SCORE - I · 2019. 11. 13. · 7. Section E has Questions No. 24 to 26 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. 8. Use Log Tables, if necessary. Use of calculators is

09 26 Please check that this question paper contain 09 printed pages. Please check that this question paper contains 26 questions. Please write down the serial number of the question before attempting it.

1. 2. 3. A 1 5 1 4. B 6 10 2 5. C 11 22 3 6. D 23 4 7. E 24 26 5 8. General Instructions :1. All questions are compulsory.2. Marks for each question are indicated against it.3. Section A has Questions No. 1 to 5. They are very short-answer questions, carrying 1 mark each.4. Section B has Questions No. 6 to 10. They are short-answer questions, carrying 2 marks each.5. Section C has Questions No. 11 to 22. They are also short-answer questions, carrying 3 marks each.6. Section D has Question No. 23. It is value based question, carrying 4 marks.7. Section E has Questions No. 24 to 26 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.8. Use Log Tables, if necessary. Use of calculators is not allowed.

You may use the following values of physical constants wherever necessary :

c = 3 × 108 ms–1, h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js, e = 1.6 × 10–19 C,

µ0 = 4 × 10–7 T m A–1,

0

1

4 = 9 × 109 Nm2C–2

Mass of neutron () mn 1.6 × 10–27 kg,

Boltzmann's constant () k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

Avogadro's number () NA = 6.023 × 1023 / mole

: 3 : 70

Time Allowed : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 70

PHYSICS

Test Type : FULL SYLLABUS Test Pattern : BOARD PATTERN

TEST DATE : 13 - 01 - 2017

SCORE - I

ENTHUSIAST COURSE

Paper Code : 1001CT102116041

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(Academic Session : 2016 - 2017)

Form Number :

1 / 9 Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

+91-744-5156100 [email protected] www.allen.ac.in

2/9 1001CT102116041

Enthusiast Course/Score-I/Physics/13-01-2017

Section-A (-A)

1. [1]

Represent graphically the variation of electric field with distance, for a very large uniformly charged

plane sheet.

2. [1]

Draw a graph to show a variation of resistance of a metal wire as a function of its diameter keeping

its length and material constant.

3. L H B ? [1]

A rod of length L, along East-West direction is dropped from a height H. If B be the magnetic field

due to earth at that place and angle of dip is , then what is the magnitude of induced emf across

two ends of the rod when the rod reaches the earth ?

4. 45o I0 ? [1]

Two polaroids are placed with their optic axis perpendicular to each other. One of them is rotated

through 45o, what is the intensity of light emerging from the second polaroid if I0 is the intensity

of unpolarised light?

5. [1]

With the help of a block diagram, show the basic constituents of the communication system.

Section-B (-B)

6. A B 1 : 6 ? [2]

Two wires A and B of the same material and having same length, have their cross sectional areas

in the ratio 1 : 6. What would be the ratio of heat produced in these wires when same voltage is

applied across each ?

7. 20 cm 1.25 ? [2]

+5 D

1 2 3 4 5 6

(cm) 25 30 35 45 50 55

(cm) 97 61 37 35 32 30

The focal length of a convex lens made of glass is 20cm. What will be its new focal length when

placed in a medium of refractive index 1.25 ?

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

3/91001CT102116041


OR

The following data was recorded for values of object distance and the corresponding values of image

distance in the experiment on study of real image formation by a convex lens of power +5 D. One

of these observation is incorrect. Identify this observation and give reason for your choice.

Sr. No. 1 2 3 4 5 6

Objectdistance (cm)

25 30 35 45 50 55

Image distance(cm)

97 61 37 35 32 30

8. – [2]

An –particle and a proton are accelerated through the same potential difference. Calculate the ratio

of linear momenta acquired by the two.

9. [2]

() lnR (Bq)

36 5.08

100 3.29

164 1.52

218 0.01

The following table shows some measurements of the decay rate of a radionuclide sample. Find the

disintegration constant.

Time (min) lnR (Bq)

36 5.08

100 3.29

164 1.52

218 0.01

10. (a)

(b) [2]

Distinguish between any two types of propagation of electromagnetic waves based on (a) frequency

range over which they are applicable and (b) communication systems in which they are used.

Section-C (-C)

11. N –

(i) (ii) (iii) [3]

If N drops of same size each having the same charge, coalesce to form a bigger drop. How will

the following vary with respect to single small drop ?

(i) Total charge on bigger drop (ii) Potential on the bigger drop (iii) Capacitance

4/9 1001CT102116041


12. X Y

G

40cm 60cm

6V

1 cm–1 Y 6X

[3]

6V

3

3

In the given circuit, a metre bridge is shown in the balanced state. X Y

G

40cm 60cm

6V

The metre bridge wire has a resistance of 1 cm–1. Calculate the

unknown resistance X and current drawn from the battery of a

negiligible internal resistance if the magnitude of Y is 6. If at the

balancing point, we interchange the position of galvanometer and

the cell, how it will affect the position of the jockey?

OR

Calculate the current drawn from the battery in the given network shown here. State Kirchhoff's loop

law and name the law on which it is based on.

6V

3

3

13. m L ;fn z z BZ = B0(1 + z) R v m, B, g v [3]

A metallic ring of mass m and radius L is falling under gravity in a region having a magnetic field. If

z is the vertical direction, the z–component of magnetic field is BZ = B0(1 + z). If R is the resistance

of the ring and if the ring falls with a velocity v, find the energy lost per second in the resistance.

If the ring has reached a constant velocity, use the conservation of energy to determine v in terms of m,

B, and acceleration due to gravity g.

5/91001CT102116041


14. (a) : [3]

(i) 84208PO 82

204Pb + .....

(ii) 1532P 16

32S + ....

(b) (i) ¯ (ii) +

(c) ?

(a) Complete the following nuclear reactions :

(i) 84208PO 82

204Pb + .....

(ii) 1532P 16

32S + ....

(b) Write the basic process involved in nuclei responsible for (i)¯ and (ii) + decay.

(c) Why is it found experimentally difficult to detect neutrinos ?

15. (i) [2]

(ii) ? [1]

(i) Name the machine which uses crossed electric and magnetic fields to accelerate the ions to high

energies. With the help of a diagram, explain the resonance condition.

(ii) What will happen to the motion of charged particle if the frequency of the alternating voltage is

doubled?

16.

SSource

S1

S2

PO

T1

T2

Screen

OP = xCO = DS C = CS = D1 2

C

D O D [3]

Consider a two slit interference arrangements such that the distance of the screen from the slits is

half the distance between the slits.

SSource

S1

S2

PO

T1

T2

Screen

OP = xCO = DS C = CS = D1 2

C

Obtain the value of D in terms of such that the first minima on the screen falls at a distrance Dfrom the centre O.

6/9 1001CT102116041


17.

15 m 5 cm

(a)

(b) [3]

Draw a labelled ray diagram of an astronomical telescope in the normal adjustment position and

find the magnitudes of

(a) The length of the telescope

(b) The magnification of the telescope

If the focal length of the objective lens is = 15 m and the focal length of an eye lens is 5 cm.

18. 1015 Hz A, B C

(a)

(b)

(c)

[3]

Radiation of frequency 1015 Hz is incident on three photo sensitive surfaces A, B and C. Following

observations are recorded :

(a) no photoemission occurs

(b) photoemission occurs but the photoelectrons have zero kinetic energy.

(c) photo emission occurs and photoelectrons have some kinetic energy.

Based on Einstein's photo–electric equation, explain the three observations.

19. B

(a) (b) [3]

A proton and an alpha particle enter at right angles into a uniform magnetic field of intensity B.

Calculate the radii of their paths when they enter the field with the same

(a) momentum and

(b) kinetic energy

20. :-

(a) D1, D2 D3 2.5eV,

2eV 3eV 6000Å ?

(b) LEDs ? [3]

Explain :

(a) Three photo diodes D1, D2 and D3 are made of semiconductors having band gaps of 2.5eV, 2eV

and 3eV respectively. Which one will be able to detect light of wavelength 6000Å ?

(b) Why an elemental semiconductor cannot be used to make visible LEDs ?

7/91001CT102116041


21. 10V, VBE VCE

IB, IC [3]

Vi

Rb

RC

400k

3k

10V

In the circuit shown, when the input voltage of the base resistance is 10V, VBE is zero and VCE is

also zero, find the values of IB, IC and .

Vi

Rb

RC

400k

3k

10V

22.

(a) 1

(b) 15V 3V

?

(c)

? [3]

Explain the reason :

(a) In amplitude modulation, the modulation index is kept less than or equal to 1.

(b) The maximum amplitude of an amplitude modulated wave is found to be 15V while its minimum

amplitude is found to be 3V. What is the modulation index ?

(c) Why amplitude modulated signal be noiser than a frequency modulated signal upon transmission

through a channel ?

Section-D (-D)

23. ?

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) ? [4]

8/9 1001CT102116041


Muthuswami a resident of Kundakulam was all set to leave everything and shift to another place

in view of the decision of Government to start nuclear thermal power plant at Kundakulam. His

grand daughter Prachi, a science student was really upset on the ignorant decision of her grand father.

She could finally convince him not to shift, since adequate safety measures to avoid any nuclear

mishap have already been taken by the Government before starting nuclear thermal power plants.

(i) What is the value displayed by Prachi in convincing her grandfather ?

(ii) What is the principle behind working of nuclear reactor ?

(iii) What are the main component of nuclear reactor ?

(iv) Why is heavy water used as moderator ?

Section-E (-E)

24. [2+2+1]

(a)

(i)

(ii) SI [1+2]

(b) A A/3 d [2]

A/3A/3

A/3

dd

d

+ + + + + + + + + + + + + + + +

Find the expression for the energy stored in the capacitor. Also find the energy lost when the charged

capacitor is disconnected from the source and connected in parallel with the uncharged capacitor.

Where does this loss of energy appear ? [2+2+1]

OR

(a) An electric dipole is held in uniform electric field.

(i) Using suitable diagram, show that it does not undergo any translatory motion.

(ii) Define troque, giving its SI unit; derive an expression for the torque acting on this

dipole. [1+2]

(b) A capacitor is made of a flat plate of area A and second plate having a stair like structure as

shown in figure below. If width of each stair is A/3 and height is d. Find the capacitance of the

arrangement. [2]

A/3A/3

A/3

dd

d

+ + + + + + + + + + + + + + + +

9/91001CT102116041


25. (a) LCR [2]

(b) L–R L = 35 mH R = 11, Vrms = 220V V = V0sint 50 Hz [3]

(a) a.c. V = V0sint C I /2 V I t

(b) 200 15F 220V, 50Hz a.c. rms

(a) Derive the condition for the resonance to occur in LCR series circuit.

(b) In a series L-R circuit, L = 35 mH and R = 11, V = V0sint of Vrms = 220V and frequency

50 Hz are applied. Find the current amplitude in the circuit and phase of current with respect

of voltage. Draw reactance-frequency graph.

OR

(a) An a.c. source generating a voltage V = V0sint is connected to a capacitor of capacitance C.

Find the expression for the current I flowing through it. Plot a graph of V and I versus t to

show that the current is /2 ahead of the voltage.

(b) A resistor of 200 and a capacitor of 15F are connected in series to a 220V, 50Hz a.c. source.

Calculate the current in the circuit and the rms voltage across the resistor and the capacitor. Why

the algebraic sum of these voltages in more than the source voltage ?

26. (a) 15o, 20o and 25o ? [2]

(b) [3]

(i) [2]

(ii) (a) 4 : 1

(b)

? [3]

(a) For same value of angle of incidence, the angles of refraction in three media are 15o, 20o and

25o respecitvely. In which medium, the velocity of light will be minumum ? [2]

(b) Derive the relationship between angle of incidence, angle of prism and angle of minimum deviation

for an equilateral prism. [3]

OR

(i) State the conditions for total internal reflection to occur. [2]

(ii) (a) The ratio of the widths of two slits in Young’s double slit experiment is 4 : 1. Evaluate

the ratio of intensities at maxima and minima in the interference pattern. [3]

(b) Does the appearance of bright and dark fringes in the interference pattern violate, in any

way, conservation of energy ? Explain.

7

26

Please check that this question paper contain 7 printed pages.

Please check that this question paper contains 26 questions.

Please write down the serial number of the question before attempting it.

1.

2.

3. A 1 5 1

4. B 6 10 2

5. C 11 22 3

6. D 23 4

7. E 24 26 5

8.

General Instructions :

1. All questions are compulsory.

2. Marks for each question are indicated against it.

3. Section A has Questions No. 1 to 5. They are very short-answer questions, carrying 1 mark each.

4. Section B has Questions No. 6 to 10. They are short-answer questions, carrying 2 marks each.

5. Section C has Questions No. 11 to 22. They are also short-answer questions, carrying 3 marks each.

6. Section D has Question No. 23. It is value based question, carrying 4 marks.

7. Section E has Questions No. 24 to 26 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.

8. Use Log Tables, if necessary. Use of calculators is not allowed.

: 3 : 70


CHEMISTRY


TEST DATE : 17 - 01 - 2017

SCORE - I

ENTHUSIAST COURSE

Paper Code : 1001CT102116044


Form Number :



2/7 1001CT102116044

Enthusiast Course/Score-I/Chemistry/17-01-2017

SECTION-A (-A)

1. [1]

Define Kraft temperature.

2. +3 [Ar]3d7 [1]

The electronic configuration of a transition element in +3 oxidation state is [Ar]3d7. Find out its

atomic number.

3. 4--3- [1]

Draw the structure of 4-tertbutyl-3-iodoheptane.

4. (cumene)

Give the equation of reaction for the preparation of phenol from cumene. [1]

5.

Name the type of semiconductor obtained when silicon is doped with boron. [1]

SECTION-B (-B)

6. , [Ni(CN)4]2– [Ni(CO)

4]

[A] -1, 2-

[B] ethane-1, 2-diamine /[C]

violet [D] [A], [B], [C] [D] [2]

The two complexes of nickel, [Ni(CN)4]2– and [Ni(CO)

4], have different structures but possess same

magnetic behaviour. Explain.

OR

A chloride of fourth group cation in qualitative analysis gives a green coloured complex [A] in aqueous

solution which when treated with ethane -1, 2 -diamine (en) gives pale-yellow solution [B] which on

subsequent addition of ethane-1, 2-diamine turns to blue/purple [C] and finally to violet [D]. Write the

structures of complexes [A], [B], [C] and [D].

7. : [2]

(i) XeF2

(ii) gain enthalpy

Account for the following :

(i) XeF2 is linear molecule without a bend.

(ii) The electron gain enthalpy with negative sign for fluorine is less than that of chlorine, still

fluorine is a stronger oxidizing agent than chlorine.

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3/71001CT102116044


8. [2]

Derive the relationship between relative lowering of vapour pressure and mole fraction of the volatile

liquid.

9. 24 1 0.125 ?[2]

After 24 hrs, only 0.125 gm out of the initial quantity of 1 gm of a radioactive isotope remains behind.

What is its half life period? [2]

10. C6H CH NH5 2 2 CH –N3

CH3

CH3

C6H CH NH5 2 2 CH –N3

CH3

CH3


CH3

CH3


CH3

CH3


CH3

CH3


CH3

CH3


CH3

CH3

[2]

IUPAC :

Write the IUPAC names of the following : [2]


CH3

CH3


CH3

CH3


CH3

CH3


CH3

CH3


CH3

CH3


CH3

CH3


CH3

CH3

SECTION-C (-C)

11. 75 g/mol edge length 5 A°

2 g/cc [3]

The edge length of a unit cell of a metal having molecular mass 75 g/mol is 5 A° which crystallises in

a cubic lattice. If the density is 2 g/cc, then find the radius of the metal atom.

12. (i) X Y elute

X Y

(ii) ?

(iii) Zr [3]

(i) A mixture of X and Y was loaded in the column of silica. It was eluted by alcohol water mixture.

Compound Y eluted in preference to compound X. Compare the extent of adsorption of X and Y

on column.

(ii) Why copper matte is put in silica lined converter? Write reactions involved

(iii) Name the method used for the refining of Zr.

13. (i)

(a) NH4Cl(aq.)+ NaNO

2 (aq.)

(b) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H

2O

(ii) H2SO

4 Ka

2 << Ka

1? [3]

(i) Complete the following chemical equations.

(a) NH4Cl(aq.)+ NaNO

2 (aq.)

(b) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H

2O

(ii) Why is Ka2 << Ka

1 for H

2SO

4 in water? [3]

4/7 1001CT102116044


14. : [3]

(i) CrCl3.6H

2O (3 AgCl )

(ii) CrCl3.6H

2O (2 AgCl )

(iii) CrCl3.6H

2O (1 AgCl )

Write the correct formulae for the following coordination compounds:

(i) CrCl3.6H

2O (violet with 3 chloride ions precipitated as AgCl)

(ii) CrCl3.6H

2O (light green colour, with 2 chloride ions precipitated as AgCl)

(iii) CrCl3.6H

2O (dark green colour, with 1 chloride ion precipitated as AgCl)

15. :

(i) p-dichlorobenzene

(ii)

(iii) KOH KOH

[3]

Give reasons for the following observations :

(i) p-dichlorobenzene has higher melting point than those of o and m -isomers.

(ii) Haloarenes are less reactive than haloalkanes towards nucleophillic substitution reaction.

(iii) The treatment of alkyl chloride with aqueous KOH leads to the formation of alcohol but in the

presence of alcoholic KOH, alkene is the major product.

16. (i) ? [3]

(ii)

(iii) ?

(i) Why does leather get hardened after tanning?

(ii) On the basis of Hardy-Schulze rule explain why the coagulating power of phosphate is higher

than chloride.

(iii) Do the vital functions of the body such as digestion get affected during fever? Explain your

answer.

17. (40 g/mol) 114 g 80%

300 K 36g C6H

12O

64.98 bar

1.52 bar [3]

Calculate the mass of a non-volatile solute (molar mass 40 g/mol) which should be dissolved in 114 g

octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 80%.

OR

At 300 K, 36 g of glucose, C6H

12O

6 present per litre in its solution has an osmotic pressure of 4.98 bar.

If the osmotic pressure of another glucose solution is 1.52 bar at the same temperature, calculate the

concentration of the other solution.

5/71001CT102116044


18. :

(i)

(ii) 2--2-

(iii) -2- [3]

Carry out the following conversions :

(i) Phenol to benzoquinone.

(ii) Propanone to 2-Methylpropan-2-ol.

(iii) Propene to propan-2-ol.

19. (i) :

(a) degradation

(b)

(ii) [3]

(i) Illustrate the following reactions:

(a) Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction.

(b) Coupling reaction.

(ii) Write a chemical test to distinguish between aniline and methylamine.

20. (i)

(ii) [3]

(i) Name the common types of secondary structure of proteins and give one point of difference.

(ii) Give one structural difference between amylose and amylopectin.

21. [3]

R0

log[R]

Time

(i) –2.0 ×10–6 sec–1

(ii)

Observe the graph in diagram and answer the following questions.

R0

log[R]

Time

(i) If slope is equal to –2.0 ×10–6 sec–1, what will be the value of rate constant? zero order reaction

relate to its rate constant?

(ii) How does the half-life of zero order reaction relate to its rate constant.

6/7 1001CT102116044


22. (i)

(ii) - N - S [3]

(i) Classify the following as addition and condensation polymers: Terylene, Bakelite, Polyvinyl

chloride, Polythene.

(ii) Explain the difference between Buna - N and Buna - S.

SECTION-D (-D)

23.

nausea, (body itching)

:

(i) shown values mention

(ii)

(iii) ?

(iv) agonist antagonist [4]

Ali's brother likes taking medicines. He sometimes even takes cough syrups even when he is not ill.

One such day, he took cough syrup when he was healthy. After some time he started feeling nausea,

headache and his body started itching. Ali's father did not take him to the doctor and wanted to give

medicine on his own. Ali insisted that his father should not give medicine to his brother on his own but

should take him to a doctor.

After reading the above passage, answer the following questions:

(i) Mention the values shown by Ali.

(ii) Why did his body start itching and what kind of medicine will doctor prescribe him?

(iii) Why medicines should not be taken without consulting doctor?

(iv) Give one point of difference between agonist and antagonist.

SECTION-E (-E)

24. (i)

?

(ii) 25°C : Al/Al3+ (0.001 M) Ni /Ni2+ (0.50 M). Cell voltage

[E°Ni

2+/Ni

= – 0.25V, E°AI3+/AI

= –1.66V]

(i) pH 10

(ii) 1 Cr2O

72– Cr3+

? [5]

(i) State the relationship amongst cell constant of a cell, resistance of the solution in the cell and

conductivity of the solution. How is molar conductivity of a solution related to conductivity of

its solution?

(ii) A voltaic cell is set up at 25°C with the following half cell ; Al/Al3+ (0.001 M) and Ni /Ni2+ (0.50 M)

Calculate the cell voltage. [ E°Ni

2+/Ni

= – 0.25V, E°AI3+/AI

= –1.66V]

7/71001CT102116044


OR

(i) Calculate the potential of hydrogen electrode in contact with a solution whose pH is 10.

(ii) State Faraday's laws of electrolysis. How much charge in terms of Faraday is required for reduction

of 1 mol of Cr2O

72– to Cr3+ ? [5]

25. (i) [5]

(ii) :

(a) d-f-

(b)

(c) Zr = (Z= 40) Hafnium (Z = 72)

(i)

(ii)

(i) Is the variability in oxidation number of transition elements different from that of non - transition

elements? Illustrate with examples.

(ii) Give reasons :

(a) d-block elements exhibit more oxidation states than f-block elements.

(b) Orange solution of potassium dichromate turns yellow on adding sodium hydroxide to it.

(c) Zirconium (Z= 40) and Hafnium (Z = 72) have almost similar atomic radii.

OR

(i) Describe the preparation of potassium permanganate from pyrolusite ore. Write balanced chemical

equation for one reaction to show the oxidizing nature of potassium permanganate.

(ii) Draw the structures of chromate and dichromate ions.

26. (i) A B B C

D D A, B C

, IUPAC [5]

(ii)

(a) PhMgBr H3O+

(b)

(i) A ketone A which undergoes halogorm reaction gives compound B on reduction. B on heating

with sulphuric acid gives compound C, which forms mono-ozonide D. The compound D on

hydrolysis in presence of zinc dust gives only acetaldehyde. Write the structure and IUPAC

names of A, B and C. Write down the reactions involved.

(ii) Predict the products formed when cyclohexanecarbaldehyde reacts with following reagents.

(a) PhMgBr and then H3O+

(b) Tollen's reagent

MATHEMATICS

6 29 Please check that this question paper contain 6 printed pages.

Please check that this question paper contains 29 questions. Please write down the serial number of the question before attempting it.

: 3 : 100


1.

2.

3. A 1 4 1

4. B 5 12 2

5. C 13 23 4

6. D 24 29 6

7.

General Instructions :

1. All questions are compulsory.

2. Marks for each question are indicated against it.

3. Section A has Questions No. 1 to 4. They are very short-answer questions, carrying 1 mark each.

4. Section B has Questions No. 5 to 12. They are short-answer questions, carrying 2 marks each.

5. Section C has Questions No. 13 to 23. They are also short-answer questions, carrying 4 marks each.

6. Section D has Questions No. 24 to 29 are long answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each.

8. Use Log Tables, if necessary. Use of calculators is not allowed.


TEST DATE : 19 - 01 - 2017

SCORE - IENTHUSIAST COURSE

Paper Code : 1001CT102116045


Form Number :



2/6 1001CT102116045

Enthusiast Course/Score-I/Mathematics/19-01-2017

SECTION – A (A)

1. cos–1 7cos

6

[1 Mark]

Write the principal value of cos–1 7cos

6

2. A 3 |A| = 7 |adjA| [1 Mark]

A is a square matrix of order 3 and |A| = 7. Write the value of |adj. A|.

3. (p, q, r) x- [1 Mark]

What is the distance of the point (p, q, r) from the x-axis ?

4. ƒ : R R, ƒ(x) = 3x2 – 5 g : R R, g(x) = 2

x

x 1 goƒ

[1 Mark]

Let ƒ : R R be defined by ƒ(x) = 3x2 – 5 and g : R R be defined by g(x) = 2

x

x 1. Find goƒ.

SECTION – B (B)

5. {1,2,3} (1,2) (2,1) [2 Marks]

How many equivalence relations on the set {1,2,3} containing (1,2) and (2,1) are there in all ? Justify

your answer.

6. i, mi, ni ; i = 1, 2, 3 AA' = I3 ,

A =

1 1 1

2 2 2

3 3 3

m n

m n

m n

[2 Marks]

Let i, mi, ni ; i = 1, 2, 3 be the direction cosines of three mutually perpendicular vectors in space. Show

that AA' = I3 , where A =

1 1 1

2 2 2

3 3 3

m n

m n

m n

.

7. ey(x + 1) = 1, ydye

dx [2 Marks]

If ey(x + 1) = 1, show that ydye

dx .

8. :2

23d y dy

(1 x) 0dxdx

[2 Marks]

Find the sum of the order and the degree of the following differential equations :

2

23d y dy

(1 x) 0dxdx

9. ˆ ˆ ˆr.(2i j k) 5 0

[2 Marks]

Write the sum of intercepts cut off by the plane ˆ ˆ ˆr.(2i j k) 5 0

on the three axes.

3/61001CT102116045


10. :

Z = 3x + 4y

x + y < 4, x > 0 y > 0 [2 Marks]

Solve the following Linear Programming Problem graphically:

Maximize Z = 3x + 4y

subject to

x + y < 4, x > 0 and y > 0.

11. 2

[2 Marks]

Three dice are thrown at the same time. Find the probability of getting three two's, if it is known that

the sum of the number of the dice was six.

12. 2 6 5

[2 Marks]

A man 2 metres high, walks at a uniform speed of 6 metres per minute away from a lamp post,

5 metres high. Find the rate at which the length of his shadow increases.

SECTION – C(C)

13. a, b, c a b c

b c a

c a b

[4 Marks]

:

1 a 1 1

1 1 b 1 abc bc ca ab

1 1 1 c

If a, b, c are positive and unequal, show that the following determinant is negative :

a b c

b c a

c a b

OR

Using properties of determinants, prove that :

1 a 1 1

1 1 b 1 abc bc ca ab

1 1 1 c

14. ƒ(x) = x3 – 6x2 + ax + b [1, 3] 1c 2

3 'a'

'b' [4 Marks]

It is given that for the function ƒ(x) = x3 – 6x2 + ax + b Rolle’s theorem holds in [1, 3] with 1

c 23

.

Find the value of 'a' and 'b'.

4/6 1001CT102116045


15. x 3

3

1ƒ(x) x (x 0)

x

y = x3 – 11x + 5 y = x – 11 [4 Marks]

Determine for what values of x, the function 3

3

1ƒ(x) x (x 0)

x is strictly increasing or strictly

decreasing.OR

Find the point on the curve y = x3 – 11x + 5 at which the tangent is y = x – 11.

16. 2

2

0

(x 3)dx [4 Marks]

Evaluate 2

2

0

(x 3)dx as limit of a sum.

17. y2 = x x + y = 2 [4 Marks]

Using integration find the area of the region included between the parabola y2 = x and the line x + y = 2.

18. y

yx

[4 Marks]

y dy y

x cos y cos xx dx x

Find the equation of a curve whose tangent at any point on it, different from origin, has slope y

yx

.

OR

Show that the differential equation y dy y

x cos y cos xx dx x

is homogenous and solve it.

19. ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆˆ ˆp ai j k, q i bj k

ˆ ˆ ˆr i j ck

a, b, c 1 1 1 1

11 a 1 b 1 c

[4 Marks]

If the vectors ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆˆ ˆp ai j k, q i bj k

and ˆ ˆ ˆr i j ck

are coplanar, then for a, b, c 1 show that

1 1 11

1 a 1 b 1 c

.

20. x 3 y 3 z

2 1 1

3

[4 Marks]

Find the equations of the two lines through the origin which intersect the line x 3 y 3 z

2 1 1

at

angles of 3

.

5/61001CT102116045


21. 20 25 ` 4/

40 ` 5/

200

[4 Marks]

If a 20 year old girl drives her car at 25 km/h, she has to spend ` 4/km on petrol. If she drives her car

at 40 km/h, she has to spend ` 5/km on petrol. She has ` 200 to spend on petrol and wishes to find the

maximum distance she can travel within one hour. Express the above problem as a Linear Programming

Problem. Write any one value reflected in the problem.

22.

3 [4 Marks]

An experiment succeeds thrice as often as it fails. Find the probability that in the next five trials, there

will be atleast 3 successes.

23. (2n +1) ‘n’

3142

‘n’

[4 Marks]

A bag contains (2n +1) coins. It is known that ‘n’ of these coins have a head on both its sides whereasthe rest of the coins are fair. A coin is picked up at random from the bag and is tossed. If the probability

that the toss results in a head is 31

42, find the value of ‘n’.

SECTION-D (D)

24. 22

0

sin x 1log( 2 1)

sin x cos x 2

[6 Marks]

Show that 22

0

sin x 1log( 2 1)

sin x cos x 2

25. [6 Marks]

1 1 1x 1 x 1tan tan tan 7

x 1 x

Q *

a * b = ab + 1Q Does the following trigonometric equation have any solutions ? If Yes, obtain the solution(s):

1 1 1x 1 x 1tan tan tan 7

x 1 x

ORDetermine whether the operation * define below on set of rational numbers Q is binary operation ornot.

a * b = ab + 1If yes, check the commutative and the associative properties. Also check the existence of identityelement and the inverse of all elements in Q.

6/6 1001CT102116045


26. x, y z A =

0 2y z

x y z

x y z

, A' = A–1

A =

1 1 2

3 0 2

1 0 3

A(adjA) = (adj A)A = |A|I [6 Marks]

Find the value of x, y and z, if matric A =

0 2y z

x y z

x y z

satisfies A' = A–1

OR

Verify A(adjA) = (adj A)A = |A|I for matrix A =

1 1 2

3 0 2

1 0 3

27. 2sin x 1 1 x

y e 2tan1 x

, dy

dx [6 Marks]

Find dy

dx, if 2sin x 1 1 x

y e 2tan1 x

.

28. x – y + 1 = 0 y2 = x [6 Marks]

Find the shortest distance between the line x – y + 1 = 0 and the curve y2 = x

29.

:

ˆˆ ˆr (8 3 )i (9 16 )j (10 7 )k

ˆ ˆˆ ˆ ˆ ˆr 15i 29j 5k µ(3i 8j 5k) [6 Marks]

Define skew lines. Using only vector approach, find the shortest distance between the following two

skew lines :

ˆˆ ˆr (8 3 )i (9 16 )j (10 7 )k

ˆ ˆˆ ˆ ˆ ˆr 15i 29j 5k µ(3i 8j 5k)

SECTION-A

Q.1 Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow

1. This year marks a great milestone in the human saga, similar in magnitude to the agricultural era

and industrial revolution. For the first time in history, a majority of human beings will be living

in vast urban areas, according to the United Nations-many in mega cities and suburban extension

with populations of 10 million people more. We have become Home Urbans.

2. Millions of people huddled together and stacked on top of each other in gigantic urban centres

is a new phenomenon. Recall that 200 years ago, the average person on earth might have met

200 to 300 people in a lifetime. Today, a resident of New York City can live and work amongst

2,20,000 people within a 10 minute radius of his home or office in midtown Manhattan. Only

one city in all of history-ancient Rome-boasted a population of more than a million inhabitants

before the 19th century. London became the first modern city with a population of over one million

people in 1820. Today, 414 cities boast populations of a million or more people and there's no

end in sight to the urbanisation process because our species is growing at an alarming rate. Around

3,76,000 people are born every day on earth. The human population is expected to increase to

nine billion by 2042, most living in dense urban areas.

3. No one is really sure whether this profound turning point on human living arrangements ought

to be celebrated, lamented, or merely acknowledged for the record. That's because our burgeoning

population and urban way of life has been purchased at the expense of the demise of the earth's

vast ecosystems and habitats. Cultural historian Elias Canetti once remarked that each of us is a

king in a field of corpses. If we were to stop for a moment and reflect on the number of creatures

and earth's resources and materials we have expropriated and consumed in our lifetime.


Please check that this question paper contain 6 printed pages.

Please check that this question paper contains 13 questions.

Please write down the serial number of the question before attempting it.

General Instructions :(i) The paper is divided into three Sections-A, Sections-B and Sections-C. All the sections are compulsory.

(ii) Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary. Read these

instructions carefully and follow them accordingly.

(iii) Do not exceed the prescribed word limit while answering the questions

ENGLISH


TEST DATE : 20 - 01 - 2017

SCORE - I

ENTHUSIAST COURSE

Paper Code : 1001CT102116046


Form Number :



2/6 1001CT102116046

Enthusiast Course/Score-I/English/20-01-2017

4. Large populations living in mega cities consume massive amount of the earth's energy. To put this

in perspective, the Sears Tower alone, one of the tallest skyscrapers in the world, uses more electricity

in a single day than a town of 35000 inhabitants. Even more amazing, our species now consume

nearly 40 per cent of the net primary production on earth-net amount of solar energy converted

to plant organic matter through photosynthesis-even though we only make up one half of 1 per

cent of the animal biomass of the planet.

5. It's no accident that as we celebrate the urbanisation of the world, we are quickly approaching

another historic watershed, the disappearance of the wild. Rising population, growing consumption

of food, water and building materials, expanding road and transport, and urban sprawl continue

to encroach on the remaining wild, pushing it to extinction. Our scientists tell us that within the

lifetime of today's children, the wild will disappear from the face of the earth after millions of years

of existence, The Trans-Amazon Highway is hastening the obliteration of the last great wild habitat.

Other remaining wild regions from Borneo to the Congo Basin are fast diminishing with each passing

day. It's no wonder that according to Harvard Biologist EQ Wilson, we are experiencing the greatest

wave of mass extinction of animal species in 65 million years. By 2100, two-thirds of the earth's

remaining species are likely to become extinct.

6. Where does this leave us? Try to imagine 1,000 cities of nearly one million or more inhabitants

in 35 years from now. It boggles the mind and is unsustainable for the earth. Perhaps the

commemoration of the urbanisation of the human race in 2007 might be an opportunity to rethink

the way we live on this planet. Certainly there is much to applaud about urban life : its rich cultural

diversity and social inter course and dense commercial activity come readily to mind. But the question

is one of magnitude and scale. We need to ponder how best to lower our population and develop

sustainable urban environments that use energy and resources more efficiently, are less polluting,

as well as better designed.

7. In short, in the great era of urbanisation we have increasingly shut off the human race from the

rest of the natural world in the belief that we could conquer, colonise and utilise the rich largesse

of the planet to ensure our complete autonomy and without dire consequences to us and future

generations. In the next phase of human history, we will need to find a way to reintegrate ourselves

back into the rest of the living earth if we are to preserve our own species and conserve the planet

for our fellow creatures.

Q1.1.On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer the following questions:

(a) What is the significance of the present year in human history? (1 Mark)

(b) How is life different today from the life in Past? (2 Marks)

(c) Why should we lament at the growth of population and not celebrate the progress? (2 Marks)

(d) How is the urbanization harmful for the natural resources? (2 Marks)

(e) What is the warning given by our scientists for future? (2 Marks)

Q1.2. Find out the words which mean just the opposite of the following: (3×1=3 Marks)

(a) small (para 1) (b) shrinking (para 5) (c) thin/scanty (para 6)

3/61001CT102116046


Q2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

1. The first written public examinations were introduced over 2,000 years ago with the establishment

of the imperial examination system in 606 AD in China. By the middle of the 19th century,

competitive examinations had been introduced in Britain and India to select government officials.

Public examination in schools have a shorter; but still considerable, history.

2. At present, the examination system in India in characterised by heterogeneity. They differ in their

vintage, organisational design, financial stability, autonomy, organisational culture and credibility.

For instance, the National Institute of Open Schooling is unique in conducting exams through the

distance mode; the Indian School Certificate Examination confines itself to only private schools;

and the West Bengal Board of Madrasa Education is for Islamic educational institutions only. In

a situation where public funds are involved, the equity, efficiency and transparency of this

expenditure need to be assessed to ensure that the taxpayers' money is being spent with due care

and concern. The Amrik Singh report (1997) on reorganising boards wondered, "Can there also

be a system whereby it becomes possible to grade and categorise the boards in respect of how

efficiently and honestly examination are organised?"

3. To do so, a set of parameters were chosen to measure effectiveness, quit, transparency and economic

efficiency of the functioning of these organisations. These include indicators like cost incurred

per students, fee charged per student, number of examinees per employee and number of affiliated

schools per employee. An analysis was made of the boards chosen on the basis of these parameters.

The functioning of a total of 20 boards was analysed in terms of 18 performance indicators in 2005.

4. The data collected from the states shows that most boards have an operating surplus. However,

the boards seem to be more sensitive to the needs of the disabled. All of them have some special

provisions for such candidates. While these provisions vary widely in scope, most provide for a

longer duration of examination, concessions in the examination of languages. The CBSE, along

with the Maharashtra board, seem to fare the best.

5. Another important measure of effectiveness of the functioning of the boards is the time taken for

declaration of examination results. It was found that this ranged from a mere 26 days in the case

of Karnataka Secondary Education Examination Board in 2005 to 48 days for class X in

neighbouring Maharashtra. The Supreme Court has recently issued directions that results should

be declared within 45 days from the end of examinations. In 2005, 10 of the 20 boards, which

provided this information, could not declare results within 45 days.

6. The reason for such a wide variation in performance in such a vital parameter was the processes

utilised. Boards, which have adopted a centralised system of assessment in comparison to the earlier

system of sending answer sheets to examiners, have an obvious edge. Similarly many boards have

outsourced the work of compilation of results faster and used technology extensively. These boards

are also able to declare results. In addition, agencies, which have consciously designed question

papers with a high proportion of multiplechoice responses, do not need much time for evaluation.

In fact, the Karnataka board has 60 percent of all the questions as objective type.

On the basis of your reading of the above passage answer the following:

(a) How have the Chinese played an important role in enhancing the education system? (1 Mark)

(b) Mention any four distinguishing features of examination in India? (2 Marks)

(c) What are the basic parameters to measure effectiveness in functioning of an organization? (2 Marks)

(d) What is the time limit fixed by Supreme Court for declaring the results? (1 Marks)

(e) What efforts are being made by different Boards to declare the results at the earliest? (2 Marks)

(f) What factors make Karnataka secondary school examination Board superior to the other

Boards? (2 Marks)

4/6 1001CT102116046


Q3. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

India's economy is doing well and we are right to celebrate that. But what we do not like to acknowledge,

let alone address, is another fact; our economy, and society, is still extremely biased against women.

Perhaps paying attention to such inconvenient truths would distract us as we march towards superpower

status. In the latest gender gap index report released by the World Economic Forum (WEF), India keeps

company with the worst in the world. Among the 128 countries that have been evaluated by the WEF,

India is ranked 114, followed among others by Yemen, Chad, Pakistan and Saudi Arabia, Even China,

Philippines, Sri Lanka and Botswana fare much better than us. The survey considers the proportion of

resources and opportunities made available to women on educational, economic, political and health.

Parities it is only in the realm of political empowerment that we seem to have done somewhat OK, ranking

21st. That's also thanks to a long spell of prime ministership by Indira Gandhi. It begs the question why

women are so badly off in our country if they are politically empowered. To begin with, we are still

largely a feudal and patriarchal society. In many parts of our country-especially in UP, Bihar, Rajasthan,

Haryana and Punjab- women are often treated as if they were a piece of property. In these parts, the

sex ratio is most skewed because families often snuff out the lives of girl children before, or immediately

after, they are born, in many parts of India women are viewed as an economic liability despite contributing

in several ways to our society and economy. The state has not covered itself with glory either in bridging

the gender divide. Its policies and projects for women are woefully inadequate. For instance, the literacy

rate for females is a mere 48 per cent against 73 per cent for males. Unless we put more of our girl children

in schools and equip them with quality education-as opposed to making them merely literate-we can

forget about sustainable progress. Public health is another area of failure. Hundreds of women in rural

India die every year during childbirth for want of medical attention. There are thousands more who do

not even have access to a primary health centre. Importantly, reforming property laws more rigorously

so that gender parity becomes a reality must rank among the government's priorities. While these changes

are necessary, they will amount to nothing if we, as a society, continue to deny our women the dignity,

liberty and opportunities that are rightfully theirs. No society will ever prosper as a whole as long as

half of it is constantly created as somehow less than the other half.

Q3.1.On the basis of reading the passage make notes on the passage using headings and sub-headings using

recognizable abbreviations wherever necessary. Give a suitable title to the passage. (5 Marks)

Q3.2. Write a summary of the passage in about 80 words. (3 Marks)

SECTION - B

Q4. Your parents are planning a grand party to celebrate the selection of your elder brother in NASA. Help

your parents in designing invitation in 50 words for this occasion. You are Nidhi/ Nakul Verma lives

at B-42, Sundar Nagar, Durgapur. Invent necessary details. (4 Marks)

OR

You are Sumit / Sunita of BVM School Jaipur. As a Cultural Secretary of your school, write a notice

for the School notice board in 50 words inviting help of any kind for the flood victims of your state.

(4 Marks)

Q5. You are Anshu/ Rashi staying at 8, Tilak Nagar, New Delhi. Last month you bought a video camera

from the "Ultra Modern Electronic Goods House, against a Warranty of 2 years. Now you discover that

there is something wrong with this camera. It does not work for more than 30 to 40 seconds at a stretch.

Write a letter (150 - 200 words) to the dealer complaining about this problem. Request him to replace

this defective piece against the warranty that goes with it. (6 Marks)

5/61001CT102116046


OR

You are Ashish / Ashmita of A-104, Subhash Nagar, Delhi. You saw that shops and industries of your

area are filled with child laborers. Despite strict laws enforced by government, the situation of these kids

is not improving. Write a letter (120-150 words) to Naya Bhaskar, 31-Saket, New Delhi to highlight

the miseries of these children ensuring changes in their lives by attracting the attention of concerned

authorities. (6 Marks)

Q6. Technology has brought about a revolution in all walks of life but people are becoming addicted to

new gadgets. Write a speech in 150-200 words to be delivered in the morning assembly. You are

Anil/ Anita. (10 Marks)

OR

An Inter-school debate is being arranged on the topic "Internet brings more harm than good." You are

Shreya or Shreyash of DDPS Kota. You have been selected to express your views for the motion.

(10 Marks)

Q7. Write an article (150-200 words) for the school magazine on "Compulsory Physical Education - Need

of the hour". You are Samar / Sakshi of Little Angels School, Pune. (10 Marks)

OR

Depleting value system is destroying the basic fabric of society. It is making our lives tougher and putting

huge pressure on young generation. They are unaware of fundamental guiding forces of life. Write an

article addressing above issue with a suitable title for Indian express. You are Alok/Anita resident of

31-Bhabha Nagar, Mumbai.

SECTION - C

Q8. Read the extract carefully and answer the questions that follow :

"If we were not so single-minded

about keeping our lives moving,

and for once could do nothing,

perhaps a huge silence

might interrupt this sadness

of never understanding ourselves

and of threatening ourselves with death.

Perhaps the Earth can teach us

as when everything seems dead

and later proves to be alive.. "

a. What is single-mindedness in the poem? (1 Mark)

b. Explain "no truck with death." (1 Mark)

c. What are we afraid of and how can we overcome this fear? (2 Marks)

6/6 1001CT102116046


OR

Read the extract carefully and answer the questions that follow :

"A narrow street sealed in with a lead sky

Far far from rivers, capes, and stars of words.

Surely, Shakespeare is wicked, the map a bad example,

With ships and sun and love tempting them to steal-

For lives that slyly turn in their cramped holes

From fog to endless night? On their slag heap,

these children Wear skins peeped through by bones.."

a. Why Shakespeare is called wicked? (1 Mark)

b. What are cramped holes? (1 Mark)

c. Explain 'slag heap.' (1 Mark)

d. What is the significance of the word 'steal'? (1 Mark)

Q9. Answer any four of the following in 30-40 words (4x3 = 12 Marks)

a. What did Gandhi consider extra-ordinary thing and why?

b. What does author want to convey by "It is not the lack of money but a tradition to…" in the chapter

'The lost spring'?

c. What quality of Mr. Lamb did impress Derry?

d. What does Aunt Jennifer's tigers signify?

e. Why does poet call 'rills' and 'brakes' beautiful?

Q10. Answer the following in 120-150 words (6 Marks)

Do you think the title 'Rattrap' is fully justified as the metaphor of rattrap fairly exists? And what according

to story can raise one above the dangerous snare?

OR

Why was King Jung Jung Bhadur determined to kill hundred tigers despite all adversities? How his demise

can be associated with fortune teller's prediction to bring story to a sense full end?

Q11. Imagination is a master key to innovations, inventions and success in life. All the great scientists and

philosophers of all times used their imaginations to unlock the mysteries of universe. It also helps teenagers

to explore and exploit the potential of their mind. But it is double edged sword. Over imagination may

land one into fool's paradise and may result into lifelong humiliation and frustration. Discuss above

mentioned issue in not more than 150 words. (6 Marks)

Q12. Mr. Marvel a strange character beautifully etched by wells. What impression do you get from his

personality and how does he contribute inadvertently to ruin invisible man's plan? (6 Marks)

OR

What is the significance of Silas Marner's nearsightedness? (6 Marks)

Q13. "Promise made to devil holds no value"- Relate it to the steps taken by Dr. Kemp to trap invisible man

also brief Kemp's strong character. (6 Marks)

OR

In the war between love and luxury, love has priority. Justify on the basis of Silas Marner.(6 Marks)

1. [4×2=8 ]

2. [4×2=8 ]

: 3 : 00 : 80

3

15


TEST DATE : 21 - 01 - 2017

SCORE - I

ENTHUSIAST COURSE

Paper Code : 1001CT102116048


Form Number :

1 / 3Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005


2/3 1001CT102116048

Enthusiast Course/Score-I/Hindi/21-01-2017

3. [7 ]

4. [4 ]

5. [4 ]

6. [3 ]

7. [4 ]

8. [4×2=8 ]

9. [2×2=4 ]

[2 ]

[2 ]

10. [1½ × 2 = 3 ]

''

''

3/31001CT102116048

Enthusiast Course/Score-I/Hindi/21-01-2017

11. [2×3=6 ]

12. [3×3=9 ]

13. [3×2=6 ]

14. [1½ × 2 = 3 ]

15. [3 ]

Q.1 What is the main objective of intramural activities? [1]

Q.2 Name any two non-nutritive component of diet. [1]

Q.3 Name the deformity for which horse riding can be used as corrective measure. [1]

Q.4 What do you mean by motor development? [1]

Q.5 What does the school intend by stating that, "only such students shall participate in the Basketball

intra-mural who have not represented the school in Basketball in the Basket ball in the past and minimum

10 substitutions shall be compulsory" . [1]

Q.6 List down the safety equipment required for rock climbing. [1]

Q.7 What is the purpose of Harvard Step - Test? [1]

Q.8 Define coordinative ability. [1]

Q.9 Define Amenorrhea? [1]

Q.10 Name one Linear and one Angular Movement from the field of sports. [1]

Q.11 Pace - Run Method of training is used to develop for which motor component? [1]

Q.12 While specifying all calculation, prepare a knock-out fixture of 21 teams. [3]

Q.13 Describe various factors that may be kept in mind to conserve the environment during adventure

sports. [3]

Q.14 Explain any three myths about dieting. [3]

Q.15 Your younger sister who is fond of adventure sports is going for river rafting. As a concerned sibling

what safety measures would you advice her to rake? [3]

Q.16 Enlist the spinal postural deformities? Explain the causes of Kyphosis & the precautions to

avoid it. [3]


Question paper consist of 26 questions.

All questions are compulsory.

01 mark question must be answered in 10-20 words.

03 marks question must be answered in 30-50 words.

05 marks question must be answered in 75-100 words.

PHYSICAL EDUCATION


TEST DATE : 21 - 01 - 2017

SCORE - I

ENTHUSIAST COURSE

Paper Code : 1001CT102116047


Form Number :



2/2 1001CT102116047

Enthusiast Course/Score-I/Physical Education/21-01-2017

Q.17 Explain developments characteristics during childhood. [3]

Q.18 What are the changes that take place in cardiovascular system by doing regular exercise? [3]

Q.19 What is the relationship between load and adaptation during training programme? [3]

Q.20 Increase in female participation in sports has brought about changes in psychological aspect of women

athlete. How? [5]

Q.21 Explain various soft tissues injuries and their management. [5]

Q.22 Why is an exercise beneficial for children? Describe in term of physical and physiological

benefits. [5]

Q.23 Discuss the impact of different types of environment on athletes & the steps to over-come the impact

for avoiding injuries. [5]

Q.24 A group of students in a school is regularly keeping away from games and sports activities. What

techniques of motivation do you suggest for them? [5]

Q.25 Ram is going regularly to the park near his home in the morning. He found that many old people have

some or the other type of fitness problem in terms of flexibility and strength. He decides to check

the fitness level of such people in the park. Explain the steps / test used by Ram for measuring

the fitness. [5]

Q.26 Describe different types of speed abilities and the methods to develop speed. [5]

Documents

SCORE - I · 2019. 11. 13. · 7. Section E has Questions No. 24 to 26 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. 8. Use Log Tables, if necessary. Use of calculators is