SET- 16

SET-16 dtd 14/10/2015

1. In given figure show the defect:a) Hole too large

b) Hole too small

c) Hammering is not proper

2. Corrosion from Magnesium surface is cleaned by:

a) Steel wire brush

b) Carbourandom abrasive

c) Stiff hog bristle brush

d) Steel burnishing tool

3. Mark the correct statement:

a) Ceramic fibers are characterized by dazzling white colour

b) Ceramic fibers are used where high strength is required

c) Kevlar has tensile strength four times of that of aluminum

d) All are correct

4. Circular magnetization method used in MPI cannot detect which type of defect:

a) Lateral cracks

b) Longitudinal cracks

c) Deep sub-surface flaws

d) Torsional cracks on a shaft

5. Ultrasonic flaw detection technique is used to detect:

a) Flaws and inclusions in cast metal

b) Flaws or cracks in welded structure

c) Delamination in bonded structure

d) All are correct

6. In Fluorescent penetrant inspection method the colour of defect and sound part is:

a) Brilliant yellow-green and blue-violet

b) Yellow-red and green-blue

c) Black and white

d) Both a and b are correct

7. The primary cause of inter granular corrosion is:

a) Dissimilar metal contact

b) Improper heat treatment

c) Due to non-metal and metal contact

d) Due to corrosive gases

8. In Fluorescent penetrant inspection method the volume of defect is interpreted by:

a) Staining speed

b) Extent of staining

c) Rate of staining

d) Colour

9. In relation to radiographic method of inspection. Mark the correct statement:

a) Thicker the specimen, darker will be the image

b) Thicker the specimen, lighter will be the image

c) The darkness of the radiograph does not depend upon the radiation penetrating the specimen

d) None are correct

10. For lightening protection on the composite material:

a) Magnesium plate is fixed on the top layer to provide a conducting layer

b) Aluminum is woven to provide a conducting path

c) Metal plate is used

d) No lightening protection is needed for the composite material

11. Weft threads are:

a) At 45 degrees to warp threads

b) Perpendicular to warp threads

c) Along with the warp threads to form the edge

d) None are correct


a) Carbon/Graphite is usually blended with fiber glass

b) Kevlar is characterized by its white colour

c) Ceramic fibers are used for low heat applications

d) All are correct

13. In metallurgy, the term creep is caused due to which factor:

a) High temperature for a long period

b) High compressive stress

c) High stress for a long period

d) As in a and c and permanent creep leads to rupture

14. Soaking period depends upon:

a) Soaking does not affect the internal structure of the metal

b) Thickness of the metal

c) Strength is not affected

d) All are correct

15. Centre punch made of tool steel is tempered:

a) To cherry red colour

b) As in a and quenched in sand

c) As in b and heated to dazzling white colour

d) As in b and heated to purple colour

16. Shot peening is:

a) Used on ferrous alloys only

b) Increases strength

c) Also known as Sand blasting

d) All are correct

17. Fix used in welding of Aluminum alloy serves the following purpose:

a) Improves the penetration

b) Get rid of oxides

c) Slows the flow of molten metal

d) Better fusion

18. Soldering technique of aluminum alloy is:

a) Similar to that of other materials

b) Different to control the expansion and contraction of metal

c) Low heat input is required

d) Both b and c are correct19. Muntz metal is:

a) Brass and is used for making nuts and bolts for use in saline areas

b) Copper alloy containing zinc and minute quantities of tin, nickel, manganese and is used for making nuts and bolts for use in saline areas

c) Both a and b are correct

d) Bronze and is used in fuel and oil line fittings

20. Titanium is identified by:

a) Spark test

b) Moistening it and using it to draw a line on glass

c) Both a and b are correct

d) Chemical test

21. Friction Lock rivet is used to replace:

a) Solid shank rivet

b) Solid shank rivet but one size larger

c) As in b and is available in hollow, self locking and self plugging types

d) As in b and is available in hollow self locking and self locking with tapped threads

22. Cherry lock rivet is used to replace:

a) Solid shank rivet

b) As in a and if the length is less it fails to compress the sheets

c) As in b and two sizes larger

d) As in b and three sizes larger

23. Identify the figure:

a) Low strength material bolt *

b) An standard steel bolt

c) Reworked bolt

d) An corrosion resistant steel bolt


w

a) Special bolt

b) Magnetically inspected bolt F O

c) Dye penetrant inspected bolt

d) An standard steel bolt


a) Anchor nut with one leg.

b) Anchor nut with two legs

c) Anchor nut with corner leg

d) Floating anchor nut

26. Marking on hydraulic seals is given as:

a) Yellow mark for fuel

b) Red mark for engine oil

c) Green mark for skydrol fluid

d) White line for air27. How can the swaged fitting be removed:

a) By drilling with a one size smaller drill

b) By using a scriber

c) Unscrew the threaded insert

d) All are correct

28. To avoid stress due to vibration in tube lines:

a) At least one bend is given in the line

b) Two bends are given

c) No bend is required

d) Preferably no bend is done, if it is done it will be less than 45

29. Rigid tubing used in A/c are classified according to:

a) Outside diameter

b) Wall thickness and outside diameter

c) Inside diameter and wall thickness

d) Inside diameter

30. 7 x 19 cable indicates:

a) 7 strands of 19 wires each

b) 19 strands of 7 wires each

c) 7 strands of 133 wires each

d) 7 strands of 19mm wire

31. An A.C. generator having 8 poles and 6000 rpm, has the frequency of:

a) 200 c.p.s.

b) 400 c.p.s.

c) 800 c.p.s.

d) 12000 c.p.s.

32. The capacitance of a capacitor depends directly upon:

a) Plate area and inversely upon the distance between the plates

b) Plate area and the distance between the plates

c) Separation and the thickness of the plates

d) Plate area and inversely upon the dielectric material

33. It electrolyte from a Lead Acid battery is spilled, it is neutralized by:

a) Sodium bicarbonate and water

b) Ammonia

c) Vinegar

d) Both a and b are correct

34. If a wire is connected to a constant voltage supply and at the same time the length and radius is doubled the result would be:

a) Electrostatic field across the wire would become double

b) Electrostatic field would become half

c) Heat produced by the wire will remain the same

d) All are correct

35. If in a circuit the resistance is R and reactance is r then impedance Z is expressed as:

a) Z = R + r

b) Z = R + r

c) 1/Z = 1/R + 1/r

d) Z2 = R2 + r236. Ohms Law does not hold true for:

a) Gas diode

b) Mercury column

c) Transistor

d) Both a and c are correct

37. Calculate the power when voltage = 28 volts and Resistance = 10 :

a) 284 W

b) 784 W

c) 78.4W

d) 7.84W

38. When a new Ni Cd battery is installed, its cell seal is opened and electrolyte is poured and to ensure full charge:

a) No charging is required

b) Charging required and is given in boost up

c) As in b and is suddenly installed in A/C service

d) As in b and after 10 hrs. the electrolyte level is checked, then it is installed

39. The given figure indicates:

a) X NOR gate

b) X OR gate

c) C MOS NOR gate

d) NOR gate

40. Convert (11.75) into binary form:

a) 1101.01

b) 1011.11

c) 1100.11

d) 1010.11

41. A computer can solve only the following type of problem:

a) Simplex

b) Complex

c) Which can be broken into a number of logical steps

d) Arithmetic calculations

42. The processing speed of a computer is expressed as:

a) MHz

b) KHz

c) RAM capacity

d) Frequency

43. A modern digital computer stores the data and instructions in:

a) English form

b) Decimal form

c) Hexadecimal form

d) Binary form

44. Lift and drag of an aerofoil depends upon:

a) Shape of wing, wing area and angle of attack

b) Forward velocity of aircraft

c) Density of air

d) All are correct

45. In steady and level flight, if the angle of attack increases:

a) Lift increases

b) Drag increases

c) Lift increases and drag decreases

d) Lift and drag both decreases

46. High lift devices such as flaps and slats are used:

a) To increase the speed of aircraft

b) To decrease the take off and landing run

c) As in b and is used in high speed operation

d) As in b and also to reduce the fuel consumption

47. The device which is mounted on the opposite surface of the wing and is operated along with the aileron for lateral control:

a) Balance panel

b) Balance tab

c) Spoiler

d) Spring tab

48. Angle of attack is defined as:

a) Angle between the chord line and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft

b) Acute horizontal angle between the plane of symmetry of aircraft and the direction of relative wind

c) Angle between the chord line and the direction of relative wind

d) Both a and c are correct

49. In straight and level flight, the dynamic pressure acting on the tip of the nose of the aircraft is:

a) Maximum

b) Minimum

c) Zero

d) None are correct

50. In relation to jacking of light aircraft, mark the correct statement:

a) Both main wheels are raised together

b) Nose or tail wheel is unlocked to permit free rotation

c) Wheels are raised at least 6 from the ground

d) All are correct51. In relation to towing of an aircraft which of the following is correct:

a) Tail wheel aircrafts are generally towed from backwards

b) Nose wheel aircrafts are generally towed from backwards

c) Tail wheel of the aircraft must be in locked position

d) Aircraft with steerable nose wheel the locking scissors are set6 to fall swivel position before towing

52. Some manufacturers of large aircraft provide a jacking point in the landing gear strut for the accommodation of a small hydraulic jack for the purpose of:

a) To jack up the complete aircraft

b) To service the oleo strut in situ when the aircraft is on jacks

c) To jack up one wheel of the aircraft to change tyre, bearings or service the brake unit

d) Both (b) and (c) are correct

53. Class B fire includes:

a) Fire in wood, paper, cloth etc.

b) Fire of energized electrical equipment

c) Fire in any petroleum product

d) Fire in a metal like magnesium

54. Aircraft instrument panels are usually shock mounted to absorb the following vibrations:

a) Low frequency low amplitude

b) High frequency low amplitude

c) Low frequency high amplitude

d) High frequency high amplitude

55. In pitot static system, the static pressure is sensed at two points by placing flat plates on either side of fuselage:

a) Eliminates position error

b) Freedom from ice formation

c) Eliminates static and instrument error

d) Both (a) and (b) are correct

56. Precision instruments are recalibrated at regular intervals in room having:

a) Normal environment but having a temperature control

b) Air conditioned and dust proof room

c) Filtration system for particles of size 5 - 10 but not air conditioned

d) Filtration system for particles of size 20 - 25 but air conditioned

57. In ATA 100 specification, the codes for hydraulic, pneumatic, fire protection system and engine indicating systems are:

a) 29, 26, 39, 77

b) 29, 36, 26, 77

c) 36, 26, 29, 79

d) 29, 71, 36, 27

58. Mark the correct statement

a) ATA 22 represents communications

b) ATA 54 represents pylons

c) ATA 34 represents lights

59. Fatigue over a man is caused due to:

a) Long hours of work

b) Emotional stress

c) Noise

d) All are correct

60. Static discharge wicks is mentioned in which chapter of maintenance manual:

a) Chapter number 22.

b) Chapter number 23.

c) Chapter number 24.

d) Chapter number 25.

61. The working of piston engine is based on:

a) Boyles Law

b) Bray ton cycle

c) Charles Law

d) Both (a) and (c) are correct

62. The mechanical efficiency of piston engine depends upon:

a) Throttle setting

b) Mean effective pressure

c) Fuel used and engine speed (rpm)

d) All are correct


a) Turbojet engines require a shorter runway in comparison to others

b) Piston engine is most suitable for higher altitudes

c) Turbojet is suitable for higher altitudes but weighs more than piston engine for same power

d) Turbofan engine requires a shorter runway length in comparison to turbojet engines

64. The ballast used to balance the C.G. of aircraft is preferably:

a) Located as close as possible to the C.G.

b) Located as far from the C.G. as possible and minimum weight

c) Permanent ballast

d) Temporary ballast

65. In the figure 1,2 & 3 identify

a) face , heel & tang

b) heel, face & edge

c) handle, face and body

d) none of the above

66. Identify the figure

a) cutting & sawing

b) filing for surface finish

c) machining for surface finish


67. Identify the figure concerning a drill

a) cutting edge

b) cutting angle

c) flute

d) cutting plane


a) Extension bar

b) Socket handle

c) Box handle

d) None

69. In the following figure p-n junction is

a) forward biased

b) reverse biased

c) not biased

d) none

70. The figure indicates

a) taper

b) spot face

c) spear head

d) bisected

71. The following tap is a

a) bottoming tap

b) taper tap

c) plug tap

d) none


a) flare nut spanner adapter

b) spanner wrench adapter

c) stock spanner

d) none

73. The following punch is a

a) drift punch

b) pin punch

c) centre punch

d) none

74. The following wrench is a

a) Box end spanner

b) Combination wrench

c) Two headed spanner

d) None of the above

75. The following bolt is

a) cadmium plated airframe bolt

b) aluminium bolt

c) close tolerance bolt for protection greased

d) none

76. The following is a

a) secondary Transformer

b) auto Transformer

c) one winding Transformer

d) none

77. The following symbol represents

a) close tolerance bolt

b) reworked bolt

c) low strength bolt

d) none

78. Identify the following figures respectively

a) automatic reset, push reset, push reset pull off

b) automatic reset, pull reset, pull reset push off

c) normal ON, push reset, pull reset, pull off

d) none

79. Bearing A and B

a) a radial load only

b) both radial

c) axial loads

d) none


a) anchor nut with one lug

b) heat treated anchor nut

c) anchor nut with floating lug

d) none

81. Normally type of shank used for hand reamer are

a) straight and taper

b) hexagon & square

c) heavy duty but straight

d) none

82. Which of the following is true regarding composite

a) good S/W ratio

b) bond strength

c) all

83. Titanium is used in jet engines of high speed a/c because

a) It is ductile and wear resistant

b) It is wear resistant retains its properties below 5000C

c) It is wear & corrosion resistant and does not retain its strength above 5000C

84. Electroplating is done for

a) Corrosion protection

b) Wear resistance

c) Increase in dimension

d) All of the above

85. Which is done on Al-alloys

a) Solution heat treatment

b) Precipitation Heat treatment

c) Both a and b

d) Normalizing

86. Which of the following is true regarding drilling

a) coolant used is water, lard oil etc

b) drill must be sharp

c) high temp of the drill is evident of poor drilling

d) all of the above

87. Which process is carried out on Mg alloys for properties like ductility, strength, near resistance etc.

a) solution heat treatment

b) precipitation HT

c) both a and b

88. Alloys 2017 and 2024 are

a) heat treated once by manufacturer

b) heat treated before use

c) can be used within one day after HT

d) none

89. Major alloying element of 2024 is

a) zinc

b) pure Al

c) copper

d) none

90. Zener diode as used

a) in forward bias only

b) for voltage regulation

c) to prevent voltage spikes

d) both b and c

91. Which is true with respect to transformer

a) transfers energy by changing freq.

b) used in transistor sets

c) transfer energy without changing freq.

d) both b and c

92. Stress corrosion is found in

a) heat treated Al alloys & stainless steel

b) Al and Mg alloys

c) CRS and Mg alloys

d) None

93. To switch on a transistor

a) EB junction forward biased CB junction reverse biased

b) EB junction reverse biased CB junction forward biased

c) EB junction reverse biased CB junction reverse biased

d) None

94. With increase in load, speed of a motor decreases because

a) induced back emf increases

b) induced back emf decreases

c) induced back emf same

d) none

95. In a current carrying wire if length and area are both doubled

a) electric field doubles

b) electric field halves

c) electric field remain same

d) none

96. SCR has

a) two junctions

b) three junctions

c) two forward biased & 2 reverse biased

d) none

97. A turnbuckle has

a) A Cu barrel and 2 left hand threaded ends

b) Made of stainless steel

c) A brass barrel & a left hand and a right have threaded end

d) None

98. Al alloy sandwitched b/w layers of pure Ac

a) Alclad

b) Pureclad

c) Anodized

d) Both a and b

99. Temp. in a furnace is measured and controlled by

a) thermocouple

b) thermometer

c) pyrometer


100. For skydrol O rings are colour coded as

a) blue dot

b) green

c) black dot

d) none

101. Hydraulic fluid carrying hose is coloured

a) blue

b) red & yellow

c) blue & yellow

d) none102. Room Temperature aging is otherwise known as

a) Room Temp. Heat treatment

b) Natural aging

c) Normal aging103. Defect in fluorescent penetrant test appears as

a) green in black light

b) blue violet in black light

c) green in white light

105. Identity the given figure:

a) Normal on

b) Momentary on

c) Pressure s/w

106. In given figure arrow indicates that:

a) Inlet port

b) Outlet port

c) Driving gear

107. In given figure arrow indicates that points:

a) Outlet port

b) Intake port

c) Exhaust port/dowel

d) For the purpose of lubrication

108. Identify the figure sequence wise:

a) Three port actuating cylinder, b) Two port actuating cylinderc) Single actuating cylinder109. Identify the following figure in sequence wise:

a) Cable receptacel, wall receptacle, box receptacle

b) Box receptacle, wall receptacle, cable receptacle

c) Wall receptacle, cable receptacle, box receptacle

d) Cable recetacle, box receptacle, wall receptacle

110. Identify the following given figure by sequence wise

a) Ball end, rod end, fork end, eye end

b) Rod end, fork end, rod end, eye end

c) Eye end, fork end, rod end, ball end

d) Rod end, ball end, fork end, eye end

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SET- 16