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Pre PG-2014 MBBS Section-II Q. No. 1 0032001 Right axis deviation is seen in all EXCEPT Option 1 Ventricular septal defect Option 2 Tricuspid atresia Option 3 Pulmonary atresia Option 4 Atrial septal defect Correct Option 2 Q. No. 2 0032002 Cranial nerve not involved in Lateral Medullary Syndrome is Option 1 5 th Option 2 7 th Option 3 10 th Option 4 12 th Correct Option 2 Q. No. 3 0032003 Criteria not included in histologic staging of chronic hepatitis is Option 1 Periportal i nflammation Option 2 Bridging necrosis Option 3 Portal fibrosis Option 4 Cholestasis Correct Option 4 Q. No. 4 0032004 Drug of choice for CMV retinitis is Option 1 Gancyclovir Option 2 Acyclovir Option 3 Cidofovir Option 4 Foscarnet Correct Option 1 Q. No. 5 0032005 Myasthenia gravis is associated with all EXCEPT Option 1 Grave's disease Option 2 Hashimoto's thyroiditis Option 3 Thymoma Option 4 Hyperparathyroidism Correct Option 4 Q. No. 6 0032006 Renal papillary necrosis can be a complication in all, except Option 1 Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria Option 2 Salicylate toxicity Page 1 of 17

RUHS Pre PG 2014 MBBS Section II Question Paper and Answer Key

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Pre PG-2014 MBBSSection-II

Q. No. 10032001 Right axis deviation is seen in all EXCEPT

Option 1 Ventricular septal defect

Option 2 Tricuspid atresiaOption 3 Pulmonary atresia

Option 4 Atrial septal defect

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 20032002 Cranial nerve not involved in Lateral Medullary Syndrome is

Option 1 5 th

Option 2 7 th

Option 3 10th

Option 4 12 th

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 30032003 Criteria not included in histologic staging of chronic hepatitis is

Option 1 Periportal inflammation

Option 2 Bridging necrosis

Option 3 Portal fibrosis

Option 4 Cholestasis

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 40032004 Drug of choice for CMV retinitis is

Option 1 Gancyclovir

Option 2 Acyclovir

Option 3 Cidofovir

Option 4 Foscarnet

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 50032005 Myasthenia gravis is associated with all EXCEPT

Option 1 Grave's disease

Option 2 Hashimoto's thyroiditis

Option 3 Thymoma

Option 4 Hyperparathyroidism

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 6

0032006Renal papillary necrosis can be a complication in all, except

Option 1 Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

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Option 3 Diabetes mellitus

Option 4 Sickle cell disease

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 70032007 The cut-off for diagnosis of diabetes for HbA1c is

Option 1 5.7%

Option 2 6.1%

Option 3 6.5%

Option 4 7.0%

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 80032008 Low T4 and Low TSH levels are consistent with

Option 1 Sick Euthyroid state

Option 2 Central hypothyroidism

Option 3 Hyperthyroidism

Option 4 Subclinical hypothyroidism

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 90032009 All are DPP-4 inhibitors EXCEPT

Option 1 Sitagliptin

Option 2 Vildagliptin

Option 3 Linagliptin

Option 4 ExenatideCorrect Option 4

Q. No. 100032010 All are features of primary adrenal insufficiency EXCEPT

Option 1 Hypotension

Option 2 Hyperglycemia

Option 3 Loss of weight

Option 4 Loss of appetite

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 110032011 Which will give higher reading for blood glucose

Option 1 Plasma

Option 2 Whole blood

Option 3 Serum

Option 4 All are equivalent

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 120032012 GDM is diagnosed if fasting blood glucose as per 2013 ADA criteria is

Option 1 80 mg%

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Option 3 92 mg%

Option 4 102 mg%

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 130032013 Hirsutism can be seen in

Option 1 Polycystic ovary syndrome

Option 2 Prolactinoma

Option 3 Struma ovary

Option 4 Choriocarcinoma

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 140032014 On DXA scan if T-Score is 0.8, patient is said to have

Option 1 Normal Bone mineral density

Option 2 Osteopenia

Option 3 Osteoporosis

Option 4 Osteomalacia

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 150032015 Which is not a component of FRAX score

Option 1 Mother's age

Option 2 Bone mineral density

Option 3 Sex

Option 4 History of RACorrect Option 1

Q. No. 160032016 Histoid hansens is a type of

Option 1 Multibacillary Leprosy

Option 2 Paucibacillary Leprosy

Option 3 Neuritic Leprosy

Option 4 Indeterminate Leprosy

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 170032017 To confirm a dermatophytic infection the following test may be done

Option 1 Tzank smear

Option 2 KOH examination

Option 3 Zeihl Neelson stain

Option 4 Slit skin smear

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 180032018

A 10 year old boy developed an asymptomatic single patch of complete hair lossover the occipital scalp. The skin in this patch was completely normal. What is themost probable diagnosis ?

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Option 2 Tinea capitis

Option 3 Trichotillomania

Option 4 Alopecia areata

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 190032019 Sign of groove is seen in

Option 1 Lymphogranuloma venereum

Option 2 Granuloma inguinale

Option 3 Syphilis

Option 4 Bubonic plague

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 200032020 Pityriasis versicolor is cause by

Option 1 Trichophyton rubrum

Option 2 Malassezia furfur

Option 3 Epidermophyton floccosum

Option 4 Microsporum gypseum

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 210032021 'Luftsichel Sign'on X-ray Chest is seen in

Option 1 Right Lower lobe collapse

Option 2 Middle lobe collapse

Option 3 Left upper lobe collapseOption 4 Left lower lobe collapse

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 220032022 'Pop corn' calcification in solitary pulmonary nodule is a feature of

Option 1 Bronchogenic Ca

Option 2 Hamartoma

Option 3 Bronchoalveolar Ca

Option 4 Granuloma

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 230032023 Investigation of choice for the detection of Bronchiecatsis is

Option 1 High resolution CT

Option 2 MRI

Option 3 Bronchography

Option 4 Multidetector CT

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 240032024 Imaging technique of choice in Coarctation of aorta is

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Option 2 Echocardiography

Option 3 Doppler Ultrasound

Option 4 X-Ray

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 250032025 Which of the following is NOT a feature of Crohn's disease on imaging

Option 1 Cobble stoning

Option 2 Skip lesions

Option 3 Aphoid ulcers

Option 4 Symmetrical involvement

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 260032026 Which type of cerebral palsy is observed as a result of kernicterus ?

Option 1 Choreoathetoid

Option 2 Spastic diplegic

Option 3 Spastic quadriplegic

Option 4 Hypotonic

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 270032027 Which of following is an absolute contraindication of breastfeeding ?

Option 1 HIV infection in mother

Option 2 Galactosemia in baby

Option 3 Hepatitis B infection in motherOption 4 Pulmonary tuberculosis in mother

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 280032028 Antibody to tissue transglutaminase is measured to diagnose which condition ?

Option 1 Cystic fibrosis

Option 2 Inflammatory bowel disease

Option 3 Rheumatoid arthritis

Option 4 Celiac disease

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 290032029

Which drug is the first-line agent to control seizures in a child with statusepilepticus ?

Option 1 Lorazepam

Option 2 Phenytoin

Option 3 Phenobarbitone

Option 4 Valproate

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 300032030 Unilateral small smooth kidney on renal arteriography is seen in

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Option 2 Reflux nephropathy

Option 3 Renal artery stenosis

Option 4 Renal tuberculosis

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 310032031 Which of the following diseases does NOT cause increased bone density

Option 1 Osteopetrosis

Option 2 Fluorosis

Option 3 Chronic hypervitaminosis A

Option 4 Osteogenesis imperfecta

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 320032032

Ketosis with skin manifestations are observed in which of the following type ofmetabolic disorders ?

Option 1 Maple syrup urine disease

Option 2 Isovaleric acidemia

Option 3 Methylmalonic acidemia

Option 4 Multiple carboxylase deficiency

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 330032033

Which derangement in physiological status has been associated withintraventricular hemorrhage in preterm neonates ?

Option 1 Hyperoxia

Option 2 Hypotension

Option 3 Metabolic alkalosisOption 4 Hyperkalemia

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 340032034

Administration of which agent can reduce incidence of bronchopulmonarydysplasia in preterm neonates ?

Option 1 Inhaled steroids

Option 2 Frusemide

Option 3 Vitamin A

Option 4 Zinc

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 350032035

Which of following have not been proven to decrease incidence of necrotizingenterocolitis ?

Option 1 Early start of feeding

Option 2 Administration of prophylactic probiotics in very preterm neonates

Option 3 Antenatal steroids

Option 4 Use of human milk alone for feeding of very preterm neonates

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 360032036 Phenylketonuria is disorder of;

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Option 2 autosomal dominat transmission

Option 3 X-linked genetic disorder

Option 4 Trisomy disorder

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 370032037

Wernicke's encephalopathy is common with one of the following substance ofabuse:

Option 1 Cannabis

Option 2 Heroin

Option 3 Amphetamine

Option 4 Alcohol

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 380032038 In the treatment of delirium, one of the following drug is preferred;

Option 1 Diazepam

Option 2 Haloperidol

Option 3 Chlordiazepoxide

Option 4 Chlorpromazine

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 390032039 The term 'Ego defense mechanisms' was coined by;

Option 1 Sigmund Freud

Option 2 Eric Berne

Option 3 Karen HorneyOption 4 Carl Jung

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 400032040 Cognitive theory of depression was proposed by

Option 1 TS Elliot

Option 2 Aaron T Beck

Option 3 Albert Ellis

Option 4 Carl Rogers

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 410032041 Pheochromocytoma is characterized by all except;

Option 1 Paroxysmal hypertension & headache

Option 2 Anxiety & panic attacks

Option 3 Normal level of Vinylmendalic acid

Option 4 On examination raised BP and tachycardia is found

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 420032042 One of the following drug can cause hypothyroidism;

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Option 2 Haloperidol

Option 3 Lithium

Option 4 Carbamazepine

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 430032043 Which drug does not cause agranulocytosis as side effect;

Option 1 Clozapine

Option 2 Mianserine

Option 3 Haloperidol

Option 4 Mirtazapine

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 440032044 Delayed ejaculation caused by selective serotonin inhibitor can be reversed by;

Option 1 Cyproheptadine

Option 2 Phentolamine

Option 3 Disulfiram

Option 4 Cetrizine

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 450032045 One of the following is a culture bound syndrome;

Option 1 Bulimia Nervosa

Option 2 Koro

Option 3 KleptomaniaOption 4 Trichotillomania

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 460032046

A 65 years old lady presents to the emergency with painless abdominal distensionand absolute constipation. On examination, there are no significant findingsexcept for abdominal distension. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient ?

Option 1 Colon cancer

Option 2 Ulcerative colitis

Option 3 Sigmoid volvulus

Option 4 Anal atresia

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 470032047 Hilton method is commonly used for

Option 1 Treatment of ganglion

Option 2 Drainage of an abscess

Option 3 Excision of a sebaceous cyst

Option 4 Keloids

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 48 P d' f th b t i i i d t

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Q. No. 540032054 Which of the following is a nonbreast disorder

Option 1 Fibroadenoma

Option 2 Tietze's disease

Option 3 ANDI

Option 4 Mondor's disease

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 550032055

A 3 years old, previously healthy boy presents to the emergency with colicky painabdomen, vomiting and constipation. On examination, he is dehydrated, withtachycardia. Examination of the abdomen reveals a lump in the periumbilical area.What is the possible diagnosis ?

Option 1 Pyloric stenosis

Option 2 Appendicitis

Option 3 Strangulated inguinal hernia

Option 4 Intussusception

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 560032056 Advantages of minimal access surgery include all EXCEPT

Option 1 Decrease in wound size

Option 2 Decreased heat loss

Option 3 Improved vision

Option 4 Dependence on hand-eye combination

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 570032057 The anti-thyroid antibody will not be elevated in which of the following conditions

Option 1 Hashimoto's thyroiditis

Option 2 Grave's disease

Option 3 Multinodular goitre

Option 4 Thyroid Lymphoma

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 580032058 The commonest type of hernia encountered in females is -

Option 1 Incisional

Option 2 Inguinal

Option 3 Paraumbilical

Option 4 Epigastric

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 590032059

In a patient of acute abacterial cystitis the most likely underlying causativeorganism could be

Option 1 Mycoplasma

Option 2 Hemophylus

Option 3 Chlamidia

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Correct Option 1

Q. No. 600032060

A 63 year old female patient presents with spontaneous ulceration of the leftnipple and areola complex. Examination does not reveal any underlying mass, andthe axilla is normal. The other breast is also normal, and there is no history ofbreast cancer in her family. What would be your initial diagnosis ?

Option 1 Eczema of the nipple-areola complex

Option 2 Paget's diseaseOption 3 Mondor's disease

Option 4 Benign ulceration

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 610032061 Absolute indication of Caesarian Section is

Option 1 Central Placenta praevia

Option 2 Prior Lower segment Caesarian section

Option 3 Cephalopelvic disproportion

Option 4 Breech presentation

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 620032062 Presentation when the engaging diameter is Mentovertical

Option 1 Brow

Option 2 Face

Option 3 Vertex

Option 4 Breech

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 630032063 WHO modified Partogram charting starts at cervical dilation of

Option 1 2 cm

Option 2 3 cm

Option 3 4 cm

Option 4 5 cm

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 640032064 Sign seen in ultrasonography in dichorionic diamniotic twins is

Option 1 Delta sign

Option 2 Twin peak sign

Option 3 Membrane thickness <1mm

Option 4 Empty delta sign

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 650032065 In monozygotic twins there is

Option 1 Always same sex

Option 2 Always different sex

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Option 4 Always one amnion

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 660032066 HAIR-AN syndrome is seen in?

Option 1 Ovarian cancer

Option 2 Polycystic Ovarian Disease (PCOD)

Option 3 Prolapse uterus

Option 4 Uterine fibroid

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 670032067 The Cut off age limit for Premature menopause is

Option 1 40 years

Option 2 45 years

Option 3 55 years

Option 4 None of the above

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 680032068 The Classic features of Asherman's Syndrome are

Option 1 Triad of amenorrhoea, abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding.

Option 2 Galactorrhoea and secondary amenorrhoea.

Option 3 Oligo-Ovulation and Hirsuitism.

Option 4 Secondary Amenorrhoea and formation of intrauterine synechiae.

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 690032069

The most important and specific single marker for the detection of Down'ssyndrome in 2nd trimester is

Option 1 Thickened nuchal fold

Option 2 Pyelectasis

Option 3 Intracardiac echogenic focus

Option 4 Echogenic bowel

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 700032070 Lovset's Maneuver is used for

Option 1 Delivery of the aftercoming head.

Option 2 Delivery of the arms.

Option 3 Delivery of the buttocks.

Option 4 Delivery of legs.

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 710032071 Surface ectoderm gives rise to all of the following structures except.

Option 1 Lens

Option 2 Corneal epithelium

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Option 4 Anterior layers of iris

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 720032072 Coloured halos are seen in all, EXCEPT

Option 1 Cataract

Option 2 Angle closure glaucoma

Option 3 Corneal edema

Option 4 Corneal opacity

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 730032073 Flurescein angiography is used to identify lesions in all EXCEPT

Option 1 Retina

Option 2 Lens

Option 3 Optic nerve head

Option 4 Iris

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 740032074 Periphery of retina is visualized by:

Option 1 Indirect ophthalmoscopy

Option 2 Direct Ophthalmoscopy

Option 3 Gonioscopy

Option 4 Retinoscopy

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 750032075 Retinal detachment with shifting fluid is

Option 1 Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment

Option 2 Tractional retinal detachment

Option 3 Exudative retinal detachment

Option 4 Traumatic retinal detachment

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 760032076 Peripheral retinal degeneration is most common in case of

Option 1 Myopia

Option 2 Presbyopia

Option 3 Hypermetropia

Option 4 Astigmatism

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 770032077

A lady wants LASIK surgery for her daughter. She asks for your opinion. All thefollowing things are suitable for performing LASIK surgery except:

Option 1 Myopia of 4 Diopters

Option 2 Age of 15 years

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Option 4 Corneal thickness of 600 microns

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 780032078 Arlt's line is seen in:

Option 1 Vernal keratoconjunctivitis

Option 2 Pterygium

Option 3 Ocular pemphigoid

Option 4 Trachoma

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 790032079

A 12 year old boy presents with recurrent attacks of conjunctivitis for the last 2years with intense itching and ropy discharge. The Diagnosis is

Option 1 Vernal conjunctivitis

Option 2 Phlyctenular conjunctivitis

Option 3 Trachoma

Option 4 Viral conjunctivitis

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 800032080 Satellite lesions in cornea is caused by

Option 1 Herpes zoster

Option 2 Herpes simplex

Option 3 Aspergillosis

Option 4 Trachoma

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 810032081 Which form of radiation is most commonly used for cancer treatment

Option 1 Electron beam

Option 2 Neutron beam

Option 3 X rays

Option 4 Proton beam

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 820032082

Which one of the following statements is incorrect about electromagneticradiations

Option 1 They travel with the same velocity in free space

Option 2 Gamma rays are produced by intra-nuclear mechanisms

Option 3 They obey inverse square law in free space

Option 4 Electron beam is an example of electromagnetic radiation

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 830032083

Which one of the following radiation induced chromosomal lesion is considered tobe most important

Option 1 Single stranded RNA break

Option 2 Single stranded DNA break

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Option 4 Double stranded DNA break

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 840032084

Which one of the following radioactive nuclide can be used for both teletherapyand brachytherapy

Option 1 Iridium-192

Option 2 Cobalt-60

Option 3 Radium-226

Option 4 Iodine-125

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 850032085

Prophylactic cranial irradiation (PCI) is used in which histological subtype of lungcancer ?

Option 1 Adenocarcinoma

Option 2 Squamous cell carcinoma

Option 3 Small cell carcinoma

Option 4 Bronchoalveolar carcinoma

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 860032086 All of the following are tests for non organic hearing loss (NOHL) EXCEPT

Option 1 Stenger's test

Option 2 Schawback's test

Option 3 Teal test

Option 4 Lombard's test

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 870032087 Indications for tracheostomy include all EXCEPT

Option 1 Releave upper airway obstruction

Option 2 Facilitate bronchial toilet

Option 3 To reduce dead space

Option 4 Bronchography

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 880032088 Treatment modalities for chronic laryngitis include all of the following EXCEPT

Option 1 Voice rest

Option 2 Antibiotics

Option 3 Speech therapy

Option 4 Endoscopic procedure

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 890032089 All of the following are red lesions of the oral cavity EXCEPT

Option 1 Epulides

Option 2 Erythroplakia

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Option 4 Lichen planus

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 900032090 Which one of the following tumors of the oral cavity is NOT a cystic lesion

Option 1 Torus

Option 2 Mucocele

Option 3 Ranula

Option 4 Dermoid

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 910032091 Movements of the hand does mainly occurs at all of the following joints EXCEPT

Option 1 Carpo-metacarpal of the thumb

Option 2 Metacarpophalengial joints

Option 3 Interphalangeal joints

Option 4 Carpo-metacarpal of the of fingers

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 920032092 All of the following are examples of bursitis EXCEPT

Option 1 Housemaid's knee

Option 2 Weaver's bottom

Option 3 Tailor's ankle

Option 4 Tennis elbow

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 930032093 Involucrum in chronic osteomyelitis signifies:

Option 1 Reactive new bone

Option 2 Piece of dead bone

Option 3 Cavity in bone containing pus

Option 4 Foreign body

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 940032094 Froment sign is positive in palsy of:

Option 1 Ulnar nerve

Option 2 Radial nerve

Option 3 Median nerve

Option 4 Sciatic nerve

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 950032095 What is the vertebral level at the level of spine of the scapula

Option 1 D2

Option 2 D3

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Option 4 D6

Correct Option 2

Q. No. 960032096 First public demonstration of anaesthesia was given by

Option 1 William Thomas Green Morton

Option 2 Horace Wells

Option 3 Edward Gilbert Abbot

Option 4 James Young Simpson

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 970032097 Following agents are useful as preanaesthetic medication EXCEPT

Option 1 Metoclopramide

Option 2 Glycopyrrolate

Option 3 Ranitidine

Option 4 Neostigmine

Correct Option 4

Q. No. 980032098 Following are characteristics of inhalational agents EXCEPT

Option 1 All are true gases

Option 2 All are non ionized

Option 3 Have low molecular weight

Option 4 All are delivered through lungs

Correct Option 1

Q. No. 990032099 Which of the following intravenous agents has intrinsic analgesic property

Option 1 Thiopentone

Option 2 Propofol

Option 3 Ketamine

Option 4 Etomidate

Correct Option 3

Q. No. 1000032100 All of the following local anaesthetic agents belong to amide group EXCEPT

Option 1 Bupivacaine

Option 2 Ropivacaine

Option 3 Prilocaine

Option 4 Tetracaine

Correct Option 4

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