SERIES 10 : EXPLAINATIONS (Days 37-41)€¦ · Tertiary coal fields mainly occur in association with limestone and slates in Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland 90% of

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SERIES – 10 : EXPLAINATIONS (Days 37-41)

1. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding soils of India.

a) Black soil exhibits self-ploughing characteristic

b) Humus content of laterite soil is low and generally they are unfit for cultivation.

c) Arid soils generally are clayey in texture with higher acidity

d) Alkaline soil are treated with gypsum to make it suitable for cropping.

Answer: (c)

Justification:

Black soil is known for its self ploughing nature because it is a clayey soil and has much moisture in it. It also develops cracks during summers which exposes it to sunlight and water from rains. Thus it becomes easy to plough it.

The laterite soil is formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry periods, which leads to leaching of soil, leaving only oxides of iron and aluminum. It lacks fertility due to a lower base-exchanging capacity and a lower content of nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium. Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrives well in high temperature.

Arid soils generally are sandy in texture rich in calcium carbonates. Hence they have higher pH and are basic in nature. (Hence c is incorrect statement)

Usage of gypsum in alkaline soil helps in reduction in pH of soil. Major Benefits of Gypsum – 1. Source of calcium and sulfur for plant nutrition. 2. Improves acid soils and treats aluminum toxicity. 3. Improves soil structure. 4. Improves water infiltration. 5. Helps reduce runoff and erosion

2. Which one of the following mining area is significant for a different mineral from that of the other three areas ?

a) Nellore

b) Panchpatmali

c) Koderma

d) Ajmer

Answer: (b)

Justification:

Panchpatmali in Odisha is rich in bauxite deposits.

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Nellore in Andhra Pradesh, Koderma in Jharkand and Ajmer in Rajasthan are rich in Mica deposits.

3. Consider the following statements regarding Malwa Plateau

1. In general Red Soil is found over the plateau

2. Soyabean and cotton are important crops grown in the area.

3. The regions is rich in limestone deposits.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct ?

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (b)

Justification:

Malwa Plateau is a plateau of volcanic origin, which is located in central North India. It encompasses parts of the states of Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. It is a semi-arid region having black soil. It is not rich in limestone whereas the vindhyan ranges fromed from upliftment of geosyncline is rich in limestone deposits. Madhya Pradesh is the leading producer of soyabean in the country which is largely cultivated in malwa plateau region.

4. Consider the following regarding shifting cultivation

1. Roca — Central America.

2. Podu — Western Ghats

3. Dahiya — Madhya Pradesh

Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched.

a) 3 Only

b) 1 and 2 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (a)

Justification:

Roca is practiced in Brazil and Masole in central America

Podu is practiced in Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh

Dahiya is the shifting cultivation of Central highlands of Madhya Pradesh.




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5. Consider the following statements

1. In India, groundnut crop is raised mostly during the Kharif season under rainfed conditions.

2. In India, tobacco is cultivated only in black cotton soils.


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Answer: (a)

Justification:

Groundnut crops thrives best in tropical climate and require 20-30’c and 50-75 cm rainfall. Isohyet of 100 cm marks the upper limit of groundnut cultivation. It can be grown both as a Kharif and as a Rabi crop but nearly 80% of the total area under groundnut is devoted to kharif crop.

Well drained friable sandy loams not too rich in organic matter but rich in mineral salts allowing full development of roots are best suited soil for tobacco. Sandy loam red and alluvial soil are also suitable for tobacco cultivation. Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh and some important producers.


1. In India, Tertiary deposits of coal occur in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya and Nagaland

2. In India, lignite does not occur anywhere except in Tamil Nadu.

3. In India, metallurgical coal is restricted to Jharkand and Andhra Pradesh Only


a) 2 and 3 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 1 only

d) 1 and 2 only

Answer: (c)




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Justification:

Tertiary coal fields mainly occur in association with limestone and slates in Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland

90% of lignite is concentrated in Tamil Nadu. Its reserves are also found in Gujarat, Rajasthan, Jammu and Kashmir and Kerala

Metallurgical coal of Gondwana deposits occur in Jharkhand, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh.

7. Match of the following

List I (Sources of energy) List II –Places

1. Geothermal Gulf of Kutch

2. Wind Vizhinjam

3. Wave Muppandal

4. Tidal Puga Valley

Which of the following is correct.

A B C D

a) 2 4 3 1

b) 2 3 4 1

c) 4 2 1 3

d) 4 3 2 1

Answer: (d)

Justification:

Geothermal Energy – Puga Valley (Ladakh)

Wind Energy — Muppandal (Tamil Nadu )

Wave energy — Vizhinjam (Kerala)

Tidal energy — Gulf of Kutch

8. Which among the following is INCORRECT

a) National Waterway-4 extending from Muktyal to Pondicherry is the longest National Waterway.

b) Asian Highway-48 also known as SAARC Road extends between Agra in India to Matara in Srilanka

c) Presently, longest operational LPG pipeline in India extends between Jamnagar in Gujarat to Loni near New Delhi.

d) Western Dedicated Freight corridor extends between Jawaharlal Nehru Port to Dadri.




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Answer : (b)

Justification:

Asian Highway 48 – AH48, colloquially known as SAARC Road, is a work-in-progress route of the Asian Highway Network, running 90.58 kilometres (56.28 mi) from Phuntsholing, Bhutan and its twin town Jaigaon, India, across the border through the Dooars region of West Bengal and ending at Changrabandha near Bangladesh border. It is being undertaken with the goal of boosting ties, trade and tourism between the SAARC countries. Asian Highway -43 — This road is 3,024km long. It connects Agra to Matara in Sri Lanka.

LPG pipeline- The pipeline, which starts at Jamnagar in Gujarat and terminates at Loni in Uttar Pradesh, passes through the States of Gujarat (522 kms), Rajasthan (630 kms), Haryana (75


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kms), Delhi (6 kms) and Uttar Pradesh (37 kms).1270 km pipeline is the longest operational LPG pipeline in the country

Western Dedicated Corridor extends between Mumbai to Dadri


1. Bellary region of Karnataka has the maximum concentration of Iron & steel Industries in India.

2. Location of Aluminium smelting is influenced by availability of raw material and supply of electricity.


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2


Answer: (b)

Justification:

Eventhough Bellary region is rich in iron-ore deposits, greater concentration of Iron-steel industries is in Chotanagpur plateau

Cheap electricity is an important factor which influence location of aluminum industry. Most of industries are located near to coal and bauxite deposits or hydro-electric projects.

10. Location of sugar industry in India is shifting from north to south because of

a) Cheap Labour.

b) Cheap and abundant supply of power

c) Better availability of power

d) Higher yield and longer crushing season

Answer: (d)

Justification:

Peninsular India has tropical climate which gives higher yield per unit area as compared to north India. The crushing season is also much longer in the south than in the north.




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11. Which of the following factors are considered as the threat to Indian forests.

1. Expansion of plantations

2. Grazing

3. Teak monoculture


a) 3 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only.

d) All the above.

Answer: (d)

Justification:

Uncontrolled grazing, introduction of teak monoculture in Western Ghats for commercial exploitation and clearing forests for plantation agriculture are important threat to Indian forests.

12. Consider the following regarding rain water harvesting

1. Reduce flooding

2. Reduced surface runoff

3. No impact on conservation of soil.

4. Dilution of fluorides and salinity in groundwater.

Which of the following is/are CORRECT

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) 2, 3 and 4

d) All the above

Answer: (b)

Justification:

Rainwater harvesting is the accumulation and storage of rainwater for reuse on-site, rather than allowing it to run off. Rainwater harvesting helps manage storm water run-off to prevent erosion, flooding and poor water quality in our lakes and streams. Rainwater recharged into the ground would have a positive impact on groundwater quality through dilution of fluorides, nitrates and salinity.




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13. A state in India has the following characteristics.

1. Discontinuous hills of lower elevation extend in the central part of the state.

2. Nearly 60% of soil cover is Red soil and it is the leading producer of Tobacco, Chilly and Turmeric in the country

3. Chenchus, Yerukalas, Koyas are important tribal groups of the state.

Identify the state with the above features

a) Tamil Nadu

b) Jharkand

c) Andhra Pradesh

d) Gujarat

Answer: (c)

Justification:

Eastern Ghats is important physiographic unit which extends in central part of Andhra Pradesh. To the east of Eastern Ghats coastal plains are located and towards the west, semi-arid Western peneplains part are found . Chenchus and Yerukalas are important tribal groups of Eastern Ghats. Andhra Pradesh is the leading producer of various agricultural crops.

14. Majuli one of the biggest riverine island in the world is formed by confluence of

a) Brahmaputra and Manas river

b) Kameng, Dhansiri and Brahmaputra river

c) Brahmaputra, Subansiri and Kherkutia suti

d) Brahmaputra and Barak river

Answer: (c)




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Justification:

15. The number of states which are located to the south of Tropic of Cancer excluding the states through which Tropic of cancer passes

a) 7

b) 8

c) 6

d) 10

Answer: (b)

Justification:

Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 Indian states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, MP, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram. The number of states to the South of Tropic of Cancer excluding above states is 8. They Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Odisha.


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16. Monazite a important source of rare earths in general is NOT found over which state

a) Odisha

b) Kerala

c) Andhra Pradesh

d) Jammu Kashmir

Answer: (d)

Justification:

High reserves of monazite which is important source of thorium and rare earth metals in located in Jharkand, Andhra Pradesh , Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and minor deposits in other states . It is not found in Jammu and Kashmir.

17. Consider the following

1. Lock Industry — Aligarh

2. Brass Handicraft — Firozabad

3. Glass Industry — Moradabad

Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 only

d) All the above

Answer: (c)

Justification:

Lock Industry – Aligrah

Brass handicraft – Moradabad

Glass industry – Firozabad

18. The largest naval base in India is located in

a) Vishakapatnam

b) Karwar

c) Kochi

d) Paradeep




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Answer: (b)

Justification:

Karwar naval base is considered as the world’s largest naval base east of the Suez Canal. INS Vajrakosh and INS Kadamba are important naval stations in Karwar.

19. Tropical cyclone Gita that hit in 2018 was formed in

a) Arabian sea

b) Bay of Bengal

c) South Pacific

d) South China sea

Answer: (c)

Justification:

Tropical cyclone was formed in Southern Pacific and affected multiple island nations of Vanuatu, Fiji, Samoa and Tonga.

20. Consider the following statements regarding millet cultivation

1. They are rainfed crops mostly grown to the west of 100 cm Isohyet line.

2. The are grown only in black soil region of Deccan plateau.

3. Apart from Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, Uttarakhand is also important producer of ragi in the country.

Which of the following is/are correct

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1 only

d) 3 only

Answer: (b)

Justification:

Millets require rainfall varying between 40 to 80 cm. The western part of the country including rain shadow regions of Western Ghats have rainfall less than 100 cm. Rajasthan , Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana are important producers of millets. Millets grows well in sandy, loamy, red soil. Uttarkhand is the third leading producer of ragi producing around 10% of total production.




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21. Which of the following statement is NOT correct

a) The seismograph provides information regarding time, location and magnitude of the earthquake.

b) The seismographs located beyond 145’ from epicenter record the arrival of P-waves only.

c) At a seismic station the first waves to arrive are surface waves.

d) The intensity of an earthquake is measured by Mercalli scale.

Answer: (c)

Justification:

Seismic waves are the vibrations from earthquakes that travel through the Earth; they are recorded on instruments called seismographs. Seismographs record a zig-zag trace that shows the varying amplitude of ground oscillations beneath the instrument. Sensitive seismographs, which greatly magnify these ground motions, can detect strong earthquakes from sources anywhere in the world. The time, location, and magnitude of an earthquake can be determined from the data recorded by seismograph stations.

S waves shadow zone extend from 105⁰. P wave shadow zone extends between 105⁰ to 145⁰. Beyond 145⁰ only P waves are received

At seismic station first waves to arrive are P waves. Then S waves and in the last the surface waves.

22. Consider the following statements regarding Plate Tectonics

1. Oceanic trenches are morphological feature of divergent plate boundaries.

2. Plate movement along transform boundaries leads to formation of fold mountains.

Which of the following is/are CORRECT

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


Answer: (d)

Justification:

Oceanic trenches are morphological feature of Convergent plate boundaries. For e.g Mariana trench along subduction zone of Philippines plate and Pacific plate

Because of sliding movement along transform boundaries only high intensity earthquakes are possible. It does not lead to mountain orogeny. E.g San Andreas Fault




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23. The most violent volcanic eruptions are associated with which of the following volcano

a) Shield Volcanoes

b) Caldera

c) Mid-Ocean Ridge volcanoes

d) Flood Basalt Provinces

Answer: (b)

Justification:

Caldera volcanoes are the Extreme Volcanoes. These are the most powerful and catastrophic types of volcanoes in a category by themselves because of the unique way in which they form. This type of volcano is shaped more like an inverse volcano. An enormous magma chamber bulges up beneath the ground from the extremely high pressures of the trapped gases within. Ring-shaped cracks form outward from the magma chamber toward the surface and these act as relief valves for the magma to escape. Once the accumulated pressure has been sufficiently released through a serious of extremely powerful pyroclastic and plinian eruptions, the ground above the magma chamber subsides or caves in, leaving a large depression.

In Shield volcano, Mid-ocean ridges and Flood basalt provinces the lava is not much viscous because of basaltic composition. The eruptions are not violent

24. Indicate the correct sequence of Igneous, sedimentary and Metamorphic rocks based on the following statements

1. The rocks are stratified rocks rich in fossils of animals and plants.

2. The rocks are hard and normally crystalline in structure.

3. Rocks undergo chemical changes or structural modification of minerals because of excessive heat and pressure.

Which of the following is correct

a) 3,2,1

b) 1,2,3

c) 2,1,3

d) 1,3,2

Answer: (c)

Justification:

Igneous rock is formed when magma or lava from volcanoes cools. Examples include basalt and granite. Most igneous rock is very hard. They are normally crystalline in structure.They do not occur in strata




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Sedimentary rocks are formed over millions of years when sediments (tiny pieces of rocks and animal skeletons) are pressed together at the bottom of seas and rivers.They are distinguished from other rock types in their characteristic layer formation and are termed stratified rocks. Examples include sandstone, coal and chalk. Some sedimentary rocks contain fossils (bones or shells of living things that were buried long ago and have turned to stone).

Metamorphic rocks are formed when other rocks are changed due to heat or pressure. Examples include slate and marble. Metamorphic rocks are very hard but can be damaged by acids like acid rain (on buildings) or even lemon juice (on worktops!).

25. A meandering stream deposit most of its sediments

a) Inside of the meanders where the stream flows faster

b) Inside of the meanders where the stream flows slower

c) Outside of meanders where the stream flows faster

d) Outside of meanders where the stream flows faster

Answer: (b)

26. The boundary between the crust and mantle

a) is a source region where earth’s magnetic field is formed

b) coincides with the boundary between the asthenosphere and lithosphere

c) is marked by a change in velocity of seismic waves at the Moho.


Answer: (c)

Justification:

The source region for formation of magnetic field is core of the earth

Asthenosphere and outer outer mantle are part of mantle. Lithosphere includes a part of outer mantle.

Seismic wave diffraction shows a boundary between more and less dense rocks that is commonly taken to be the crust-mantle boundary. It’s called the Mohorovicic discontinuity or Moho for short. It’s usually at 30-40 km depth underneath continents, but can be as deep as 80 km.

27. Which of the following statements is CORRECT

(a) The Earth’s magnetic poles are inclined approximately 11 degrees from the Earth’s rotation axis.

(b) The Earth’s magnetic poles are aligned with Earth’s rotation axis.

(c) The Earth’s magnetic poles are perpendicular to the Earth’s rotation axis.

(d) None of the above.




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Answer: (a)

28. The boundary zone between Pacific plate and Antarctic plate exhibits conditions of

(a) convergence

(b) sinking

(c) sliding

(d) divergence

Answer: (d)

29. A lens-shaped igneous intrusion situated beneath an anticlinal fold or in the base of a syncline is called

(a) Lapolith

(b) Lacolith

(c) Phacolith

(d) Batholith

Answer: (c)

Justification:

Batholith, is large body of intrusive igneous rock believed to have been crystallized at the considerable depth below the earth’s surface.. They are the largest type of pluton. Example of batholith is Idaho batholith which cover surface area of over 15500 kilometer square. Lopolith these are saucer – shaped features formed beneath the earth’s surface through magma intrusion. Lopolith forms great shallow basin when magma solidifies within the crust a good example is bush veld igneous complex of South Africa which is composed of both granite and basic rock.

Laccolith, this is a sheet intrusion that has been injected between two layers of sedimentary rock. The pressure of magma is powerful enough that the overlying strata are forced upward giving laccolith a dome or mushroom like form with generally planar base. Some laccolith can be found in Madagascar and Utah USA where they has been exposed by erosion.

Phacolith, this is lens shaped pluton that occupy either the crest of an anticline or trough of syncline. A good example of phacolith can be seen seen in Corndon hills in Shropshire United Kingdom.




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30. Match the following

Landforms Processes

A . Natural Levees 1. Aeolin

B. Esker 2. Karst

C. Uvala 3. Fluvial

D. Barchan 4. Glacial


A B C D

a) 1 3 2 4

b) 3 2 4 1

c) 1 2 3 4

d) 3 4 2 1

Answer: (d)

Justification:

Natural Levees – Fluvial

Esker – Glacial

Uvala – Karst

Barchan – Aeolin

31. Dead sea is situated in which one of the following

(a) A rift valley

(b) An intermontane Plateau

(c) Intermontane Plains

(d) Canyons

Answer: (a)

Justification:

The Dead Sea Transform (DST) fault system, also sometimes referred to as the Dead Sea Rift, is a series of faults that run from the Maras Triple Junction (a junction with the East Anatolian Fault in southeastern Turkey) to the northern end of the Red Sea Rift (just offshore of the southern tip of the Sinai Peninsula). The fault system forms the transform boundary between the African Plate to the west and the Arabian Plate to the east.




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32. Hawaii Islands are known for active volcanoes because

(a) they are locked in the subduction zone of covering

(b) faults and fractures are found there

(c) they are situated over a hot plume

(d) they are situated on a diverging boundary with rising convective currents

Answer: (c)

Justification:

The Earth’s outer crust is made up of a series of tectonic plates that move over the surface of the planet. In areas where the plates come together, sometimes volcanoes will form. Volcanoes can also form in the middle of a plate, where magma rises upward until it erupts on the seafloor, at what is called a “hot spot.”

The Hawaiian Islands were formed by such a hot spot occurring in the middle of the Pacific Plate. While the hot spot itself is fixed, the plate is moving. So, as the plate moved over the hot spot, the string of islands that make up the Hawaiian Island chain were formed.


1. Nearly 46.6% of total crust of earth is composed of silicon.

2. P wave travel fastest through inner core.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


Answer: (d)

Justification:

Nearly 46.6% of total crust of earth is composed of oxygen and 27.72% by silicon

The P waves travel fastest through outer mantle. Seismic velocities depend on the material properties such as composition, mineral phase and packing structure, temperature, and pressure of the media through which seismic waves pass.

Seismic waves travel more quickly through denser materials and therefore generally travel more quickly with depth. Anomalously hot areas slow down seismic waves. Seismic waves move more slowly through a liquid than a solid.

Molten areas within the Earth slow down P waves and stop S waves because their shearing motion cannot be transmitted through a liquid. Partially molten areas may slow down the P waves and attenuate or weaken S waves.




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34. The common weathering found in hot and dry environment is

(a) Carbonation

(b) Hydration

(c) Abrasion

(d) Frost action

Answer: (c)

Justification :

In desert and arid regions wind is an important agent of weathering. Abrasion through wind action is important mode of erosion.

Carbonation and hydration are more common in humid areas

Frost action is common in tundra and temperate regions.

35. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched

(a) Washington : Potomac river

(b) Vienna : Danube river

(c) Canberra : Murray river

(d) Lahore : Ravi river

Answer: (c)

Justification:

Canberra is located on Murrumbidgee river


1. The flow of Mississippi river is entirely located in USA.

2. River Parana flows through Pampas region of South America.

Which of the following statement is/are correct

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


Answer: (c)




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37. Aral sea is located between

(a) Uzbekistan and Turkmenistan

(b) Uzbekistan and Kazakhstan

(c) Kazakhstan and Tajikistan

(d) Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan

Answer: (b)

38. All Central American countries are located along both coasts of Caribbean Sea and Pacific Ocean EXCEPT

(a) Nicaragua and Honduras

(b) Panama and Costa Rica

(c) Belize and El Salvador

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

39. English Channel is separated by North Sea by

(a) Strait of Otranto

(b) Strait of Gibraltar

(c) Strait of Dardanelles

(d) Strait of Dover

Answer: (d)

40. Beginning from Perth encircling Australia, various geographical features one comes across in order are

(a) Great Barrier Reef – Bass Strait – Torres Strait

(b) Bass strait – Great Barrier Reef – Torres Strait

(c) Torres Strait – Bass Strait – Great Barrier Reef

(d) Great Barrier Reef – Torres Strait – Bass Strait

Answer: (b)




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41. A man observes that a flag-pole outside his home casts no shadow on 21st March at 12 o’clock noon. His home is at

a) North Pole

b) Equator

c) Tropic of cancer

d) Arctic circle

Answer: (b)

Justification:

Sun rays fall vertically on Equator on 21st March (Spring Equinox). Hence the pole on equator on 21stMarch does not cast the shadow.

42. Consider the following statements regarding the distribution and pattern of isotherms:

1. In the northern hemisphere, isotherms bend sharply equator-ward over the continents during winter.

2. Temperature gradients are greater in summer than in winter in the northern hemisphere.

Which of the following statements is/are correct

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


Answer: (a)

Justification:

On the continents of northern hemisphere, during winters isotherms bend sharply towards the equator. Whereas they bend towards the pole over the oceans in winter.

Temperature gradient is more pronounced during winter than during summer.

43. A temperature inversion is most likely to occur under which of the following conditions.

a) Mountain top in late evening

b) Windy but cloudy night

c) Calm, cloudy and humid night

d) Calm, clear and cool winter night

Answer: (d)




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Justification:

A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion. The heat of the day is radiated off during the night, and by early morning hours, the earth is cooler than the air above. Over polar areas, temperature inversion is normal throughout the year.

44. In the northern hemisphere, tropical cyclones and temperate cyclones are similar in that both

a) Originate over warm ocean

b) are formed only during the summers

c) have winds that blow counter-clockwise around their centers

d) generally move from from east to west

Answer: (c)

Justification:

Tropical cyclones as well as Temperate cyclones have anti-clockwise rotation of winds in the Northern Hemisphere, whereas clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.

45. Identify the correct sequence of the given processes regarding rainfall:

a) unsaturated air, condensation, dew point, precipitation

b) dew point, condensation, unsaturated air, precipitation

c) unsaturated air, dew point, condensation, precipitation

d) dew point, condensation, precipitation, unsaturated air

Answer: (c)

Justification:

The unsaturated air, as rises, gets adiabatically cooled and its relative humidity increases. The temperature at which saturation takes place is called dew point. When humidity exceeds 100% condensation takes place leading to precipitation.

46. The hot dust-laden wind blowing from Sahara desert to Mediterranean region is called the

a) chinook

b) foehn

c) mistral

d) sirocco

Answer: (d)




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Justification:

Warm and dry local winds blowing on the leeward sides of the mountains are called chinook in the USA and foehn in Switzerland. Sirocco is a warm, dry and dusty (full of sands) local wind which blows in northerly direction from Sahara Desert and after crossing over the Mediterra-nean Sea reaches Italy, Spain etc. Mistral is a cold local wind which blows in Spain and France from north-west to south-east direction. These winds are more common and effective during winter season because of development of high pressure over Europe and low pressure over Mediterranean Sea. They become extremely cold when they blow through central plateau and descend into Rhone valley on the southern coast of France.

47. Kuoshio is a warm ocean current which runs from

a) Philippines to Japan

b) Indonesia to Philippines

c) Japan to Indonesia

d) Sri Lanka Indonesia

Answer: (a)

Justification:

The north equatorial current turns northwards due to the obstruction of Philippines and thus forms the Kuroshio current which flows from Philippines to islands of Japan.

48. Which one of the following is NOT a factor modifying ocean currents

a) Direction and shape of the coast-line

b) Revolution of the earth

c) Seasonal variation in winds

d) Bottom topography

Answer: (b)

Justification:

Rotation of earth influences ocean currents and but not the revolution of earth. Seasonal variation of monsoon winds influences ocean currents of Indian Ocean. Sea floor topography influences ocean circulation in two basic ways. First, it steers ocean flows. Second, it provides barriers that prevent deep waters from mixing, except within deep passageways that connect ocean basins.




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49. Consider the following statements regarding Madden Julian oscillation

1. is eastward moving ‘pulse’ of clouds, rainfall, winds and pressure near the equator.

2. is confined to Indian ocean only


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


Answer: (a)

Justification:

MJO is an oceanic-atmospheric phenomenon which affects global weather activities. The MJO can be defined as an eastward moving ‘pulse’ of clouds, rainfall, winds and pressure near the equator. MJO is different from El Nino and IOD. It is a transient feature and that typically recurs every 30 to 60 days.

As its periodicity extends up to 60 days at times, it is also known as ISO or Intra Seasonal Oscillation.

This traversing planetary scale phenomenon travels across the equatorial region of the Globe carrying a pulse of clouds and rains. It amplitude or powers is invariably large over warmer waters of the Indian Ocean and relatively less over the cooler waters of the Pacific Ocean.

50. Bowl shaped depression created as a result of glacial erosion high on a mountainside is called

(a) Glacial trough

(b) Bergschrund

(c) Hanging valley

(d) Cirque

Answer: (d)

Justification:

Features associated with glacier erosion in alpine regions are cirques, horns, and arêtes. Cirques are the bowl shaped depressions found at the head of glacial valleys. For most alpine glaciers, cirques are the areas in the alpine valleys where snow first accumulated and was modified into glacial ice.

Glacial troughs are also known as U shaped valleys. U-shaped valleys have steep sides and a wide, flat floor. They are usually straight and deep. They are formed in river valleys which, during the ice age, have been filled by a large glacier. These glaciers have deepened, straightened and widened the valley by plucking and abrasion.




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A hanging valley is a smaller side valley left ‘hanging’ above the main U-shaped valley formed by a tributary glacier.

51. Grassland biomes around the Earth vary in several ways, but the chief factor causing the variation is

(a) Amount of rainfall

(b) Soil type

(c) Fauna

(d) Prevailing winds

Answer: (a)

Justification:

Variation in grassland biome across the world is essentially because of the variation of climatic conditions. Vegetation of region is influenced by topography and climatic conditions.

52. In which biome would a person most likely to observe the midnight sun

(a) Temperate rain forest

(b) Desert

(c) Tundra

(d) Tropical rain forest

Answer: (c)

Justification:

The midnight sun is a natural phenomenon that occurs in the summer months in places north of the Arctic Circle or south of the Antarctic Circle. The biome in this region is Tundra type. The temperate rainforest biome is mainly located on the northern Pacific coast of North America (from Oregon to Alaska for about 1,200 miles). Though there are also temperate rainforests in Chile in South America, Japan and some of southeastern Russia and northwestern and southern China, and in New Zealand and Australia. So in general temperate rainforest are found mid-latitude

53. Which of the following statement in general explains most favorable condition for Indian monsoons

(a) During El-nino years

(b) Sub-tropical Westerly Jet-Streams(STWJS) located to the south of Himalayas during summer

(c) Weak Somali jet-stream

(d) Normal Walker cell circulation coupled with high Sea Surface Temperature (SST) on Western Indian Ocean




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Answer: (d)

Justification:

During normal Walker cell circulation South East trade are stronger. High SST on western Indian Ocean (positive IOD) helps in greater moisture content of monsoon winds. Hence it is highly favorable for monsoons.

During El-nino years monsoons usually are weaker because of weak south east trade and development of low pressure over Northern Africa

Strong Somali jet pushes the south west winds towards Indian subcontinent

For the onset of monsoons, STWJS should shift to the north of Himalayas. STWJS location over north Indian plains creates high pressure which is not favorable for monsoon over northern part.

54. Currents in the deep oceans are driven by

(a) wind

(b) coriolis effect

(c) density difference

(d) seafloor earthquakes

Answer: (c)

Justification:

Winds drive ocean currents in the upper 100 meters of the ocean’s surface. However, ocean currents also flow thousands of meters below the surface. These deep-ocean currents are driven by differences in the water’s density, which is controlled by temperature (thermo) and salinity (haline). This process is known as thermohaline circulation.

55. Amongst the given options, which one of the following is the highest mountain peak

(a) Mount Elbrus

(b) Mount Aconcagua

(c) Mount Kilimanjaro

(d) Mount Kosciuszko

Answer: (b)

Justification:

Mount Elbrus (5642 m)- Highest peak of Europe

Mount Aconcagua(6962 m) – Highest peak of South America

Mount Kilimanjaro(5895 m) -Highest peak of Africa

Mount Kosciuszko(2228 m) -Highest peak of Australia




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56. Takla Makan desert is located between

(a) Kunlun Shan and Tian shan

(b) Hindu Kush and Karakoram range

(c) Tian Shan and Altai mountains

(d) Kunlun Shan and Kailash range

Answer: (a)

Justification:

The Taklamakan Desert is a desert in southwest Xinjiang Uyghur Autonomous Region, northwest China. It is bounded by the Kunlun Mountains to the south, the Pamir Mountains and Tian Shan(ancient Mount Imeon) to the west and north, and the Gobi Desert to the east.

57. Caucasus mountains extends between

(a) Caspian sea and Mediterranean sea

(b) Black sea and Aegean sea

(c) Black sea and Caspian sea

(d) Caspian sea and Aral sea

Answer: (c)

58. Amongst the following, identify the hot semi-desert of Europe

(a) Mojave desert

(b) Tabernas desert

(c) Sonaran desert

(d) Nagev desert

Answer: (b)

Justification:

Tabernas is arid region in Spain’s Almeria province considered as the true desert of Europe. Mojave and Sonaran are in North America whereas Negev is in Israel.

59. Golan height a rocky-plateau in West Asia is disputed between

(a) Jordan and Syria

(b) Syria and Lebanon

(c) Iraq and Iran

(d) Israel and Syria




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Answer: (d)

60. Which one of the following country is NOT party to Territorial claims in the Arctic and North pole

(a) Finland

(b) United Kingdom

(c) United States

(d) Russia

Answer: (b)

Justification:

All land, internal waters, territorial seas and EEZs in the Arctic are under the jurisdiction of one of the eight Arctic coastal states: Canada, Norway, Russia, Denmark (via Greenland), Iceland, Sweden, Finland and the United States.


Tribe Region

1. Pygmies – Equatorial Rainforest

2. Hausa – Hot desert

3. Bindibu – Savannah

Which of the following is/are CORRECTLY matched

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 3 only

Answer: (a)

Justification:

The ‘Pygmy‘ peoples of central Africa are traditionally hunter-gatherers living in the rainforests throughout central Africa. The Hausa are a tribe of settled cultivators who inhabit the savanna lands of the Nigeria and West Africa. Bindibu or Aborigines of Australia are nomadic hunters and food gatherers of West Australian deserts.


1. Mediterranean type of climate is characterized by dry winter and warm & wet summer.

2. Mediterranean regions are famous for viticulture and olive cultivation.




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a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


Answer: (b)

Justification:

Mediterranean climate is found between 30- 45 ⁰ latitudes. The climate is influenced by shifting of the pressure belts. Mediterranean region receive rainfall during winter and summers are dry. Mediterranean region are famous for cultivation of citrus fruits and olive cultivation.

63. Consider the following statements regarding British type of climate

1. Precipitation during summers only

2. Coniferous Evergreen Forest

3. Severe winters


a) 2 and 3 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 3 only


Answer: (d)

Justification:

British type of climate is the cool temperate climate which are permanently under the influence of Westerlies. The region receives rainfall throughout the year. The winters are mild because of the maritime effect. In general temperate deciduous forest is found in British type. Oak, birch, poplar, beech etc are some important temperate hardwood trees.


1. The region is practically treeless, with tall and nutritious grass.

2. High annual range of temperature

3. Known as Granaries of the world.

Based on above features, which region does it denote

a) Monsoon region b) Savannah

c) Temperate grasslands d) Siberian region




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Answer: (c)

Justification:

Temperate grasslands are characterized as having grasses as the dominant vegetation. Trees and large shrubs are absent. They have hot summers and cold winters. During summers, the temperature can be well over 100 degrees Fahrenheit. Hence annual range of temperature is high. They are famous for wheat cultivation and are called Bread baskets of the world.

65. Which one of the following regions receives the rainfall throughout the year due to westerly winds

a) South-west Australia

b) Iraq and Iran

c) South Africa

d) South Chile

Answer: (d)

Justification:

At higher latitudes Westerly winds are onshore throughout the year. In Southern Chile the winds blowing from Pacific ocean will be responsible for precipitation throughout the year. South Africa and South-west Australia come under the influence of Mediterranean type of the climate. Iraq and Iran experience desert type of climate.

66. Which one of the following statements is correct

a) The trees of equatorial evergreen forests are mostly softwood type

b) While most hardwoods are either deciduous or evergreen, softwood is usually coniferous in characteristics

c) While most softwoods occurs in the tropical areas, the hardwoods are characteristics of temperate region.


Answer: (b)

Justification:

Equatorial rainforest and tropical forests are hardwood trees and coniferous forests found at higher latitudes are softwood trees. Equatorial rainforest trees are evergreen whereas monsoon forest found in tropical region are deciduous in nature. But in general most coniferous trees are evergreen.




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1. Rainfall throughout the year with summer maximum

2. Found along Brazilian Highland and Queensland of Australia

3. Famous for coffee cultivation

Based on above features, which climate does it denote

a) Equatorial type

b) Natal type

c) Tropical marine

d) Mediterranean climate

Answer: (c)

Justification:

Tropical marine climate found over Brazilian highland, Eastern Highlands of Africa and Australia. Onshore South-east trade winds will be responsible for rainfall throughout the year with summer maximum. Tropical monsoons are known for wet summers and dry winter. Brazil is one of the leading producer of coffee and sugarcane which is confined to Brazilian highland.

68. In Africa, if one traverses from North to South between 20 to 30 East longitude, the correct sequence of broad natural vegetation is

(a) Savanna – Desert type – Rain forests – Mediterranean – Savanna – Desert type

(b) Desert type – Savanna – Rainforest – Savanna – Desert type – Mediterranean

(c) Desert type – Rainforest – Savanna – Desert type – Mediterranean – Savanna

(d) Rainforest – Savannah – Desert type– Mediterranean – Savanna – Desert type

Answer: (b)

Justification:

In the northern part Sahara desert , then followed by savanna grasslands of Sudan. At equator, rainforest of Congo are found. Then savanna grasslands of Kenya and other countries. Kalahari is found to the south of savanna grasslands. Finally in South Africa , Mediterranean climate is found.


Tribes Hills/Ranges

1. Bhotia/Bhotiya – Trans-himalayas

2. Bodo – Mizo hills

3. Gond – Satpura




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Which of the following is/are CORRECTLY matched

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1 and 2 only

Answer: (c)

Justification:

Bhotiya are an ethno-linguistic group of people residing in the upper Himalayan valleys of the Kumaon and Garhwal divisions of Uttarakhand state, India. The Bhotia or Bhotiya are an occupational caste of shepherds. They have Mongolian features and are known as Pahari or hill people.

The Bodo Tribe of Assam is believed to be one of the earliest settlers of Assam. They are the largest minority group in the state and they are mainly concentrated in and around the Brahmaputra Valley.

Gonds live all over central India, and in the states of Maharashtra and Orissa. As “hill people,” they traditionally have been associated with hills and uplands in the Deccan Peninsula. Many Gonds live around the Satpura Hills, Maikala Range and Son-Deogarh uplands, and on the Bastar plateau. Many Gond tribes also live in the Garhjat Hills of northern Orissa

70. Consider the following statements:

1. Natives of Andaman-Nicobar islands belong to Negrito races

2. Tribals living in Central India belong to Mongoloid races

3. Indo-Aryans belong to the Nordic races


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 only

c) 3 only

d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (d)

Justification:

Negritos: These broad headed people from Africa were the earliest to inhabit India. They can still be found in the Andamans, and among hill tribes in South India like the Irulas, Kodars, Paniyans and Kurumbas.

Mongoloids: Found in North Eastern India, these people have features that are common to those of the people of Mongolia, China and Tibet. These tribal groups are located in Assam, Nagaland and Meghalya and also in Ladakh and Sikkim. Generally, they are people of yellowish complexion, oblique eyes, high cheekbones, sparse hair and medium height.




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Nordics: Nordics or Indo-Aryans are the last immigrants into India. Nordic Aryans were a branch of Indo-Iranians, who had originally left their homes in Central Asia, some 5000 years ago, and had settled in Mesopotamia for some centuries. The Aryans must have come into India between 2000 and 1500 B.C. Their first home in India was western and northern Punjab, from where they spread to the Valley of the Ganga and beyond. These tribes are now mainly found in the Northwest and the Northwest Frontier Province.


1. North eastern region known for high precipitation, has higher ground water potential than northern alluvial plains of India.

2. Tank irrigation a traditional irrigation method is largely confined to states of peninsular plateau.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


Answer: (b)

Justification:

North eastern states despite higher precipitation have lower ground water potential than northern plains. Because of hilly topography the surface runoff is high. Also the rate of percolation is low, hence lower ground water potential.

Tank irrigation is popular in the peninsular plateau area where Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu are the leading states. The ratio of tank irrigated land to the total irrigated area of the country has reduced from 14 per cent in the 1960-61 to about 4.6 per cent in 2001-01, primarily due to increase in well and tube well irrigation and partly due to fall in the tank irrigation .


1. Mizoram is the leading producer of rubber in North-east

2. Wheat, maize and rice are the prominent crops grown in Jammu and Kashmir


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


Answer: (b)




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Justification:

Tripura is the leading producer of rubber in the north-east.

Wheat and maize is largely confined to Bajwat (outer plains to the south of Shiwaliks). The region is known for lower amount for rainfall favorable for cultivation of above crops. In irrigated parts of Bajwat paddy is cultivated. In Kashmir valley, along with saffron paddy is also cultivated.


Port Exports

1. New Mangalore – Iron-ore

2. Mumbai – Petrochemicals

3. Kandla – Cereals and oil cake

Which of the following is/are correctly matched

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 2 only

d) All the above

Answer: (d)

Justification:

Karnataka and Goa are rich in iron ore deposits which is exported through New Mangalore port.

Many oil refineries are located along western coast. Import of crude oil and export of petrochemicals takes place through Mumbai port.

North plains is important producers of wheat and rice. India is an important exporter of cereals which takes place through Kandla port. Soyabean oilcake , Cotton oilcake , sesame oilcake etc are some important exports from Kandla.

74. Which amongst the following has the lowest child sex ratio (0-6 years ) as per 2011 census

(a) Madhya Pradesh

(b) Gujarat

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Goa

Answer: (b)

Justification:

o Madhya Pradesh – 918 o Gujarat – 890 o Maharashtra – 894 o Goa – 942




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75. Which of the ISIS affected town/city is located in IRAQ

a) Aleppo

b) Raqqa

c) Damascus

d) Mosul

Answer: (d)

Justification:

Mosul is in Iraq and rest of them Syria

76. Kuril islands are disputed between

(a) Russia and Japan

(b) China and Japan

(c) China and Vietnam

(d) Russia and China

Answer: (a)

77. Summer rains in Australia broadly decrease from

(a) West to East

(b)East to West

(c) North to South

(d) South and North

Answer: (b)

Justification:

Most parts of Australia come under influence of South east trade winds. Onshore winds will bring higher rainfall along the eastern coast. Presence of Great Dividing range brings greater orographic rainfall towards the east. On the west only dry offshore winds are blowing leading to arid conditions . Deserts of Australia are located on the west.

78. Consider the following cities of South America

1. Santiago

2. Quito

3. Brasilia




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Arrange the cities from north to south

a) 3-2-1

b) 1-2-3

c) 2-1-3

d) 2-3-1

Answer: (d)

79. Which one of the following countries makes maximum use of the geothermal energy

(a) Russia

(b) Iceland

(c) United Kingdom

(d) China

Answer: (b)

Justification:

Iceland is located on diverging plate boundaries of Mid-Atlantic.


1. North Korea is separated from South Korea by 36th parallel

2. North Korea shares boundary with China and Russia

Which of the statement is/are correct

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


Answer: (b)

Justification:

North Korea is separated from South Korea by 38th parallel

North shares boundary with China and Russia.




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1. As the Tsunami enters shallow water their wavelength decreases, and their wave height increases.

2. Tsunamis are most commonly formed in Pacific Ocean.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


Answer: (c)

Justification:

Pacific region is the convergence zone of many plates, hence Tsunami are more common in Pacific Ocean.


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82. Which of the following is the correct sequence in coral reef formation

a) Atoll – Barrier Reef – Fringing reef

b) Barrier reef – Fringing reef – Atoll

c) Fringing reef – Atoll – Barrier reef

d) Fringing reef – Barrier reef – Atoll

Answer: (d)

Justification:

Fringing reefs occur close to land and often extend out to sea for long distances. The second type of reef is a barrier reef, a well defined coral zone separated from land by a lagoon. The lagoon is a shallow area with a sandy floor, patch reefs, and patches of seagrass. An atoll is the third type of reef. An atoll is a ring-like formation of reefs with a lagoon inside the ring.

According to Darwin, barrier reefs begin as fringing reefs along the shores of a volcano. Over millions of years, the volcano sinks lower into the sea and the sea level rises around the volcano. The coral grows upwards to keep from getting too far from the sunlight at the sea surface. The outward side of the coral reef grows fastest since ocean currents bring in the plankton that the corals feed on. The water on the landward side of the reef is still and there is less oceanic plankton. Here the reef is unable to grow fast enough to keep up with the rising sea level and is eventually drowned. A lagoon develops between the reef and the land, resulting in the characteristic barrier reef shape. The volcano continues sinking until it disappears under the sea surface. The result is an atoll, a ring of coral reefs surrounding the submerged, extinct volcano.

83. A Continental Tropical (cT) airmass is formed in

a) the Pacific ocean

b) Siberian region

c) Sahara and deserts of West Asia

d) Northern Indian Ocean

Answer: (c)

Justification:

Airmass is large body is large body of air having uniform temperature and moisture conditions. The region where it acquires such characteristic is called source. Hot desert of subtropics are important source region for Continental Tropical airmass.




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84. The seasonal migration of animal livestock from lowland pastures to mountainous regions is termed

a) Transhumance

b) Intensive subsistence agriculture

c) Shifting agriculture

d) Livestock ranching

Answer: (a)

Justification:

Transhumance is the practice of pastoral nomads when they circulate with their herds from lowland pastures to mountainous regions in a learned pattern that is often passed down through generations of family members.

Livestock ranching is the commercial grazing of livestock over an extensive area which is associated with a very large land requirement and modest input of capital and human resources (labor management) per unit area of land.

85. Consider the following situations:

1. Birth rate greater than death rate

2. Very high birth and death rates

3. Low birth and death rates

Demographic Transition in a country follows the sequences

a) 1, 3, 2 b) 2, 1, 3

c) 2, 3, 1 d) 3, 1, 2





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Answer: (b)

Justification:

86. Which one of the following areas is dominant in hunting and gathering

a) Hot desert

b) Cold desert

c) Tropical rainforest

d) Temperate grassland

Answer: (c)

Justification:

In general hunters and food gatherers are confined to Tropical Rainforest region. Abundance of flora and fauna promotes such activity. Pygmies and Orang Asli are some examples.

87. Consider the following statements regarding Elephanta Islands

1. Elephanta Islands are entirely made up of Deccan basalt mostly vegetated by mangroves.

2. Elephanta Island was center of sculptural importance under Western Chalukyas.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Borh 1 and 2


Answer: (a)





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Justification:

Elephanta Island, made up entirely of Deccan basalt, has a 7 km coastline mostly covered by by mangroves. There are hundreds of rock cut caves in Deccan trap.

The Elephanta Caves represent the focal point of the Elephanta Island, located in the Mumbai harbour off the coast of Mumbai (Bombay), India. In 1987, UNESCO designated the caves a UNESCO World Heritage Site.[ The caves have been dated back to the Silhara kings of the ninth through thirteenth centuries (810–1260). Some of the sculptures of the site have been attributed to the imperial Rashtrakutas of Manyakheta (in present day Karnataka), the Trimurti of Elephanta showing the three faces of Shiva almost akin to the Trinity of Brahma, Vishnu, and Mahesh, the royal insignia of the Rashtrakutas. Other Rashtrakuta sculptures include the reliefs of Nataraja and Sadashiva and the splendid sculptures of Ardhanarishvara.


1. Western coastal plains in general are example of submergent coastal plains.

2. Eastern coastal plains are emergent type and broader than western coastal plains.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


Answer: (c)

Justification:

The western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plain. Because of this submergence it is a narrow belt and provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbors. As compared to the western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent coast. There are well developed deltas here, formed by the rivers flowing eastward in to the Bay of Bengal. These include the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri. Because of its emergent nature, it has less number of ports and harbors.

89. Laterite soil in India in general is found over

1. Western Ghats

2. Eastern Ghats

3. Aravallis


a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only d) All the above




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Answer: (b)

Justification:

Laterite soil is reddish to yellow in color with a lower content of nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, lime, and magnesia with 90–100% of iron, aluminum, titanium, and manganese oxides. The word laterite has been derived from the Latin word that means brick. The laterite soil is formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry periods, which leads to leaching of soil, leaving only oxides of iron and aluminum.

Laterite soil in India is found over Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats , Rajmahal hills, Northeastern region and some parts of Vindhyas and Satpura. In general they are found over Aravallis.

90. Which of the following statement regarding ‘Monsoon Break’ is CORRECT

a) Localized convective rainfall during April and May

b) Higher rainfall along foothills of Himalayas due to northward shifting of Monsoon trough over Himalayas.

c) Weakening of South-west monsoons and no rainfall for few weeks over Western Ghats.


Answer: (b)

Justification:

During the Monsoon season, there are periods when the Monsoon trough shifts closer to the foothills of Himalayas, which leads to sharp decrease in rainfall over most parts of the country. However, rainfall increase along the foothills of Himalayas, Northeast India and parts of the Southern Peninsula (Rayalseema and Tamil Nadu). Such a synoptic situation is known as the ‘break’ Monsoon period. Normally the Monsoon trough runs from Sri Ganganagar in Rajasthan to Kolkata. During break Monsoon, the trough shifts closer to the foothills of Himalayas.


1. Having the longest coastline, Gujarat is the leading producer of marine fishes in India.

2. Gujarat is one of the leading producer of cash crops in India.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


Answer: (c)




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Justification:

Gujarat is the leading producer of marine fish in the country (7.74 lakh tonnes). It is followed by Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala.

Gujarat is important producer of cotton, sugarcane, tobacco and oilseeds. Hence it is one of the leading producers of cash crops. Over decades the area under cereals is decreasing and area under cash crops has increased.


Mine Mineral resource

1. Bailadila – Iron ore

2. Khetri – Copper

3. Barmer – Oil and Natural Gas

Which of the following is correctly matched

a) 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) All the above

Answer: (d)

Justification:

Bailadila mine in Chattisgarh is famous for Iron-ore deposits.

Khetri Copper Complex, Khetrinagar, Rajasthan: Khetri is situated at the foothills of the Aravalli Range, which hosts copper mineralization, giving rise to a 80 km long metallogenetic province from Singhana in the north to Raghunathgarh in the south, popularly known asKhetri Copper Belt.

Barmer in Rajasthan desert region is famous for oil and gas deposits. Majority of the reserves are located in the three fields of Mangala, Bhagyam and Aishwariya.


1. Among peninsular rivers, Kaveri has the largest river basin.

2. River Kaveri is considered as a perennial river.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2





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Answer: (b)

Justification:

The Godavari is the largest Peninsular river system. It is also called the Dakshin Ganga. It rises in the Nasik district of Maharashtra and discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal. . It is 1,465 km long with a catchment area spreading over 3.13 lakh sq. km 49 per cent of this, lies in Maharashtra, 20 per cent in Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, and the rest in Andhra Pradesh.

The Kaveri rises in Brahmagiri hills (1,341m) of Kogadu district in Karnataka. Its length is 800 km and it drains an area of 81,155 sq. km. Since the upper catchment area receives rainfall during the southwest monsoon season (summer) and the lower part during the northeast monsoon season (winter), the river carries water throughout the year with comparatively less fluctuation than the other Peninsular rivers.

94. The basic distinction between urban and rural settlements is the

a) Population size

b) Population density

c) Economic Function

d) Location

Answer: (c)

Justification:

Rural settlements has majority of its population engaged in agricultural activities whereas in urban settlement majority population is engaged in non-agricultural activities.

95. In South America, which amongst following country is landlocked

a) Ecuador

b) Uruguay

c) Peru

d) Bolivia

Answer: (d)

96. Consider the following ports:

1. Gibraltar

2. Colombo

3. Singapore

4. Aden




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The correct sequence of the location of ports along the Mediterranean Sea- Red Sea ocean route from London to Tokyo is

a) 1-2-3-4

b) 1-4-2-3

c) 4-1-3-2

d) 3-1-4-2

Answer: (b)


1. Andaman and Nicobar islands

2. Gulf of Kutch

3. Gulf of Manner

In which of the above following places, coral reefs in India are found

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) All the above

Answer: (d)

98. River Ghaggar does not flow through which of the following states

a) Himachal Pradesh

b) Uttarakhand

c) Haryana

d) Punjab

Answer: (b)

99. Which of the religious towns in India is NOT located on the bank of Ganga river

a) Rishikesh

b) Varanasi

c) Ujjain

d) Haridwar




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Answer: (c)

Justification:

Shipra River, also known as the Kshipra: The river rises in the Vindhya Range north of Dhar, and flows south across the Malwa Plateau to join the Chambal River. It is one of the sacred rivers in Hinduism. The holy city of Ujjain is situated on its right bank.

100. The number of states in India which do not have international border or lie on the coast

a) 5

b) 6

c) 7

d) 4

Answer: (a)

Justification:

Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Jharkand and Telangana.

PAPER II (CSAT) 101. Read the following statements and answer the question below.

1. Jessica has four children.

2. Two of the children have blue eyes and two of the children have brown eyes.

3. Half of the children are girls.

If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact ?

1. At least one girl has blue eyes.

2. Two of the children are boys.

3. The boys have brown eyes.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) None of the statements is a known fact.

Solution: a




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Justification:

Children Case1: Eye color Case2: Eye color Case3: Eye color Case4: Eye color

G1 Blue Brown Blue Brown

G2 Blue Brown Brown Blue

B1 Brown Blue Blue Brown

B2 Brown Blue Brown Blue

We can conclude that two of the children are boys. Hence, statement 2 is fact.

We can’t conclude exactly how many boys or girls have blue or brown eyes.

102. Five persons – A, B, C, D and E are being compared in weight and height. The second heaviest person D is the shortest. A is the 2nd tallest and shorter than E, The heaviest person is the third tallest person. There is only one person shorter than B, who is lighter than E and A respectively.

Who is the heaviest person?

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

Solution: c

Justification:

A is the second tallest person. There is only one person shorter than B. So, B is the fourth tallest person. D is the shortest and second heaviest.

A is shorter than E. So, the third tallest person is C, who is the heaviest person. B is lighter than E and A respectively. So, the final arrangement is as follows.

Weight Height

D A

B

D




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Final tabulation:

Weight Height

C E

D A

E C

A B

B D

C is heaviest person.

103. 15 people entered a theatre before Sujit. 7 people entered the theatre between Sujit and Suraj and 20 people entered the theatre after Suraj. If Suraj entered the theatre before Sujit then how many people entered the theatre ?

a) 28

b) 36

c) 44

d) 40

Solution: a

Justification:


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104. Four Cars numbered as (C1, C2, C3 and C4) are participating in a car rally. They have to travel from P to Q then to R. After the race, the following is observed.

1. The digit in the car number and the order in which they depart or arrive at any point is not the same.

2. The first car to leave P is the second car to reach R.

3. The first car to reach R is the second car to leave P and the last car to reach Q.

Which is the first car to leave P ?

a) C4

b) C3

c) C2

d) C1

Solution: a

Justification:

From the conditions 1 and 3, the 1st car to reach R cannot be C1 or C2 or C4. So, it has to be C3. So, C3 is the second to start at P, the fourth to reach Q and the first to reach R. The first car to leave P cannot be C1 or C2 or C3. So, it has to be C4. So, C4 is the second to reach R and the third to reach Q.

C2 is the first to reach Q and C, is the second. Thus we get the following arrangement.

P Q R

1 C4 C2 C3

2 C3 C1 C4

3 C2/C1 C4 C1/C2

4 C1/C2 C3 C2/C1

Hence, C4 is the first car to leave P.

105. U, V, W, X, Y and Z are six police officers, who are parading in two rows, with three in the front row and three in the back row. Each officer in the back row has one officer exactly in the front of him. W and X are at the extreme ends of two different rows. Y is to the right of U and exactly in front of V. If Z is exactly behind W, then which of the following statements is true?

a) X is exactly between V and Z.

b) Z and U are at extreme ends.

c) With the given information two seating arrangements are possible.

d) Y and X are at extreme ends of the front row.




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Solution: b

Justification:

*****


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