signal overlap distance in multiple aspect
signalling is counted in case of single line?
A: 120 meters from outermost trailing point.
Q: What is the colour of the post of inner distance signal?
A: White.
Q: What signals are used to receive a train in obstructed line?
A: Calling on /Shunt signal.
Q: Name a fixed signal which cannot be placed on a separate
post?
A: Calling on signal.
Q: What is the maximum speed of a train guided by shunt
signal?
A: 15KMPH
Q: What is the maximum speed of train in automatic block
system during fog if automatic signal is found double
yellow?
A: 30 KMPH.
Q: What is the speed of train at Dock platform?
A: 10 KMPH.
Q: What is the speed of train if automatic brake fails?
A: 8KMPH.
Q: What is the speed of train during non-interlock work?
A: 15 KMPH.
Q: What is the maximum speed of train during fog in absolute
block system?
A: 60 KMPH.
Q: What is the validity period of Station Working Rule?
A: 5 correction slip or 5 years whichever is earlier.
Q: What is the distance between Starter and Advance starter
signal at a station in double line section?
A: 120 meters.
SHORT QUESTION-ANSWER
Q: What form will be issued to send ART in occupied block
section in absolute block system?
A: TA-602.
Q: What form will be issued in case of prolonged failure of
automatic signals but communication not available?
A: TB-912.
Q: What form will be issued in case of single line working on
double line in absolute block system?
A: TD-602
Q: Name a form which is issued by guard to the driver?
A: T-609.
Q: What is the form number of Fog Signal Register?
A: OPT-124.
Q: How many parts are there in OPT-124?
A: 4 parts (Particulars, Stock, Use, Testing- PSUT)
Q: What form will be issued in case of prolonged failure of
automatic signals but communication available?
A: TD-912.
Q: What form is used in case of total failure of communication
on double line in absolute block system?
A: TC-602.
Q: What will be the speed of train in case of total failure of
communication in double line?
A: 25/10/ KMPH/WP
Q: What will be the speed of second and subsequent train in
case of single line working on double line in absolute block
system?
A: Booked speed.
Q: Mock Drill is done once in every -------- months.
A: 2 months.
Q: Distance of caution indicator board from speed restriction
zone is --------.
A: 1200 meters.
Q: Turn out time of ART at night is--------------.
A: 45 minutes.
Q: Turn out time of medical van in case of single exit siding is -
-----.
A: 25 minutes.
Q: In case of alarm chain pulling the whistle blown by the
driver is --------
A: Two short one long.
Q: In case of train parting whistle blown by driver is-------
A: Long short long short.
Q: If railway crane is required it will be available at--------- in
our Division.
A: Beliaghata(Sealdah)
Q: What will be the speed of train via wrong line during single
line working on double line on automatic block system?
A: Not more than 25 kmph.
Q: In case of point zone track failure which button is used to
operate point?
A: EWN button.
Q: For cancelling signal overlap which button is used?
A: EOVN button.
Q: What is the shunting speed of a coaching vehiclewith
occupants?
A: 5-8 KMPH.
Q: How many appendices are there in SWR?
A: 7 appendices
Q: What safety distance should be maintained with live OHE?
A: 2 meter (7 feet)
Q: What is described in Appendix 7 of SWR?
A: Working of trains in Electrified Sections.
Q: Which buttons are used to cancel line clear in UFSBI?
A: Cancel co-operation button and Cancel button.
Q: Fog Signal Post is provided at ------ meters away from first
stop signal of a block station.
A: 270 meters.
Q: Which officer put his signature in appendix D of SWR?
A: Sr. DOM.
Q: Which officers put their signature in SWR?
A: DOM and DSTE.
Q: What is the full form of UFSBI?
A: Universal Fail Safe Block Interface.
Q: Before asking line clear through UFSBI what should be
verified by SM?
A: Line close indication-yellow, line free indication-green
and Line clear blocking key-In position.
Q: Which button is to be pressed in UFSBI to stop section
Buzzer?
A: ACKN black button.
Q: To take line clear via UFSBI which buttons to be pressed?
A: Bell button (black) and train going to button (red)
simultaneously.
Q: In case of failure of BPAC what is the first duty of SM after
arrival of a train at his station?
A: To ensure complete arrival of the train by seeing tail
board or tail lamp or by issuing T/1410.
Q: In case of failure of BPAC before resetting it what is the duty
of station master?
A: To notice error code. If we start resetting error codes
cannot be observed.
Q: Accidents are classified in how many heads?
A: 5 heads.
Q: How many categories of accidents are there in I R?
A: 16 categories.
Q: During accident what is the first duty of SM?
A: To note down the time of first information.
Q: Can dead loco be attached with super fast train?
A: Yes.
Q: What is the normal speed of DMT?
A: 40 Kmph.
Q: Maximum how many persons can travel on a heavy duty
motor trolley?
A: 16 persons
Q: Minimum how many persons should travel on a motor
trolley on S/L?
A: 6 persons.
Q: Can we take off last stop signal for shunting?
A: No.
Q: What is the separation distance between two motor trolleys?
A: 100 meters
Q: What is the separation distance between train and trolley?
A: 150 meters.
Q: how to receive a train on a non signalled line?
A: Bypiloting with T/409.
Q: What register is kept by trackman to take signature of
driver at stop indication board?
A: Restriction Book.
Q: Can shunt signal be placed below advance starter?
A: Yes.
Q: During failure under which code can Relay room key be
drawn?
A: Code 5
Q: Name an approved substitute of signal overlap.
A: Sand Hump.
Q: What is the speed of B class ODC?
A: 40/16 kmph.(straight route/curvature)
Q: What is the speed of C class ODC?
A: 25/8kmph/dead slow.(Straight route/curvature/while
passing a fixed structure)
Q: Whose approval is needed to run C class ODC?
A: CRS.
Q: During foggy weather what is the maximum speed of train
in automatic block system if the automatic signal is double
yellow?
A: 30 Kmph.
Q: During foggy weather what is the maximum speed of train
in absolute block system and in automatic block system if
automatic signal remains in green position?
A: 60 kmph.
Q: What is ruling gradient?
A: Steepest gradient of the section is called ruling
gradient.
Q: What does oooooo(6) beats indicate?
A: Danger or obstruction.
Q: Why T/431 form is used?
A: Train Examination advice memo.
Q: Is repeating signal a stop signal?
A: No.
Q: Goods warning board is provided at what distance from first
stop signal or gate stop signal?
A: 1400 meters.
Q: Goods warning board is provided at what distance from first
stop signal or gate stop signal in Rajdhani route?
A: 1500 meters.
Q: What is the use of track circuit?
A: It indicates presence of vehicle in the portion of track.
Q: For reception of train in non signalled line, how far line
should be kept clear?
A: Up to outermost trailing point of the non signalled line.
Q: What is the authority to proceed on double line for motor
trolley?
A: T/1525.
Q: What is the form number of Conditional line clear ticket for
down line used in case of total failure of communication on
single line?
A: T/H602.
Q: What is the maximum number of person to board on a
motor trolley on S/L & D/L?
A: 10
Q: Before giving line clear to a train SM will exchange private
number with the gate man of non-interlock gate with what
information?
A: Train Number and time.
Q: What is written on OP/T124 part-I?
A: Particulars of fog signal man and their assurance.
Q: What is written on OP/T124 part-II?
A: Particulars of receipt of detonators and stock of
detonators.
Q: What is written on OPT-124 Part-III?
A: Particulars of fog, fog signal man on duty, number of
detonators used, date, and time.
Q: What is written on OP/T124 Part-IV?
A: Particulars of testing of detonators.
Q: What is the distance between speed indicator and speed
restriction zone?
A: 30 meters.
Q: What is the distance between stop indicator and speed
restriction zone?
A: 30 meters.
Q: What is the speed of goods train in case of bad riding in the
section?
A: 16 kmph.
Q: For how long records of caution orders are preserved in
station?
A: One year.
Q: For how long records of accident cases of serious nature is
preserved in station?
A: 5 years.
Q: During line clear through VHF set which number sheet is
used?
A: Identification number sheet.
Q: What whistle code is used by driver for train parting?
A: Long Short Long Short
Q: What whistle code is given by driver if fouling mark is not
clear?
A: Long- Long- Long
Q: What whistle code is given by the driver if token is lost?
A: Short Long Short.
Q: What whistle code is given by the driver in case of ACP?
A: Short Short Long.
Q: What will be the maximum speed of DMT if engine pushes
the load but brake van leading?
A: 25 kmph.
Q: Who issue Working Time Table?
A: PCOM
Q: What is the minimum distance between two automatic
signals?
A: 1000meters.
Q: What is the distance between caution indicator board and
speed indicator board?
A: 1170 meters.
Q: What is the form number of caution register?
A: OP/T-91.
Q: The violation of which rule is called breach of block rule?
A: GR 8.01
Q: Who determines booked speed?
A: PCOM
Q: Which form is issued by guard to the driver in case of goods
train parting?
A: T/609
Q: Who is the authorised person to take relay room key?
A: AuthorisedS&T staff whose names are listed in SI-24.
Q: At the time of cancellation of S&T/DN what is the duty of
SM?
A: To check interlocking.
Q: If night patrol man does not turn up as per beat chart what
speed restriction should be imposed?
A: 40kmph.
Q: What will be the speed of EMU if water level rises above rail
level upto 5 cm?
A: 5 kmph.
Q: Suppose home signal at your station has been uprooted due
to violent storm. How will you receive a train?
A: By piloting with T/409
Q: In which condition you may put back a signal?
A: To avoid an accident. Point should not be altered until
SMis personally satisfied that the train has stopped
completely.
Q: What is Golden hour?
A: One hour just after an accident.
Q: What will be the speed of train while entering dead end
platform?
A: 15kmph.
Q: What is the main difference between DLBI and UFSBI?
A: DLBI is co-operative in nature but UFSBI is non co
operative in nature.
Q: What is the life of detonators? A: 5 years. Three years of life can be extended by testing
each year. Q: How long a porter may be utilised as fog signal man at a
stretch during fog? A: 3 hours. Q: What is the safety distance of Fog signal man? A: 45 meters. Q: What is the full form of VTO? A: Visibility Test Object. Q: Distanceof VTO from SM room is---------? A: 180meters. Q: Fog signal man will stand with hand signal lamp of -------
colour after placing fog signal during fog. A: White colour. Q: Fog signal man will be a permanent/temporary staff. A: Permanent Q: A case of detonators contains ---- detonators. A: 10 Q: Number of fog signal register is --------. A: OP/T 124
Q: For securing hand brakes of at least ------- wagons to be tightened in case of goods train.
A: 6 wagons Q: For tightening, hand brakes to be moved towards Off/ On. A: Towards ON. Q: What is the maximum speed of shunting? A: 15 KMPH
Q: If motor point fails how it is set and locked? A: Set by Crank handle and locked by clamp & pad lock at
both facing and trailing ends. Q: Adequate distance for shunting is -----------? A: 20 meters Q: Name a signal which cannot be used for shunting. A: Home/Advance starter (first stop and last stop signal of
the station) Q: Which copy of T369 (3b) is given to the driver? A: First copy. Q: What is the form number of caution order? A: T/409 Q: What forms and what signals are used to receive a train at
blocked line? A: T/409, T/509, Calling on &Shunt signal Q: What is the height of height gauge? A: 4.67meters Q: What is the depth of check rail and gap between running
rail and check rail? A: Depth is 38 mm. Gap is 51-57 mm. Q: Where RW/L board located? A: 250 meters from unmanned level crossing.
Q: TVU of special class gate should be more than -----. A: 50,000 Q: Special class gate should not be closed for more than --------
minutes. A: 10 minutes Q: For calculating TVU, train is treated as ------ unit. A: 1 unit
Q: TVU is calculated for every ----- year. A: 3 year Q: Gate signal should be placed at not less than ------ meters
from level crossing gate. A: 180meters. Q: Whistle board is placed at a distance of ------ meters from
level crossing. A: 600 meters. Q: In case of obstruction at level crossing gate Jorider(staff)
with modified red should be placed at a distance of ----- meters from the end of check rail.
A: 5 meters/8 sleepers Q: In case of obstruction at level crossing gate first detonator
to be placed at a distance of ------meters from level crossing gate.
A: 600meters/9 OHE post Q: Which signals are used to receive a train in blocked or
obstructed line? A: Calling on or shunt signal. Q: For using hand generator at ELB Hand Generator Selector
Switch to be kept at ------position. A: Back up position. Q: If OHE parts first duty of gateman is--------.
A: Closing the gate. Q: More than ------- inactive wagons should not be marshalled
in one hook. A: Two inactive wagons Q: What is the form number of train intact register? A: T/1410 Q: Driver/Guard who will sign on T/1410?
A: Guard Q: In which danger gateman will not show red signal? A: Train parting Q: How distant signal can be distinguished? A: by seeing ‘P’ marker. Q: What is the dimension of hand signal flag? A: 50cmX45cm. Q: Which marker is provided at gate signal? A: G -marker. Q: Engine should be attached with LHB coach at a speed not
exceeding-----. A: 2-3 KMPH. Q: Name a fixed signal which cannot be placed on a separate
post. A: Calling on signal Q: When calling on signal is at on position it will show ------
light. A: No light. Q: When shunt signal is placed below a stop signal it will show
----- light at on position. A: No light
Q: Shunting speed of passenger coaches with occupants-- A: 5-8 KMPH Q: Shunting speed of wagons with dangerous goods is ------. A: 8 KMPH Q: During shunting ELB handle should be kept at ------- side. A: Loaded side (black) Q: Normal aspect of automatic signal is -------
A: Green Q: Advance starter guards -------- A: Block section Q: Shunting order form number is --------- A: T/806 Q: At originating station who will attach engine? A: Assistant driver Q: If home signal fails we may use ----- signal to receive the
train. A: Calling on signal Q: Which block station will not show all right signal? A: Station having yard with it where shunting pilot works. Q: What amount of air pressure should be present in brake
pipe? A: 5 kg/cm square. Q: How many engines can be attached to a train? A: Three (2-Train engine, 1-dead engine) Q: If a vehicle catches fire it should be detached and separated
at a distance of ----- meters from other coaches. A: 45 meters.
Q: In which case before issuing T/369(3b) clamping of points is not necessary?
A: In PI, EI, RRI, SSI if complete route along with point lock & CH in indication appears in the panel& remain steady but only signal fails clamping of point is not required.
Q: What is the colour of angle cock of feed pipe and brake
pipe? A: Angle cock of Feed pipe is White but green for brake
pipe. Q: For detaching a wagon, angle cock from engine side or
brake van side to be closed first? A: Engine side. Q: What is the height of OHE at level crossing? A: 5.5 meters Q: After completion of shunting what signal should be
displayed by shunt man to the gateman so that he may open the gate?
A: Red hand signal. Q: Before showing red hand signal after shunting what will
shunt man observe? A: Whether fouling marks are clear or not. Q: If manufacturing date of detonator written on detonator
does not match with the date written on the box- which one should be considered?
A: Date written on the detonator is authentic. Q: How many sleepers will be considered as 10 meters? A: 16 sleepers. Q: Whose signature is to be taken on T-1410? A: Guard. Q: In case of failure of shunt signal which form is to be used?
A: T/806. Q: Mention an instance where red is all right signal. A: After completion of shunting red hand signal is shown
by shunt man to cabin or gateman. Q: What is the normal aspect of automatic signal? A: Green. Q: How will you come to know that a signal is automatic
signal?
A: By seeing ‘A’ marker. Q: What is the safety distance between OHE and our body? A: 2 meters or 7 feet. Q: During fog signal man will place first detonator at a
distance of --------- meters from ----------- signal. A: 270 meters, first stop signal (Home signal) of the
station. Q: Which hand signal to be shown by the fog signal man in
case of fog for an outgoing train in single line station? A: Green hand signal light. Q: How many fog signals will a fog signal man carry while
going to the Home signal for placing detonators? A: No of 20 fog signal. Q: What type of fire extinguisher is used in Indian Railway? A: DCP (dry chemical powder) type. Q: Why B and C are written on fire extinguisher? A: Suitable for B-class fire (inflammable liquid and
inflammable gas) Suitable for C-class fire (electrical short circuit) Q: State a difference between absolute block system and
automatic block system. A: In absolute block system there will be only one train
between two block stations but in case of automatic
block system we can provide more than one train between two block stations by providing series of automatic signals.
Q: What is the distance between height gauge and centre of
nearest railway track? A: 11 meters. Q: What is the distance between speed breaker and gate post? A: 20 meters.
Q: At the time of detaching engine from load which should be
done first- engine to be uncoupled or pressure pipe to be opened?
A: Pressure pipe to be opened first. Q: Before opening pressure pipe whose angle cock to be closed
first- engine or load? A: Pressure pipe of engine or engine side is to be closed
first. Q: After attaching engine whose angle cock to be opened first-
engine or load? A: Load. Q: At the time of shunting of wagons what should be the
position of knuckle? A: Open. Q: If we put ELB handle of the wagon to the loaded side, we
shall place it at which side- black or yellow side? A: Black side. Q: Name a form which is not issued to the driver. A: T/1410(Train Intact Register) Q: How many safety chains are required to stable a load of
roller bearing fitted wagons? A: At least 2 chains.
Q: Where the traffic gates are located? A: Within the outer most stop signals of the block stations. Q: If white light hand signal is moved violently across the body
– what does it mean? A: Danger/stop. Q: If green light hand signal moved across the body what does
it mean? A: Move towards the person signalling.
Q: If white light is moved up and down –what does it mean? A: Train parting. Q: If green light is shown moved up and down – what does it
indicate? A: Move ahead cautiously. Q: During night while coming on load for attaching which light
is shown on the body of the standing load near the coupling?
A: White light. Q: Which types of signals are used to control the movement of
shunting? A: Fixed signal, hand signal or verbal order. Q: What should be the minimum air pressure in goods guard
brake van? A: 4.7 to 4.8 kg/cm square. Q: Why all right signal is exchanged with the driver and guard
of through trains? A: To ensure all is right with the train. Q: Guard of which train will not exchange all right signal? A: Guard of that train whose guard brake is air condition
will not exchange all right signal. Q: If metallic sound comes from wheel –what does it indicate?
A: Seizure of roller bearing. Q: What do you mean by day in railway? A: Sun rise to sun set. Q: What is level crossing? A: Intersection of road with railway track at the same
level. Q: During fire in a train burning vehicle should be detached at
a distance of ----- meters. A: 45 meters. Q: What is the form number of paper line clear ticket for up
train? A: T/C 1425. Q: What is the form number of NIL caution? A: T/A-409. Q: What is the form number of starting order? A: T/511. Q: How will you receive a train in non-signalled line? A: By piloting with T/409. Q: What should be done before taking out emergency key at
level crossing gate? A: Permission from SM under exchange of private number. Q: What is the form number of brake power certificate? A: Mechanical V-5. Q: What is the distance between two rails in broad gauge? A: 1676 millimetres. Q: How much air pressure should a feed pipe contain? A: 6 kg/cm square in feed pipe.
Q: After issuing T511 what should be the duty of points man/porter?
A: To pilot the train up to the last set of point of station/yard.
Q: At night time if Red colour of hand signal lamp becomes out
of order what will porter/gateman do? A: Wave white light horizontally across his body. Q: Suppose a goods train has banking in rear and Home signal
has been failed in face of that train. In that situation T/369(3b) has been issued. Driver of which engine will get the copy of T/369(3b)?
A: Porter will obtain signature of the driver of banking engine on the record copy and will hand over to the driver of leading engine.
Q: In case of failure of home signal after serving T369 (3b)
porter will show proceed hand signal from the foot of the defective signal or from point?
A: From the foot of the defective signal. Q: Will porter show proceed hand signal after issuing T369 (3b)
for Advance Starter signal? A: No. If advance starter guards any point then he will
show proceed hand signal after issuing T369 (3b). Q: Why DDJ, NH are exempted from showing all right signal? A: These stations have busy yard. Seeing all right signal of
porter drivers of shunting engines may be confused. Q: Before exchanging all right signal what should be ensured
by the porter? A: Starter signal has been taken off. Q: Which type of coupling is used in LHB coach? A: CBC-H type coupling. Q: Which type coupling is used in EMU train? A: Shaku coupling.
Q: Name a signal which can be passed without any form at ON
position? A: Gate signal/ Automatic signal. Q: What is the advance reservation period at present? A: 120 days. Q: Minimum how many engines are required to form Long
Haul?
A: Two. Q: What is the impact speed of BOXN /BCN wagons during
shunting? A: Impact speed of single BOXN / BCN wagon is 5kmph &
in case of atleast 5 such wagons in a hook is 2.5kmph. Q: Which type of wagons is suitable for two point rake? A: Covered wagons. For example BCN wagons. Q: What is the advance period for current reservation? A: 30 minutes. Q: Name an article which cannot be carried as luggage? A: Explosives. Q: Name an article which will not be counted as luggage? A: Ice box. Q: Name a form which is issued by the guard to the Driver. A: T609- Issued in case of train dividing. Q: Name a form which is issued by guard and given to the SM. A: C/67- Siding clearance memo. Q: GR is framed by--------------. A: Railway board Q: SR is framed by--------------
A: Authorised officer. COM is authorised officer in our zone.
Q: Which line will you prefer to receive a train having seizure of
roller bearing- loop or main line? A: Main line. Q: What is the indication of train parting? A: A white light by night or a green flag by day moved up
and down.
Q: What does AG- marker in a signal indicate? A: Point is set and locked but gate is either opened or
broken. Q: What is the full form of CTR? A: Combined Train Report. Q: What is the full form of VG? A: Vehicle guidance. Q: What is the full form of SLR? A: Second Class Luggage cum Brake Van. Q: Detonators are also known as ----- signals. A: Fog Q: Speed of train passing a signal with T369(3b) is-------- A: Not more than 15 kmph Q: Speed of train during NI work is -------- A: 15 kmph Q: Speed of train while entering a dock platform is--- A: 10kmph Q: Speed of train while entering a dead end platform is ------ A: 15 kmph. Q: Premium rake BPC is valid for -----
A: 12+03 days Q: CC rake BPC is valid for----- A: 35 days or 7500km whichever is earlier. Q: End-to end rake BPC is valid for------ A: Loading to unloading point. Q: Colour of CC rake BPC is ------ A: ff.
Q: Colour of end to end rake BPC is --- A: Light green. Q: Colour of premium rake BPC is------ A: Deep green. Q: What is the capacity of high capacity parcel van? A: 23 Ton Q: In case of AC failure in a train which form is given by guard
to the passenger? A: Guard Certificate. Q: Write four causes of late running of PASSENGER TRAINS. A: A) Non judicious crossing and precedence. B) Signal failure. C) In adequate platform facility at originating station. D) Banner flag by Engineering department at peak
period. E) Excess caution in section F) Fog during winter season. Q: What do you mean by one set of hand signal flag? A: 2 red and 1 green. Q: What is the speed of train running without brake van? A: Booked speed. Stop start at station if visibility is not
clear.
Q: What is the full form of BMBC? A: Bogie Mounted Brake Cylinder-a type of coach. Q: Which block station is exempted from exchanging all right
signal to the driver and guard of a through train? A: Station having large yard where yard pilot works. Q: Write two symptoms of seizure of roller bearing. A: A) Metallic sound B) smell of burning Grease.
Q: Which wagon is suitable for carrying coal, iron ore? A: BOXN, BOXNHL,BOBRN Q: Which wagon is suitable for carrying food grain, cement,
and sugar? A: BCN,BCNHL Q: Name a wagon which has bottom discharge facility. A: BOBRN
Q: What are the duties of station staff during fog? A: To check VTO frequently
B) Place two detonators 10 meters apart270meters away from first stopsignal
C) Not to advance any train up to advanceStarterwithout getting lineClear.
D) To lit all the white lights at the station, gate. E) Not to instruct driver regarding aspectofsignalthrough VHF set.
Q: What are the duties of running staff during fog? A: A) Guard should ensure tail lamp at the back of the
train. B) Driver to ensure prescribed speed during fog. C) Driver should carry first stop signal location
kilometre chart. Q: Write the rake composition of the following wagons:- A: BOXN- 59 BCN-42
BTPN-50 BOBRN-59 BOBYN-53 Q: Name three essential equipment’s of guard. A: Detonator, hand signal flag, hand signal lamp, wrist
watch, walkie talkie, whistle, GR&SR, Accident Manual book etc
Q: What are the main duties of guard after train accident?(In
Short) Protection of site.
Collect and send information’s to nearest SM and control regarding casualties, nature of accident, nature of medical aid required, whether adjacent line is blocked or not, nature of assistance required etc.
Save lives of passengers then belongings of passengers.
Take help of doctors and railway staff available at the
train. Q: What are the things that are written on BPC? A: Issuing station/yard. o Type of examination. o Loco number. o Number of operative and inoperative pistons. o Brake power percentage. o Air pressure in locomotive and brake van.TXR staff
issue this certificate and hand over to driver and guard. Signature TXR, Driver and Guard is mandatory.
Q: Speed of train during detonator testing is ---- A: 8-12kmph. Q: Which class of ODC may not run during night? A: C-class ODC Q: when a passenger carrying train is called high speed train? A: If booked speed as well as maximum permissible speed
of the train is above 110 kmph.
Q: Dead engine may not be attached to a train consisting of more than ------ number of LHB coaches.
A: 21 No of LHB coaches Q: What is the life of detonators? A: 5 years. Life three years can be extended by testing
each year. Q: What is the full form of VTO? A: Visibility Test Object.
Q: Distance between Station Master room and VTO is---------? A: 180meters. Q: Fog signal man will stand with hand signal lamp of -------
colour after placing fog signal during fog. A: White colour. Q: Fog signal man will be a permanent/temporary staff. A: Permanent Q: A case of detonators contains ---- detonators. A: 10 Q: Number of fog signal register is --------. A: OPT/124 Q: For securing hand brakes of at least ------- wagons to be
tightened in case of goods train. A: 6 wagons Q: For tightening, hand brakes to be moved towards Off/ On. A: Towards ON. Q: What is the maximum speed of shunting? A: 15 KMPH Q: If motor point fails how is it set and locked? A: Set by Crank handle and lock by clamp at both facing
and trailing ends.
Q: Adequate distance for shunting is -----------? A: 20 meters Q: Name a signal which cannot be used for shunting. A: Home/Advance starter(first stop and last stop signal of
the station) Q: What forms and what signals are used to receive a train at
blocked line?
A: T409/T509. Calling on/Shunt signal Q: What is the height of height gauge? A: 4.67meters Q: What is the depth of check rail and gap between running
rail and check rail? A: Depth is 38 mm. Gap is 51-57 mm.
Q: Where RW/l board located? A: 250 meters from unmanned level crossing. Q: TVU of special class gate should be more than -----------. A: 50,000 Q: For calculating TVU, train is treated as ------ unit. A: 1 unit Q: TVU is calculated for every ----- year. A: 3 year Q: Gate signal should be placed at not less than ------ meters
from level crossing gate. A: 180meters. Q: Whistle board is placed at a distance of ------ meters from
level crossing. A: 600 meters.
Q: In case of obstruction at level crossing gate Jorider(staff) with modified red should be placed at a distance of ----- meters from the end of check rail.
A: 5 meters/8 sleepers Q: In case of obstruction at level crossing gate first detonator
to be placed at a distance of ------meters from level crossing gate.
A: 600meters/9 OHE post
Q: Which signals are used to receive a train in blocked or obstructed line?
A: Calling on or shunt signal. Q: More than ------- inactive wagons should not be marshalled
in one hook. A: two Q: Driver/Guard who will sign on T 1410? A: Guard Q: In which danger gateman will not show red signal? A: Train parting Q: How distant signal can be distinguished? A: by seeing P –marker. Q: What is the dimension of hand signal flag? A: 50cmX45cm. Q: Which marker is provided at gate signal? A: G -marker. Q: Engine should be attached with LHB coach at a speed not
exceeding-----. A: 2-3 KMPH. Q: Name a fixed signal which cannot be placed on a separate
post. A: Calling on signal
Q: When calling on signal is at on position it will show --- light. A: No light. Q: When shunt signal is placed below a stop signal it will show
----- light at on position. A: No light Q: Shunting speed of passenger coaches with occupants----- A: 5-8 KMPH
Q: Shunting speed of wagons with dangerous goods is ---. A: 8 KMPH Q: During shunting ELB handle should be kept at ------- side. A: Loaded side(black) Q: Normal aspect of automatic signal is ------- A: Green
Q: Advance starter guards -------- A: Block section Q: Shunting order form number is --------- A: T/806 Q: At originating station who will attach engine? A: Assistant driver Q: If home signal fails we may use ----- signal to receive the
train. A: Calling on signal Q: Which block station will not show all right signal? A: Station having yard with it where shunting pilot works. Q: What amount of air pressure should be present in brake
pipe? A: 5 kg/cm square.
Q: How many engines can be attached to a train? A: Three (2-Train engine, 1-dead engine) Q: If a vehicle catches fire it should be detached and separated
at a distance of ----- meters from other coaches. A: 45 meters. Q: In which case before issuing T369(3b) clamping of points is
not necessary? A: In case of panel, interlocking, Electrical interlocking,
RRI, SSI if complete route indication along with point lock indication appears in the panel, only signal fails clamping of point is not required.
Q: What is the colour of angle cock of feed pipe and brake
pipe? A: Angle cock of Feed pipe-White but cock of brake pipe is
green. Q: For detaching a wagon, angle cock from engine side or
brake van side to be closed first? A: Engine side. Q: What is the height of OHE at level crossing? A: 5.5 meters Q: After completion of shunting what signal should be
displayed by shunt man to the gateman so that he may open the gate?
A: Red hand signal. Q: Before showing red hand signal after shunting what will
shunt man observe? A: Whether fouling marks are clear or not. Q: If manufacturing date of detonator written on detonator
does not match with the date written on the box- which one should be considered?
A: Date written on the detonator is authentic.
Q: How many sleepers will be considered as 10 meters? A: 16 sleepers. Q: Whose signature is to be taken on T-1410? A: Guard. Q: In case of failure of shunt signal which form is to be used? A: T806. Q: Mention an instance where red is all right signal.
A: After completion of shunting red hand signal is shown by shunt man to cabin or gateman.
Q: What is the normal aspect of automatic signal? A: Green. Q: How will you come to know that a signal is automatic
signal? A: By seeing A-marker.
Q: What is the safety distance between OHE and our body? A: 2 meters or 7 feet. Q: During fog fog signal man will place first detonator at a
distance of ------- meters from ----------- signal. A: 270 meters,first stop signalof the station. Q: Which hand signal to be shown by the fog signal man in
case of fog for an outgoing train in single line station? A: Green hand signal light. Q: What is the adequate distance for shunting? A: 20 meters. Q: What is the maximum speed of shunting? A: 15kmph. Q: What is the impact speed of a single BOX wagonduring shunting? A: 5kmph.
Q: What is the impact speed of shunting of a groupof 5 box wagons during shunting?
A: 2.5 kmph. Q: What is the shunting speed of coaching vehicleswith occupants? A: 5-8kmph. Q: What should be the speed of coaches/wagons while shunting is
performed? with the help of hand signal? A: 5kmph. Q: What is the maximum speed of shunting of wagons containing
Petrol/explosives? A: 8kmph. Q: Name two fixed signals that can be used for the purpose of shunting. A: Calling on signal and shunt signal. Q: When starter signal can be used for the purpose of shunting? A: When Advance starter signal is provided and starter is free. Q: Name two fixed signals that cannot be used for the purpose of shunting. A: Home signal and Advance starter signal Q: After setting and locking of points man will show red hand signal/green
hand signal. A: Red hand signal. Q: After completion of shunting operation shunt man will show red/green
hand signal to the gateman to open the gate. A: Red hand signal. Q: What is the colour of the angle cock of Brake pipe? A: Green Q: What is the colour of the angle cock of feed pipe? A: White
Q: How much pressure does brake pipe contain? A: 5kg/cm square. Q: How much pressure does feed pipe contain? A: 6kg/cm square. Q: Give a reason of brake binding. A: Heavy leakage. Q: After giving line clear to a train shunting upto Home signal is permitted
or not? A: Not permitted. Q: After arrival of a goods train at a yard what thing is to be ensured first? A: Clearance of fouling Mark. Q: After completion of shunting and before showing red hand signal what
is the first duty of shunt man? A: To ensure clearance of fouling mark. Q: What is the form number of shunting order? A: T/806. Q: What is the form number of Brake Power Certificate? A: MECHANICAL V-5. Q: Who issues Mechanical V5? A: TXR staff. Q: What is the colour of Mechanical V5 in case of CC rake? A: Yellow.
Q: What is the full form VG? A: Vehicle Guidance. Q: VG is handed over to --------- (Driver/Guard). A: Guard.
Q: At the time of detaching engine, which one to be closed first-Angle cock of load/angle cock of engine
A: Angle cock of engine. Q: At the time of attaching engine, which angle cock to be opened first-
Engine/Load? A: Angle cock of the load to be opened first. Q: Which type of coupling is provided at LHB coach? A: CBC H type coupling. Q: What are the maximum numbers of engines that can be attached to a
train? A: 3 Engines. Q: Which safety items should be used to secure a vehicle against rolling? A: Skid, wooden wedges, safety chain, pad lock. Q: How will you understand that angle cock is open? A; Cock handle should be parallel to the pressure pipe. Q: What is facing point? A: If point can directly divert a train from one line to another the point is
said to be facing point. Q: When trap point is set at Normal position, trap is open or close? A: Open. Q: If the wagon is loaded Empty Load Handle should be placed towards
Yellow/Black side? A: Black side. Q: During securing of a goods train hand brakes of at least --- wagons to be
tightened from either end. A: 6 wagons. Q: At least – skids are required for securing of vehicle. A: 4 skids.
Q: At least --- safety chains with pad locks are required for securing of vehicles
A: 2 safety chains. Q: When a train is running what will be the position of angle cocks? A: All angle cocks will remain open but the angle cocks in rear of the
brake van will be in closed position. Q: What is the form number of starting order? A: T/511 Q: What is the duty of point’s man after issuing T511 to the driver? A: pilot the train up to the last set of point of the yard/station. Q: Which signals can be used for receiving a train in blocked
line/obstructed line? A: Calling on signal/shunt signal . Q: which forms can be used to receive a train in obstructed line? A: T/ 409, T/509 Q: When calling on signal is taken off it shows green/yellow light. A: Yellow Q: When shunt signal is taken off it shows two horizontal/angular white
light A: Two angular white light. Q: Where fouling mark is provided? A: Where two line join or cross one another. Q: If dead engine is to be attached with passenger train,where will you
attach it? A: In rear of train engine. Q: In rear of SLR how many coaches can be attached? A: Two.(3rd one may be attached but it must be Inspection Car) Q: Name some safety items that are used by a shunting staff.
A: Hand signal flag, hand signal lamp, clamp, pad lock, skid,safety chain etc.
Q: How many names can be entered in a reservation
requisition slip? A: 6 Names can be entered. Q: If dependant is included in a pass, total how many persons
may travel with the pass? A: 5 persons Q: Brake journey is permitted for a ticket more than ----- km. A: 500km Q: For a ticket more than 1000km maximum brake journey
permitted is------ A: Only 2 Q: What is the cost and validity period of platform ticket? A: Rs 10/-. Two hours. Q: What is the form number of major penalty charge sheet? A: SF-5 Q: What is the form number of minor penalty charge sheet? A: SF-11
Q: Name 5 made over points of Sealdah division. A: Gede with Bangladesh. Petrapol with Bangladesh,
Majherhat with Dock, CCLink East cabin with Howrah division, NaihatiLink Cabin with Howrah division.
Q: Name four superfast trains of Sealdah division. A: Rajdhani, Duronto, Darjeeling mail, Akal takth. Q: How many PTO s may be availed during a year? A: 4 PTOs Q: Which train travels the largest distance in India? A: Vivek Express. Dibrugarh to Kanyakumari.
Q: Which express train is not used for travelling purpose? A: Sanskriti express. Q: Which station in India has the smallest name? A: IB in Orissa. Q: Where is Integral Coach Factory located? A: Chennai.
Q: Where is Rail Coach Factory located? A: Kapurthala- Punjab. Q: Where is Diesel Locomotive works located? A: Varanasi Q: Where is Wheel and Axle plant located? A: Bangalore. Q: How may special CL may be availed by a staff who attends
TA camp? A: 06 days. Q: How many days a staff may avail special CL who donate
blood in blood donation camp? A: One day(The day of donating blood) Q: How many zones are there in Indian railway? A: 17 zones Q: In which year Shatabdi express first started running? A: In the year 1988 to commemorate the birth ceremony
of Jawharlal Nehru. Q: Who is the first and the present railway minister? A: John Mathai and PiyushGoyel. Q: Arrange in decending order according to length of railway
network.- India, China USA, Russia A: USA, China, Russia, India Q: Which is the longest and busiest railway line in the world?
A: Trans-Siberian Railway Q: Which train runs between Delhi and Lahore? A: Samjhauta Express Q: Which zone in India has the largest route kilometres? A: Northern Railway Q: Which is the largest marshalling yard in Asia? A: Mughalsarai.
Q: Where is National Rail Museum located? A: New Delhi Q: Name a station in India which has broad gauges, meter
gauges and narrow gauges. A: Siliguri Q: Who designed first railway time table? A: George Bradshaw Q: Which is the largest railway junction in India? A: Mathura Q: Which city has head quarter of three zones? A: Kolkata Q: Gorakhpur which has the longest railway platform is
located in ------- A: Uttar Pradesh Q: Fairy Queen the world’s oldest steam locomotive still runs
between Delhi and Alwar. Q: What is the longest railway tunnel in India? A: PirPanjal tunnel. Q: What is the mascot of Indian railway? A: Bholu- An elephant
Q: Which state in India does not have Railway? A: Shikkim Q: Name of DRM of our Division. A: Sri PravashDansana Q: Name of GM of our zone A: SriHarindra Kumar Rao Q: Name of Sr. DOM of our division.
A: Sri SouravDey Q: NAME OF CHAIRMAN OF RAILWAY BOARD. A: SriAswani Kumar Lohani Q: Child care leave may be availed minimum of ---- days,
maximum ---- times in a year. A: 15 days. 3 times Q: Counter signature of railway doctor is not needed on a PMC
for a period up to ---- hours. A: 72 hours. Q: How many passes a railway employ may get after
retirement? A: 2 set for service more than 25 years. 1 set for service
less than 25 years. Q: Recently which train caught fire in Birlanagar near Gwalior? A: Andhra Pradesh AC superfast express. Q: How many brake journeys may be availed in a privilege
pass? A: As mentioned in the pass. Q: Recently which train ran without engine about 13
kilometres? A: AhmadabadPuri express at Titlagarh station in Odisa. Q: What type of fire extinguisher is used in Indian Railway? A: DCP(dry chemical powder) type.
Q: Why B and C are written on fire extinguisher? A: Suitable for B-class fire (inflammable liquid and
inflammable gas)&Suitable for C-class fire( electrical short circuit)
Q: NAME OF CHAIRMAN OF RAILWAY BOARD. A: Vinod Kumar Yadav
Q: where green signal will be displayed?
A: From the foot of the signal.
Q: What is the width of Broad gauge rail? A: 1.676 Q: Which is the First Electric Train in India? A: Deccan Queen (Kalyan - Pune) Q: When did Life Line Express (1676 millimetres.Rekha) Started? A: In 1991 Q: Which year is declared as “Year of Rail Users “by the IndianRailways? A: 1995 Q: Which is the Longest Railway Tunnel? A: PirPanjal Railway Tunnel (Banihal railway tunnel) Q: Which is the Longest Railway platform in the World? A: Gorakhpur station platform (UP) Q: Which is the train running betweenIndia and Bangladesh? A: Maitree Express Q: Which are the states have no Railway? A: Meghalaya and Sikkim (building new railway lines) Q: Which is the World’s oldest working steam locomotive engine (train)? A: Fairy Queen runs in India
Q: What is the width of Narrow gauge rail? A: 0.762 Q: Where is the Headquarters of Konkanrailway? A: Bilapur Q: Which is the fastest train in India? A: Shatabdi Express Q: In which year Indian Railway board established? A: 1905 Q: Which is the first Railway station in India? A: ChhatrapatiShivajiTerminus(Victoria terminal) Q: Who is the first Indian to present Railway Budget? A: John Mathai Q: Who is the first railway minister in India? A: LalBahadurShastri Q Who is the first lady Railway minister of India? A: Mamata Benerjee Q: Which is the highest railway station in India? A: Ghum Railway station Q: Which is the longest Railway Bridge in India? A: Vallarpadam Bridge (Kerala) Q: What is the slogan of Indian Railway? A: lifeline of the nation Q: Where is the Museum of Indian Railway situated? A: Chanakyapuri (New Delhi) Q: Who was first female operator in Delhi Metro? A: Minakshi Sharma.
Q: Where has National Rail Museum been transferred fromDelhi? A: Rewari (Haryana) Q: First female to become the member of Railway Board? A: VijaylaxmiVishwanathan Q: Where is in India, longest platform situated? A: Khadagpur (West Bengal) Q: Where does the only train for women run? A: From Churchgate to Boriwali in Mumbai Q: After separation from India in 1947, Pakistan got howmuch long railway
track?
A: 11,200 km Q: When did Indian Railway Act Pass? A: In 1890 Q: Which is the longest railway zone in India? A: Northern Railway Q: When did Metro Rail in Calcutta start? A: 24 October, 1984 Q: When is Railway Day celebrated on? A: 10–16April. Q: In which rail region did the automatic signal system start? A: Central Railway. Q: How many Railway Recruitment Boards are there in India? A: 19 Q: In Indian railway, where and by what name did first touristrail start?
A: Palace on wheels in 1982 between Delhi–Jaipur Q: Where did first railway accident in the history of Indian
Railway occurred?\
A: In Morghat (Pure–Bombay root) on 5 January, 1869 Q: Which is the longest rail route in India? A: From Dibrugarh (Assam) To Kanyakumari. Q: Where did first monorail operate in India? A: From Sarhind to Alampur and Bhawanimandi to Patiala Q: What was the name of India's first indigenous steam engine? A: F–734 Q: Which is India’s first longest railway tunnel situated? A: Between Monkey hill and Khandala (2100 mt) Q: Where the longest rail tunnel at present situated? A: Peerpranjal rail tunnel, Banihal (Kashmir) Kajiguda division, 11 km. Q: Where is the biggest Electrical loco shade situated at? A: Mughal Sarai (Uttar Pradesh) Q: First telecommunication between guard and driver began in which train
on 20 June, 1982? A: Mumbai–New Delhi (Rajdhani Express)
Q: Whose formation took place on 14 April, 1951 as Regional Railway in
Indian Railway? A: Southern Railway. Q: On 10, July 1988, Shatabdi Express began for the first time between
which two stations?
A: Between New Delhi–Jhansi Q: On 1st March 1969 first Rajdhani Express ran between which two
stations? A: New Delhi–Howrah
Q: Name the first DC electrical rail engine? A: Lokmanya (CLW manufactured it in 1961)
Q: How many Workshops are there in Indian Railways? A: 44 Workshop Q: Who is the Minister for Railways? A: Piyush Goel Q: Where is the Railway Board situated? A: New Delhi Q: What are the currencies of USA, Dubai, Singapore, Australia,
Bangladesh, Russia, China, Sri Lanka, and Pakistan? A: Q: Who is Election Commissioner of India? A: Sunil Arora Q: How Many states are there in India? A: 29 Q: How many Union Territories are there in India? A: 7 Q: Who is the Chief Justice of India? A: Ranjan Gogoi Q: Who was called as Punjab Kesari? A: 1st Ranjit Singh and 2nd Lala lajpath Rai. Q: Where is the Railway Museum located? A: New Delhi Q: Who is the Head of the Indian Railways? A: CRB Q: Which Department handles health care of the employees? A: Medical Q: Who is the Head of the Zonal Railway? A: GM
Q: Who is the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu? A: E.K. Palaniswami Q: Who is the Governor of AP? A: Biswa Bhusan Q: Write any two allowances admissible to you? A: DA, HRA,NDA,NHA Q: Write any two allowances admissible to Railway servant? A: DA, HRA,NDA,NHA Q: What is meant by D & A Rules? A: Discipline & Appel Rule Q: How many sets of passes and PTOs are entitled to a Group D employee
who has put in 4 years of service? A: Pass 01 set andf PTO 4 set Q: Where is the only Degree College on Indian Railways? A: JamalPur (IRIMEE) S. C. Railway Q: What is SBF? A: Staff Benefit Fund A: Q: How many Trade unions are recognized on Indian Railways? What are
they? A: 17 Q: If an employee opts for widow-complimentary passes, he is entitled for
6 sets of PTOs. A: 4 SET Q: The lowest pay scale is Rs. 2610-3540. A: Q: The V Pay Commission recommendations are made effective from
01.04.96. A: NO Q: A peon of CPO’s Office can be posted to Vijayawada on promotion. Q: A substitute in Group ‘D’ is entitled to appear for selection to Gr.’C’ post.
A: NO Q: The pay scale of Junior Clerk is Rs. 4500-7000. Q: White paper is non-stock item. A: NO Q: Tables and Chairs required for an office are stocked items. A: YES Q: A supervisory official is entitled to draw a brief case for official purposes. A: YES Q: Employees with II Class pass are allowed in Guard’s Break van. A: NO Q: A Station Master is capable to cancel a train. A: NO Q: IRPS officers are recruited by RRB. A: NO Q: UPSC recruits Station Managers. A: NO Q: Stenographers are personal staff of officers recruited by them. A: Q: A Bungalow Peon is recruited by RRB. A: NO Q: Bungalow Peons are initially engaged with the approval the officer
concerned. A: YES Q: A substitute bungalow peon attains temporary status after 120 days
service. A: NO (3years) Q: Asst. Officers are entitled to a Substitute Bungalow Peon. A: NO
Q: Bungalow Peons are transferable to any Railway along with the officer to
whom he is attached. A: NO Q: Bonus on Railways is payable twice a year. A: NO Q: Monthly wages are paid to the staff on the first day of the month. A: NO Q: There are weekly and daily wage periods on Railways. A: NO Q: In case of any grievance, staff must approach the local political leader
first. A: NO Q: DAR action can be taken if any staffs represent their grievances through
MPs/MLAs. A: YES Q: No wages are paid during suspension since the employee is not required
to work during the suspension period. A: NO Q: Suspension means punishing the employee for coming late to the office
daily. A: No Q: Staff get half payment during suspension for unauthorised absence. A: No Q: The cost of spectacles is reimbursed under Mutual Benefit Fund. A: No Q: Wife and husband, if both working as peons can be posted in the same
office. A: Yes
Q: A group D employee should have minimum VIII Class qualification for
recruitment on Railways. A: NO Q: Pension is payable to a Railway servant who retires from service with 5
years’ qualifying service. A: No Q: If a Group D employees dies after putting in 2 years’ service can be paid
pension. A: No Q: Leave encashment is payable at the time of retirement only. A: No Q: Railway employees are given free food during IOD. A: No Q: Workmen get compensation if one is injured while on duty and in the
course of one’s duty. A: Yes Q: Group D employees are entitled to free diet while taking treatment as
inpatient in a Railway hospital. A: No Q: Un-married female employees are not entitled to Maternity Leave. A: Yes Q: SC/ST candidates are given a free pass to enable them to attend the
written examination conducted by RRB. A: Yes Q: 70% of daily TA is payable to a Railway employee on line beyond 8 Kms
for 3 hours. A: No
Q: A Senior Clerk can remove a peon from service. A: `No Q: AP Express runs between Secunderabad and Mumbai. Q: All Rajadhani Expresses are to and fro Delhi. A: Yes Q: Cattle can also be transported by Trains. A: Yes Q: Fish cannot be carried by passenger trains. A: Yes Q: The rate of Railway Time Table is Rs.125/-.
A: Yes
Q: The Railway Time Table gives the information about break journey.
A: Yes
Q: A pass holder cannot break his journey before completion of 500 Kms.
A: No
Q: A local train ticket is valid for 8 hours.
A: No
Q: Refund is granted by Station Master after two days of departure of the
concerned train.
A: No
Q: Full refund of fare is entitled on an unconfirmed ticket .
A: Yes
Q: The reservation charges are non-refundable.
A: No
Q: A privilege pass is valid for 4 months during which the holder can travel
any number of times.
A: 5 Month
Q: A TC should collect amount from ticket-less traveler if he is not a staff
only.
A: NO
Q: Ticket checking staffs are running staff who are entitled for running
allowance.
A: YES
Q: Drivers are non-running staff.
A: No
Q: Staff should be sober while on duty.
A: YES
Q: Breathalyser test is to test the driver whether he is breathing is properly.
A: NO
Q: Taking intoxicated drinks before 10 hours of commencement of the duty
is punishable under DAR.
A: No (8HRS)
Q: Peons are entitled to washing allowance.
A: NO
Q: Some trains are called freight trains because of their frightening speed.
A: NO
Q: CFTM looks after movement of Freight Trains.
A: YES
Q: Container Corporation sells containers.
A: No
Q: IRCTC stands for Indian Railway Catering and Transport Corporation.
A: No (Tourism)
Q: RailTel is a Department Of Railways Who Tells About Railways To The
Passengers.
A: No (Network)
Fill in the blanks Q: A bridge foundation having less then 2M depth below bed level in case
of archbridges and 1.2M depth below bed level in case of other bridges is termed as…Shallow foundation.
Q: Paint Zinc chromate primer confirms to IS …104…. Q: Paint Zinc chromate Red oxide primer confirms to IS …2074…. Q: Paint Red Oxide confirms to IS …123…. Q: Paint Aluminium confirms to IS …2339…. Q: Abbreviation of DFT ……Dry Film Thickness………
Q: Metallising is the process of spraying of …Zinc...or..Aluminium.. On thesurface prepared girder.
Q: Greasing of bearings of Steel girder bridges is done once I …Three.. years.
Q: Abbreviation of PTFE is……Poly Tetra Fluoro Ethylene … Q: Trolley refuges are provided at every …100 m on long bridges Q: Abbreviation of NRS …Numerical Rating System… Q: Abbreviation of CRN …Conditional Rating Number… Q: Abbreviation of ORN …Overall Rating Number Q: Abbreviation of URN … Unique Rating Number Q: Abbreviation of RUB …Road Under Bridge… Q: Abbreviation of ROB … Road Over Bridge Q: Abbreviation of FOB … Foot Over Bridge Q: Abbreviation of HFL …High Flood Level… Q: Stock indent form No is … S1313……. Q: Disposal of Unserviceable materials is under Form No. S.1539… Q: Abbreviation of RL-BF is …Depth from rail level to bottom of
foundation Q: Abbreviation WL is Well Foundation Q: Abbreviation of ON is …..Open Foundation Q: Abbreviation of CCN is …Cement Concrete … Q: Abbreviation of BF is ……Bottom of Foundation………
Q: Abbreviation of TF is ……Top of Foundation Q: Abbreviation of S is ………Sand…… Q: Abbreviation of C is ………Clay…… Q: Abbreviation of BC is ……Black cotton soil…….. Q: PSC is the abbreviation of….Prestressed Concrete….. Q: The minimum thickness of Metallising is 115 micron Q: The average thickness of Metallising is 150micron Q: The weight of rivet testing hammer is 110 gm Q: The URN of minor bridge shall be represented by its ORN Q: The abutment the weep holes should be provided one metre horizontal
and onemetre in vertical in a staggered manner. Q: Painting during night and early morning avoided because of dew Q: In important bridge the total linear waterway is 300 m or the total
water way is1000 sq.m. Q: In case of underwater independency diver will be employed in depth
beyond 10m should be medically checked Q: Renewal of loose rivet shall be taken up in end bearing stiffener when
the % ofhammer loose rivet is 30% Q: In case of distressed bridge category II, ADEN shall inspect the bridge
once in 6months. Q: Greasing of bearing shall be done with grease graphite Q: In case of bridge is distressed category I then special restriction of 15
kmph shallbe imposed
Q: The form number used for preparation of indent of stock item is S1313 Q: The form used for preparation of Indent on non – stock item is S 1302 Q: In case of transfer of material from one custodian to another through is
ST 47challan Q: As per GCC Engineer shall mean DEN / XEN Q: Approved special instructions are issued by ______CRS________ Q: Office of the Chief Commissioner of Railway Safety is located at
_Lucknow Q: Section 6 of Railway Act 1989 deals with ___Duties of Commissioner. Q: Statutory enquiry has to be commenced by CRS within __Day of
Accident +7 days of an Occurrence of a passenger train accident. Q: CRS will submit his detailed report to CCRS and other authorities’
in__60__ days. Q: An ideal time for surprise inspection is __00:00 Hrs to 04:00 (Last
Night)___ Q: Average speed of a goods train = Train KM? A: No Q: The holding of wagons in a yard is more than the working capacity, it
leads to _Yeard Congestion _. Q: The Divisional Control Office is under the Administrative control
of__DRM_________ Q: All defects in OHE are to be reported to ______TPC____________ Q: Power block is given by ____OHE___.
Q: In a control chart the horizontal row indicates ____TIME______ Q: Weather warning messages are issued by _____METEROLIGAL
Department_______ Q: Bans are imposed by _____DRM_________________
Q: In train No. 2723, the first number 2 indicates _long-distance
trains_/Destination Q: Primary train examination is generally conducted at __BASE STN._____ Q: Z R U C C means Zonal Railway Users' Consultative Committee
Q: .At Railway Board, presently the inter-change of wagons are monitored
by Director Wagon inter Change_______ Q: The speed of the goods train carrying C class ODC shall not exceed 25_
KMPH Q: CONCOR means ___Container Corpration of India Q: IRCTCL means __Indian Railway Tourism and Catering sevice_ Q: ___Durgapur__ is known as Dry port also. Q: Ranjitpura is known mainly for ___Railway wagon__ loading. Q: Ramagundam is known mainly for _Jammikunta, Kesoram
Cement_loading. Q: A R T shall be ready within_30___ minutes by day and _45_______
minutes by night. Q: Accident siren four long, one short indicates _Accident at our station
main block___
Q: The Station Master who gives line clear shall remain on duty till the train
has arrived and the __TOS_______ signal is given and acknowledged. Q: Verbal directions for shunting have to be accompanied by ____Guard____________ Q: In an accident where the damage to railway property exceeds Rs._2
Crore________, it is treated as serious accident Q: When a colour light distant signal is combined with a gate stop signal
protecting a level crossing, it displays _____RED____________ light in "ON" position.
Q: Normal authority to proceed for the Loco Pilot of a train on single line in
token less territory is __Lowering of LSS_____ Q: In double line section where an I.B.H is at 'ON' and telephone fails, the
Loco Pilot after stopping for 5 minutes shall proceed with a speed of __15/8____ kmph.
Q: Automatic stop signal is distinguished by Marker____ Q: Whenever a train is stopped on a gradient for any reason, it is essential
to apply the_____BreaK___ Q: When trains are run on T/D 912 in automatic block system, the speed
shall not exceed __25km/Hrs. Q: Speed of a train while pushing back shall not exceed __25__ Kmph when
the Guard is travelling in leading vehicle and ___8__ Kmph when not travelling in leading vehicle.
Q: In EMU /DMU, the bell code signals O pause O indicates Speed
Restriction Zone Over Q: Fixed signals out of use shall be distinguished by keeping Two Cross of
meter
Q: The brake power of Mail/Express trains shall not be less than ______90%_________ per cent en-route. Q: The engine whistles code for Guard to come to engine is_BREAK OF
BLULK RULE__ Q: The amount of air pressure required to be registered in the FP gauge of
the BV of a passenger carrying train is __6KG_________ Q: W.T.T. is published on the orders of __PCOM_. Q: The number of trains which can be run on a section in 24 hours is
termed as __Sectional Capacity_. Q: Section will be considered saturated (related to line capacity) if the
number of trains run daily are __GRBATIR____ of the charted capacity. Q: The following are some of the methods available for determining the
Line capacity. (1)___SCOTTS FORMULA___(2) BX-GIP FORMULA AMERICAN FORMULA_.
Q: FOIS means__Freight Operations Information System ___ Q: COIS means __Coaching Operation Information System_ Q: Wagon turn round performance is denoted in terms of _DAYS__. Q: If the number of wagon turn round days is more, the performance is
considered to be ___LESS____________. Q: SLO means ___Samalkot Junction ___ Q: The ordering of goods trains depends on the availability of EMPAES
LOADS_,Locomotive, Path and crew. Q: NR cell means __Not Received Cell _. Q: The time occupied for clearing a block section by a train which runs at
maximum permissible speed is called__MINIMUM RUNNING TIME_.
Q: At Zonal level the management of Passenger Traffic is looked after by
CPTM_____. Q: Time Tables are issued ___ONCE___year. Q: Accidents are classified under _5__ heads. Q: Train accidents are divided into CONSEQUENTIAL__and
__INDICATIVE_____ accidents. Q: An example of breach of block rule is ___TRAIN PASSING LSS AT ON
WITHOUT AUTHORITY_____________ Q: A fire accident to a passenger carrying trains comes under class ___B1-
B4_________ in accident classification. Q: The ADMOs shall check all the First Aid Boxes in their jurisdiction at the
station once in a____6TH MONTH__________ Q: DA stands for ___Dearness Allowance____
Q: CCA stands for __Co-Curricular Activities__
Q: HRA stands for __House Rent Allowance_
Q: TA stands for __Travelling Allowance _
Q: RCF is situated at __Mumbai._
Q: Bharat Heavy Electricals is at__New Delhi, India.__
Q: Nagarjuna Dam is in the State of_Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
Q: Konark Express run between Mumbai_to BHUBANESWAR (BBS)
Q: Osman Sagar is situated at_Hyderabad_
Q: Kovalam Beach is in _Kerala, state
Q: ICF is situated at __Chennai, Tamil Nadu__
Q: Sun Temple is at __ Odisha, India__
Q: Golcumbaz is at Vijayapura, Karnataka,
Q: QutubMinar is at____ Delhi, India._
Q: Charminar is at __ Hyderabad, Telangana,
Q: India Gate is at___ New Delhi, India___
Q: Gate Way of India__Mumbai, India.___ Q: Rail Coach Factory is at__ Kapurthala _ Q: Rail Wheel Factory is at __ Yelahanka, Bangalore__ Q: Integral Coach Factory is at _Chennai_ Q: There are __18__Zones in Indian Railways Q: There are___6__Divisions on SC Railway Q: Tar is a product of liquid of hydrocarbons Q: Steel Plant in AP is at ___Visakhapatnam Steel Plant,
Q: Fuel used for train Engine is_COAL_or_Diesel_. Q: Wagon Workshop is situated at__ Mettuguda and Lallaguda on S.C.
Railway.
Q: Carriage Repair Shop is situated at Tirupati,on S.C. Railway Q: ELS stands for ___Electrical System______. Q: Electric Loco Sheds are set up at Lallaguda(Secunderabad)on S.C.
Railway.
Q: Railway Officers are trained at _____Vadodara__ Q: A brother who is below ___21____ years of age can be a dependent to
be included in the pass declaration. Q: Lepakshi is in the District of __Andhra Pradesh______
M.C.Q questions and answers
Q: Which of the following statement do bear the title of Discipline and
Appeals Rule in Railways? (a) The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1968 (b) The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1966 (c) The Railway Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1968 (d) None of these
Ans. (C) Q: What is the current date from which the Railway Servants (D&A)
Rules, 1968 came into force ?
(a) On the first day of January, 1968 (b) On the 22nd day of August, 1968 (c) On the first day of October, 1968 (d) None of these
Ans. (c) Q: Which No. of standard form is used for issuance of Major penalty
charge sheet on disciplinary proceedings?
(a) SF-11 (b) SF-5 (c) SF-5 (d) None of these
Ans. (C) Q: Which of the following Rules of DAR 1968 does specify the
penalties?
(a) Rule-9 (b) Rule-11 (c) Rule-6 (d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Q: Board of enquiry appointed by the Disciplinary authority?
(a) Not more than 5 members (b) Not less than 2 members (c) Not less than 3 members (d) Not more than 4 members
Ans. (b) Rly.Bd’s Ref. E(D&A) 2000 RG 6-24 dt. 20.2.01. Q: Where appointing authority are not available who should be treated
as appointing authority? (a) Controlling Officer (b) DRM (c) GM (d) CPO
Ans. (C) Reference: Rly. Board’s No.E(D&A)63 RG6-23 dt.21.02.64. Q: Disciplinary Authority while passing orders for imposing a penalty
should invariably pass?
(a) Orders for penalty (b) Speaking order (c) None
Ans. (b) Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A)91/RG 122 dt. 21.2.92. Q: Who is the competent authority to make rule on RS (D&A) Rules?
(a) President of India (b) Ministry of Railways (c) Member(Staff) (d) Secretary Rly.Bd.
Ans. (a) Qn. When casual labours can be governed under the Railway disciplinary
rules?
(a) After 4 months from engagement date (b) After 6 months from engagement date (c) After attaining temporary status (d) After regular absorption
Ans. (C) Rly.Board’s No. E(NG)60-CL-13 dt. 13.5.65. Q: Recognised Trade Union official can be allowed to act as defence
counsel in DAR cases in
(a) 2 Nos. of cases (b) 3 Nos. of cases (c) 5 Nos. of cases (d) Any number of cases
Ans. (b) Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A) 92 RG 6-148 dt. 9.1.92. Q: (a) Which is relevant rules in R.S. (D&A) Rules, 1968 for common
proceedings?
(a) Rule 9 (b) Rules 11 (c) Rule 13 (d) Rule 20
Ans. (c) Q: If the disciplinary authority of a charged official is also involved in
the same case, this case should dealt with by the
(a) Disciplinary Authority (b) Revising Authority (c) The next higher authority (d) None
Ans. (C) Ref: Rly. Board’s No. E(D&A)90 RG6-123 dt. 09.11.90. Q: Whether the disciplinary cases initiated against a Rly. Servant and
RS(D&A) Rules, subsequently he is expired his case should be
(a) Continue and finalised (b) Sent to Rly.Board (c) Sent to GM (d) Closed
Ans. (d) Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A) 99 RG-6-26 dt. 19.6.2000. Q: What would be correct procedure when a faulty charge-sheet
requires modification/addition (a) Canceling the earlier C/sheet with reasons (b) Without canceling a fresh C/sheet may be issued (c) Continue the proceedings (d) None of these
Ans. (a) Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A) 2001-RG6-3 dt. 20.10.02.
Q: Which of the standard form is required to be used for issuing the
order of deemed suspension?
(a) SF-1 (b) SF-3 (c) SF-2 (d) SF-4
Ans. (c) Qn. How many Annexures are attached with major penalty charge
memorandum?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 4
Ans. (d) Q: A Rly. Servant punished with stoppage of increment simultaneously is
going promotion to the next grade. The penalty will given effect to the
(a) Promotion of the grade for same period (b) But not result in greater monetary loss (c) Retrospective effect
Ans. (a) Rly.Bd’s ref. E(D&A) 2000 RG 6-13 dt. 8.10.01. Q: A person appointed directly to a post grade or time scale of pay can
be reduced by way of punishment to a post in lower scale/grade service or to a post which he never held before?
(a) Yes (b) No (c) Can be reduce but his pay to be protected (d) None
Ans. (b) Ref. E(D&A)89 RG6-17 dt. 7.3.89. Qn. An acting Rly. Servant can be allowed to act as Defence counsel?
(a) 2 No. of cases (b) 3 No. of cases (c) 4 No. of cases (d) 5 No. of cases
Ans. (a) Q: How many cases are dealing a retd. Railway employee as a defense
assistant at a time?
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 3
Ans. (b)Ref. RB’s No. E(D&A)2002 RG-6-13 dt. 14.5.03 (RBE 83/13) Q: Which deduction from subsistence allowance cannot be made?
(a) House Rent (b) P.F.subscription (c) Income Tax (d) None
Ans. (b)Ref. RB’s No. F(P)62 PF1/14 dt. 12.7.73. Q: Which of the following deduction is prohibited from subsistence
allowance?
(a) House Rent (b) Income Tax (c) Court attachment (d) Station debits
Ans. (C)
Qn. Suspension is not a punishment. However suspension visits
employee with various disadvantages. Which one of the following is not a disadvantage as a consequence of suspension?
(a) During the period he can not leave Hq. Without permission (b) He need not sign attendance register (c) Privilege passes cannot be availed (d) No increment is drawn during suspension
Ans. (b)Ref.Rly. Bd’s No. E(D&A) 83 RG-6-17 dt. 13.5.83. Qn. When a Rly. Employee placed under suspension but only a minor
penalty is imposed, the treatment of the suspension period is as (a) Dies non (b) Non duty (c) Duty (d) None
Ans. (C) Qn. If an employee is placed under suspension on the date of
retirement, under who is competent to sign the charge sheet?
a) Charge sheet shall be signed by the Rly.Bd. b) Charge sheet shall be signed by the GM c) Charge sheet shall be signed by the Disciplinary authority as on the date of retirement d) President of India
Ans. (C) Ref. E(D&A) 2001 RG 6-3 dt. 20.10.02. Qn. Stiff major penalty namely.
(a) Compulsory retirement (b) Stoppage of increment (c) Reduction to the lower stage (d) None
Ans. (a) Qn. A Railway servant under suspension is entitled to
(a) Leave his head qrs. (b) Have passes for attending PNM/JCM (c) Act as defence counsel (d) None
Ans. (C) Qn. An employee under suspension can be called to appear at a written
examination required for selection to the promotion?
a) May be called to appear during suspension b May be called after suspension is over c)To be decided by the Disciplinary Authority. d)None of these
Ans. (a) Qn. Compassionate allowance in case of removed employee may be
granted under (a) Rule 20 of pension rules,1993 (b) Rule 64 of pension rules, 1993 (c) Rule 65 of pension rules, 1993 (d) None
Ans. (C) Qn. An employee under suspension, when he reports sick is eligible for
grant of sick leave?
a) Grant of sick leave b) Grant of extraordinary leave c) Grant of Half pay leave d) Not grant of sick leave
Ans. (d) Qn. How many types of standard forms that are used while initiating
action against any Railway employee under D&A Rules, 1968.
(a) One (b) Five (c) Eleven (d) Seven
Ans. (C) Ref. Rule No. 5 of DAR 1968. Qn. A Rly. Servant punishment with stoppage of increment for a
specified period and becomes due for promotion he should be promoted
(a) Immediate effect (b) After expiry of the penalty (c) With the approval of GM
Ans. (a) Qn. A Railway servant shall be deemed to have been placed under
suspension if he has been put in police custody for a period?
(a) exceeding 24 hours (b) exceeding 48 hours (c) immediate effect (d) none
Ans. (b) Ref. RS(D&A) Rules, 1968. Qn. 50% of subsistence allowance granted under?
(a) Rule 1342 R-II (b) Rule 1343 R-II (c) Rule 1345 R-II (d) None
Ans. (a) Qn. Review of suspension cases is done
(a) After 4 months (b) After 3 months (c) After 2 months (d) None
Ans. (b) Qn. What amount shall be taken into account for calculating subsistence
allowance in case of running staff?
(a) 40% of basic pay (b) 30% of basic pay (c) 50% of basic pay (d) 60% of basic pay
Ans. (b) Qn. When an employee under suspension is acquitted by a court of law?
(a) Full pay and allowance are granted (b) Half pay and allowance for granted (c) 75% pay and allowance are granted (d) No payment
Ans. (a) Ref.1343 IREC R-II Qn. Compulsory deduction from subsistence allowance?
(a) PF subscription (b) LIC premia (c) House rent (d) Court attachment
Ans. (c) Qn. ‘Gr C’ and ‘Gr.D’ employees under suspension may be given
(a) 3 sets of pass per calender year (b) 2 sets of pass (c) one set of pass (d) None of these
Ans. (C) Qn. Can a railway servant placed under suspension act as a defence
helper?
(a)A Railway servant act as a defence helper (b) Decided by Disciplinary Authority (c) Decided by GM (e) None of these
Ans. (a) Ref.E(D&A) 74 RG6-31 dt. 11.11.74 Qn. The limitation period of revocation of suspension of non-gazetted
employee caught red handed while accepting bribe in trap cases?
(a) 18 months (b) 6 months (c) 3 months (d) none
Ans. (b) Ref.88/V-1/CBI/5/3 dt. 30.9.99. Qn. Inquiry is not mandatory under Rule
(a) Rule 5 (b) Rule 14(ii)
(c) Rule (13) (d) None
Ans. (b) Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A) 85 RG-6-72 dt. 16.5.86. Qn. D&A Rules 1968 will not apply to
(a) Permanent employee (b) Apprentice (c) Casual lab our with temporary status (d) None
Ans. (b) Qn. Whether Sr.Section Engineer are empowered to suspend a Jr.clerk in
scale RS.3050-4050 (RSRP) working under his control?
(a) Sr.Section Engineer is Competent Authority (b) Depends upon offence (c) Office Supdt. is competent authority (d) None of these
Ans. (a) Ref. As per DOP in schedule II. Qn. Inquiry officer’s report is to be supplied to
(a) Presenting officer (b) Controlling officer (c) Charged officer (d) None
Ans. (C) Ref. E(D&A) RG 6-151 dt. 10.11.89
Qn. On transfer from one division to another division, a staff does not report for duty at the new place of posting who will be the competent authority for taking disciplinary action?
(a) GM (b) D&A Authority at new place (c) D&A authority at old place (d) None
Ans. (2) Ref. E(D&A) 69 RG 6-8 dt. 29.9.69. Qn. The notice of final penalty should be signed by
(a) Enquiry officer (b) Controlling officer (c) Disciplinary authority (d) None
Ans. (C) Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A)67 RG 6-35 dt. 20.12.67. Qn. What would be appropriate disciplinary authority when staff
working under the administrative control of DOM and misconduct pertains to violations of Commercial rule or safety rules?
(a) DCM/Sr.DCM (b) DSO/Sr.DSO (c) DOM/Sr.DOM (d) DPO/Sr.DPO
Ans. (C) E(D&A) 2001 RG-3 dt. 20.10.02. Qn. All DAR cases are to be completed within the model time scheduled
fixed by the Rly.Board.
(a) 202 days (b) 300 days (c) 150 days
Ans. (c) 150 days
Qn. Under which Rule of the R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 the appellate
authority can act as revising authority?
(a) Rule-25 (b) Rule - 25 A (c) Rule-22 (d) Rule-21
Ans. (a) Qn. A charged employee has a choice for choosing an Assistant Railway
employee (DC). However certain classes of employees are based as DC’s which one of the following classes are barred?
(a) Vigilance inspector (b) Law Assistant (c) Railway servants under suspension (d) None the above
Ans. (d) Ref.Bd’s No. E(D&A) 92 RG 6-175 dt. 18/12/92. Qn. Reappointment of Railway employee in cases of removal from
service may be considered by the
(a) Revising authority (b) Disciplinary authority (c) Higher than the Revising authority (d) None of the these
Ans. (c) Qn. Reduction to a lower stage in a time scale of pay for a period not
exceeding 3 years without calculation effect and not adversely affecting his pension is (a) Major penalty (b) Minor penalty (c) None
(d) Both of these Ans. (b) Ref. Bd’s No. E(D&A) 90 RG 6-12 dt. 16.11.90. Qn. Penalty of compulsory retirement, removal or dismissed from service
should be imposed only by
(a) controlling officer (b) disciplinary authority (c) appointing authority (d) none
Ans. (c) Ref.RB’s No. E(D&A) 80/RG-25 dt. 20.1.86. Qn. The following are not in penalty under D&A Rules?
(a) Censure (b) Warning (c) Stoppage of pass (d) The recovery from pay of any pensionary loss
Ans. (b) Qn. Whether ad-hoc promotee officers are competent to initiate
disciplinary proceedings? Ans. No. Qn. Which penalty is not recorded in the service sheet?
(a) Stoppage of increment (b) Stoppage of passes (c) Warning (d) Censure (e) None
Ans. (C)
Qn. While forwarding appeals under Rule 21(3) of the R.S.(D&A) Rules to the appellate authority should confirm its comments to
(a) the points raised in the appeal only (b) comment on any extraneous circumstances on which the charged official has had no opportunity to explain his position (c) discuss past cases (d) comments on his personality
Ans. (a) Rly.Bd’s ref. E(D&A) 99 RG-6-40 dt. 13.1.2000. Qn. Whether Divisional safety officer can act as disciplinary authority in
the case of misconduct of Dy.S.S.Working under D.O.M?
(a) Division Safety Officer is competent (b) Divisional Safety Officer is not competent (c) Divisional Personnel Officer is competent (d) None of these
Ans. (b) Ref. E(D&A) 74 RG 6-69 dt. 4.8.97. Qn. Whether issuance of inquiry or counseling or Govt. Displeasure can
constitute a penalty under D&A Rule? (a) is a penalty under D&A Rules (b) is not a penalty under D&A Rules (c) All are penalty under D&A Rule (d) None of these
Ans. (b) Ref. E(D&A) 77 RG 6-20 dt. 10.5.77. Qn. Can a disciplinary authority order for stoppage of increment under
Rule 6 of the R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 effecting from the date of issuance of order or from date of next increment due.
(a) effect from the date of issue of order (b) effect from date of next increment date (c) from the retrospective effect (d) none of these
Ans. (b) Qn. What is the permissible time limit for preferring a revision petition
to the revising Authority?
(a) 60 days (b) 45 days (c) 90 days (d) none
Ans. (b) Qn. Which Rules comes under when revision petition is not prefer within
the time limit? (a) Rule 25 (b) Rule 27 (c) None (d) Rule 22
Ans. (b) Qn. Under which circumstances ‘ex-parte’ inquiry can be held?
(a)Charge official does not appear before I.O. more than two occasion. (b) Presenting Officer not appear before IO (c) Disciplinary Authority not appear before IO (d )None of these.
Ans . (a) Qn. Can any of the penalties specified in Rule 6 of the Railway servants
(D&A)Rules be imposed with retrospective effect?
(a) With retrospective effect (b) Both are prospective and immediate effect as admissibleS (c) Always be prospective effect (d) None of these
Ans. (b) Qn. During the pendency of a penalty of stoppage of pass/PTO whether
promotion of a Railway staff will be affected.
(a) promotion will be affected (b) promotion will not be affected (c) promotion will effect after expiry of punishment (d) none of these
Ans. (b) Qn. When it is not practical to hold any inquiry under Rule 9 of the
Railway servants (D&A) Rules, whether removal/dismissal can be directly ordered? (a) Rule 6 (b) Rule 14(ii) (c) Rule 13 (d) None
Ans. (b) Qn. What is the correct Rule under R.S.Rules (D&A)for common
proceeding? (a) Rule 14 (b) Rule 18 (c) Rule 13 (d) None
Ans. (C) Ref. R.S.D&A Rules, 1968. Qn. Under which Rule before disposing the revision petition by the GM
the case should be refer to RRT for advice.
(a) Rule 14(i) (b) Rule 31
(c) Rule 24 Ans. (C) Ref. R.S.(D&A) Rule, 1968. Qn. Is it necessary the Inquiry Officer should be sufficiently senior in rank
to the charged official?
(a) Always IO should be senior (b) IO may be junior (c) IO may be equal in rank with CO (d) None of these
Ans. (a) Rly.Bd’s ref. E(D&A) 2000 RG-6-24 dt. 20.2.01. Qn. Who can exercise reversionary power when no appeal has been
preferred in terms of Rule 25 (i) (iv)?
(a) The officer not below the rank of DRM (b) The officer not below the rank of JA officer (c) The officer not below the rank of PHOD
Ans. (a) E(D&A)2003/RG 6-37 dt. 13.2.04. Qn. Whether it is obligatory of the inquiry officer to inform defence
counsel engaged by the charged official in each hearing? (a) IO should inform DC (b) IO should not inform DC (c) DA should inform DC (d) None of these
Ans. (a) Qn. What is the current Rule for granting compassionate allowance to
Railway employees who are removed or dismissal from service?
(a) Rule 64 of R.S.(Pension) Rules (b) Rule 65 of R.S.(Pension) Rules (c) Rule 60 of R.S.(Pension) Rules
Ans. (b) Qn. Fresh appointment/Re-appointment under D&A Rule can be
consider in terms of Rule (a) 502 IREC Vol-I (b) 402 IREC Vol-1 (c) 302 IREC Vol-1 (d) None
Ans. (b) Qn. How many total number of Rules, the Railway Servants (D&A) Rules,
do contain and how many parts are they divided.
(a) 31 Rule in IV parts (b) 25 Rule in VI parts (c) 31 Rule in VII parts
Ans. (C) Qn. Rule 11 of the R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 deals with the procedure for
(a) Suspension (b) Major penalty proceedings (c) Appeal cases (d) Minor penalty proceeding
Ans. (d) Qn. Which of the following is not termed as penalty under DAR 1968?
(a) Censure (b) Withdrawing of promotion (c) Suspension (d) None
Ans. (C)
Qn Which of the following person is not allowed to be engaged as defence counsel?
(a) A serving Rly. Employee (b) A retired Rly. Employee (c) A legal petitioner (d) A trade union official
Ans. (c) Qn. Removal from service of Mr.X. Hd.Clerk, CPO’s office, who had
absented himself by overstaying his leave without giving him an opportunity of showing cause why he should not be removed. (a) No show cause is necessary (b) No opportunity against article 311 of the constitution of India (c) Approval of PHOD (d) None of these.
Ans. (b) Qn. While forwarding appeals under Rules 21(3) of the Railway servants
(D&A) Rules to the Appellate Authority should ?
(a) Confine its comments to the points raised in the appeal only (b) Can comments on any extraneous circumstances on which the charged employee had had no opportunity to explain his position (c) Confine its comments with the approval of Revising Authority (d) None of these
Ans. (a) Ref.RB”s No. E(D&A)99 RG6-40 dt. 13.1.2000 (RBE 7/2000) Qn. Who is the competent to review under Rule 25 A the Railway
servants (D&A) Rules, 1968?
(a) General Manager (b) PHOD (c) Railway Board
(d) The President of India Ans. (d) Qn. Who is the competent authority to consider the appeal without
restriction of time limit?
(a) PHOD (b) GM (c) DRM (d) HOD
Ans. (b) Qn. When it is no practical to hold any inquiry under Rule 9 of the
Railway servants (D&A) Rules, whether removal/dismissal can be directly ordered?
(a) Rule 9 (b) Rule 13 (c) Rule 14(ii) (d) None of these
Ans. (C) Qn. Who would be competent to issue Govt’s displeasure to a retd.
Railway employee whose case has been dropped after retirement but initiated before retirement?
(a) Railway Board (b) HOD/PHOD (c) AGM/GM (d) None of these.
Ans. (C) Ref.Bd’s No.E(D&A)2001 RG6-3 dt. 20.10.02 Qn. Who can exercise reversionary power when no appeal has been
preferred in terms of Rule 25(i) (iv)?
(a) DCM (b) SrDPO (c) DRM (d) None of these.
Ans.` (C) Ref. In RB’s No. E(D&A)2003/RG-6/37 dt. 13.2.04. Qn. Which authority to cut in pensioner benefit
(a) GM (b) Rly.Board (c) President of India (d) None
Ans. (C) Ref. Rule 9 of RS(Pension) Rules 1993. Qn. Whether Revision/Review of cases already finalsied before
retirement of the Railway employees can be initiated after his retirement with a view to impose a cut in his pensionary benefits?
(a) Can be initiated. (b) Cannot be initiated. (c) Can be initiated with the approval of GM. (d) None of these.
Ans. (b) Rly.Board’s ref. E(D&A)93 RG 6-61 dt. 11.1.2000. Qn. Whether pension is payable in the cases of removal or dismissal of a
railway servant? (a) Pension is payble. (b) Pension is not payable. (c) Compassionate allowance can be considered. (d) None of these.
Ans. (c) Ref. E(D&A)2003-RG6-2 dt. 13.1.04. Qn. Under which Rule is permissible for consideration of appeal
(a) Rule 20 (b) Rule 22 (c) Rule 25 (d) None
Ans. (b) Qn. Which of the following is the order against which no appeal lies?
(a) An order of suspension (b) An order for enhancement of penalty (c) Any order passed by an inquiry authority in the course of an enquiry (d) None of these.
Ans (C) Qn. Whether The Railway servants (D&A) Rules, 1968 are applicable to
constable of the Railway protection force? (a) are applicable. (b) are not applicable. (c) are applicable in certain cases. (d) None of these.
Ans. (b) Qn. Who is the competent to initiate & finalise the D&A proceedings a gainst a Comml. Superintendent.
a) Sr. DPO b) DEE c) SCM d) None of these.
Ans (C)
Qn. Reduction to a lower stage in the time scale of pay cannot affect promotion during penalty.
a) Not affect promotion b) Affect promotion c) Affect promotion after expiry of punishment d) None of these.
Ans (A) Qn. What is Rule 14(II) of the RS(D&A) Rules, 1968.
a) Removal / Dismissal after an SF 5 is issued. b) Removal / Dismissal without any inquiry when it is not practicable to hold inquiry in a normal manner. c) Compulsory retirement without any inquiry. d) Removal / Dismissal in case of conviction.
Ans. (B) Qn. A Railway servants cannot be promoted during the punishment
period either minor or major? Which one of the following is an exception to the above provisions?
(a) Recovery of pecuniary loss caused to the Govt. (b) Reduction to the lower stage in the time scale of pay (c) Withholding of increment (d) Reduction to the lower time scale of pay/grade/post
Ans (a) Qn. Which one of the penalties cannot be imposed on a retired Railway
service?
(a) Cut in pension (b) Cut in DCRG (c) Cut in pension/DCRG
(d) Cut in retirement complementary passes Ans (d)
Write True / False of the following sentences. Q: Maternity leave may be granted of 100 days. A: False Q: Casual leave can be transferred to next year. A: False Q: Maximum LAP can be sanction up to 180 days at a time for
group cemployees. A: True Q: Gold pass issued to PHOD OR DRM. A: False Q: Special C.L. can be sanctioned for blood donation. A: True Q: NFR employees can availed 13 days CL in a year. A: True Q: Maternity leave can be given up to 3 alive child. A: False Q: Paternity leave can be availed within one year. A: False Q: Group-C Employees can availed only one set pass up to 5
years. A: True Q: General Manager can sanction C.L. up to 60 days. A: False Q: An Employee can deposit max 300 days HLAP in his account A: False
Q: After retirement group-C Employee can availed 2 set pass completing serviceperiod of 25 years or more.
A: True Q: .After retirement Gazetted officer can availed 3 set pass
completing serviceperiod of 25 years or more . A: True Q: .DRM is President of PREM at divisional level. A: True Q: Conditions &Principle of regulation of employment is
discussed in JCM. A: True Q: Employee works 12 hours with comfort do called essentially
intermittentemployees as Caretaker. A: True Q: CWM is entitled for Silver Pass . A: True Q: Railway employees get 03 set pass after completing 04 years’
service. A: False Q: A male employee will get 15 days paternity leave having 03
survival children A: False Q: Ambulance is arranged to sent an employee to hospital ,
injured in an accident A: True Q: Compensation will be paid in case of accident on working
Place in alcoholiccondition.. A: False Q: Tamilnadu is under region ‘A’ of Rajbnasa Region A: False Q: A male employee will get 30 days LAP in a year . A: True Q: Enquiry Officer is nominated by SF 7 . A: True Q: Suspension is the Minor penalty. A: False Q: Railway Expenditure is divided into 06 demands . A: False Q: Maharastra is under region ‘A’ of Rajbnasa region
A: False Q: GM can sanctioned 30days special CL. A: True Q: A male employee having 01 survival child is entitled to get 15 days paternityleave. A: True Q: Inquiry Officer is nominated by SF 8 A: False Q: Nomination of presenting officer is done by SF 6. A: False Q: Stock item is purchase by non stock requisition. A: False Q: Suspension is the Major penalty. A: False Q: August review can be sent in any month . A: False Q: Group ‘A’ officer is entitled for 03 set of PTO in a year. A: False Q: Chandigarh is under region ‘A’ of Rajbhasha region A: False Q: Maternity leave is permissible for 15 days, having 02 survival
children. A: False Q: A male employee having 01 survival child is entitled to get 15
days paternityleave. A: True Q: Stock items are purchase through DS 8. A: False Q: Group ‘A’ officer is admissible to take 03 Privilege pass in a
year. A: False Q: Paternity leave is permissible for 15 days, having 02 survival
children. A: True Q: Gazetted officer is admissible to take 06 PTO in a year. A: False Q: Suspension is not a penalty. A: True Q: Condemn material is sent to store on DS8
A: True Q: Non-Stock items are regularly drawn from store. A: False Q: PAC items are purchase from open market. A: False Q: Global tender is being done by Railway Board. A: True Q: Maintenance of C&W is booked in Demand No. 06. A: True Q: Wages of employee should be given after 20 days of closing
of the month. A: False Q: At Railway Board level member staff is the chairman of JCM. A: True Q: In alcoholic condition Compensation is will be paid in case of
accident onworking Plac A: False Q: A lady employee having four survival children will get135
days maternityleave. A: False Q: Appeal of the employees is address to disciplinary officer. A: False Q: Condemn material is sent to store on issue ticket A: False Q: Stock items are regularly drawn from store. A: True Q: Global tender is done by HQ. A: False Q: Budget is divided into 16 main demands. A: True Q: August review is sent in the month of August. A: True Q: Wages of employee should be given within 03 days of closing
of the month A: False Q: At Workshop level Chairman of PNM is CPO. A: False Q: Appeal of the employees is address Presenting officer. A: False
Q: Chairman Railway board is equivalent to the post of principal secretary ofGovernment of India.
A: True Q: All Railway expenditure is divided in 18 demands. A: False
Important abbreviation for Railway Exam
ADRM : Additional Divisional Railway Manager
AGM : Additional General Manager
APPSC : Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission
CCO : Chief Claims Officer
CPRO : Chief Public Relations Officer
CTE : Chief Track Engineer
CBE : Chief Bridge Engineer
CLW : Chittaranjan Locomotive Works
CPDE : Chief Planning & Development Engineer
PCE : Principal Chief Engineer
CMPE : Chief Motive Power Engineer
CME : Chief Mechanical Engineer
CWE : Chief Workshop Engineer
CRSE : Chief Rolling Staff Engineer
CEE : Chief Electrical Engineer
CESEL : Chief Electrical Service Engineer
CSC : Chief Security Commissioner
CCM : Chief Commercial Manager
CMD : Chief Medical Director
CAO/C : Chief Administrative Officer/Construction
CELE : Chief Electrical Loco Engineer
CSTE : Chief Signal & Telecommunication Engineer
CCE : Chief Communication Engineer
COS : Controller of Stores
CMM : Chief Materials Manager
CPO : Chief Personnel Officer
CPO/A : Chief Personnel Officer Administration
CPOIR : Chief Personnel Officer Industrial Relation
COM : Chief Operations Manager
CPTM : Chief Passenger Traffic Manager
CFTM : Chief Freight Traffic Manager
COFMOW : Central Organization for Modernization of
Workshop
CPM : Chief Projects Manager
CRB : Chairman Railway Board
CRS : Commissioner Railway Safety
CRS : Carriage Repair Shop
CGEGIS : Central Government Employees
Group Insurance Scheme
DRM : Divisional Railway Manager
DLW : Diesel Locomotive Works
EDPM : Electrical Data Processing Manager
FA&CAO : Financial Advisor and Chief Accounts Officer
HBA : House Building Advance
IREM : Indian Railway Establishment Manual
IRCTC : Indian Railways Catering and
Tourism Corporation
ICF : Integral Coach Factory
IRISET : Indian Railway Institute of Signal Engineering &
Telecommunication
IRCON : Indian Railway Construction Organization
IRWO : Indian Railway Welfare Organization
ILO : International Labour Organization
LAP : Leave at Average Pay
LHAP : Leave at Half Average Pay
MBF : Mutual Benefit Fund
RITES : Rail India Technical & Economic Services
RRB : Railway Recruitment Board
RCT : Railway Claims Tribunal
RRT : Railway Rates Tribunal
RCF : Rail Coach Factory
RWF : Rail Wheel Factory
RDSO : Research Design & Standards Organization
RDC : Railway Degree College
RELHS : Railway Employees Liberalized Health Scheme
RVNL : Rail Vikas Nigam Ltd
STC : Supervisor Training Centre
SBF : Staff Benefit Fund
SWSO : Senior Work Study Officer
UNO : United Nations Organization
ZRTI : Zonal Railway Training Institute
UNICEF : United Nations Children’s Educational Fund
WHO : World Health Organization
BHU : Banaras Hindu University
UFSBI : Universal Fail Safe Block Instrument
CRIS : Centre for Railway Information System
ATVM : Automatic Ticket Vending Machine
TMS : Terminal Management System
NTES : National Train Enquiry System
PREM : Participation of Railway Employees in
Management
MGR : Missing Goods Report
IRCTC : Indian Railway Catering and Tourism
Corporation
CONCOR : Container Corporation of India
PNM : Permanent Negotiating Machinery
PNR : Passenger Name Record
DRM : Divisional Railway Manager
RITES : Rail India Technical and Economic Service
UTS : Unreserved Ticketing System
RBS : Rates Branch System
CIB : Crime Intelligence Branch
WHO : World Health Organisation
VAT : Value Added Tax
MST : Monthly Season Ticket
IPS : Integrated Power Supply
SWA : Sahjanwa Railway Station
FNR : Freight Name Record
BEE : Bureau of Energy Efficiency
TIB : Train Information Board
NAIR : National Academy of Indian Railways
(Vadodara}
DEITY : Department Of electronics And Information
Technology
LWR : Long Welded Rail
CIC : Central Information Commission
FTR : Full Tariff Rate
IPAS : Integrated Payroll And Accounting System
SDGM : Senior Deputy General Manager
CRB : Chairman Of Railway Board
FOIS : Freight Operation Information System
RMS : Railway Mail Service
VG : Vehicle Guidance
MT : Matera Railway Station
ODC : Over Dimension Consignment
NTES : National Train Enquiry System
VRS : Voluntary Retirement Scheme
CCM : Chief Commercial Manager
ADRM : Additional Divisional Railway Manager
FA & CAO : Financial Adviser and Chief Accounts Officer
ECRC : Enquiry cum Reservation Clerk
CRIS : Centre for Railway Information System
BPT : Blank Paper Ticket
RBS : Rates Branch System
RDSO : Research Design Standard Organisation
AIIMS : All India Institute of Medical Sciences
CAT : Central Administrative Tribunal
ECG : Electro Cardio Gram
HUDCO : Housing And Urban Development Corporation
FIR : First Information Report
WHO : World Health Organisation
UNO : United Nation Organisation
VAT : Value Added Tax
DRUCC : Divisional Railway Users Consultative
Committee
MACP : Modified Assured Career Progression
COIS : Coaching Operation Information System
IVRS : Interactive Voice Response System
RCF : Rail Coach Factory
DLW : Diesel Locomotive Works
RSC : Railway Sorting Carriage/ Railway Service
Commission
MST : Monthly Season Ticket
GMT : Greenwich Mean Time
PIN : Postal Index Number
UNESCO : United Nation Educational Scientific and
Cultural Organisation
GAP : Ganga Action Plan
IPL : Indian Premier League
ONGC : Oil and Natural Gas Commission
SEBI : Securities and Exchange Board Of India
SR. DCM : Senior Divisional Commercial Manager
PTO : Privilege Ticket Order
EFT : Excess Fare Ticket
ATVM : Automatic Ticket Vending Machines
SM : Station Master
DRM : Divisional Railway Manager
GM : General Manager
PRS : Passenger Reservation System
RRI : Route Relay Interlocking
IRTS : Indian Railway Traffic Service
CSO : Chief Safety Officer
CRS : Commissioner of Railway Safety
RRB : Railway Recruitment Board
LAP : Leave on Average Pay
BPC : Brake Power Certificate
IRCM : Indian Railway Commercial Manual
HBC : Head Booking Clerk
DDM : Demand And Delivery Message
IPO : Indian Postal Order
AIR : All India Radio
MOU : Ministry Of Railway
CD : Collision Detection
MTNL : Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited
RAC : Reservation Safe Block Interface
BPAC : Block Proving Axle Counter
SWR : Station Working Rule
CCL : Child Care Leave
DOM : Divisional Operations Manager
DCM : Divisional Commercial Manager
RELHS : Retired Employees Liberalised Health Scheme
UTS : Unreserved Ticketing System
ODR : Oldest Day Record
PTI : Press Trust Of India
UGC : University Grants Commission
PMG : Post Master General
HMT : Hindustan Machine Tools
ARP : Advance Reservation Period
LPO : Lost Property Office
PRO : Periodical over Hauling
RTI : Right to Information
COA : Control Office Application
PCCM : Principal Chief Commercial Manager
PCE : Principal Chief Engineer
ICMS : Integrated Coaching Management System
BOHS : Battery Operated Hand Signal
ICF : Integral Coach Factory
WTT : Working Time Table
CIB : Crime Intelligence Bureau
PAM : Punctuality Analysis And Monitoring
MPC : Modular Power Connector
STBA : Sabarmati A Cabin
JTBS : Jan Sadharan Ticket Booking Sewak
FIFA : Federation International Football Association
FIFO : First-In First-Out
GPS : Global Positioning System
SMS : Short Message Service
PTO : Privilege Ticket Order
ECG : Electrocardiography
EEG : Electroencephalography
ISRO : Indian Space Research Organization
CAB : Cricket Association Of Bengal
POH : Periodical Over Hauling
ROH : Rutine Over Hauling
Numbers of Railway Zones in India
S.No Name Of the Zones Abbr. Headquarters Divisions
1 Central CR Mumbai
2 EastCentral ECR Hajipur
3 East Coast ECoR Bhubaneswar
4 Eastern Kolkata
5 NorthCentral NCR Allahabad
6 NorthEastern NER Gorakhpur
7 NorthWestern NWR Jaipur
8 NortheastFrontier NFR Guwahati
9 Northern NR Delhi
10 SouthCentral SCR Secunderabad
11 South EastCentral SECR Bilaspur, CG
12 SouthEastern SE Kolkata
13 SouthWestern SWR Hubli
14 Southern SR Chennai
15 WestCentral WCR Jabalpur
16 Western WR Mumbai
17 Kolkata Metro KM Kolkata
Few More Questions:-
Q: Who is the General Manager of your Railway? Q: Who is the Additional General Manager of your Railway? Q: Who is the Principal Chief Engineer of your Railway? Q: Who is Chief Administrative Officer/Construction of your Railway? Q: Who is the Chief Personnel Officer of your Railway? Q: Who is the Financial Advisor & Chief Accounts Officer? Q: Where is the Headquarters of Hyderabad Division? Q: Where is the Headquarters of Secunderabad Division? Q: What is the other name of Vijayawada? Q: How many privilege passes are eligible to Group D and Group C
employees? Q: How Many Post Retirement passes are eligible for Group C and D
employees, who have put in 25 years service? Q: In which Division the following stations are situated? (Nanded,
Tirupati, Raichur, Nandiyal, Parli) Q: Who is the Prime Minister of India? Q: Where Rail Wheel Factory situated? Q: Who wrote National Anthem ? Q: Who is the Present Captain of Indian Cricket? Q: Who Invented television? Q: Which is the capital of Uttaranchal? Q: What is the minimum service required for promotion of junior
clerk to senior clerk? Q: What is the minimum distance an employee to travel to become
eligible for TA/DA? Q: How many days casual leave a fitter in workshop is eligible in a
year? Q: How many Zones are there in Indian Railways? Q: What are important Tourist places on S.C. Railway? Q: What is the recruitment agency for S.C. Railway? Q: What are the schemes introduced by SBF Committee on S.C.
Railway? Q: Who is the General Secretary of SCRE Sangh?
Q: Who is the General Secretary of SCRM Union?
The End
