RTM COMPILATIONS PRELIMS 2020 · IA RTM COMPILATIONS PRELIMS 2020 April 2020 INSIGHTSIAS SIMPLIFYING IAS EXAM PREPARATION |

IA

RTM COMPILATIONS

PRELIMS 2020

April 2020

INSIGHTSIAS SIMPLIFYING IAS EXAM PREPARATION

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Revision Through MCQs (RTM) Compilation (April 2020)

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Table of Contents

RTM- REVISION THROUGH MCQS – 1st-April-2020 ............................................................... 5

RTM- REVISION THROUGH MCQS – 2nd -April-2020 ............................................................ 13

RTM- REVISION THROUGH MCQS – 3rd -April-2020 ............................................................ 19

RTM- REVISION THROUGH MCQS – 4th -April-2020 ............................................................ 25




RTM- REVISION THROUGH MCQS – 9th-April-2020 ............................................................. 52

RTM- REVISION THROUGH MCQS – 10th -April-2020 .......................................................... 57







RTM- REVISION THROUGH MCQS – 18th -April-2020 ........................................................ 100














RTM- REVISION THROUGH MCQS – 1st-April-2020

1. With reference to the religious principles adopted by Tablighi Jamaat, ‘Ikhlas-i-niyat’ means: (a) The treatment of fellow Muslims with honour (b) Prayer five times daily (c) Sincerity of intention (d) An article of faith i.e there is no God but Allah and that Prophet

Muhammad is his messenger Ans: (c) Explanation: The Tablighi Jamaat is based on six principles:

• Kalimah, an article of faith in which the Tabligh accepts that there is no God but Allah and that Prophet Muhammad is his messenger.

• Salaat, or prayer five times daily. • Ilm and dhikr, the knowledge and remembrance of Allah conducted

in sessions in which the congregation listens to preaching by the imam, performs prayers, recites the Quran and reads the Hadith; the congregation also uses these sessions to dine together, thus fostering a sense of community and identity.

• Ikram-i-Muslim, the treatment of fellow Muslims with honour. • Ikhlas-i-niyat, or sincerity of intention. • Dawat-o-tabligh, or proselytisaton.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/01/what-is-tablighi-jamaat/

2. Which one of the following statements is/are best describes/describe the “Ways And Means Advances”? (a) The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI)’s long term loan facilities to the

central governments. (b) The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI’s) temporary loan facilities to the

central and state governments. (c) The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI’s) temporary loan facilities to the

commercial Banks and NBFC’s. (d) None of the above Ans: (b) Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) gives temporary loan facilities to the central and state governments. This loan facility is called Ways and Means Advances (WMA).

• When was Ways and Means Advances introduced? o The Ways and Means Advances scheme was introduced in

1997. • Purpose of the WMA scheme




o The Ways and Means Advances scheme was introduced to meet mismatches in the receipts and payments of the government.

• How does it work? o The government can avail of immediate cash from the RBI, if

required. But it has to return the amount within 90 days. Interest is charged at the existing repo rate.

o If the WMA exceeds 90 days, it would be treated as an overdraft (interest rate on overdrafts is 2 percentage points more than the repo rate).

• What is WMA limit? o The limits for Ways and Means Advances are decided by the

government and RBI mutually and revised periodically. For the second half of the 2019-20 financial year, RBI set Rs 35,000 crore as limit for Ways and Means Advances.

• Types of WMA o There are two types of Ways and Means Advances — normal

and special. o Special WMA or Special Drawing Facility is provided against

the collateral of the government securities held by the state. After the state has exhausted the limit of SDF, it gets normal WMA. The interest rate for SDF is one percentage point less than the repo rate.

o The number of loans under normal WMA is based on a three-year average of actual revenue and capital expenditure of the state.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/01/ways-and-means-advances/

3. Consider the following statements about SunRISE mission: 1. The Sun Radio Interferometer Space Experiment (SunRISE) will look

into how Sun generates and releases the giant weather storms, known as the solar particle storms, into space.

2. The findings of this mission would safeguard astronauts from solar storms while they travel to Mars or the Moon.

3. SunRISE contains six CubeSats which will work together as a large radio telescope.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (d) Explanation:

• US space agency National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) has announced that it has selected a new mission to study giant solar particle storms.




• The Sun Radio Interferometer Space Experiment (SunRISE) will look into how Sun generates and releases the giant weather storms, known as the solar particle storms, into space.

• The mission will help in greater understanding of the solar system. The findings would safeguard astronauts from solar storms while they travel to Mars or the Moon, NASA said in a press release.

• SunRISE contains six CubeSats which will work together as a large radio telescope. Each of the CubeSats would run on solar power and would be of the size of a toaster oven.

• Together, these will observe radio images of low-frequency emission from solar activity and create 3D maps to locate the origin place of a solar particle storm on the Sun. The entire procedure of the storm evolution as it moves outward into the space will be studied too.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/01/sunrise-mission/

4. For treating severe and critical cases of COVID-19, Chinese government has recommended an injection of Tan Re Qing, which contains bear bile. With reference to this, which of the following statements is not correct about ‘Bile’? (a) Many waste products, including bilirubin, are eliminated from the

body by secretion into bile and elimination in feces. (b) Bile contains gastric acid, which are critical for digestion and

absorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins in the small intestine. (c) As bile flows through the bile ducts it is modified by addition of a

watery, bicarbonate-rich secretion from ductal epithelial cells. (d) Secretion into bile is a major route for eliminating cholesterol. Ans: (b) Explanation: Here Directive word is Not Correct!!

• Bile is a complex fluid containing water, electrolytes and a battery of organic molecules including bile acids, cholesterol, phospholipids and bilirubin that flows through the biliary tract into the small intestine. There are two fundamentally important functions of bile in all species:

• Bile contains bile acids, which are critical for digestion and absorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins in the small intestine.

• Many waste products, including bilirubin, are eliminated from the body by secretion into bile and elimination in feces.

• Adult humans produce 400 to 800 ml of bile daily, and other animals proportionately similar amounts. The secretion of bile can be considered to occur in two stages:

• Initially, hepatocytes secrete bile into canaliculi, from which it flows into bile ducts. This hepatic bile contains large quantities of bile acids, cholesterol and other organic molecules.




• As bile flows through the bile ducts it is modified by addition of a watery, bicarbonate-rich secretion from ductal epithelial cells.

• In species with a gallbladder (man and most domestic animals except horses and rats), further modification of bile occurs in that organ. The gall bladder stores and concentrates bile during the fasting state. Typically, bile is concentrated five-fold in the gall bladder by absorption of water and small electrolytes - virtually all of the organic molecules are retained.

• Secretion into bile is a major route for eliminating cholesterol. Free cholesterol is virtually insoluble in aqueous solutions, but in bile, it is made soluble by bile acids and lipids like lecithin. Gallstones, most of which are composed predominantly of cholesterol, result from processes that allow cholesterol to precipitate from solution in bile.

•

Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/01/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-1-april-2020/

5. Consider the following pairs with reference to “Commonly used material vs. Unwanted or controversial chemicals found in them”: 1. Lipstick: Lead 2. Soft drinks: Brominated vegetable oils 3. Chinese fast food: Sodium hypochlorite Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only




(b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (c) Explanation:

• Stat1: It is one of the ingredients. www.safecosmetics.org/get-the-facts/regulations/us-laws/lead-in-lipstick/

• Stat 2: Brominated vegetable oil is used primarily to help emulsify citrus-flavored soft drinks, preventing them from separating during distribution.

• Stat3: Sodium hypochlorite is commonly used as a bleaching agent, and also to sanitise swimming pools.

• It releases chlorine, which is a disinfectant. Large quantities of chlorine can be harmful.

• At a much lower 0.25-0.5%, this chemical is used to treat skin wounds like cuts or scrapes. An even weaker solution (0.05%) is sometimes used as a handwash.


6. Botulinum toxins are one of the most lethal substances known which are ingested through improperly processed food. With reference to this, consider the following statements. 1. They are produced under low-oxygen conditions by a fungi

Clostridium botulinum which is highly heat-resistant. 2. The toxins block nerve functions and can lead to respiratory and

muscular paralysis. Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (b) Explanation:

• Stat1: They are a bacterium. So, 1 is wrong. Clostridium botulinum is an anaerobic bacterium, meaning it can only grow in the absence of oxygen. It produces spores that are heat-resistant and exist widely in the environment, and in the absence of oxygen they germinate, grow and then excrete toxins.

• Stat2: Human botulism, caused by ingestion of contaminated food, is a rare but potentially fatal disease if not diagnosed rapidly and treated with antitoxin.

• The growth of the bacteria and the formation of toxin occur in products with low oxygen content and certain combinations of storage temperature and preservative parameters. This happens most often in lightly preserved foods and in inadequately processed, home-canned or home-bottled foods.




• Clostridium botulinum will not grow in acidic conditions (pH less than 4.6), and therefore the toxin will not be formed in acidic foods (however, a low pH will not degrade any pre-formed toxin). Combinations of low storage temperature and salt contents and/or pH are also used to prevent the growth of the bacteria or the formation of the toxin.

Refer: https://www.who.int/news-room/fact-sheets/detail/botulism

7. ‘Hollong’ is the state tree of Assam. Consider the following statements about it. 1. It is a hardwood tree with a tall structure. 2. The Moran tribal community have declared it as their “national tree”. Which of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (c) Explanation:

• Stat1: It is one of the tallest trees in Assam and Arunachal Pradesh, and the state tree of both the states.

• The oleoresin from the bark is said to have medicinal properties. It is mainly used for its timber in constructing houses as it is a medium hardwood tree.

• Stat2: Some time ago, the Moran community — one of the pre-dominant indigenous groups in Tinsukia district (Assam) — declared the hollong tree a “national tree” as a first step to prevent the rampant felling.

• The preservation of the tropical tree is now a mission with the community.

• Parallels are being drawn with the Chipko Movement led by environmentalist Sunderlal Bahuguna to protect the greenery in Uttarakhand.

Refer: https://blog.mygov.in/van-mahotsav-promoting-assams-plants/

8. On a forest campfire, you observe that the Wood taken from a tree nearby initially burns with a flame but later only glows red and gives out heat without a flame. What could be a possible reason behind this? (a) Volatile gases in the wood fuel burn out gradually. (b) The moisture content of wood reduces on burning. (c) It is a gradual chemical change. (d) The latent heat of fusion of the wood fuel reduces afterwards. Ans: (a) Explanation:

• It is possible that a fuel has some moisture content even before burning. Moisture content as such does not increase or reduce flame generation. So, B is wrong.




• Many burning processes may be called as chemical change. Moreover, even after the flame dies out, the process of burning remains as a chemical change. So, C is incorrect.

• When a substance changes phase, that is it goes from either a solid to a liquid or liquid to gas, the energy, it requires energy to do so. This energy is called as latent heat. It is fixed for a certain kind of fuel (in KJ). So, D is also wrong.

Refer: https://science.howstuffworks.com/environmental/earth/geophysics/fire1.htm

9. The natural habitat and breeding ground of Amur falcons, recently in news, is (a) Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) Himalayas (b) Arid regions of Rajasthan (c) Wetlands in Nagaland (d) None of the above Ans: (d) Explanation:

• Amur falcons visit India every year. But, India is their non-breeding ground, i.e. they visit it as migratory birds. The breeding grounds are shown in the picture below.

• • Source: The Centre will develop the Doyang lake in Nagaland -

famous for the world's longest travelling raptors Amur falcons - as an eco-tourism spot.

o Amur falcons come to Doyang every year in millions. They come to roost here during their flight from Mongolia to South Africa, making this beautiful area in India's northeast a bird-watchers' paradise.

o The lake area had come to limelight when two of three falcons, tagged with satellite device in 2013 to understand their migratory behaviour, had returned to the lake twice




after taking rounds from Mongolia to South Africa via Nagaland.

o These two falcons - named Naga and Pangti - have once again returned to the lake in Nagaland this year.

o As per the Union MoEFCC minister, “The world has recognized Pangti village in Nagaland as the world’s Amur Falcon capital, as more than one million birds can be seen in just 30 minutes.”

o Until recently, Naga tribesmen used to hunt thousands of Amur falcons for meat. But last year, after a vigorous campaign by wildlife activists, they pledged to protect the bird and since then, not a single bird has been hunted in the area.

Refer: http://www.worldmigratorybirdday.org/2017/species/amur-falcon

10. Consider the following about Indus Waters Treaty (IWT), the water-distribution treaty between India and Pakistan. Under the Treaty 1. The waters of Eastern Rivers are allocated to India. 2. India is under obligation not to use any waters of the Western Rivers. 3. Construction of water storage structures are banned on Western

Rivers. Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only Ans: (b) Explanation: The treaty was brokered by the World Bank (then the IBRD).

• The treaty deals with the sharing of water of six rivers — Beas, Ravi, Sutlej, Indus, Chenab and Jhelum.

• As per treaty, control over three eastern rivers —Ravi, Beas and Sutlej was given to India. While control over three western rivers — Indus, Jhelum and Chenab was given to Pakistan.

• It allows India to use only 20% of the water of Indus River, which flows through it first, for irrigation, power generation and transport.

• Most disagreements and disputes have been settled via legal procedures, provided for within the framework of the treaty.

• The treaty has survived India-Pakistan wars of 1965, 1971 and the 1999 Kargil standoff besides Kashmir insurgency since 1990. It is most successful water treaty in world.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/02/22/indus-water-treaty/




RTM- REVISION THROUGH MCQS – 2nd -April-2020

11. Consider the following statements about Price Monitoring & Resource Unit (PMRU): 1. It has been set up by National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority

(NPPA), a government regulatory agency under the Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers.

2. It is a registered society and function under the direct control and supervision of State Drug Controller of respective states.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (c) Explanation: Jammu & Kashmir Union Territory has become the 12th State where the Price Monitoring & Resource Unit (PMRU) has been set up by National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA).

• What is a Price Monitoring & Resource Unit (PMRU)? o It is a registered society and shall function under the direct

control and supervision of State Drug Controller of respective states.

o The unit shall be funded by NPPA for its recurring and non-recurring expenses.

• National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority: o it was constituted vide Government of India Resolution dated

29th August, 1997 as an attached office of the Department of Pharmaceuticals (DoP), Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers as an independent Regulator for pricing of drugs and to ensure availability and accessibility of medicines at affordable prices.

o The NPPA regularly publishes lists of medicines and their maximum ceiling prices.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/02/price-monitoring-resource-unit-pmru/

12. Recently Centre redefines Jammu and Kashmir domicile rules opening up various categories of jobs in the region to people from across the country. With reference to this, as per the Changes, who is now deemed to have domicile in Jammu and Kashmir? 1. Anyone “who has resided for a period of fifty years in the UT of J&K”.




2. Studied for a period of seven years and appeared in class 10th/12th examination in an educational institution located in the UT of J&K.

3. Those registered as migrants and their children. Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above Ans: (b) Explanation: What is domicile?

• In law, domicile is the status or attribution of being a lawful permanent resident in a particular jurisdiction.

• As per the Changes, who is now deemed to have domicile? o Anyone “who has resided for a period of fifteen years in the

UT of J&K”. o Or has studied for a period of seven years and appeared in

class 10th/12th examination in an educational institution located in the UT of J&K.

o Or those registered as migrants and their children. o Or the children of those central government officials, All

India service officials, Officials of Public sector undertaking, autonomous body of central government, public sector banks, officials of statuary bodies officials of central universities and recognized research institutes of central government who have served in J&K for a period of ten years.

o Or children of residents of J&K who reside outside the Union Territory in connection with employment or business or for other professional or vocational reasons, but whose parents fulfil any of the conditions provided in the latest gazette notification will also be entitled to domicile status.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/02/jk-domicile-rules/

13. Which of the following is/are true about the guidelines for implementation of Countercyclical Capital Buffer (CCCB) in India as given by RBI? (a) The credit-to-GDP gap shall be the main indicator in the CCCB

framework in India (b) For all banks operating in India, CCCB shall be maintained on a solo

basis as well as on consolidated basis. (c) All banks operating in India (both foreign and domestic banks) should

maintain capital for Indian operations under CCCB framework based on their exposures in India.

(d) All of the above Ans: (d) Explanation: Guidelines for implementation of Countercyclical Capital Buffer (CCCB)




• The aim of the Countercyclical Capital Buffer (CCCB) regime is twofold.

• Firstly, it requires banks to build up a buffer of capital in good times which may be used to maintain flow of credit to the real sector in difficult times.

• Secondly, it achieves the broader macro-prudential goal of restricting the banking sector from indiscriminate lending in the periods of excess credit growth that have often been associated with the building up of system-wide risk.

• The credit-to-GDP gap shall be the main indicator in the CCCB framework in India. However, it shall not be the only reference point and shall be used in conjunction with GNPA growth.

• For all banks operating in India, CCCB shall be maintained on a solo basis as well as on consolidated basis.

• All banks operating in India (both foreign and domestic banks) should maintain capital for Indian operations under CCCB framework based on their exposures in India.

• Banks incorporated in India having international presence have to maintain adequate capital under CCCB as prescribed by the host supervisors in respective jurisdictions.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/02/counter-cyclical-capital-buffer-ccyb-for-banks/

14. Consider the following statements about Anti-smog guns: 1. It is a device that sprays nebulised water droplets into the atmosphere

to reduce air pollution. 2. It can spray water up to a height of 150 metres and the results were

positive as the spray acts like rain and settles dust particles and also PM 2.5.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (a) Explanation: Anti-smog guns:

• Anti-smog gun is a device that sprays nebulised water droplets into the atmosphere to reduce air pollution.

• Connected to a water tank and mounted on a vehicle, the device could be taken across the city to spray water to settle dust and other suspended particles.

• It can spray water up to a height of 50 metres and the results were positive as the spray acts like rain and settles dust particles and also PM 2.5.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/02/anti-smog-guns/




15. Patriot air defence missiles, recently deployed by: (a) China (b) Russia (c) USA (d) India Ans: (c) Explanation: Patriot air defence missiles:

• US recently deployed Patriot air defence missiles to Iraq. • Patriot (MIM-104) is a long-range, all-altitude, all-weather air

defence system to counter tactical ballistic missiles, cruise missiles and advanced aircraft.

• The missile is equipped with a track-via-missile (TVM) guidance system.

• The missile has a range of 70km and a maximum altitude greater than 24km. The minimum flight time is less than nine seconds and the maximum is three and a half minutes.

Refer: Facts for Prelim’s: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/02/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-2-april-2020/

16. Consider the following statements about National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC): 1. It is a statutory corporation. 2. It works under the aegis of Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium

Enterprises. Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (a) Explanation:

• The National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) was established by an Act of Parliament in 1963 as a statutory Corporation under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.

• Functions: Planning, promoting and financing programmes for production, processing, marketing, storage, export and import of agricultural produce, food stuffs, certain other notified commodities e.g. fertilisers, insecticides, agricultural machinery, lac, soap, kerosene oil, textile, rubber etc., supply of consumer goods and collection, processing, marketing, storage and export of minor forest produce through cooperatives, besides income generating stream of activities such as poultry, dairy, fishery, sericulture, handloom etc.

Refer: PIB One-liner facts: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/02/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-2-april-2020/




17. Consider the following statements about ‘Lifeline Udan’ flights: 1. Indian Air Force has launched “Lifeline Udan” flights to

airlift/evacuate stranded Indian nationals, including students. 2. The flights under Lifeline Udan are planned using a hub and spoke

model. Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (b) Explanation: The Ministry of Civil Aviation has launched “Lifeline Udan” flights for domestic and overseas movement of essential cargo. The objective is to ensure unhindered supply of medical products across the country. Major steps taken by the ministry under the Lifeline Udan initiative

• The flights, under Lifeline Udan, are being coordinated by a control room set up under the direct supervision of the Ministry of Civil Aviation leadership.

• The cargo of Lifeline Udan includes COVID-19 related medical equipment, reagents, enzymes, Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), testing kits, masks, gloves as well as other accessories required by Corona Warriors.

• The carriers involved in this initiative include Alliance Air, Air India, Indian Air Force (IAF) and Pawan Hans. Also, Airports Authority of India (AAI), AAICLAS, AIASL, PPP airports as well as private ground handling entities are providing excellent support. Moreover, flights on a commercial basis, private carriers such as Spicejet, IndiGo and Blue Dart are operating medical cargo.

• The flights under Lifeline Udan are planned using a hub and spoke model. Cargo hubs have been set up at Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Hyderabad and Bangalore. The flights connect these hubs and therefrom to different parts of India.

• The North East Region, island territories and the hill states are being given special focus. Lifeline Udan connects North East Region through regional hubs in Kolkata, Guwahati and Bagdogra. These, in turn, are linked to cities such as Shillong, Aizawl, Imphal, Agartala, Dibrugarh and Dimapur using helicopters and turboprops.

Refer: PIB One-liner facts: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/02/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-2-april-2020/

18. Consider the following about the Sendai framework on Disaster management. 1. It is a non-binding agreement on disaster risk reduction. 2. It replaced the earlier Hyogo Framework. Which of the above is/are correct?




(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (c) Explanation:

• The Sendai Framework is a 15-year non-binding agreement on disaster risk reduction.

• It was adopted at the Third UN United Nations World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction held at Sendai, Japan (2015).

• It aims for the substantial reduction of disaster risk and losses in lives, livelihoods and health and in the economic, physical, social, cultural and environmental assets of persons, businesses, communities and countries.

Refer: https://www.undrr.org/news/india-puts-sendai-framework-operation

19. Consider the following about the High Level Political Forum on Sustainable Development. 1. It was a part of the agreement following the Rio+20 Conference. 2. It is a United Nations central platform for the follow-up and review of

the 2030 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). Which of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (c) Explanation:

• HLPF is the most inclusive and participatory forum at the United Nations, bringing all States Members of the United Nations and States members of specialized agencies together.

• The HLPF was part of the agreement following the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development or Rio+20 with the aim to strengthen Sustainable Development governance at the United Nations it has the mandate to:

• provide political leadership and recommendations for sustainable development, follow-up and review progress in implementing sustainable development commitments,

• The forum meets: o every four years at the level of Heads of State and

Government under the auspices of the General Assembly o every year under the auspices of the Economic and Social

Council—for eight days, including a three-day ministerial segment

o HLPF in 2016 was the first since the adoption of the 2030 Agenda and the SDGs.




Refer: https://sustainabledevelopment.un.org/hlpf

20. Gravitational waves are generated by (a) Movement of planets around stars (b) Expansion of the Universe (c) Collision of black holes (d) Fusion processes in Sun Ans: (c) Explanation:

• GW are 'Ripples' in the fabric of space-time caused by some of the most violent and energetic processes in the Universe.

• Albert Einstein predicted the existence of gravitational waves in 1916 in his general theory of relativity. Einstein's mathematics showed that massive accelerating objects (such as neutron stars or black holes orbiting each other) would disrupt space-time in such a way that 'waves' of distorted space would radiate from the source (like the movement of waves away from a stone thrown into a pond).

• Detecting and analyzing the information carried by gravitational waves will allow us to observe the Universe in a way never before possible. It will open up a new window of study on the Universe, give us a deeper understanding of these cataclysmic events, and usher in cutting-edge research in physics, astronomy, and astrophysics.

Refer: https://www.ligo.caltech.edu/page/what-are-gw

RTM- REVISION THROUGH MCQS – 3rd -April-2020

21. Consider the following statements about Financial Action Task Force (FATF). 1. It is an inter-governmental body established in 1989. 2. It is a “policy-making body”. 3. The FATF Secretariat is housed at the OECD headquarters in Paris. Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above Ans: (d) Explanation:

• The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 on the initiative of the G7.




• It is a “policy-making body” which works to generate the necessary political will to bring about national legislative and regulatory reforms in various areas.

• The FATF Secretariat is housed at the OECD headquarters in Paris.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/03/financial-action-task-force-fatf-5/

22. ‘Black List and Grey List Countries’, sometimes mentioned in the news, has been issued by (a) Financial Action Task Force (FATF) (b) United Nations Security Council (UNSC) (c) The International Criminal Police Organisation (Interpol) (d) Both (a) and (c) Ans: (a) Explanation: What is blacklist and grey list?

• Black List: Countries knowns as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put in the blacklist. These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities. The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.

• Grey List: Countries that are considered safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put in the FATF grey list. This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/03/financial-action-task-force-fatf-5/

23. Consider the following statements about National Agriculture Market: 1. It was launched by the Centre in 2015 2. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India

(NAFED) is the lead agency for implementing eNAM. 3. Commodities traded on eNAM incudes – Tomato, Turmeric and

Lemon. Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 Ans: (c) Explanation: National Agriculture Market

• Stat1: E-NAM (National Agriculture Market) is an online trading platform for agriculture produce aiming to help farmers, traders, and buyers with online trading and getting a better price by smooth marketing. It was launched by the Centre in 2015 and the government had to extend it in a phased manner across the 585 mandis of the country by December 31, 2019.

• Stat2: Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing eNAM under the aegis of




Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, Government of India.

• Stat3: https://enam.gov.in/web/commodity/commodity-list

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/03/national-agriculture-market-2/

24. Consider the following statements about Geo-fencing? 1. It is the process of adding geographical identification metadata to

various media. 2. It is used to control and track vehicles in the shipping industry, cattle

in agriculture industry. Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (b) Explanation:

• Stat1: It is a location-based service in which an app or other software uses GPS, RFID, Wi-Fi or cellular data to trigger a pre-programmed action when a mobile device or RFID tag enters or exits a virtual boundary set up around a geographical location, known as a geofence.

• GeoTagging, is the process of adding geographical identification metadata to various media such as a geotagged photograph or video, websites, SMS messages, QR Codes or RSS feeds and is a form of geospatial metadata.

• Stat2: Geofencing isn’t just for mobile apps – it’s used to control and track vehicles in the shipping industry, cattle in agriculture industry and – you’ll see this topic pop up in drone discussions.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/03/what-is-geofencing/

25. Consider the following statements about GRACE-FO mission: 1. The Gravity Recovery and Climate Experiment was a joint mission of

NASA and the ESA. 2. The GRACE missions measure variations in gravity over Earth’s

surface, producing a new map of the gravity field every 30 days. Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (b) Explanation:

• The Gravity Recovery and Climate Experiment Follow-on (GRACE-FO) mission is a partnership between NASA and the German Research Centre for Geosciences (GFZ).




• GRACE-FO is a successor to the original GRACE mission, which began orbiting Earth on March 17, 2002. The GRACE missions measure variations in gravity over Earth’s surface, producing a new map of the gravity field every 30 days.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/03/grace-fo-mission/

26. Which of the following mission/operations is/are India’s Assistance to Maldives: 1. Operation Cactus 2. Operation Neer 3. Operation Sanjeevani Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above Ans: (d) Explanation:

• An Indian Air Force (IAF) C-130J transport aircraft recently delivered 6.2 tonne of essential medicines and hospital consumables to Maldives under Operation Sanjeevani.

• Under Operation Cactus (1988) the Indian Armed Forces have helped the government of Maldives in the neutralization of the coup attempt.

• Under 'Operation Neer' (2014) India supplied drinking water to Maldives to deal with the drinking water crisis.


27. Seaweeds are potential natural fertilizers because 1. They are rich in soil nutrients and amino acids. 2. They are not susceptible to coastal pollution as they are found only in

deep waters. Which of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (a) Explanation:

• Stat1: it contains all soil nutrients (0.3% N, 0.1% P, 1.0% K, plus a full range of trace elements) and amino acids.

• In terms of soil structure, seaweed does not add a great deal of bulk, but its jelly like alginate content helps to bind soil crumbs together.




• Stat2: Several of the 12,000+ varieties of seaweed in the ocean have been shown to be valuable additions to the organic garden and can be abundantly available free for those living near the coast.

• However, caution should be observed when collecting seaweed, particularly from areas that are liable to pollution, such as downriver (including estuaries) of industrial activities as seaweed is susceptible to contamination.

Refer: https://www.sciencedaily.com/terms/seaweed.htm

28. The Agmarknet Portal of the Government of India provides which of the following information to farmers? 1. Infrastructure- related information like warehousing 2. Market – related information like market fee in the mandis 3. Promotion-related information like grading of produce 4. Price-related information about varieties of crops Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans: (d) Explanation: Agmarknet Portal:

• The portal provides easy access to commodity-wise, variety-wise daily prices and arrivals information of thousands of varieties and commodities from the wholesale markets spread all over the country.

• Prices and arrivals trend reports for important commodities, futures prices from Multi Commodity Exchange of India Limited and NCDEX are being reported online on the portal.

• The portal is run by the Directorate of Marketing & Inspection with the technical assistance of NIC as consultant on Turn-key basis. The computer facility has been provided at different markets at grassroot level and connected to internet with DMI Hqrs.

Refer: https://agmarknet.gov.in/

29. You will notice the BIS Standard Mark (ISI Mark) imprinted on certain products. Consider the following about it. 1. The Standard Mark for every product is unique and is notified in the

Gazette of India. 2. The mark on a product conveys that the product conforms to the

relevant Indian Standard certified by BIS. 3. The Licence number given along with the Mark helps in identifying the

unit which has manufactured the product at a specific location. Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only




(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (d) Explanation:

• Stat2: It is a “quality mark” and also has established its brand image for more than Six decades. The consumer as well as the organized purchaser prefers ISI Marked products.

• It is not compulsory for all the producers/manufacturers to follow these standards. It is compulsory for products like switches, electric motors, wiring cables etc.

• Stat1 and 3: Licences to use the standard Mark on large number of products are granted to manufacturers under the Certification Mark Scheme operated under the provisions of the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986.

• Licence number is a seven digit number represented as CM/L -------- is also given along with the Standard Mark, which contains information such a manufacturer location and details. The number is unique and published in the Gazette.

•

Refer: https://bis.gov.in/index.php/fmcs/certification-process/bis-standard-mark/

30. Consider the following about the Himalayan Yew. 1. It is found only in the states of Assam, Meghalaya and Tripura in the

North-eastern India. 2. A unique feature of the tree is that it does not dry up in extreme

situations. 3. Taxol extracted from its bark is used in manufacturing anti-cancer

drugs. Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only




Ans: (b) Explanation:

• The Himalayan Yew (Taxus wallachiana) is a medicinal plant found in various parts of Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh.

• The species is under great threat due to over-exploitation. In the last one decade, thousands of yew trees have dried up in various parts of Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh due to poor drainage, water logging, environmental degradation etc.

• A chemical compound called ‘taxol’ is extracted from the bark, needles, twigs and roots of this tree, and it has been successfully used to treat some cancers – the drug is now the biggest selling anti-cancer drug in the world.

•

Refer: https://indiabiodiversity.org/species/show/258690

RTM- REVISION THROUGH MCQS – 4th -April-2020

31. With reference to National Security Act-1980, Consider the following statements: 1. It was promulgated on September 23, 1980, during the Rajiv Gandhi

government. 2. The person does not need to be charged during this period of

detention. 3. The goal is to prevent the individual from committing a crime. Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above Ans: (b)




Explanation: • Stat1: It was promulgated on September 23, 1980, during the

Indira Gandhi government. • Stat2: The person does not need to be charged during this

period of detention. • Stat3: The goal is to prevent the individual from committing a

crime.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/04/what-is-the-national-security-act-2/

32. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) Article 22 (3) (b) of the Constitution allows for preventive detention

and restriction on personal liberty for reasons of state security and public order.

(b) Under the National Security Act, an individual can be detained without a charge for up to 12 months.

(c) A person detained under the National Security Act can be held for 10 days without being told the charges against them.

(d) All of the above Ans: (d) Explanation:

• Stat1: Article 22 (3) (b) of the Constitution allows for preventive detention and restriction on personal liberty for reasons of state security and public order.

• Article 22(4) states that no law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless: An Advisory Board reports sufficient cause for extended detention.

• Stat2 and 3: Under the National Security Act, an individual can be detained without a charge for up to 12 months; the state government needs to be intimated that a person has been detained under the NSA.

• A person detained under the National Security Act can be held for 10 days without being told the charges against them.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/04/what-is-the-national-security-act-2/

33. Consider the following statements about BCG Vaccine: 1. BCG vaccine is primarily used against Cholera. 2. It is on the World Health Organization's List of Essential Medicines. Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (b) Explanation:




• Stat1: Vaxchora is the only cholera vaccine approved by the FDA. Two other oral cholera vaccines, Dukoral and ShanChol, are available elsewhere, but they require two doses and can take weeks to confer protection, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).

• Bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccine is a vaccine primarily used against tuberculosis (TB).

• Stat2: The BCG vaccine was first used medically in 1921.It is on the World Health Organization's List of Essential Medicines, the safest and most effective medicines needed in a health system.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/04/bacillus-calmette-guerin-bcg-vaccination/

34. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements 1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations. 2. China is the biggest shareholder followed by Japan. 3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (a) Explanation:

• Stat1: AIIB has 97 members and is open to accepting additional members.

• Statt2: The allocated shares are based on the size of each member country’s economy (calculated using GDP Nominal (60%) and GDP PPP (40%)), whether they are an Asian or Non-Asian Member, and the number of shares determines the fraction of authorized capital in the bank.

• China is the biggest shareholder followed by India. o See https://fas.org/sgp/crs/row/R44754.pdf and

https://www.business-standard.com/article/news-ani/india-is-second-

largest-shareholder-of-aiib-piyush-goyal-118062400640_1.html • Stat3: It has members from outside Asia such as Fiji, New

Zealand etc. Membership in AIIB is open to members of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development or the Asian Development Bank. See https://www.aiib.org/en/about-aiib/governance/members-of-bank/index.html

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/04/asian-infrastructure-investment-bank-aiib/

35. Which of the following pairs (Banks/Org’s: HQ’s) is/are correctly matched?




1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank: Beijing, China 2. New Development Bank: Shanghai, China 3. Asian Development Bank: Mandaluyong, Philippines Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 3 Only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above Ans: (d) Explanation:

• Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank: Beijing, China • New Development Bank: Shanghai, China • Asian Development Bank: Mandaluyong, Philippines

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/04/asian-infrastructure-investment-bank-aiib/

36. Consider the following about International Thermonuclear Reactor (ITER). 1. ITER will produce more energy than the energy required to operate it. 2. China and India are some of the countries collaborating in the ITER

project. 3. ITER will be built largely through in-kind contributions from the

participant countries. 4. ITER-India is the first of its kind experimental fusion reactor

technology cell that is hosting scientists from across the globe. Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only Ans: (c) Explanation: International Thermonuclear Reactor (ITER):

• ITER is a step towards future production of electricity from fusion energy. Nuclear Fusion is the process in which the Sun and the stars produce the energy by fusing light nuclei of hydrogen.

• ITER will produce at least ten times more energy than the energy required to operate it. In future demo or commercial reactors based on fusion, this energy can be converted to electricity.

• Stat2: An unprecedented international scientific and technological collaboration representing more than half the worlds human population is presently involved towards construction of ITER. The ITER partners are presently the People's Republic of China, the European Union, India, Japan, the Republic of Korea, the Russian Federation and the United States of America.

• Stat3 and 4: ITER will be built mostly through in-kind contributions from the participant countries (Parties) in the form of




components manufactured by the Parties and delivered/installed at ITER.

• ITER-India is the Indian Domestic Agency (DA), formed with the responsibility to provide to ITER the Indian contribution.

Refer: https://www.iter.org/ https://www.iter-india.org/

37. Which of the following are some of the major textile centres in India? 1. Moradabad 2. Anantnag 3. Shahjahanabad 4. Bankura Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans: (d) Explanation:

• All of the above are major textile centre in India




Refer: http://texmin.nic.in/sites/default/files/ar_12_13_english.pdf

38. The "Hand of God" related to NASA, seen in news few years ago, is actually a/an (a) Pattern of a Group of galaxies that resembles a human hand (b) Image of Pulsar wind Nebula (c) Nickname of the International Space Station (d) Globular Supercluster Ans: (b) Explanation:

• Nicknamed the "Hand of God," this object is powered by the leftover, dense core of a star that blew up in a supernova explosion.

• It rapidly spins around firing out a particle wind into the material around it which was ejected in the star's explosion.

• These particles are interacting with magnetic fields around the material, causing it to glow with X-rays.

• The result is a cloud that looks like an open hand. The pulsar itself can't be seen in this picture, but is located near the bright white spot.

• One of the big mysteries of this object is whether the pulsar particles are interacting with the material in a specific way to make it look like a hand, or if the material is in fact shaped like a hand.

•

Refer: https://www.nasa.gov/jpl/nustar/B1509-pia17566

39. Uri in Kashmir valley (a) Lies to the East of Srinagar (b) Lies to the North of Baramula (c) Located on the left bank of the Jhelum River




(d) Both (a) and (c) Ans: (c) Explanation:

• Uri is located on the left bank of the Jhelum River, about 10 kilometres east of the Line of Control with Pakistan

• 40. The International Centre for Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology

(ICGEB) is a non-profit research organization promoted by the (a) United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) (b) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) (c) United Nations Framework Convention for Climate Change (UNFCCC) (d) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) Board Ans: (a) Explanation:

• ICGEB is an international, non-profit research organization promoted by the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO).

• It is part of the United Nations System.

• It was established as a special project of UNIDO, but it became fully autonomous in 1994 and now counts over 60 Member States.

• It provides a scientific and educational environment of highest standard and conducts innovative research in life sciences for the benefit of developing countries.

• It strengthens the research capability of its Members through training and funding programmes and advisory services. It also represents a comprehensive approach to promoting biotechnology internationally.




Refer: https://www.icgeb.org/


41. Which of the following is/are the salient features of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA): 1. All accounts and records relating to the Scheme should be available

for public scrutiny 2. Social Audit has to be done by the Gram Sabha 3. At least 50% of works will be allotted to Gram Panchayats for

execution 4. At least one-third beneficiaries shall be women who have registered

and requested work under the scheme. Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above Ans: (d) Explanation: Salient Features of the MGNREGA Act: More: https://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/rural-poverty-alleviation-1/schemes/faqs-on-mgnrega/mahatma-gandhi-national-rural-employment-guarantee-act

• Wages are to be paid according to piece rate or daily rate. Disbursement of wages has to be done on weekly basis and not beyond a fortnight in any case

• At least one-third beneficiaries shall be women who have registered and requested work under the scheme.

• Work site facilities such as crèche, drinking water, shade have to be provided

• The shelf of projects for a village will be recommended by the gram sabha and approved by the Zilla panchayat.

• At least 50% of works will be allotted to Gram Panchayats for execution

• Permissible works predominantly include water and soil conservation, afforestation and land development works

• A 60:40 wage and material ratio has to be maintained. No contractors and machinery is allowed

• The Central Government bears the 100 percent wage cost of unskilled manual labour and 75 percent of the material cost including the wages of skilled and semi-skilled workers

• Social Audit has to be done by the Gram Sabha

• Grievance redressal mechanisms have to be put in place for ensuring a responsive implementation process

• All accounts and records relating to the Scheme should be available for public scrutiny




Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/06/mahatma-gandhi-national-rural-employment-guarantee-act-mgnrega/

42. Consider the following statements: 1. Cytokines are small secreted proteins released by cells have a specific

effect on the interactions and communications between cells. 2. In case of any flu infection, a cytokine storm is associated with a

surge of activated immune cells into lungs which results in the excess release of cytokines.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (c) Explanation:

• Cytokines are small secreted proteins released by cells have a specific effect on the interactions and communications between cells.

• Cytokine is a general name; other names include lymphokine (cytokines made by lymphocytes), monokine (cytokines made by monocytes), chemokine (cytokines with chemotactic activities), and interleukin (cytokines made by one leukocyte and acting on other leukocytes).

• Cytokines may act on the cells that secrete them (autocrine action), on nearby cells (paracrine action), or in some instances on distant cells (endocrine action).

• There are both pro-inflammatory cytokines and anti-inflammatory cytokines. There is significant evidence showing that certain cytokines/chemokines are involved in not only the initiation but also the persistence of pathologic pain by directly activating nociceptive sensory neurons.

• A cytokine storm is an overproduction of immune cells and their activating compounds (cytokines), which, in a flu infection, is often associated with a surge of activated immune cells into the lungs. The resulting lung inflammation and fluid buildup can lead to respiratory distress and can be contaminated by a secondary bacterial pneumonia — often enhancing the mortality in patients.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/06/what-is-cytokine-storm/

43. ‘Black Thursday’, sometimes mentioned in the news, is related to (a) The Holocaust during the World War II genocide of the European Jews (b) Attack on Pearl Harbor by Imperial Japanese Navy Air Service (c) Major stock market crash that occurred in 1929 (d) Atomic bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki Ans: (c)




Explanation: • The Great Depression was a major economic crisis that began

in the United States in 1929, and went to have a worldwide impact until 1939. It began on October 24, 1929, a day that is referred to as “Black Thursday”, when a monumental crash occurred at the New York Stock Exchange as stock prices fell by 25 per cent.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/06/what-is-1930s-great-depression/

44. Consider the following statements about National Innovation Foundation: 1. It is an autonomous body of the Department of Bio-Technology (DBT)

under the aegis of Ministry of Science and Technology (MoS&T). 2. It is India’s national initiative to strengthen the grassroots

technological innovations and outstanding traditional knowledge. 3. NIF has set up a Technology Business Incubator (NIF) i.e NIF

Incubation and Entrepreneurship Council (NIFientreC). Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above Ans: (b) Explanation:

• It is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India.

• Set up in February 2000 at Ahmedabad, Gujarat to provide institutional support for scouting, spawning, sustaining and scaling up the grassroots innovations across the country.

• It is India’s national initiative to strengthen the grassroots technological innovations and outstanding traditional knowledge.

• Its mission is to help India become a creative and knowledge-based society by expanding policy and institutional space for grassroots technological innovators.

• NIF has set up a Technology Business Incubator (NIF) – NIF Incubation and Entrepreneurship Council (NIFientreC).

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/06/national-innovation-foundation/

45. Consider the following statements about Artemis Program: 1. It is NASA’s next mission to the Moon. 2. With the Artemis program, NASA will land the first woman and next

man on the Moon by 2024. Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (c) Both 1 and 2




(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (c) Explanation:

• Artemis– Acceleration, Reconnection, Turbulence and Electrodynamics of Moon’s Interaction with the Sun. It is NASA’s next mission to the Moon. Objective: To measure what happens when the Sun’s radiation hits our rocky moon, where there is no magnetic field to protect it. Artemis was the twin sister of Apollo and goddess of the Moon in Greek mythology.

• Significance of the mission: • With the Artemis program, NASA will land the first woman and

next man on the Moon by 2024.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/06/artemis-program-2/

46. A rare and globally threatened species of palm, the double coconut tree was artificially pollinated by scientists few years ago. This double coconut tree is found in India in? (a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (b) West Bengal (c) Kerala (d) Andhra Pradesh Ans: (b) Explanation:

• This is the only double coconut tree in India. • It was planted at the botanical garden in 1894 and the artificial

pollination is a result of decades of work by scientists of the Botanical Survey of India (BSI).

• The Double Coconut tree not only bears the largest seed known to science — weighing around 25 kg — but this unique species is also the longest surviving palm which can live for as long as 1,000 years.

• The palm tree also bears the largest leaf among palms and one leaf can thatch a small hut.




•

Refer: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indias-only-double-coconut-tree-artificially-pollinated/article7310257.ece

47. Soil in boreal forests are generally poor in nutrients due to 1. Deep roots of trees depleting nutrient base of soil 2. Strong leaching of soil for long periods 3. Parent material of soil being deficient in nutrients Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (a) Explanation:

• The species present are able to get their nutrient requirements from the very shallow layer of soil above the permafrost. The trees present have a notable climatic tolerance and survive on rather infertile soils.

• Most of the soils are strongly leached as a result of centuries of leaching and somewhat impoverished parent materials. The soils are generally strongly acid and the main soil process under this dominantly leaching climate is 'podzolisation' leading to podsolic soils.

• The extreme climate coupled with the strong soil acidity means that relatively few organisms exist in the soil and the turnover of organic matter is slow.

Refer: https://storymaps.arcgis.com/stories/a13f8b1fb8a74733ad2ad8b3aba359ea

48. White-bellied musk deer is a popular species found in Uttarakhand in the Kedarnath Wildlife Sanctuary. These deers often move to valleys in




lower altitudes in winter season. What can be a possible reason behind this movement? (a) Exhaustion of food resources in upper reaches of mountains (b) Heavy rainfall in the lower valleys (c) Fear of poachers in upper reaches (d) They start emitting a sweet persistent aroma in winter season which

attracts predators in the upper mountain regions Ans: (a) Explanation:

• Musk deers are solitary animals which roams the high alpine region of the Himalayas at an elevation range of 2,500-5,000 metres.

• But, they are extremely vulnerable during the harsh season. As near freezing temperatures wipe out food sources in the upper reaches, they move to valleys in lower altitudes. So, A is correct

• • There (lower reaches) they fall easy prey to poachers who set fire to

block off their escape route or set wire snares to trap the animal, and then kill them to extract the musk pod. So, C is incorrect

• Carried by the male deer in its abdomen, the musk emits a sweet persistent aroma and is highly valued for its cosmetic and alleged pharmaceutical properties. This fragrance is not emitted only in the winter season, so D is also incorrect.




• Kedarnath sanctuary was set up in 1972 for musk deer conservation, but a lot of issues have arisen due to fund scarcities and poaching of musk deers

Refer: http://forest.uk.gov.in/pages/view/164-kedarnath-wildlife-sanctuary-

49. Which of the following gases contribute to global warming? 1. Methane 2. Water Vapour 3. Nitrogen 4. Ozone 5. HFC-23 Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Ans: (b) Explanation:

• Besides carbon dioxide, other greenhouse gases are methane, water vapour, nitrous oxide, CFCs and ozone. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are man-made industrial chemicals used in air conditioning etc. CFCs are also damaging the ozone layer.

• Nitrogen is not a greenhouse gas, similar to how oxygen is not a GHG, but ozone is.

• India announced that it will eliminate the HFC-23 gas, a potent greenhouse gas with high global warming potential, as part of its commitment to combat the threat emanating from climate damaging HFCs.

Refer: https://ghgprotocol.org

50. Consider the following statements. 1. Acidity of soil can be reduced by adding gypsum into it. 2. Acidity of rainfall can be reduced by the widespread use of natural gas

fuel instead of high sulphur coal in major industrial regions. Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (b) Explanation:

• Some areas apply lime (Calcium carbonate) to increase the soil pH and improve crop yields. But, soils with high pH (basic soils) use Gypum to reduce the pH of the soil, i.e. to make it more acidic. So, 1 is wrong.

• The acidification of soil is caused by:




o acidic precipitation in its true sense, that is H+ ions in precipitation;

o the deposition from the atmosphere of acidifying gases or particles such as sulphur dioxide (SO2), ammonia (NH3) and nitric and hydrochloric acids (HNO3; HCl);

o the application of acidifying fertilizers such as elemental sulphur (S), urea or ammonium (NH+4) salts and the growth of legumes such as clover;

o nutrient uptake by crops and root exudates; o the mineralization of organic matter.

• We can reduce the formation of acid rain by reducing the emission of sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide in the atmosphere.

o We should use lesser fossil fuels; or use less sulphur content fossil fuels for power plants and industries.

o We should use natural gas which is a better fuel than coal or use coal with less sulphur content.

o Catalytic converters must be used in cars to reduce the effect of exhaust fumes on the atmosphere.

Refer: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5032897/


51. Which one of the following article of the Constitution of India provide(s) a unique power to the Supreme Court, to do “complete justice” between the parties? (a) Article 136 (b) Article 137 (c) Article 142 (d) Article 143 Ans: (c) Explanation:

• Article 142 “provide(s) a unique power to the Supreme Court, to do “complete justice” between the parties, i.e., where at times law or statute may not provide a remedy, the Court can extend itself to put a quietus to a dispute in a manner which would befit the facts of the case.

• Article 142(1) states that “The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or order so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order prescribe”.




Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/07/what-is-article-142-2/

52. Consider the following statements about MP Local Area Development (MPLAD) scheme. 1. The MPLADS is a Plan Scheme fully funded by Government of India. 2. The annual MPLADS fund entitlement per MP constituency is Rs. 5

crore. 3. MPs are to recommend every year, works costing at least 15 per cent

of the MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Tribes population.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above Ans: (a) Explanation:

• Stat1 & 2: The MPLADS is a Plan Scheme fully funded by Government of India. The annual MPLADS fund entitlement per MP constituency is Rs. 5 crore.

• Stat3: MPs are to recommend every year, works costing at least 15 per cent of the MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5 per cent for areas inhabited by S.T. population.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/04/07/mplads-suspended/

53. Consider the following statements about MP Local Area Development (MPLAD) scheme. 1. Funds are released in the form of grants in-aid directly to the

designated MPs Bank Account. 2. The funds released under the scheme are non-lapsable. 3. The liability of funds not released in a particular year is carried

forward to the subsequent years, subject to eligibility. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above Ans: (b) Explanation:

• Stat1: MPLAD’s Funds are released in the form of grants in-aid directly to the district authorities not MPs Bank Account. i.e MoSPI disburses funds to district authorities, not directly to MPs.

• Stat2 and 3: The funds released under the scheme are non-lapsable and the liability of funds not released in a particular year is carried forward to the subsequent years, subject to eligibility.





54. Consider the following statements about MP Local Area Development (MPLAD) scheme.

1. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has announced a new scheme "One MP – One Idea" under the MPLADS.

2. Funds for MPLADS can be converged with Mahatma Gandhi National

Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) for creating more durable assets.

3. The MPs are empowered to examine the eligibility of works sanction.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above Ans: (a)

Explanation:

• Stat1: The Ministry of Statistics and Programme

Implementation has announced a new scheme "One MP – One

Idea" under the Member of Parliament Local Area Development

Scheme (MPLADS). Based on the innovative ideas received from

the local people regarding developmental projects, an ‘One MP – One Idea’ Competition may be held in each Lok Sabha constituency annually to select the three best innovations for cash awards on

the specific request of an MP to promote such a scheme in his/her

constituency.

• Stat2: Funds for MPLADS can be converged with Mahatma Gandhi

National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) for creating more durable assets and with National Program for Development of Sports (Khelo India)

• Stat3: The MPs have a recommendatory role under the scheme. They recommend their choice of works to the concerned district

authorities who implement these works by following the

established procedures of the concerned state government. The district authority is empowered to examine the eligibility of

works sanction funds and select the implementing agencies, prioritise works, supervise overall execution, and monitor the scheme at the ground level.


55. Consider the following statements: 1. The European Union is a group of 22 countries that operate as a

cohesive economic and political block.




2. In 2012, the EU received the Nobel Peace Prize for having "contributed to the advancement of peace and reconciliation, democracy, and human rights in Europe.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (b) Explanation:

• Stat1: European Union (EU), international organization comprising 27 European countries and governing common economic, social, and security policies. Originally confined to western Europe, the EU undertook a robust expansion into central and eastern Europe in the early 21st century.

• The EU was created by the Maastricht Treaty, which entered into force on November 1, 1993. The treaty was designed to enhance European political and economic integration by creating a single currency (the euro), a unified foreign and security policy, and common citizenship rights and by advancing cooperation in the areas of immigration, asylum, and judicial affairs.

• Stat2: The EU was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace in 2012, in recognition of the organization’s efforts to promote peace and democracy in Europe.

Refer: https://europa.eu/european-union/index_en

56. You will observe that rainfall generally shows a reducing pattern when moving from equator to the poles. This is due to (a) Change in solar insolation (b) Presence of intermorainal periods (c) Formation of wavy isotherms at equator (d) Movement of Jet stream along the way Ans: (a) Explanation:

• Two patterns are broadly observed. One, rainfall reduces from coastal to interior areas. Second, as mentioned in the question.

• Any moisture-laden winds from ocean will first hit the coastal areas and then interior areas. Moisture would go on reducing as the wind advance further in.

• Poles receive lesser solar insolation, have lesser evaporation and rainfall.

• Reverse is true for equator. So, A is correct. • Jet Streams do not play a significant role here and so Option D can

be neglected.




Refer: https://www.earthonlinemedia.com/ebooks/tpe_3e/atmospheric_moisture/geographic_pa

tterns_equator_subtropics.html

57. Consider the following about polychlorinated biphenyl (PCB). 1. These are classified as a persistent organic pollutant and banned

under the Stockholm Convention. 2. They are declared carcinogens and highly non-biodegradable. 3. They are found only in water bodies and within plant tissues. Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (a) Explanation: Polychlorinated biphenyls were once widely deployed as dielectric and coolant fluids in electrical apparatus, carbonless copy paper and in heat transfer fluids. Because of their longevity, PCBs are still widely in use, even though their manufacture has declined drastically since the 1960s, when a host of problems were identified

• Stat 1: PCB production was banned by the United States Congress in 1979 and by the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants in 2001.

o Generally, PCBs are not very soluble in water, but readily soluble in fats. This solubility in fat explains why PCBs can build up in animal fat and along the food chain.

o But, typically, PCBs are either broken down in the environment by sunlight or by microorganisms. Sunlight plays an important role in the breakdown of PCBs when they are in the air, shallow water, or surface soils. Microorganisms, such as bacteria, algae, or fungi, biodegrade PCBs when found in soil or sediments. So, 2 is partly incorrect.

• Stat2: According to the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), PCBs cause cancer in animals and are probable human carcinogens.

o Typically, PCBs are either broken down in the environment by sunlight or by microorganisms. Sunlight plays an important role in the breakdown of PCBs when they are in the air, shallow water, or surface soils. Microorganisms, such as bacteria, algae, or fungi, biodegrade PCBs when found in soil or sediments.

• Stat3: Many rivers and buildings including schools, parks, and other sites are contaminated with PCBs, and there have been contaminations of food supplies with the toxins. So, they have a much wider area of influence.




• The bromine analogues of PCBs are polybrominated biphenyls (PBBs), which have analogous applications and environmental concerns.

Refer: https://www.livemint.com/Politics/3pMzau0pTJg4DMURooEFII/Govt-bans-manufacture-import-of-toxic-pollutant-PCBs.html

58. If the phenomenon of osmosis didn’t exist which of the following diseases would NOT have been possible? (a) HIV AIDS (b) Cholera (c) Tuberculosis (d) All of the above Ans: (b) Explanation:

• In Osmosis, water will move from its region of lower checmical potential (or concentration) to its region of lower chemical potential until equilibrium is reached.

• At equilibrium the two chambers should have the same water potential. For e.g. If you put a carrot in salty water, the salt water will "draw" the water from inside the carrot thus drying it.

• Chole

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